NDA General Ability Mock Test - 9 - NDA MCQ

Nevertheless indicates a contrast between the exam's difficulty and her high score. The other options suggest examples, reasons, or results.

But shows a contrast between confusing instructions and careful following. The other options imply examples, reasons, or restatements.

The correct answer is "PRQS"

Key Points

• The sentence starts with "Cicero introduced into Latin" (P), which is the main action in the sentence.
• This action is then followed by the subject of the introduction, "the arguments of the" (R).
• The next part of the sentence explains the specific field of the subject, "chief schools of" (Q)
• Finally, the sentence adds the name of the field, "Hellenistic philosophy" (S).
• This sequence of events makes logical sense and forms a complete and coherent sentence.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Correct sentence: P Cicero introduced into Latin R the arguments of the Q chief schools of S Hellenistic philosophy.

One student the reader understands did not really want to meet Partha, that is Shanta.

Refer to the line:

"Get well Soon!" Shanta said, handing Partha a yellow balloon. She was his third visitor. T​hat's because she was his class teacher's daughter, and her mother made her visit him. 

The correct answer is "PSRQ"

Key Points

• S1 introduces the main topic of the passage, which is the Federal Reserve's decision to leave interest rates unchanged and continue its current pace of asset purchases.
• P explains that the central bank's decision was based on continued progress in the recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic and ongoing inflationary pressures.
• S adds that the decision was in line with market expectations and seen as a sign of the Fed's confidence in the economic outlook.
• R quotes the Fed's chairman, Jerome Powell, on the challenges that remain in the economic recovery and the central bank's vigilance in monitoring developments.
• Q emphasizes Powell's statement about the importance of providing support to those sectors of the economy that have been most affected by the pandemic.
• S6 concludes the passage by noting that the Fed will continue to monitor inflation closely and be prepared to adjust its monetary policy as needed to achieve its dual mandate of maximum employment and price stability.

Thus, PSRQ is the correct answer.

Correct paragraph: S1 The United States Federal Reserve has left interest rates unchanged at its latest policy meeting, citing continued progress in the recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic as well as ongoing inflationary pressures. P The central bank also announced that it will continue its current pace of asset purchases, which have been aimed at supporting the economy and maintaining financial stability. S The decision was in line with market expectations and was widely seen as a sign of the Fed's confidence in the economic outlook. R The Fed's chairman, Jerome Powell, stated that while the economic recovery has been stronger than expected, there are still significant challenges ahead and the central bank will remain vigilant in monitoring developments. Q He also emphasized the importance of providing support to those sectors of the economy that have been most affected by the pandemic. S6 In addition, the Fed noted that it will continue to monitor inflation closely and will be prepared to adjust its monetary policy as needed in order to achieve its dual mandate of maximum employment and price stability.

Consequently shows the result of the shop’s closure leading to finding another. The other options suggest examples, addition, or simultaneity.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

• Normative and Empirical Approaches
  • Empirical Approach: This approach seeks to describe and analyze the political world through observed, factual evidence. It aims to be value-neutral and objective, focusing on what is, rather than what ought to be. Empirical political science assumes that facts exist and that these facts can be verified.
  • Normative Approach: This approach deals with questions about what ought to be. It aims to understand the values, purposes, and ethical considerations of politics, thus it is inherently value-laden and subjective.

• Explanation:
  • Statement 1: Knowledge acquired through the empirical approach is not value-loaded; it is intended to be objectively neutral and based on factual, observable evidence.
  • Statement 2: Knowledge acquired through the normative approach is not objectively neutral; it is inherently value-laden and concerned with ethical, moral, and normative questions.

The correct answer is Diamond is hard but graphite is smooth and slippery.
Key Points

• Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon, but they have different structures and, consequently, exhibit different physical and chemical properties.
• Diamond is known for its hardness, making it one of the hardest substances known, while graphite is slippery and has a lubricating feel due to its slippery layers of carbon atoms.
• Diamond is an insulator, meaning it does not conduct electricity. In contrast, graphite is a good conductor of electricity due to its unique structure with delocalized electrons.
• Diamond and graphite have different crystal structures. Diamond consists of a three-dimensional tetrahedral lattice structure, while graphite has a planar hexagonal lattice structure.

Additional Information
Some common allotropes of carbon include:

• Fullerenes:
  • ​Fullerenes are molecules composed entirely of carbon, typically in the form of a hollow sphere, ellipsoid, or tube.
  • The most well-known fullerene is the buckyball (C60), which has a spherical shape.
• Carbon Nanotubes:
  • ​These are cylindrical structures with properties similar to graphite.
  • Carbon nanotubes can be single-walled or multi-walled, and they exhibit excellent strength and electrical conductivity.
• Graphene:
  • ​Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
  • It is the basic structural element of other carbon allotropes like graphite, carbon nanotubes, and fullerenes.
  • Graphene has remarkable electrical, thermal, and mechanical properties.
• Amorphous Carbon:
  • This form lacks a definite, regular structure.
  • Examples include carbon black and charcoal.

The correct answer is Statements 1, and 4 are true; 2 and 3 are false.

Concept:

• Sexual reproduction in plants involves the fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote, which then develops into a seed, eventually growing into a new plant.
• Seed dispersal is a crucial process that helps in spreading the offspring across different areas, reducing the competition for resources among the plants.
• Not all plants reproduce sexually; many plants are capable of asexual reproduction, using mechanisms such as vegetative propagation, spore formation, and more.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is true: In plants, sexual reproduction indeed involves the fusion of male and female gametes, leading to the formation of a zygote.
• Statement 2 is false: The zygote formed after fertilization develops into an embryo. The ovary grows into a fruit and the ovules develop into a seed.
• Statement 3 is false: While many plants are capable of sexual reproduction, not all plants reproduce sexually. Many species also or exclusively reproduce by asexual means.
• Statement 4 is true: Seed dispersal plays an essential role in reducing competition among emerging plants by distributing offspring across various locations, thereby reducing competition for sunlight, water, and nutrients.

Conclusion:​

The correct answer is A - 1, B - 3, C - 2

Explanation:

A. Testosterone - 1. Promotes male secondary sexual characteristics

• Testosterone is a steroid hormone that plays a key role in the development of male reproductive tissues, including the testes and prostate. Beyond its role in the male reproductive system, testosterone is pivotal in promoting male secondary sexual characteristics such as increased muscle and bone mass, the growth of body hair, and the deepening of the voice.

B. Estrogen - 3. Promotes female secondary sexual characteristics

• Estrogen is a group of hormones that are essential for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and the development of female secondary sexual characteristics. There are three major naturally occurring estrogens in women that have significant roles in various bodily functions: estrone (E1), estradiol (E2), and estriol (E3).
• During puberty, increases in estrogen levels stimulate the growth of the uterus and the development of the breasts, as well as the regulation of the menstrual cycle.
• Estrogen also contributes to the distribution of body fat in women, fostering a more rounded body shape, and is involved in the development of a wider pelvis.

C. Adrenalin - 2. Involved in stress response

• Adrenalin (epinephrine) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter that is produced mainly by the adrenal glands. Its primary function is to prepare the body for a 'fight-or-flight' response in times of stress.
• It achieves this by causing an increase in heart rate, expanding the air passages of the lungs, enlarging the pupil in the eye, redistributing blood to the muscles, and altering the body's metabolism to maximize energy availability.
• While not directly related to sexual characteristics or maturity, adrenalin plays a crucial role in helping individuals cope with physical and emotional stress during adolescence a period often marked by significant psychological and environmental challenges.

The correct answer is option 3.

In News

• The Hindu: Wildlife Protection Act empowers CWW to shoot wildlife: Bhupender Yadav

​Key Points

• The Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) is the statutory authority, under the Wildlife Protection Act, who heads the Wildlife Wing of the department and exercises complete administrative control over Protected Areas (PAs) within a state. Every PA is typically classified as a Wildlife Division and is headed by a Deputy Conservator of Forests (DCF). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Chief Wildlife Warden, typically a senior officer in the Forest Service of the state, is empowered with various statutory duties and responsibilities to ensure the effective implementation of the Wildlife Protection Act.

Some of the primary responsibilities of the Chief Wildlife Warden include:

• Management of Protected Areas: They oversee the management of National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves within the state. This involves the formulation of management plans, regulation of tourist activities, and ensuring the protection of wildlife and their habitats.
• Wildlife Rescue and Rehabilitation: The Chief Wildlife Warden is authorized to take measures for the rescue, rehabilitation, and treatment of injured or distressed wildlife. This also includes the power to capture or translocate wild animals if deemed necessary for their welfare or for the safety of human populations.
• Regulation of Human Activities: They have the authority to regulate, restrict, or prohibit human activities within protected areas, including grazing, tourism, and other forms of land use, to minimize negative impacts on wildlife.
• Addressing Human-Wildlife Conflict: The Chief Wildlife Warden plays a vital role in formulating and implementing strategies to mitigate human-wildlife conflicts, which may include compensation schemes for loss of life or damage to crops and property, as well as measures to prevent such conflicts.
• Enforcement of Wildlife Laws: They are entrusted with the enforcement of wildlife laws, including the prosecution of offenders involved in illegal hunting, poaching, or trade of wild animals and their parts. This also involves coordination with other law enforcement agencies.
• Permission for Research and Filming: Researchers and filmmakers needing to conduct studies or shoot films in protected areas require permits issued by the Chief Wildlife Warden, ensuring that such activities do not adversely affect wildlife or their habitats.
• Power to Declare Vermin: Under specific circumstances, the Chief Wildlife Warden may declare certain wildlife species as vermin for a specified area and time period, thereby allowing for their regulated culling to prevent damage to crops or property, as highlighted under section 11 of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
• The position demands a high degree of expertise, dedication, and a balanced approach to wildlife conservation, human welfare, and sustainable development. The Chief Wildlife Warden plays a pivotal role in the conservation landscape of India, working towards preserving the rich biodiversity for future generations.
• Recently, Union Minister for Environment, Forest, and Climate Change Bhupender Yadav has said that there is no need for any amendment in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 to address human-wildlife conflict as the chief wildlife warden was empowered to trap, catch, and, if necessary, shoot wildlife according to the Section 11 of the Act. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The correct answer is A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Explanation:

Fundamental rights are the bedrock of India's democratic framework, ensuring the protection and promotion of individual liberties. The Indian Constitution enshrines several fundamental rights, each addressing specific aspects of personal freedom and equality.

Key Points

• A. Article 14: Provides the right to equality before the law.
  • Article 14 mandates equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to all individuals within the territory of India. It prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, ensuring fairness and justice in legal proceedings.
• B. Article 21: Guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
  • Article 21 is regarded as the heart of fundamental rights as it ensures the right to life and personal liberty. It states that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. This includes protection against arbitrary arrests and detentions.
• C. Article 19: Ensures freedom of speech and expression.
  • Article 19 grants citizens the freedom of speech and expression, along with several other freedoms such as assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession. These freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state in the interest of public order, morality, or the sovereignty and integrity of India.
• D. Article 25: Protects freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice, and propagate religion.
  • Article 25 guarantees individuals the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. It ensures religious freedom while also allowing the state to regulate religious practices to maintain public order, morality, and health.

Additional Information

• Fundamental rights are justiciable, meaning individuals can approach the courts for their enforcement if violated.
• The Constitution also provides for the suspension of fundamental rights during a state of emergency declared under Article 352.
• The judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court of India, plays a vital role in interpreting and safeguarding fundamental rights, ensuring their effective implementation.

Steel is an alloy made by combining iron and other elements, the most common of these being carbon. When carbon is used, its content in the steel is between 0.2% and 2. 1% by weight, depending on the grade. Other alloying elements sometimes used are manganese, chromium, vanadium and tungsten.

The correct answer is Option 1.Key Points

• Abdur Razzaq, a Persian ambassador in the 15th century, praised the fortifications of Calicut (present-day Kozhikode).
• Seven lines of forts surrounded the city, covering both urban areas and the agricultural hinterland and forests.
• The outermost wall connected the surrounding hills and was massive masonry, slightly tapered, without mortar.
• Stone blocks were wedge-shaped for stability, and the inner walls were made of earth packed with rubble.
• Bastions projected outward, with square or rectangular shapes.
• Notably, the fortifications enclosed agricultural tracts, as Razzaq observed cultivated fields, gardens, and houses between the first, second, and third walls.
• Additionally, he marveled at the overall prosperity and thriving trade activities of the region.

Additional Information

• Abdur Razzaq, a Persian envoy in the 15th century, undertook a diplomatic mission to India.
• Additionally, Razzaq visited the Vijayanagar Empire, documenting his experiences in the travelogue "Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul-Bahrain" (The Rising Place of Two Lights and the Confluence of Two Oceans).
• His writings provide valuable insights into the economic, cultural, and political aspects of the regions he explored.
• The travelogue stands as a crucial historical source, contributing to our understanding of diplomatic ties, trade routes, and cultural exchanges between Persia and India during the 15th century.

A greenhouse has (sometimes abbreviated GHG) is a gas in an atmosphere that absorbs and emits radiation within the thermal infrared range. The primary greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere are water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone.

The correct answer is Panna.

Key Points

• Diamond mining was carried out at Panna during the Delhi Sultanate period.
• Panna is a city located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is famous for its diamond mines, particularly the Panna Diamond Mines, which have been operational since ancient times.
• The Delhi Sultanate period in Indian history spanned from the 13th to the 16th century, during which various regions were under the rule of Muslim sultans.
• While Panna gained prominence for its diamond mining activities, other regions such as Khambhat in Gujarat were also known for their involvement in the diamond trade.

Additional Information

• Khambhat
  • Khambhat, also known as Cambay, is located in the state of Gujarat, India.
  • It was a prominent trading center for diamonds and other precious stones during the medieval period, but it is not specifically mentioned in historical records for diamond mining during the Delhi Sultanate period.
• Awadh
  • Awadh, also known as Oudh, is a historical region located in present-day Uttar Pradesh, India.
  • It was known for its cultural and literary heritage but was not associated with diamond mining during the Delhi Sultanate period.
• Lakhnauti
  • Lakhnauti, also known as Gaur, was the capital of the Bengal region during the Delhi Sultanate period.
  • While Lakhnauti was a significant urban center and a hub of trade and commerce, it was not specifically known for diamond mining during that period.

Power  =  voltage * current
Here, power = 100 W, voltage = 200 V 
P  = V*I 
Therefore, 100  = 200  * I 
I   = 100/200 A
I   =  0.5 A

The correct answer is Gupteswar forest

In News

• Gupteswar forest in Odisha's Koraput district has been declared as the fourth Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS) in the state.

Key Points

• The site covers 350 hectares of demarcated area and is known for its sacred grooves traditionally worshipped by the local community.
• The biodiversity inventory reveals the presence of at least 608 faunal species, including mammals, birds, amphibians, reptiles, fishes, butterflies, moths, odonates, spiders, scorpions, and lower invertebrates.
• Notable faunal species documented include mugger crocodile, kanger valley rock gecko, sacred Grove Bush Frog, and various avifauna species.
• The limestone caves of Gupteswar are home to eight species of bats, two of which are under the near-threatened category.
• The forest boasts a rich floral diversity with numerous species of trees, shrubs, herbs, climbers, orchids, and threatened medicinal plants.
• The declaration of Gupteswar as a BHS aims to boost cultural attachment while conserving its precious biodiversity.
• The state government has allocated funds for the preparation of an action plan and awareness-building activities in the local communities for the conservation and development of the site.
• The decision is welcomed by nature lovers, intelligentsia, and the local populace, anticipating benefits in terms of livelihood through eco-tourism and minor forest produce.

The correct answer is 2 only.

Key Points

• The word "Basic Structure" is not mentioned in the constitution of India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The concept developed gradually with the interference of the judiciary from time to time to protect the basic rights of the people and the ideals and the philosophy of the constitution.
• In 1973, in the Kesavananda Bharti vs. State of Kerala case, the Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Constitution Amendment Act by reviewing its decision in the Golaknath case.
• The Supreme Court held that the Parliament has the power to amend any provision of the constitution, but in doing so, the basic structure of the constitution is to be maintained. But the Apex Court did not any clear definition of the basic structure.
• It held that the "basic structure of the Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment". In the judgment, some of the basic features of the Constitution, which were listed by the judges.

The judgment listed some basic structures of the constitution as:

1. Supremacy of the Constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct.
2. Unity and sovereignty of India
3. A democratic and republican form of government
4. Federal character of the Constitution
5. Secular character of the Constitution
6. Separation of power
7. Individual freedom

The correct answer is ​Review the working of Indian universities.

Key Points

• In 1902 Raleigh Commission was set up to go into conditions and prospects of universities in India and to suggest measures for improvement in the constitution and working.
• Endorse proposals for improving their constitution and working, on 27 January 1902 to inquire into the condition and prospects of universities in India, Raleigh Commission was appointed under the presidency of Sir Thomas Raleigh.
• It was appointed by Lord Curzon.
• The recommendations of the commission included regulations for the reformation of Universities, greater representation of affiliated colleges in the senates, and stricter monitoring of affiliated institutions by the universities.
• The commission precluded reporting on primary or secondary education.
• Based on its recommendations the Indian University Act was passed in 1904.

The correct answer is The market mechanism over-produces a good that generates positive externality.

Key PointsAnalysis of the Given Statements

• In reality, the market mechanism often under-produces goods that generate positive externalities, not over-produces. This is because the social benefits of such goods exceed the private benefits, leading to less production than is socially optimal.
  • For instance, education and vaccinations provide benefits not only to the individual receiving them but also to society at large. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
• A cap and trade system for pollution permits allows companies that can reduce pollution more cheaply to sell their extra permits to companies that find it more expensive to make reductions. This system can indeed help achieve a socially optimal level of pollution.
  • It leverages market mechanisms to reduce pollution in a cost-effective way. Hence, the statement is correct.
• The optimal amount of subsidy for an activity that produces a positive externality is indeed the difference between the social and private benefits at the optimal level of production or consumption.
  • This subsidy is meant to encourage the production or consumption of goods that have positive externalities. Hence, the statement is correct.
• Tragedy of the Commons is a situation in a shared-resource system where individual users acting independently according to their own self-interest behave contrary to the common good of all users by depleting or spoiling the resource through their collective action.
  • It is indeed an example of negative externality where individual actions have negative effects on the larger community. Hence, the statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Positive Externalities occur when the consumption or production of a good causes a benefit to a third party. Examples include education, public health initiatives, and research and development.
  • They lead to societal benefits that are not fully captured by the market price.
• Negative Externalities occur when the production or consumption of a good causes harm to a third party. Examples include pollution, noise, and congestion.
  • These are costs imposed on society that are not reflected in market prices.
• The concept of Tragedy of the Commons was introduced by Garrett Hardin in 1968. It highlights the conflict between individual interests and the common good in resource management.
  • This concept is often used to discuss environmental issues, such as overfishing, deforestation, and air pollution.
• Cap and Trade Systems are used to reduce pollutants by setting a maximum level of pollution (the cap), issuing permits for emissions, and allowing companies to buy and sell these permits.
  • It creates a financial incentive for reducing emissions and is a flexible approach for businesses to meet environmental standards.

According to Fleming's Left Hand rule, the direction of force is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field and current. Here, since the direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of motion of electrons, the force is directed into the page. 

Project Aarohan aims to support the educational aspirations of children whose parents work at toll plazas, particularly focusing on those from economically weaker sections. The initiative combines financial aid with mentorship and skill-building workshops to bridge socio-economic divides and ensure access to quality education.

• Kenya is a country in East Africa with coastline on the Indian Ocean. It encompasses savannah, lakelands, the dramatic Great Rift Valley and mountain highlands.
• Capital: Nairobi
• Kenya is bisected horizontally by the Equator.
• Kenya is bordered to the north by South Sudan and Ethiopia, to the east by Somalia and the Indian Ocean, to the south by Tanzania, and to the west by Lake Victoria and Uganda.

Magnesium chloride is the name for the chemical compound with the formula MgCl₂ and its various hydrates MgCl₂(H₂O)x. These salts are typical ionic halides, being highly soluble in water.

The Correct Answer is ​Gujarat.

In News

• Fossils of Colossal Snake "Vasuki" found in a lignite mine.

Key Points

• Scientists unearth 27 vertebrae of Vasuki indicus in India, estimated to be up to 49 feet long, potentially making it the largest snake fossil found, rivaling the Titanoboa.
• Lived 47 million years ago, Vasuki was a non-venomous constrictor with habits similar to modern pythons.
• The mine is located in the Panandhro area of the Kutch district in western India’s state of Gujarat.
• Vasuki, named after the snake king associated with the Hindu deity Shiva, rivals in size another huge prehistoric snake called Titanoboa, whose fossils were discovered in a coal mine in northern Colombia, as announced in 2009.
• Titanoboa, estimated at 42 feet (13 meters) long and 1.1 metric tons, lived 58-60 million years ago. The reticulated python is the longest extant snake, sometimes measuring 20-30 feet (6-9 meters).

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Meanders are sinuous bends or curves in a river channel, which form naturally as a river erodes the landscape in snake-like paths.
• While a U-shaped description is simplistic, meanders are indeed characterized by their winding or bending form, which can resemble a series of U-shapes or large loops along a river course. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• An extremely tight meander, sometimes resembling a neck of a goose, hence termed a gooseneck, is prone to the natural process of cutoff, particularly during floods. This process creates an oxbow lake, which is a U-shaped water body left behind when the river finds a shorter course, bypassing the meander. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Tectonic uplift can indeed influence a river's behavior. When an area undergoes uplift, it can alter the river's gradient, prompting it to carve deeper into its bed rather than meandering across a floodplain. This process can lead to the formation of incised or entrenched meanders, where meanders cut deeply into the underlying terrain. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Meander formation is primarily driven by the lateral erosion and deposition along the outer and inner banks of the river bend, respectively.
• The stream velocity is higher along the outer edge of a bend due to greater water depth, leading to more erosion; conversely, the inner edge experiences slower velocities, prompting sediment deposition.
• Oxbow lakes are important for biodiversity, serving as habitats for various aquatic and bird species, even as they represent a snapshot in the dynamic process of fluvial geomorphology.
• Incised meanders serve as a testament to the river's history, capturing the interplay between climatic, tectonic, and hydrological factors over geological time scales.
• The study of river meanders and their evolution is crucial in hydrology, river engineering, and environmental science, informing flood management practices and river restoration projects.

The lateral displacement of an incident ray passing out of a rectangular glass slab  is directly proportional to the thickness of glass slab, angle of incidence, and refractive index however it is inversely proportional to the wavelength of incident light.