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NEET Unit Test - 3 - NEET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test NEET Mock Test Series - Updated 2025 Pattern - NEET Unit Test - 3

NEET Unit Test - 3 for NEET 2025 is part of NEET Mock Test Series - Updated 2025 Pattern preparation. The NEET Unit Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The NEET Unit Test - 3 MCQs are made for NEET 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NEET Unit Test - 3 below.
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NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 1

Mobilities of electrons and holes in a sample of intrinsic germanium semiconductor at room temperature are 0.36m2/volt-sec and 0.17 m2/volt-sec respectively. If the electron and hole densities are each equal to 2.5 X 1019/m3, the conductivity is ______.​

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 1

Given in question,

Mobilities of electrons μe ​= 0.36×m2V−1s−1

Mobilities of holes μh ​= 0.17×m2V−1s−1

densities of electron= densities of holes=2.5×1019m−3

As we know, conductivity,
σ=1/p​=e(μe​ne​+μn​nn​)
=1.6×10−19[0.36×2.5×1019+0.17×2.5×1019)]
=2.12Sm−1

So the electrical conductivity of germanium is 2.12Sm−1

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 2

One mole of hydrogen gas is heated at constant pressure from 300 K to 420 K. Calculate the energy transferred by heat to the gas

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 2

Explanation:

Hydrogen is a diatomic gas. (C= 3.5R)

energy transferred by heat to the gas

Q=nCPΔT=1×3.5×8.31×120=3490J=3.49KJ

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 3

1 mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed with 3 moles of a diatomic gas. What is the molecular specific heat of the mixture at constant volume?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 3

Explanation:

for monoatomic gas 

 

from conservation of energy

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 4

Figure shows plot of PV/T versus P for 1.00x10-3 kg of oxygen gas at two different temperatures. What is the value of PV/T where the curves meet on the y-axis?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 4

PV=nRT

Hence the value of PV/T where the curves meet on the y-axis is 0.26 jK-1

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 5

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is at an initial temperature of 300 K. The gas undergoes an isovolumetric process, acquiring 500 J of energy by heat. It then undergoes an isobaric process, losing this same amount of energy by heat. Determine the work done on the gas.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 5

Explanation:

At const volume, 

Q = 500 J

Q=nCPΔT

500=1×2.5×8.31ΔT

ΔT=24.06

W=nRΔT=1×8.31×24.06=200J

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 6

A source (S) of sound has frequency 240 Hz. When the observer (O) and the source move towards each other at a speed v with respect to the ground (as shown in Case 1 in the figure), the observer measures the frequency of the sound to be 288 Hz. However, when the observer and the source move away from each other at the same speed v with respect to the ground (as shown in Case 2 in the figure), the observer measures the frequency of sound to be n Hz. The value of n is _______.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 6

Calculation:

For Case 1 :

For Case 2 :

From (i) and (ii)

288 fapp = 240 × 240

fapp = 200 Hz

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 7

Mobility of electrons in a semiconductor is defined as the ratio of their drift velocity to the applied electric field. If for an n-type semiconductor, the density of electrons is 1019 m–3 and their mobility is 1.6 m2 /(V-s) then the resistivity of the semiconductor (since it is an n-type semiconductor contribution of holes is ignored) is close to

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 7

J = neVd
Resistivity, ρ = E/j = E/neVd = 1/ne(vd/E) = 1/neμe
Resistivity, 1/(1019 x 1.6 x 10-19 x 1.6) = 0.39 Ω m = 0.4 Ω m

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 8

Calculate the change in internal energy of 3.00 mol of helium gas when its temperature is increased by 2.00 K.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 8

Explanation:

Helium is a monoatomic gas.(CV = 1.5R)

change in internal  energy 

ΔU=nCVΔT=3×1.5×8.31×2=75J

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 9

Assume following equilibria when total pressure set up in each are equal to 1 atm, and equilibrium constant (Kp) as K1; K2 and K3


Thus,

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 9

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 10

What product are formed during the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride using an electrolytic cell in which electrodes are separated by a porous pot?

I. Cl2(g)
II. NaOH(aq)
III. H2(g)
IV. NaClO(aq)
V. NaClO3(aq) 

Select the correct choice.  

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 10

Cl2(g) is formed at anode and NaOH and H2 are formed at cathode. Since, cathode and anode are separated. Hence. there is no reaction between the products formed at the cathode and anode. 

Note: but these reaction do not occur

Note: NaCl is neutral pH = 7 initially. After electrolysis , NaOH is formed

Hence, solution become, basic pH >7

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 11

When hydrochloric acid is added to cobalt (II) nitrate solution at room temperature, the following reaction takes place

Q. The solution is blue at room temperature. However, it turns pink when cooled in a freezing mixture. Based upon this information, which of the following expression is correct for the forward reaction?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 11


According to the given information, the solution turns pink when cooled in freezing mixture. So, the equilibrium has shifted in backward direction. So we can say that the reaction is endothermic and ∆H for the reaction is greater than zero. This is because, endothermic reactions have ∆H > 0 and they proceed in reverse direction. 

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 12

For the redox reaction,
MnO4 + C2O4 2– + H+ → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 12

The correct balanced equation is
2MnO4 + 5C2O4 2– + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 13

 In a sample of pure water, only one of the following statements is always true at all conditions of temperature and pressure.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 13

The correct answer is Option D.
The concentration of OH- will always equal the concentration of H3O+.
PV = nRT, where R is a constant, and n is the quantity of gas measured in mols. The pH of a substance is related to the concentration of H+,
so if we raise or lower the Temperature or Pressure of pure water, we will alter the Volume (or concentration) of H3O+ and OH- ions. As we alter the concentrations we alter the pH and pOH. The only answer that is true no matter what the volume or concentration may be is D
 

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 14

Which of the following processes does not involve either oxidation or reduction?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 14

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 15

Of the following reactions, only one is a redox reaction. Identify it

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 15

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 16

The notation p and q of the Hardy Weinberg equation represent ________ of a diploid organism.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 16

Individual frequencies can be represented as p and q. But for a diploid organism, p and q explain the frequency of allele A and allele a. p2 represents AA whereas q2 represent aa.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 17
What is the role of atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) secreted by the heart?
Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 17
ANF, secreted by the atrial walls of the heart, acts to decrease blood pressure by dilating blood vessels and promoting sodium and water excretion.
NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 18

Which of the following factors influence the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
i. Gene migration
ii. Genetic drift
iii. Mutation
iv. Reproduction
v. Genetic recombination

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 18

The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allelic and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences. There are five factors which are known to affect the equilibrium. These are gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and natural selection. In population genetics, gene flow (also known as gene migration) is the transfer of alleles or genes from one population to another. Migration into or out of a population may be responsible for a marked change in allele frequencies (the proportion of members carrying a particular variant of a gene). Genetic drift (also known as allelic drift) is the change in the frequency of a gene variant (allele) in a population due to chance events. Genetic recombination is the production of offspring with combinations of traits that differ from those found in either parent. Mutation causes variations in the species, which influences the gene pool. Natural selection favours certain variations over others, resulting in an increase in allelic frequency of the favourable variations in the gene pool. Reproduction is a natural process in all organisms, which as such, does not affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium; it would be the genetic recombinations that arise from sexual reproduction, that affect it.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 19

What can you infer about the structures shown in figure?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 19

Given figures represent the forelimbs of different vertebrates, which possess the same basic structural plan, i.e., in each case, the forelimb consists of humerus, radio-ulna, carpals, metacarpals and digits. Thus, the skeletal parts of these forelimbs are similar in structure and arrangement, but have different shapes and functions. It depicts the example of homologous structures.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 20

Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 20

A. Beta diversity - Between community diversity
B. Rich biodiversity - Tropical areas
C. Gamma diversity - Diversity of whole geographical region
D. Extinct species - Dodo
E. Critically endangered species - Great Indian bustard

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 21

First 'Earth Summit' for Convention on Biological Diversity' (CBD) was held at

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 21

Earth summit at Rio de Jenerio (1992), Brazil promoted Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) which was signed by 152 nations. Its recommendations came into effect on 29th Dec. 1993. India became a party to this Convention on Biological Diversity in May, 1994.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 22

What does the shape of the given age pyramids reflects about the growth status of the related population?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 22

Triangular age pyramid has high proportion of reproductive individuals, moderate number of reproductive individuals and fewer post-reproductive individuals. It represents young or rapidly growing population.

In urn-shaped age pyramid, the number of reproductive individuals is higher than the number of pre-reproductive individuals. It represents declining or diminishing population with negative growth

In bell-shaped age pyramid, the number of pre-reproductive and reproductive individuals is almost equal. Post reproductive individuals are comparatively fewer. It represents stable or stationary population where growth rate is nearly zero.

Topic in NCERT: Age Pyramids and Population Growth Status

Line in NCERT: "The shape of the pyramids reflects the growth status of the population - (a) whether it is growing, (b) stable or (c) declining."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 23

In a given population of 2000 individuals, 80 births and 125 deaths were reported over a given period of time. Which of the following graphs will correspond to it?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 23

Number of deaths is more than the number of births, showing a declining population.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 24

Study the food web given below and answer the questions that follow.

Which of the following organisms in the given food web acts as a secondary consumer?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 24

In the given food web, organisms I (phytoplanktons) act as producers, organisms II, V and VII act as primary consumers as they feed on producers, organisms III and VI act as secondary consumers as they upon primary consumers, and organism IV acts as a tertiary consumer.

Topic in NCERT: Trophic Levels in an Ecosystem

Line in NCERT: "Those animals that depend on the primary carnivores for food are labelled secondary carnivores."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 25

Assertion (A): Nutrient cycling includes both gaseous and sedimentary cycles, which play crucial roles in ecosystem health.

Reason (R): The gaseous cycle relies solely on the atmosphere as its reservoir, while the sedimentary cycle depends on the Earth's crust.

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 25

 

- Assertion Evaluation: The assertion is true because nutrient cycling indeed comprises both gaseous (e.g., carbon cycle) and sedimentary (e.g., phosphorus cycle) types, and both are essential for maintaining ecosystem stability.

- Reason Evaluation: The reason is also true as it accurately describes the reservoirs for both cycles; however, it does not explain why both cycles are crucial for ecosystem health or how they interact.

- Conclusion: Since both the assertion and reason are true but the reason does not serve as the correct explanation for the assertion, the correct answer is Option B.

 

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 26

In a laboratory population of fruit flies, if 4 individuals died during a specified time interval and the population had 40 fruit flies, what is the death rate?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 26

In the given scenario, the laboratory population of fruit flies consists of 40 fruit flies, and during a specified time interval, 4 individuals died. To calculate the death rate, we divide the number of deaths by the total population.

Number of deaths = 4
Total population = 40

Death rate = Number of deaths / Total population
= 4 / 40
= 0.1 individuals per fruitfly per week

Option a) "0.1 individuals per fruitfly per week" is the correct answer because it accurately represents the death rate calculated based on the given information.

Topic in NCERT: Population Dynamics

Line in NCERT: "If 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruitflies died during a specified time interval, say a week, the death rate in the population during that period is 4/40 = 0.1 individuals per fruitfly per week."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 27

Hugo de Vries did an experiment on which plant to prove mutation theory?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 27

  • Hugo de Vries proved mutation theory by doing experiments on Oenothera lamarckian, also known as evening primrose.
  • It was from this plant; he came up with the observations.
  • It is a complex heterozygous plant with a chromosomal aberration.

Topic in NCERT: MECHANISM OF EVOLUTION

Line in NCERT: "In the first decade of twentieth century, Hugo deVries based on his work on evening primrose brought forth the idea of mutations - large difference arising suddenly in that differ from other breeds."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 28

Which one of the following fish is being illegally introduced for aquaculture purposes and is posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes of Indian rivers?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 28

Clarias gariepinus, the African catifish has been illegally introduced for aquaculture in India. It is threatening native catfishes of Indian rivers.

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 29

Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing nonliving organic molecules?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 29

According to Oparin-Haldane theory, life originated through bio-chemical processes of atoms that combined to form molecules. Molecules in turn reacted to produce inorganic and organic compounds. Organic compounds interacted to produce all types of macromolecules which organised to form the first form of life or cells.

Topic in NCERT: Origin of life

Line in NCERT: "oparin of russia and haldane of england proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. rna, protein, etc.) and that formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e., formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents."

NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 30

The following are some major events in the early history of life
P. First heterotrophic prokaryotes
Q. First genes
R. First eukaryotes
S. First autotrophic prokaryotes
T. First animals
Which option below places these events in the correct order?

Detailed Solution for NEET Unit Test - 3 - Question 30

Organisms have evolved from simpler forms to complex form. Hence the order of the events are genes first, then heterotrophic prokaryotes, then autotrophic prokaryotes, then eukaryotes and then animals.

Topic in NCERT: Evolution of life forms - a theory

Line in NCERT: Error occcured while getting response from embedding

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