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PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Insurance Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test PFRDA Assistant Manager Mock Test Series 2025 - PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1)

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) for Insurance Exams 2025 is part of PFRDA Assistant Manager Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) questions and answers have been prepared according to the Insurance Exams exam syllabus.The PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) MCQs are made for Insurance Exams 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) below.
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PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 1

Directions: In the question given below there are two statements, each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fits both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct. 

I. Even though weather conditions were ________ for executing the project, sheer ________ coupled with a laidback attitude led to an opportunity being wasted.

II. The ________ treatment given to corporate agriculture and a culture of ________ and disregard for small farmers is killing India's agricultural sector, and killing the farmers themselves. 

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 1

Option A: Both the words are opposite of what is needed the respective blanks.

Option B: energy does not fit in both the statements.

Option C: Both the words are irrelevant to the context and incorrect.

Option D: Both the words are correct contextually and grammatically.

Hence, option D is correct. 

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 2

Direction: In each of the questions given below, a paragraph is given which has some blanks and those blanks have to be filled with the same word out of five words given below it. You have to choose that same word as your answer and fill up the blanks with that appropriate word. 

____________ people hardly find it difficult to manage multiple things in life simultaneously but normal people suffer in such situations. That is one trait that makes the ____________ persons different from the rest of the lot though other qualities also should be taken into account. That is why people are mostly envious of ____________ people as they will never be able to match their caliber. 

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 2

The given paragraph is regarding a certain kind of people who have certain qualities in themselves and that is why a lot of people are envious of them. There are certain qualities that make them apart from the normal people.  Now coming to the given words in options, lucid means expressed clearly whereas sterile refers to barren or impotent.

Therefore these two words can be eliminated from consideration. There is only one word that can fit in all the three blanks in the paragraph i.e. successful. This will make all the three blanks meaningful.  

This makes Option C the correct choice among the given options. 

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 3

Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 words given in underlined and each of these words is represented by a letter. For each word four alternative words are given as options A, B, C and D. You have to find which word among the options best replaces the already given word. 

SCULPTURE is by tradition a public art, and after a period of alienation and private ownership and display, the issue of its significance and function in society has become (A) obnoxious again. Besides, the (B) devouring of empty space in urban households with the rapid growth of high-rise buildings has crucially driven sculptures out of the indoor (C) thwart. Even those works that are not intended for the outdoors provide a set of sculptural quality and look splendid in the open air and (D) among nature.

A grand display of public art helps create a community identity and appreciation for art among the Sydneysiders and (E) abide in children a heartening curiosity for art. Sculptures of such diverse kinds in such a scenic natural environment can communicate many things and generate thinking and imagination.

Q. Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank (C)

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 3

Refer to:

“Besides, the devouring of empty space in urban households with the rapid growth of high-rise buildings has crucially driven sculptures out of the indoor (C) thwart.”

Let’s have a look at the word which is given at position (C):

Thwart (Verb) - means prevent (someone) from accomplishing something. This is unsuitable as the sentence talks about the indoor area of a building. So, the required word must mean the same as an area of house or building. Hence, it is eliminated.

Let’s consider all the words one-by-one and their meanings too:

Spike (Verb) - means impale on or pierce with a sharp point. This is inappropriate with respect to the context. Hence, it is eliminated.

Queer (Adjective) - means strange; odd. This does not match the requirement of the context. Hence, it is eliminated.

Premises (Noun) - means a house or building, together with its land and outbuildings, occupied by a business or considered in an official context. This is closest in meaning.

It has been clearly stated about the sculptures being driven out of indoor which emphasizes about an area is being considered. Hence, it is the correct option.

Scupper (Noun) - means prevent from working or succeeding. There is no such requirement as the context is not demanding it. Hence, it is also eliminated.

So, option D is correct. 

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 4

Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 words given in underlined and each of these words is represented by a letter. For each word four alternative words are given as options A, B, C and D. You have to find which word among the options best replaces the already given word. 

SCULPTURE is by tradition a public art, and after a period of alienation and private ownership and display, the issue of its significance and function in society has become (A) obnoxious again. Besides, the (B) devouring of empty space in urban households with the rapid growth of high-rise buildings has crucially driven sculptures out of the indoor (C) thwart. Even those works that are not intended for the outdoors provide a set of sculptural quality and look splendid in the open air and (D) among nature.

A grand display of public art helps create a community identity and appreciation for art among the Sydneysiders and (E) abide in children a heartening curiosity for art. Sculptures of such diverse kinds in such a scenic natural environment can communicate many things and generate thinking and imagination.

Q. Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank (A)

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 4

Refer to:

”SCULPTURE is by tradition a public art, and after a period of alienation and private ownership and display, the issue of its significance and function in society has become (A) obnoxious again.”

Let’s have a look at the word which is given at position (A):

Obnoxious (Adjective) - means extremely unpleasant. This does not match the requirement as the sentence talks about how due to some reasons the importance of sculpture has become relevant again. So, the word Obnoxious is not at all contextual with reference to the paragraph. Hence, it is eliminated.

Let’s consider all the words one-by-one and their meanings too:

Pertinent (Adjective) -means relevant or applicable to a particular matter. This is closest in meaning as the sentence talks about the art SCULPTURE with reference to the period of alienation it faced and later specifies how its significance has been returning again in the society. So, the required word must mean the same as relevant. Hence, it is the correct option.

(Kindly give space between two sentences.)

Plagued (Adjective) -means continually troubled or distressed about something. There is no mention of any distress in the passage. Hence, it is eliminated.

Pliable (Adjective) - means easily influenced. This is inappropriate as it doesn’t fit to the context of the sentence. Hence, it is eliminated.

Atrocious (Adjective) - means horrifyingly wicked. This is unsuitable as nothing is mentioned related to fear. Hence, it is eliminated too.

So, option A is correct. 

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 5

Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 words given in underlined and each of these words is represented by a letter. For each word four alternative words are given as options A, B, C and D. You have to find which word among the options best replaces the already given word. 

SCULPTURE is by tradition a public art, and after a period of alienation and private ownership and display, the issue of its significance and function in society has become (A) obnoxious again. Besides, the (B) devouring of empty space in urban households with the rapid growth of high-rise buildings has crucially driven sculptures out of the indoor (C) thwart. Even those works that are not intended for the outdoors provide a set of sculptural quality and look splendid in the open air and (D) among nature.

A grand display of public art helps create a community identity and appreciation for art among the Sydneysiders and (E) abide in children a heartening curiosity for art. Sculptures of such diverse kinds in such a scenic natural environment can communicate many things and generate thinking and imagination.

Q. Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank (B)

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 5

Refer to: “Besides, the (B) devouring of empty space in urban households with the rapid growth of high-rise buildings has crucially driven sculptures out of the indoor thwart. ”

Let’s have a look at the word which is given at position (B):

Devouring (Verb) - means being totally absorbed by a powerful feeling. This is closest in meaning as the sentence talks about how people like the open spaces due to which the sculpture has been driven out. It also states about the rapid growth of high rise building which can be seen as a sign of negligence towards sculptures and its feelings. So, the required word must mean the same as having a particular feeling.

Hence, it is the correct option.

Let’s check the meanings of other words too:

Mobilizing (Verb) -means bringing (resources) into use for a particular purpose. There is no mention of resources and their usage. Hence, it is eliminated.

Please give space between two sentences. 

Abduction (Noun) - means the action of forcibly taking someone away against their will. There is no mention of such an action which is taken against anyone’s will. Hence, it is eliminated.

Badgering (Verb) - means repeatedly asking (someone) to do something; pestering. This is inappropriate to the context. Hence, it is eliminated.

Succumbing (Verb) - means failing to resist pressure, temptation, or some other negative force. This does not match the requirement. Hence, it is also eliminated.

So, option D is correct. 

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 6

Directions: In the question given below, a sentence has been broken down into four fragments labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D) and arranged, not necessarily in the correct order. You have to find the correct order of arrangement from the options given below. 
Indian masses, facing high inflation (A) / had pinned high hopes on the budget, (B) / as well as alarming unemployment rates, (C) / but the annual exercise has let them down (D)

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 6

If we read all the fragments, we can infer that they are not in a correct order which helps in eliminating option E.

Now, if we explore other options, we can clearly say that fragment A is the only opening statement we have because in all the other fragments we have 'but', 'had' and 'as' which eliminates their possibilities of being the opening statement.

Also, fragment C will follow fragment A because in A there is mention of 'inflation' which is a problem and that has created another problem of 'unemployment' mentioned in fragment C. Then to tackle these, people had 'hopes' mentioned in fragment B, so, B will follow C. Lastly, fragment D will be placed at last because all their hopes were shattered.

Thus, we get the final arrangement: ACBD

And the correct sequence will be –

Indian masses, facing high inflation as well as alarming unemployment rates, had pinned high hopes on the budget, but the annual exercise has let them down.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 7

Directions: Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given beside.
A. It appears that one of the lessons New Delhi learnt from the standoff with China along the Line of Actual Control in 2020 was that it was perhaps a consequence of India’s growing proximity to the U.S.

B. New Delhi has had a complicated relationship with Washington which is increasingly getting normalised and interests-driven.

C. Or, should India continue the strategic partnership with the U.S. irrespective of what China thinks about it?

D. Despite its withdrawal from the region, Washington is seeking to re-engage southern Asia (Pakistan, South Asia in general, the Indo-Pacific, and perhaps even the Taliban).

E. If so, should New Delhi temper its relations with the U.S., particularly in the Indo-Pacific, in the hope that this will keep Beijing’s aggression at bay?

What will be the position of statement C after the rearrangement of sentences?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 7

The correct sequence of the sentences will be: BDAEC

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Common Explanation:

The passage is about the relationship between Washington and New Delhi. The first statement will be statement B which mentions that they have a complicated relationship and it is increasingly getting interests-driven. Statement D will be the next statement as it mentions that even though Washington has withdrawn from the Southern Asian region, it is trying to re-engage. The next statement will be statement A which mentions that the reason for standoff with China was probably the proximity with the US.

The next statements present a choice for India. Statement E mentions that if the stated reason is true, should India change its relations with the US to keep things normal with China. The next statement will be statement C which mentions the other course of action that India may continue the strategic partnership with the US irrespective of China.

The correct sequence of the sentences will be: BDAEC

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 8

Directions: In each of the questions below, a sentence has been broken into four parts with one word highlighted in underline in each fragment. From the given options, identify the word which expresses a meaning opposite to the given sentence, with the highlighted word replaced by a word of the opposite meaning.

Over-optimistic bankers and (A)/ slowdown in government decison-making process (B)/ contributed to the (C)/ mounting bad loans.(D)

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 8

All the given options represent synonyms of those bold ones.

Therefore none of the words from the given options can be used to change the meaning of the given sentence.

New Sentence - Over-sanguine bankers and retardation in government decison-making process lead to the rising bad loans.
Hence option E is the correct answer.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 9

Direction: In the paragraph below there are five sentences. In each sentence there are pairs of highlighted in underline words (A, B). Select the most appropriate words to form correct sentences. Then from the options given select the correct option. 

The Nobel Prize for Chemistry this year is a A) tribute B) retribution to the power of evolution. The laureates A) hated B) harnessed evolution and used it in the laboratory with amazing results. Frances H. Arnold, an American who was given one-half of the prize, used ‘directed evolution’ to A) synthesize B) called variants of naturally occurring enzymes that could be used to manufacture biofuels and pharmaceuticals. The other half went to George P. Smith, also of the U.S., and Sir Gregory P. Winter, from the U.K., who evolved antibodies to A) combat B) confuse autoimmune diseases and even metastatic cancer through a process called phage display. The prizes reaffirm the A) execution B) importance of the concept of evolution in our understanding of life as among the most profound of forces we are exposed to. 

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 9

For blank I, it should be tribute since it correctly explains that the Nobel Prize has been given to recognize the importance of the works done by the scientists. Retribution refers to punishment inflicted on someone as vengeance for a wrong or criminal act. 

Coming to Blank II, hated can be ruled out since it does not make any sense in the given context but harnessed should be used in order to imply that the scientists did research regarding the evolution. 

Blank III can be filled with synthesize since it correctly explains the meaning of the research carried out by the scientists. The other word is simply irrelevant in the context of the passage.

Blank IV should be filled with A since we are talking about research that has been successful to address the needs of the human beings in addressing various diseases. B can be ruled out easily as the correct option since it is not making any sense in the given context.

Blank V can be filled with B only since the passage talks about the importance accorded to the research works of the scientists who have been awarded with the Nobel Prize in chemistry this year.  This makes the correct combination as ABAAB  

Hence, option C is the correct choice among the given options. 

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 10

This girl / wrote an essay / so well that / her teacher was exceedingly pleased with her.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 10

Substitute, 'an' by 'the'.
The sentence lays emphasis on essay.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 11

There are three filling pipes A, B and C fill the tank in 12 hours, 20 hours and 18 hours respectively. They opened for alternate hours in the order of A, C and B and on every 5th-hour pipe D which is an emptying pipe is opened alone. Pipe A and C working at 4/5th of their actual speed and pipe B is at 2/3rd of its actual speed so in this manner tank is filled in 26 hours 40 minutes. Find the time taken by pipe D alone to empty the tank whose capacity is 150% more than the actual capacity of the tank?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 11
Let the capacity of tank = 180 litres

So efficiency of A = 180/12 = 15 litres/hour

Efficiency of B = 180/20 = 9 litres/hour

Efficiency of C = 180/18 = 10 litres/hour

Let efficiency of pipe D = - d litres/hour

A and C working at 4/5th rate while B at 2/3rd rate

Amount of water filled in first five hours (A, C, B, A and D) = (12 + 8 + 6 + 12 – d) = (38 – d) litres

Amount of water filled in next five hour (C, B, A, C, D) = (8 + 6 + 12 + 8 – d) = (34 – d) litres

Amount of water filled in next 5 hours (B, A, C, B, D) = (6 + 12 + 8 + 6 – d) = (32 – d) litres

After that pattern will be repeated,

So amount of water filled in 25 hours = (38 – d) + (34 – d) + (32 – d) + (38 – d) + (34 – d)

For 26th hour B will work and for next 40 minutes A will work,

So, (176 – 5d) + 6 + 12 x 2/3 = 180

190 – 5d = 180

So, d = 2 litres/ hour

Time taken by D to empty the tank which is 150% more than actual capacity of tank = (250% x 180)/2 = 225 hours

Hence answer is option C

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 12

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The Bar graph given below shows the % distribution of the total number of employees in a company in five departments and the % distribution of the number of male employees in five departments out of total male employees in the company. The number of female employees in department A and department E is 1280 and 3280 respectively.

Find the difference between the number of female employees in department A and department B?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 12
From the bar graph,

Total number of employees in the company is 100%

So, (P/2 + 2 + 1.2P + 8 + P – 2 + 0.8P + 0.6P + 10) % = 100%

4.1P% + 18% = 100%

So value of P = 82/4.1 = 20%

Also,

(2Q + 5Q – 16 + 3.5Q – 2 + Q + 6 + 2.5Q) % = 100%

14Q% = 112%

So Q = 8%

Let total number of employees in a company and total number of male employees in a company is 100a and 100b respectively

Number of female employees in department A = 1280

So, 12% of 100a – 16% of 100b = 1280

12a – 16b = 1280

3a – 4b = 320…………. (1)

Number of female employees in company E = 3280

So, 22% of 100a – 20% of 100b = 3280

11a – 10b = 1640……………. (2)

On solving equation (1) and (2) we get

(11a x 2 – 3a x 5) = (1640 x 2 – 320 x 5)

7a = 1680

So, value of a = 240

On putting value of ‘a’ in equation (1), we get

Value of b = 100

So total employees in the company = 240 x 100 = 24000

So total male employees in the company = 100 x 100 = 10000

Now we can find the data for all departments of a company.

According to the question,

Difference between number of male employees in company A and B = 5280 – 1280 = 4000

Hence answer is option D

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 13

Find the odd one out in the following given number series.

123, 305, 494, 690, 900, 1117, 1355

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 13
Logic = difference of (7 x consecutive composite number start from 26)

123 + 7 x 26 = 305

305 + 7 x 27 = 494

494 + 7 x 28 = 690

690 + 7 x 30 = 900

900 + 7 x 32 = 1124

1124 + 7 x 33 = 1355

Hence answer is option D

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 14

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The Bar graph given below shows the % distribution of the total number of employees in a company in five departments and the % distribution of the number of male employees in five departments out of total male employees in the company. The number of female employees in department A and department E is 1280 and 3280 respectively.

In department C, the average salary of the male employee is Rs. 25000 and the average salary of the female employees is Rs. 20000. Find the approximate average salary of each employee of department C?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 14
From the bar graph,

Total number of employees in the company is 100%

So, (P/2 + 2 + 1.2P + 8 + P – 2 + 0.8P + 0.6P + 10) % = 100%

4.1P% + 18% = 100%

So value of P = 82/4.1 = 20%

Also,

(2Q + 5Q – 16 + 3.5Q – 2 + Q + 6 + 2.5Q) % = 100%

14Q% = 112%

So Q = 8%

Let total number of employees in a company and total number of male employees in a company is 100a and 100b respectively

Number of female employees in department A = 1280

So, 12% of 100a – 16% of 100b = 1280

12a – 16b = 1280

3a – 4b = 320…………. (1)

Number of female employees in company E = 3280

So, 22% of 100a – 20% of 100b = 3280

11a – 10b = 1640……………. (2)

On solving equation (1) and (2) we get

(11a x 2 – 3a x 5) = (1640 x 2 – 320 x 5)

7a = 1680

So, value of a = 240

On putting value of ‘a’ in equation (1), we get

Value of b = 100

So total employees in the company = 240 x 100 = 24000

So total male employees in the company = 100 x 100 = 10000

Now we can find the data for all departments of a company.

Total male employees in department C = 2600

Total female employees in department C = 1720

Now,

2600 x 25000 + 1720 x 20000 = 4320 x average salary of department C

10000 x (26 x 25 + 172 x 2) / 432 = average salary of department C

So, average salary of department C = Rs. 23009

Hence answer is option B

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 15

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Seven persons viz. F, G, H, I, J, K and L are arranged in a straight line based on the ascending order of their heights, but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following is the second tallest person?

Statement I: Three persons stand between K and F who is immediately taller than L. The number of persons shorter than F is equal to the number of persons taller than I. H neither the tallest nor the shortest person.

Statement II:J is immediately shorter than H who is three persons taller than L. K is two persons shorter than I who is immediately taller than G. F is neither tallest nor shortest.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 15
From statement I

The exact order of the persons was not determined.

From statement II:

The exact order of the persons was not determined.

Combining both the statements:

The exact order of the persons was not determined.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 16

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the question that follows.

K, L, M, N, O, P and Q took an exam for getting employment in a multi-national company and got ranks according to the marks secured. Rank 1 is the highest and Rank 7 is the lowest. They attempted different number of questions. Number of questions attempted by them were 63, 61, 56, 55, 54, 52 and 49, but not necessarily in the same order.

P attempted the least number of questions. Q scored less than K but attempted more questions than him. Only two persons scored less than N and three persons scored more than M. O attempted the highest number of questions. Number of questions attempted by L were more than the number of questions attempted by K. L scored more than P but less than O. Q did not score more than L. Q scored less than P. O did not score the highest marks. N attempted more number of questions than M but less number of questions than K. The one who scored the least marks attempted more questions than L.

Who attempted 52 questions?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 16

M attempted 52 questions.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 17

Directions: In the following question, three statements followed by four conclusions marked I, II, III and IV are given. Consider the statements to be true even though they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and find out which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) the statements, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

No Sun is star.

All planets are stars.

Some planets are skies.

Conclusions:

I. Some skies are suns.

II. No Sun is planet.

III. Some skies are not suns.

IV. All planets are skies.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 17

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 18

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated on a circular table such that some of them are facing inside while some are facing outside the table. Each person gets a lucky draw and the objects they received are Eraser, Glue, Marker, Pen, Pencil, Scale, Sharpener and Sketch. Not more than two adjacent persons face the same direction. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.

A sits facing towards the center and three persons away from the one who gets Sketch. G, who gets Marker, sits exactly opposite to the one who gets Sketch. The immediate neighbours of A face the same direction. B sits second to the left of G and immediate right of the one who gets Pencil who is not adjacent to G.E, who gets Sharpener, sits third to the left of the one who gets Pencil. H sits to the immediate right of E but not adjacent to G. One person sits between H and the one who gets Glue who sits exactly opposite to F. D, who gets Pen, sits facing towards the center. Both C and the one who gets Scale faces the same direction but not adjacent to each other.

How many persons are there between A and the one who gets Scale, when counted from the right of A?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 18

1. A sits facing towards the center and three persons away from the one who gets Sketch. G, who gets Marker, sits exactly opposite to the one who gets Sketch. The immediate neighbours of A face the same direction.

2. B sits second to the left of G and immediate right of the one who gets Pencil who is not adjacent to G. E, who gets Sharpener, sits third to the left of the one who gets Pencil. H sits to the immediate right of E but not adjacent to G.

3. One person sits between H and the one who gets Glue who sits exactly opposite to F. D, who gets Pen, sits facing towards the center. Both C and the one who gets Scale faces the same direction but not adjacent to each other. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 19

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Ten persons viz. B, D, E, G, I, J, M, N, P and V are from the same family with three generations. The number of males is more than the number of females in the family and only three married couples in the family. There is no widow or widower in the family. B is the maternal aunt of D who is the only married person in that generation. P is the brother of D and son of N who is not the sibling of B.E is the daughter of V who is the brother-in-law of J. V is the father of I and doesn’t have any siblings. G is the only son of M who is a male but neither the spouse of J nor B.

How is I related to J?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 19

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 20

Directions: In the following question, three statements followed by four conclusions marked I, II, III and IV are given. Consider the statements to be true even though they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and find out which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) the statements, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some bibs are nappies.

Some nappies are not diapers.

All diapers are pacifiers.

Conclusions:

I. Some bibs are diapers.

II. No diaper is a pacifier.

III. Some nappies are diapers.

IV. Some pacifiers are nappies.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 20

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 21

Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:

Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated on a circular table such that some of them are facing inside while some are facing outside the table. Each person gets a lucky draw and the objects they received are Eraser, Glue, Marker, Pen, Pencil, Scale, Sharpener and Sketch. Not more than two adjacent persons face the same direction. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.

A sits facing towards the center and three persons away from the one who gets Sketch. G, who gets Marker, sits exactly opposite to the one who gets Sketch. The immediate neighbours of A face the same direction. B sits second to the left of G and immediate right of the one who gets Pencil who is not adjacent to G.E, who gets Sharpener, sits third to the left of the one who gets Pencil. H sits to the immediate right of E but not adjacent to G. One person sits between H and the one who gets Glue who sits exactly opposite to F. D, who gets Pen, sits facing towards the center. Both C and the one who gets Scale faces the same direction but not adjacent to each other.

Who among the following person gets Eraser?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 21

A sits facing towards the center and three persons away from the one who gets Sketch. G, who gets Marker, sits exactly opposite to the one who gets Sketch. The immediate neighbours of A face the same direction.

2. B sits second to the left of G and immediate right of the one who gets Pencil who is not adjacent to G. E, who gets Sharpener, sits third to the left of the one who gets Pencil. H sits to the immediate right of E but not adjacent to G.

3. One person sits between H and the one who gets Glue who sits exactly opposite to F. D, who gets Pen, sits facing towards the center. Both C and the one who gets Scale faces the same direction but not adjacent to each other. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding SEBI's initiative to enhance investor protection through UPI verification:

1. SEBI mandates the use of verified UPI handles ending in @valid for all registered intermediaries in the securities market.

2. The SEBI Check mobile application is designed to verify UPI IDs used exclusively for stock market transactions.

3. The transition period for adopting verified UPI handles ends on December 11, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 22

1. Statement 1 is correct. SEBI has indeed mandated that all registered intermediaries in the securities market use verified UPI handles that end with @valid. This measure is part of a broader initiative to enhance the safety and security of financial transactions and protect investors from fraud.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The SEBI Check mobile application is not limited to verifying UPI IDs used exclusively for stock market transactions. Instead, it is a tool designed to verify UPI IDs used by intermediaries in the securities market, ensuring the authenticity of transactions across the board.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The transition period for the adoption of verified UPI handles is set to end on December 11, 2026. This allows existing intermediaries ample time to comply with the new requirements.

Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding Spartaeus karigiri, the newly discovered jumping spider species in Karnataka:

1. Spartaeus karigiri is the first recorded instance of its genus being found in India, extending its known range from Southeast Asia.

2. The species is known for its aquatic habitat, preferring freshwater ecosystems.

3. It exhibits prey mimicry and intelligent predation tactics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 23

1. Statement 1 is correct. Spartaeus karigiri is indeed the first recorded instance of the Spartaeus genus being found in India, extending its known range from Southeast Asia. This discovery highlights the expanding biodiversity of spiders in the Indian subcontinent.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. Spartaeus karigiri does not prefer aquatic habitats. Instead, it is typically found in rocky outcrops and forested terrains, often in crevices and other protected microhabitats, rather than freshwater ecosystems.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The genus Spartaeus, to which Spartaeus karigiri belongs, is recognized for its intelligent predation and unique visual hunting tactics, including prey mimicry. This behavioral trait is common among many species in the Spartaeinae subfamily, enhancing their hunting efficiency.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 3 Only.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 24

Which of the following is the oldest stock exchange in Asia?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 24

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 25

What are the Disadvantages of the Automated Teller Machine (ATM)?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 25

Disadvantages of ATM:

  1. Limitation of Cash Withdrawals
  2. Possibility of Misusing the ATM card if misplaced, lost, or stolen
  3. Hacking is possible
  4. Lack of Personal Service
  5. Banks have limited ATMs in Rural Areas
  6. If you get a problem with your bank card, or forget your pin, you can’t withdraw your money
PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 26

When the ATMs are set up on the premises of the bank so that both the physical branch and ATM can be used. Then such type of ATM is called ____________.

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 26

Onsite ATMs are ATMs that are installed in the same location as a bank branch, allowing customers to use both the actual branch and the ATM. This is referred to as being on-site and it can be utilized for a variety of purposes.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 27

Which of the following bank is not an example of a Private Sector Bank?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 27

Central Bank of India is the only Public sector bank is in this list

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 28

What are the services offered by the NPCI Bharat BillPay Ltd. (NBBL)?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 28

The brand under the new entity - Bharat BillPay - offers various recurring payment services to customers, including bill payments for electricity, telecom, DTH, Gas, Education fees, water, and municipal taxes, NETC FASTag recharge, Loan repayments, Insurance, Cable, Housing Society, Subscription Fees, Hospital, Credit card, Clubs and association, etc.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 29

When was the Corporate Debt Restructuring implemented by the RBI in India for rearrangement of a distressed company's outstanding commitments?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 29

Corporate Debt Restructuring, or CDR, is a scheme developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) through a circular released on August 23, 2001, for implementation by banks and financial institutions (FIs) to recover debt from debtors who are unable to pay the full amount owed.

PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 30

BCBS is the major international standard-setter for bank prudential regulation and serves as a venue for frequent cooperation on banking supervisory issues. What does first B represent in BCBS?

Detailed Solution for PFRDA Assistant Manager Phase 1 Mock Test - 8 (Paper 1) - Question 30

The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) is the major international standard-setter for bank prudential regulation and serves as a venue for frequent cooperation on banking supervisory issues.

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