Practice Test: Environment- 2 - UPSC MCQ

• Municipal Solid Waste: The urban India generates 62 million tonnes of municipal solid waste per annum. Only 43 million tonnes (MT) of the waste are collected, 11.9 MT is treated and 31 MT is dumped in landfill sites. Plastic bags made from low density polyethylene (LDPE) are virtually indestructible and create colossal environmental hazard. The discarded bags block drains and sewage systems. Leftover food, vegetable waste etc. on which cows and dogs feed may die due to the choking by plastic bags. Burning of solid waste release highly toxic and poisonous gases like carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, phosgene, dioxins and other poisonous chlorinated compounds. 
• Agricultural Waste: India is estimated to produce around 620 Million tonne per annum of agricultural wastes, 43 per cent of which is animal dung and slaughter wastes. Agriculture and livestock activities pollute soil through excessive application of pesticides and fertilizers, the use of untreated wastewater for irrigation, and the use of manure and sewage sludge with high antibiotic, antimicrobial-resistant bacteria and heavy metal content.
• Industrial hazardous waste: India produces approximately 51.1 MMT (million metric tonnes) of waste annually, with around 7.46 MMT of hazardous waste. Approximately 3.41 MMT (46%) is landfilled, 0.69 MMT (9%) is incinerated, and 3.35 MMT (45%) is recycled. Gujarat is the highest producer of hazardous wastes in India. Industrial wastes include chemical residues, metallic and nuclear wastes. Large number of industrial chemicals, dyes, acids, etc. find their way into the soil and are known to be carcinogenic.
• Bio-Medical waste: As per Assocham, the total quantity of medical waste generated in India is 550 tonnes per day (TPD) and by 2022, it is likely to increase to 775.5 TPD.
• Electronic Waste: India generates about 1.85 million tonnes per annum of e-waste and ranks fifth in the world among top e-waste producing countries. E-waste can be toxic, is not biodegradable and accumulates in the environment, in the soil, air, water and living things.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Bishnoi Tribe of Rajasthan: Bishnois consider trees as sacred and protect the entire ecosystem including animals and birds that exists in their villages. The tribe has organized their own Tiger Force which is a brigade of youth actively pursuing wildlife protection.
• Chenchu Tribe of Andhra Pradesh: They are involved in tiger conservation at Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR). The tribe has been coexisting with tigers and wild animals for a long without disturbing the ecological balance, which ensures enough water and fodder for the herbivores.
• Maldhari Tribe in Junagadh (Gujarat): The success of lion conservation in the Gir forest area is due to the peaceful coexistence of tribes with lions.
• Bugun Tribe of Arunachal Pradesh: The tribe using Community-led conservation initiatives and traditional knowledge helped to protect the critically endangered bird Bugun Liocichla. For its efforts, Singchung Bugun Community Reserve won the India Biodiversity Award 2018.
• Nyishi tribe of Arunachal Pradesh in conserving hornbills in the Pakke/Pakhui Tiger Reserve. Recently, the government of Arunachal Pradesh declared the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival (PPHF)–the state’s only conservation festival, as a ‘state festival’.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Sikkim Integration
• Why in the news?
  • The 22nd Sikkim Day was celebrated on May 16, 2023, recalling the history of the former kingdom’s integration with India in 1975.
  • Sikkim Kingdom:
    • The kingdom of Sikkim was established in 1642.
    • Phuntsong Namgyal was the first ruler of Chogyal (king) of Sikkim. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Sikkim’s Chogyal dynasty was of Tibetan origin.
    • Sikkim often saw conflicts over land with Bhutan and Nepal.
    • The Namgyal dynasty came to an end with the statehood of Sikkim and the position of Chogyal was abolished.
  • Sikkim in the British era:
    • The British saw Sikkim as a buffer state against China and against Nepal, with whom they fought in the Anglo-Gorkha War of 1814-16.
    • In the Anglo-Gorkha War, the British helped Sikkim secure a number of territories that Nepal had previously captured.
    • The monarchy of the Namgyal dynasty was maintained for the next 333 years, until its integration with India in 1975.
    • The Treaty of Tumlong in 1861 gave the British control over Sikkim but the Chogyals continued to hold onto power.
• Post-Independence:
  • After India’s independence, princely states had the option to accede to India or Pakistan.
  • In 1950, the Indo-Sikkim Treaty was signed, making Sikkim an Indian protectorate.
  • India controlled Sikkim’s defense, external affairs, and strategic communications.
  • In 1974, a new constitution for Sikkim was adopted, which restricted the role of the monarch to a titular post.
  • A referendum was held in Sikkim in 1975 and the majority of people voted in favor of joining India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in Parliament to recognize Sikkim as a state in the Union of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • With the assent of then President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed, Sikkim became the 22nd Indian state on May 16, 1975.

• Water pollutants can be of multiple types including- Biological, Chemical, Thermal, etc.
• The Biological pollutants include pathogens such as Escherichia coli, Enterococcus faecalis (formely known as Streptococcus faecalis), Salmonella typhi, etc. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• Pathogens include bacteria and other organisms that enter the water from domestic sewage and animal excreta.
• Human excreta contains bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis which cause gastrointestinal diseases.

• Recent Context: Calling it an attempt to indulge in ‘bench hunting’, a former Supreme Court judge refused to recuse himself from hearing a plea.
• What is recusal? It is the act of declining to take part in an official activity, such as a court case because the administrative or court authority presiding over it has a conflict of interest. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • This conflict of interest can arise in many ways: from holding shares in a litigant company to having a prior or personal association with a party.
  • The practice of judicial recusals stems from:
    • The cardinal principles of due process of law
    • Nemo judex in sua causa – no person shall be a judge in his own case.
• Why do judges recuse? To prevent the perception that the judge was biased while deciding a case.
• What is the procedure for recusal?
  • Although several SC judgments have dealt with the issue, India has no codified rules governing recusals. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • There are two kinds of recusals: automatic (where a judge himself withdraws from the case) or when a party raises a plea for recusal.
  • The decision to recuse rests solely on the conscience and discretion of the judge and no party can compel a judge to withdraw from a case.
  • If a judge recuses himself, the case is listed before the Chief Justice for allotment to an alternate Bench.

• On 1 January 2016, the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development — adopted by world leaders in September 2015 at an historic UN Summit — officially came into force. Over the next fifteen years, with these new Goals that universally apply to all, countries will mobilize efforts to end all forms of poverty, fight inequalities and tackle climate change, while ensuring that no one is left behind.
• While the SDGs are not legally binding, governments are expected to take ownership and establish national frameworks for the achievement of the 17 Goals. Countries have the primary responsibility for follow-up and review of the progress made in implementing the Goals, which will require quality, accessible, and timely data collection.
• The 1992 Rio Declaration on Environment and Development defines the rights of the people to be involved in the development of their economies, and the responsibilities of human beings to safeguard the common environment. The declaration builds upon the basic ideas concerning the attitudes of individuals and nations towards the environment and development, first identified at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (1972). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• NITI Aayog has the twin mandate to oversee the adoption and monitoring of the SDGs in the country, and also promote competitive and cooperative federalism among States and UTs. The index represents the articulation of the comprehensive nature of the Global Goals under the 2030 Agenda while being attuned to the national priorities. The modular nature of the index has become a policy tool and a ready reckoner for gauging the progress of States and UTs on the expansive nature of the Goals, including health, education, gender, economic growth, institutions, climate change, and environment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The SDG India Index and Dashboard is a crucial tool in India's SDG monitoring efforts. Designed and developed by NITI Aayog, the Index measures the progress at the national and sub-national levels in our journey towards meeting the Global Goals and targets. It has also been successful as an advocacy tool to propagate the messages of sustainability, resilience, and partnerships. IMF has no role in releasing the Index but it collaborates with the NITI Aayog to estimate the financial cost of achieving the SDG. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• The Indian experience with Environmental Impact Assessment began over 20 years back. It started in 1976-77 when the Planning Commission asked the Department of Science and Technology to examine the river-valley projects from an environmental angle.
• Till 1994, environmental clearance from the Central Government was an administrative decision and lacked legislative support.
• On 27 January 1994, the Union Ministry of Environment and Forests (MEF), Government of India, under the Environmental (Protection) Act 1986, promulgated an EIA notification making Environmental Clearance (EC) mandatory for expansion or modernisation of any activity or for setting up new projects listed in Schedule 1 of the notification. Since then there have been 12 amendments made in the EIA notification of 1994. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Issues with the Indian System
  • Screening
    • Even though some of the industrial set ups do not require EIA as per the statutory norms, they might involve certain technological processes which could be harmful to the environment, as a result of which such enlisted industries could have potential impacts on the environment and on public health.
    • Exempting industries from the EIA requirements based on the investment value of specific projects is not acceptable. There are no specific studies conducted till now which demonstrate that environmental impacts are always inconsequential for projects under a given value. It is a well established fact that the small scale industries are contributing more pollution with respect to the major industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Recently, the Supreme Court has slammed the Kerala government for doing “virtually nothing” for Endosulfan pesticide exposure victims.
• Endosulfan is an organochlorine insecticide considered to be carcinogen, neurotoxin and genotoxin. It is linked to a slew of grave medical conditions, such as neurotoxicity, physical deformities, poisoning, etc.
• It was used widely on crops like cashew, cotton, tea, paddy, fruits and others until 2011, when SC banned its production and distribution.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Biogeographic zones represent the major species groupings. In addition, each of these ten zones indicates a distinctive set of physical, climatic and historical conditions. The Himalayas and Gangetic Plains are examples of two adjacent but obviously extremely different zones. India has been divided into ten biogeographic zones.
• The Western Ghats represent one of the major tropical evergreen forest regions in India. In the west, the zone is bound by the coast and in the east, it shares a boundary with the Deccan peninsular zone. The tropical evergreen forests occupy about one-third of the total area of this zone.
  
• In recent years, a large chunk of the forest cover has been lost and this zone is now of great Student Notes: conservation concern, more so because of its exceptional biological richness. About two-thirds of India’s endemic plants are confined to this region. However, the potential of many of these species is yet to be tapped. Besides harbouring diverse biological communities, the forests in this zone also play an important role in maintaining the hydrological cycle.
• The well-known species found exclusively in the Western Ghats include the following: o Flora: The various major vegetation types are tropical evergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, dry deciduous forests, scrub jungles, sholas, and savannas including high-rainfall savannas, peat bogs, and Myristica swamps. Four thousand species of flowering plants are known from the Western Ghats.
  • Fauna:
    • Primates – Nilgiri Langur and Lion-tailed Macaque
    • Squirrels – Several subspecies of Ratufa indica with separate forms in Maharashtra, Mysore, Malabar, and Tamil Nadu Ghats. The Grizzled Squirrel is restricted to two localities in the drier Tamil Nadu forest.
    • Carnivores – Malabar Civet in southern evergreen forests, Rusty-spotted Cat in northern deciduous forests.
    • Ungulates – Nilgiri Tahr in Nilgiris to Agastyamalai Montane grassland.
    • Hornbills – Malabar Grey Hornbill

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Factors affecting natural functions of the ecosystem and causing harmful effects on abiotic and biotic factors are called pollutants. Pollutants make the environment poisonous and unhealthy. Pollutants may be natural or manmade.

• Bioprospecting is the exploration of plant and animal species for the utilization of their genetic resources in pharmaceutical and biochemical industries and in the production of a wide array of commercially viable products. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• It led to novel treatments for malaria, tuberculosis, HIV/AIDS, and cancer, highlighting yet again the interdependence between ecosystems and human health and wellbeing.
• Bioprospecting is based on a sustainable approach to bringing economic and social benefits to often poor communities who otherwise would resort to unsustainable use of land, consumption of environmental resources or other negative coping mechanisms such as economic migration.
• Additional information:
  • Biopiracy is defined as the unauthorized appropriation of knowledge and genetic resources of farming and indigenous communities by individuals or institutions seeking exclusive monopoly control through patents or intellectual property.
  • Biosparging is an in situ remediation technique that supplies oxygen and nutrients (if needed) to contaminated soils to promote aerobic biodegradation of contaminants (i.e. petroleum hydrocarbons) by indigenous microorganisms.
  • A biopile is a type of ex-situ treatment that uses biological processes to transform pollutants into lowtoxic byproducts. It is often used to lower petroleum component concentrations in soils by utilizing the bioremediation process. Biopiles are a type of remediation system that is used for a short period.

• National Adaptation Fund on Climate Change (NAFCC) was launched in 2015 with an initial outlay of Rs. 350 crores to meet the cost of adaptation to climate change for the State and Union Territories of India that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The overall aim of the fund is to support concrete adaptation activities which are not covered under ongoing activities through the schemes of the State and National Governments that reduce the adverse effects of climate change facing communities, sectors, and states. The Scheme has been taken as Central Sector Scheme with National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) as the National Implementing Entity (NIE). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Objectives of NAFCC include:
  • Funding concrete adaptation projects/programs aligned with the relevant Missions under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) and the State Action on Climate Change (SAPCCs) in agriculture, horticulture, agro-forestry, environment, allied activities, water, forestry, urban, coastal and low-lying system, disaster management, human health, marine system, tourism, habitat sector and other rural livelihood sectors to address climate change related issues.
  • Preparing and updating climate scenarios, assessing vulnerability, and climate impact assessment
  • Capacity building of various stakeholders on climate change adaptation and project cycle management and developing a knowledge networkMainstreaming the approaches/ learnings from project/program implementation through knowledge Management

• Although ozone depletion is occurring widely in the stratosphere, the depletion is particularly marked over the Antarctic region. This has resulted in the formation of a large area of the thinned ozone layer, commonly called the ozone hole. It is only under certain meteorological conditions that ozone holes form. The conditions required to form the ozone hole are:
  • Cold temperatures during the polar winter
  • Ice cloud formation
  • Special meteorological conditions to form the polar vortex
  • Followed by the polar sunrise in the spring
• The ozone hole occurs during the Antarctic spring, from September to early December, as strong westerly winds start to circulate around the continent and create an atmospheric container. Within this polar vortex, over 50% of the lower stratospheric ozone is destroyed during the Antarctic spring.
• Reactions that take place on polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs) dramatically enhance ozone depletion. PSCs form more readily in the extreme cold of the Arctic and Antarctic stratosphere. Sunlight-less polar winters contribute to a decrease in temperature and the polar vortex traps and chills air. These low temperatures form cloud particles. These clouds provide surfaces for chemical reactions whose products will, in the spring lead to ozone Destruction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The role of sunlight in ozone depletion is the reason why the Antarctic ozone depletion is greatest during spring. During winter, even though PSCs are at their most abundant, there is no light over the pole to drive chemical reactions. During the spring, however, the sun comes out, providing energy to drive photochemical reactions and melt the polar stratospheric clouds, releasing considerable ClO, which drives the whole mechanism. Warming temperatures near the end of spring break up the vortex around mid-December. As warm, ozone and NO2-rich air flows in from lower latitudes, the PSCs are destroyed, the enhanced ozone depletion process shuts down, and the ozone hole closes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The main source of halogen atoms in the stratosphere that break ozone molecules is the photodissociation of man-made halocarbon refrigerants, solvents, propellants, and foam-blowing agents (CFCs, HCFCs, freons, halons) – popularly called as ODS (Ozone Depleting Substance). Apart from these, Carbon tetrachloride, Methyl Bromide, and Methyl Chloroform are also potent ozonedepleting substances.
• These compounds are transported into the stratosphere by winds after being emitted at the surface. UV rays act on them releasing Chlorine atoms. Cl degrades ozone releasing molecular oxygen, with these atoms acting merely as catalysts. Thus Cl atoms are not consumed in the reaction. Hence, whatever CFCs are added to the stratosphere, they have permanent and continuing effects on Ozone levels.
• Hydrofluorocarbons, though included in the Montreal Protocol for curbing Ozone-depleting substances, are not Ozone-depleting substances. It is a potent greenhouse gas. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Recently,  the Ministry of Minority Affairs (MoMA) has approved a grant under Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK) to support the upgradation of Unani Medicine facilities at Hyderabad, Chennai, Lucknow, Silchar, and Bengaluru.
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It is being implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, with the objective to develop infrastructure projects in identified areas, for the socio-economic development of said areas for the minority communities. The priority sectors under PMJVK are education, health, skill development, womencentric projects etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Projects under PMJVK are implemented and managed by the concerned State/ UT Government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The proposals under PMJVK are sent by the States/Union Territories (UTs) as per demand for infrastructure in the identified areas, which are considered and approved by the Empowered Committee (EC) of PMJVK, after due consultation with the concerned Central Ministries.

• Recent Context: In recent years, debt-for-climate swaps have gained popularity among low- and middleincome countries as a debt-relief tool. Multilateral development banks and organizations like the UNDP have been promoting this approach to ease the burden of debt for these nations.
• Debt-for-climate swaps are a financial approach that helps alleviate this problem by freeing up funds for climate investments. They are a form of debt relief that transforms debt into a grant committed to undertaking climate-related investments. Hence statement-I is correct.
  • Both commercial and official bilateral debts can be included in such swaps, with the latter allowing for redirected debt service payments towards projects mutually agreed upon by both parties, such as those related to climate action.
• Debt-for-climate swaps originated from debt-for-nature swaps, which were introduced in the 1980s to promote biodiversity conservation and tropical forest protection in exchange for debt relief.
  • Bolivia and Conservation International executed the first debt-for-nature swap in 1987. Debt-forclimate swaps became a more extensive concept in the 2000s, encompassing not only nature conservation but also climate change mitigation and adaptation.
  • In 2006, Germany and Indonesia implemented the first debt-for-climate swap, with the latter pledging to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) initiatives in return for debt relief.
• Debt-for-climate swaps provide benefits for both creditors and debtors. Creditors can advance their development cooperation and climate finance goals, improve their chances of debt recovery, and strengthen their diplomatic ties with debtor nations
• Steps in Debt-for-climate swaps:
  • Suppose a developing country is indebted to a bilateral creditor that wants to offer debt relief and encourage the developing country to pursue climate-friendly policies or projects.
  • The creditor agrees that the developing country no longer needs to service its debt.
  • In return, the developing country agrees with the lender either (i) to spend the money that would have been spent on debt service on climate-friendly projects or (ii) to adopt climate-friendly policies.
• Benefits of such agreements.
  • International organisations and multilateral development banks exercise multiple types of measures to help highly vulnerable countries survive financial catastrophes caused by climate change impacts.
  • However, in the past decade, debt-for-climate swaps has grown relatively popular among low- and middle-income countries.
  • They offer an innovative way to make climate investments while creating the much -needed fiscal space.
  • At the same time, they support climate investment by committing a country to swing their spending from debt service to an agreed public investment. Hence statement II is not correct.

• The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
• NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to forests, tree preservation, etc.
• The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Further, NGT is also not bound by the rules of evidence as enshrined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Thus, it will be relatively easier (as opposed to approaching a court) for conservation groups to present facts and issues before the NGT, including pointing out technical flaws in a project or proposing alternatives that could minimize environmental damage but which have not been considered.
• While passing Orders/decisions/awards, the NGT will apply the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principles.
• However, it must be noted that if the NGT holds that a claim is false, it can impose costs including lost benefits due to any interim injunction.

• Increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is one of the recognized causes of our changing climate and it is also problematic for coral reefs. The ocean absorbs approximately one-third of the atmosphere’s excess carbon dioxide, resulting in a more acidic ocean. In order for a coral reef to grow, it must produce limestone (or calcium carbonate) at a rate that is faster than the reef is being eroded. Ocean acidification slows the rate at which coral reefs generate calcium carbonate, thus slowing the growth of coral skeletons.
• Climate change can cause sea level rise; changes in the frequency, intensity, and distribution of tropical storms; and altered ocean circulation. All of these impacts can have negative consequences for the health and diversity of reefs around the world. Hence, statement-I and statement II are correct. Also, statement II is the correct explanation for statement-I.
• A 20 percent increase above current carbon dioxide levels, which could occur within the next two decades, could significantly reduce the ability of corals to build their skeletons and some could become functionally extinct within this timeframe.
• In real terms, this does not just mean corals grow more slowly, but also that they will be less able to overcome typical pressures. Tropical coral reefs are constantly engaging in a battle to grow. Many reef dwellers actually break apart pieces of the corals’ skeletons, either to feed upon or to create homes.

• The Kyoto Protocol is an agreement made under the UNFCCC. Countries that ratify this protocol commit to reduce their emissions of carbon dioxide and five other greenhouse gases (Methane, Nitrous Oxide, Sulphur Hexafluoride, Hydrofluorocarbons and Perfluorocarbons), or engage in emissions trading if they maintain or increase emissions of these gases.
• Under the protocol, Governments are separated into two general categories: countries among the developed nations, referred to as Annex 1 countries (who have accepted GHG emission reduction obligations and must submit an annual greenhouse gas inventory); and countries among developing or least developed nations, referred to as Non-Annex 1 countries (who have no GHG emission reduction obligations but may participate in the Clean Development Mechanism).
• The Kyoto Protocol introduced three mechanisms in order to achieve its goals: the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), Joint Implementation (JI), and Emissions Trading (ET).
  • The CDM allows countries with commitments under the Kyoto Protocol to invest in emissionreduction projects in developing countries. These projects can involve, for example, a rural electrification project using solar panels or the installation of more energy-efficient boilers. Hence option 1 is correct. 
  • JI mechanism allows a country with a Kyoto Protocol emission reduction target to invest in a project to reduce emissions in any other country with a commitment (as opposed to a developing country). Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The Emissions Trading (The International Emission Trading) scheme under the Kyoto Protocol set up a platform where carbon units, or units generated by projects registered under the JI or the CDM, or from removals through forestry activities, can be exchanged, i.e. sold and purchased, according to a country’s needs. The scheme made carbon a commodity and created a carbon market. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Nationally determined contributions (NDCs) are at the heart of the Paris Agreement and the achievement of its long-term goals. NDCs embody efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change. Article 4 of the Paris Agreement requires each party to prepare, communicate and maintain successive nationally determined contributions (NDCs) that it intends to achieve. Parties shall pursue domestic mitigation measures, with the aim of achieving the objectives of such contributions. Hence, INDCs are not the market mechanisms under the Kyoto Protocol. Hence option 3 is not correct.

• In September 2015, the heads of nations agreed to set the world on a path toward sustainable development through the adoption of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. This agenda includes 17 Sustainable Development Goals, or SDGs, which set out quantitative objectives across the social, economic, and environmental dimensions of sustainable development all to be achieved by 2030.
• The 17 SDGs are integrated—they recognize that action in one area will affect outcomes in others, and that development must balance social, economic, and environmental sustainability. There are 169 targets under the 17 goals.
• Image showing 17 SDGs
  
• Thus, only pair 4 is correctly matched. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• An ecological pyramid is a graphical representation of the relationship between different organisms in an ecosystem.
• Types of Ecological Pyramids:
• The pyramid of Numbers is the graphic representation of the number of individuals per unit area of various trophic levels.
  • Upright Pyramid of Numbers: In an upright pyramid of numbers, the number of individuals decreases from the lower level to the higher level. This type of pyramid is usually found in the grassland ecosystem and the pond ecosystem. The grass in a grassland ecosystem occupies the lowest trophic level because of its abundance.
  • Inverted Pyramid of Numbers: Here, the number of individuals increases from the lower level to the higher trophic level. For example, the tree ecosystem. Thus, the Pyramid of Numbers can be inverted and Upright. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• Pyramid of Biomass as the name suggests shows the amount of biomass (living or organic matter present in an organism) present per unit area at each trophic level.
  • Upright Pyramid of Biomass: Ecosystems found on land mostly have pyramids of biomass with large bases of primary producers with smaller trophic levels perched on top, hence the upright pyramid of biomass.
  • Inverted Pyramid of Biomass: A reverse pyramidal structure is found in most aquatic ecosystems. Here, the pyramid of biomass may assume an inverted pattern. This is because, in a water body, the producers are tiny phytoplankton that grow and reproduce rapidly. In this condition, the pyramid of biomass has a small base, with the producer biomass at the base providing support to consumer biomass of large weight. Hence, it assumes an inverted shape. The pyramid of Biomass can be inverted and Upright. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
• The pyramid of Energy is a graphical structure representing the flow of energy through each trophic level of a food chain over a fixed part of the natural environment. An energy pyramid represents the amount of energy at each trophic level and the loss of energy at each is transferred to another trophic level.
• The energy pyramid, sometimes called the trophic pyramid or ecological pyramid, is used in quantifying the energy transfer from one organism to another along the food chain. Energy decreases as one moves through the trophic levels from the bottom to the top of the pyramid. Thus, the energy pyramid is always upright. Hence, option 3 is correct.

• A mass extinction is a short period of geological time in which a high percentage of biodiversity, or distinct species—bacteria, fungi, plants, mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, fish, invertebrates—dies out. In this definition, it’s important to note that, in geological time, a ‘short’ period can span thousands or even millions of years.
• The planet has experienced five previous mass extinction events, the last one occurring 65.5 million years ago which wiped out the dinosaurs from existence. Experts now believe we are in the midst of a sixth mass extinction. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The ‘Sixth Extinction’ is presently in progress different from the previous episodes. The difference is in the rates; the current species extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to 1,000 times faster than in pre-human times and our activities are responsible for the faster rates. Ecologists warn that if the present trends continue, nearly half of all the species on Earth might be wiped out within the next 100 years. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Unlike previous extinction events caused by natural phenomena, the sixth mass extinction is driven by human activity, primarily (though not limited to) the unsustainable use of land, water and energy use, and climate change.

International Organizations for Control of Wildlife Trafficking:

• TRAFFIC: Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in International Commerce (TRAFFIC) established in 1976, is a wildlife trade monitoring network and a joint programme of WWF and IUCN. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It works closely with the National and State Governments and various agencies to help study, monitor and influence action to curb illegal wildlife trade and bring wildlife trade within sustainable levels.
• CITES (the Washington Convention): CITES signed in 1973 provides a mechanism to regulate the trade in wildlife. Under its guidance, governments all over the world have taken steps to prevent this illegal trade and bring it under control.
  • The CITES is concerned with the international co-operation to control only the illegal trade in endangered species whereas the TRAFFIC is concerned with the monitoring of both the legal as well as the illegal trade in wildlife across the world. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The amount of pollution in a water body can be quantified by the amount of oxygen required to decompose the pollutants. For this, two parameters are considered- The Biological Oxygen Demand and the Chemical Oxygen Demand.
• Chemical oxygen demand or COD is the amount of oxygen required to break down organic and inorganic material via oxidation. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• It is frequently stated as the mass of oxygen consumed over the volume of the solution, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L), in SI units. Quantifying the number of oxidizable contaminants present in surface water (such as lakes and rivers) or wastewater is the most typical application of COD. Chemical Oxygen Demand is helpful for assessing the quality of water by providing a metric to assess how an effluent will affect the receiving body.

• Measuring the diversity of a species generally incorporates estimates of "richness". Also referred to as alpha-diversity, species richness is a common way of measuring biodiversity and involves counting the number of individuals - or even families - in a given area. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• At the ecosystem-level, measures of biodiversity are often used to compare two ecosystems or to determine changes over time in a given region. Describing changes in biodiversity within or between ecosystems is called beta-diversity. Measures of beta-diversity indicate the difference in species richness between two different habitats or within a single community at different points in time. The resulting number indicates to researchers whether there is any overlap in the species found in each group. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Gamma-diversity, on the other hand, estimates the total biodiversity within an entire region. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Biomagnifi cation refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: This happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level.

Health and Hazardous substance

• Biomagnifi cation happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level.
• This phenomenon is wellknown for mercury and Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT). Biomagnifi cation of DDT in an aquatic food chain.
• In this manner, the concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels; say if it starts at 0.003 ppb (ppb = parts per billion) in water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm (ppm = parts per million) in fish-eating birds, through biomagnifi cation.
• High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking, eventually causing decline in bird populations.

• Statement 1 is correct: Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.
• Statement 2 is correct: With time, streams draining into the lake introduce nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus, which encourage the growth of aquatic organisms.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: As the lake’s fertility increases, plant and animal life burgeons, and organic remains begin to be deposited on the lake bottom.

Effects of Eutrophication

• Over the centuries, as silt and organic debris pile up, the lake grows shallower and warmer, with warm-water organisms supplanting those that thrive in a cold environment.
• Marsh plants take root in the shallows and begin to fi ll in the original lake basin. Eventually, the lake gives way to large masses of flo ating plants (bog), fi nally converting into land.
• Depending on climate, size of the lake and other factors, the natural aging of a lake may span thousands of years.
• However, pollutants from man’s activities like effl uents from the industries and homes can radically accelerate the aging process. This phenomenon has been called Cultural or Accelerated Eutrophication.

Marshlands

• In India, marshlands can be found in various regions across the country, offering a wide range of ecological and geographical diversity. One of the most well-known marshlands in India is the Sundarbans, located in the eastern part of the country.
• The Sundarbans is a vast mangrove forest and is shared between India and Bangladesh. It is formed by the confl uence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers, creating a unique ecosystem of saltwater and freshwater mix.
• This UNESCO World Heritage Site is renowned for its rich biodiversity, with numerous species of flo ra and fauna, including the iconic Bengal tiger, crocodiles, dolphins, and a variety of bird species.