Practice Test: Full Length - 6 - UPSC MCQ

• In constitutional law, the presumption of constitutionality is the legal principle that the judiciary should presume statutes enacted by the legislature to be constitutional unless the law is clearly unconstitutional or a fundamental right is implicated. Hence, a court cannot declare legislation to be constitutional as there is any way a presumption of constitutionality. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act-2014 passed by the Lok Sabha on 13 August 2014 and by the Rajya Sabha on 14 August 2014 which created a National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges to the higher judiciary in India. The Constitution Bench of Supreme Court by 4:1 Majority upheld the collegium system and struck down the NJAC as unconstitutional after hearing the petitions filed by several persons and bodies. Hence, the 99th constitutional amendment act violated the presumption of constitutionality.
• The court ought not to interpret the statutory provisions, unless compelled by their language, in such a manner as would involve its unconstitutionality, since the legislature of the rulemaking authority is presumed to enact a law which does not contravene or violate the constitutional provisions. Therefore, there is a presumption in favor of the constitutionality of legislation or statutory rule unless ex facie it violates the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution
• Article 13: Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights

• The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act 2018 was brought to” provide for measures to deter fugitive economic offenders from evading the process of law in India by staying outside the jurisdiction of Indian courts, to preserve the sanctity of the rule of law in India and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto”.
• Statement 1 is not correct: An FEO is defined by the act as “any individual against whom a warrant for arrest in relation to a scheduled offense has been issued by any court in India, who (i) has left India so as to avoid criminal prosecution; or (ii) being abroad, refuses to return to India to face criminal prosecution”. The individual should be involved in offenses of at least 100 crores.
• Statement 2 is not correct: To declare a person an FEO, an application has to be filed in a Special Court (designated under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002) containing details of the properties to be confiscated, and any information about the person’s whereabouts. The Special Court will require the person to appear at a specified place at least six weeks from the issue of notice. Proceedings of the FEO court will be terminated if the person appears. But he will have to face the due proceedings under other concerned laws.

• Rules of origin are the rules to attribute a country of origin to a product in order to determine its "economic nationality". The need to establish rules of origin stems from the fact that the implementation of trade policy measures, such as tariffs, quotas, trade remedies, in various cases, depends on the country of origin of the product at hand.
• Rules of origin are used:
o to implement measures and instruments of commercial policy such as anti-dumping duties and safeguard measures;
o to determine whether imported products shall receive most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment or preferential treatment; o for the purpose of trade statistics;
o for the application of labelling and marking requirements; and
o for government procurement.
• General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) has no specific rules governing the determination of the country of origin of goods in international commerce. Each contracting party was free to determine its own origin rules, and could even maintain several different rules of origin depending on the purpose of the particular regulation.
• During international trade, an exporting country needs to show a certificate under norms of "rules of origin" to prove that the commodity or a product originates there. Rules of origin norms help in containing dumping of goods.
• Recently there has been a surge in import of cheap areca nut from SAARC nations. Hence Finance ministry has been requested to check the rules of origin to curb cheaper imports from SAARC countries.

• Global important agricultural Heritage systems are outstanding landscapes of aesthetic beauty that combine agricultural biodiversity and ecosystem and valuable cultural heritage. It is designated by the Food and agricultural organization (FAO).
• Its goal and objective include: to leverage global and national recognition of the importance of agricultural Heritage systems-capacity building of local farming communities and local and national institutions-to promote enabling regulatory policies and incentive environments to support the conservation-.It also aims to achieve food security and poverty alleviation.
• Indian sites include: Kuttanad below sea level farming system in Kerala; Koraput traditional agriculture in Odisha; Saffron heritage of Kashmir; Grand Anicut and associated farming system in Cauvery delta zone of Tamilnadu
• The proposed GIAHS sites are generally assessed based on the following five: Food and livelihood security; Agro-biodiversity; Local and Traditional Knowledge systems; Cultures, Value systems, and Social Organisations; Landscapes and Seascapes Features
• Additional Information: There are 52 GIAHS sites in 21 countries. Six GIAHS sites located in China, Philippines, Tanzania, United Arab Emirates, Iran and the Republic of Korea are also UNESCO World Heritage sites. Since its inception in 2002, the GIAHS program has built a strong local and international reputation in the fields of agricultural heritage and agricultural development. Some GIAHS sites in china have embraced new technologies by engaging with e-business companies like Alibaba to promote their agricultural heritage products.

• Ajnapatra is a royal edict on the principles of Maratha state written in Modi Marathi (a script) by Ramchandra Pant Amatya. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• Ramchandra Pant Amatya wrote this famous treatise on political code of conduct in 1715 at the order of Sambhaji. It has nine chapters but they can be divided into mainly two parts. The first part deals with a Shivaji's struggle for independence, Aurangzeb's attack on Marathas and Rajaram's brave struggle to save the kingdom. The second part of the book is the principal aspect of the book. It deals with role and functions of the King, his character, his duties towards his subject and the education of the princess.

• In zigzag kilns, bricks are arranged to allow hot air to travel in a zigzag path. The length of the zigzag air path is about three times that of a straight line, and this improves the heat transfer from the flue gases to the bricks, making the entire operation more efficient. In addition, better mixing of air and fuel allows complete combustion, reducing coal consumption to about 20 percent. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• The zigzag design also ensures uniform distribution of heat, increasing the share of Class I bricks to about90 percent. It also reduces emissions considerably.
• The zigzag technology has two sub-types: natural and induced. The induced draft uses fans to regulate air, while the natural draft has a chimney. The operational cost of the induced draft includes the cost of diesel and the maintenance of a generator to run the fan, which comes up to about Rs 250,000 a season. This cost is eliminated in the natural model, but it requires an initial investment in building a chimney.
• While natural zigzag is usually the first choice for brick kiln owners as running costs are lower, they are choosing induced zigzag as conversion costs are lower. The government order also promotes induced draft technology.

• Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India. There may be one common act for all the municipal corporations in a state or a separate act for each municipal corporation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees, and the commissioner. The Council is the deliberative and legislative wing of the corporation. It consists of the Councilors directly elected by the people, as well as a few nominated persons having knowledge or experience of municipal administration. In brief, the composition of the Council including the reservation of seats for SCs, STs, and women is governed by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
• The Council is headed by a Mayor. He is assisted by a Deputy Mayor. He is elected in a majority of the states for a one-year renewable term. He is basically an ornamental figure and a formal head of the corporation. His main function is to preside over the meetings of the Council. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• The standing committees are created to facilitate the working of the council, which is too large in size. They deal with public works, education, health, taxation, finance and so on. They take decisions in their fields.
• The municipal commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the council and its standing committees. Thus, he is the chief executive authority of the corporation. He is appointed by the state government. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• The emergence of Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana sect of Buddhism, which emerged during the fourth council of Buddhism held in 1st century A.D at Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka.
• The worship of images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas became an important part of this tradition. Bodhisattva was thought of in the schools of the Great Vehicle or Mahayana not as a being who was soon to become a Buddha, but as one who would bide his time until even the smallest insect had reached the highest goal. The old ideal (in Hinayana Buddhism) of the Arhant, the '"Worthy", who achieved Nirvana and would be reborn no more, began to be looked on as rather selfish. Instead of striving to become Arhants, men should aim at becoming Bodhisattvas, and by the spiritual merit which they gained assist all living things on the way to perfection. The idea of transference of merit is a special feature of the teaching of the Great Vehicle. According to the Lesser Vehicle or Hinayana Buddhism a man can only help another on the way by example and advice. Each being must be a lamp unto himself, and work out his own salvation. Thus, Bodhisattva is an ideal, an aspirant of Buddhahood (buddhatva) who works for the enlightenment of all sentient beings in contrast to that of one’s own emancipation of the Arhat (an ideal in non-Mahāyāna traditions). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Prominent Bodhisattvas:
Avalokiteśvara: Avalokiteśvara is, conceivably, the most popular of all Mahayana Bodhisattvas. He is seen as the most compassionate savior of the universe. He is compassion-incarnate who is concerned with every bit of sufferings of all beings in their everyday life.
Manjuśri: Manjuśri is the Bodhisattva of wisdom and enlightenment. He is associated with the role of interlocutor on the questions regarding ultimate truth.
Tara or Shayama Tara, also known as Jetsun Dölma in Tibetan Buddhism, is an important figure in Buddhism. She appears as a female bodhisattva in Mahayana Buddhism, and as a female Buddha in Vajrayana Buddhism.
Kṣitigarbha: Another important Bodhisattva in Indo-Tibetan Buddhism is Kṣitigarbha. Kṣitigarbha savesthe sentient beings during the period between the death of Sakyamuni Buddha and the future advent of Maitreya Buddha.
Maitreya: Maitreya is the future Buddha. The idea is that there were many previous Buddhas, and there will be many future Buddhas. If there will be future Buddhas, then the being who is to come next as the Buddha must be the one who has advanced on his Bodhisattva path. That being is Maitreya. Maitreya is the only Bodhisattva accepted by both Mahayana and non-Mahayana traditions.
Other prominent Bodhisattvas mentioned in the Buddhist Sanskrit literature are Samantabhadra, Amitabha, Vajrapani.

Stem cells are special human cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types, from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases, they also have the ability to repair damaged tissues.
Stem cells differ from other kinds of cells in the body.

• Self-renewal: They can divide and renew themselves for long periods.
• Stem Cells are Unspecialised: It does not have any tissue-specific structure that allows it to performs specialized functions. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Potency: Specialised cells can be derived from stem cells through a process called differentiation. While differentiating, the cell usually goes through several stages, gaining more specialization at each step.

• Stem cells are divided into two main forms: embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.

• The embryonic stem cells used in research today come from unused embryos resulting from an invitro fertilization procedure and that are donated to science. These embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, meaning that they can turn into more than one type of cell.
• There are two types of adult stem cells.

✓ One type comes from fully developed tissues, like the brain, skin, and bone marrow. There are only small numbers of stem cells in these tissues, and they are more likely to generate only certain types of cells. For example, a stem cell-derived from the liver will only generate liver cells.
✓ The second type is induced pluripotent stem cells. These are adult stem cells that have been manipulated in a laboratory to take on the pluripotent characteristics of embryonic stem cells. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Stem cells are applied especially to treat cancers, which require high-dose chemotherapy within the scope of medical care. The patient’s own stem cells are extracted from bone marrow or peripheral blood prior to high-dose chemotherapy, stored temporarily and transplanted after the treatment in order to minimize the side effects of the aggressive chemotherapy and to support the regeneration of destroyed cells. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Besides cancer, Stem cell therapy offers great potential for the treatment of diseases such as neurodegenerative diseases, cardiac infarction, stroke, arthritis, or diabetes.

• Odishan Temple Architecture:

• Architecture in Odisha found its supreme expression in the form of temples, some of which are among, finest in the country.
• Of these, three are most famous the Lingaraja temple at Bhubaneswar (11th century), the Jagannath Temple at Puri (12th century) and the great Sun Temple at Konark (13th century).These three cities form the "Golden Triangle" of Odishan Temple Architecture.
• These mark the culmination of a distinct style of architecture called the Kalinga style remarkable in its plan elevation and details of decoration.
• While the main temple, called Vimana or Deula, is the sanctum enshrining the deity the porchor assembly hall called Jagamohana is the place for the congregation of devotees.
• Rekha, Pidha & Khakhara are three types of Deula.
• The Kalinga style reached its perfection during the Ganga period when two more structures wereadded to the front of the two-part temple in order to meet the needs of the elaborate rituals; these are the natamandira (dancing hall) and the bhogamandapa (hall of offerings).

• Types of Temples:

• Rekha Deula: The sanctum is constructed on a square base, with a curvilinear long tower or shikhara. For e.g. Jagannath Puri, Parsurameshwara Temple
• Pidha Deula: The sanctum is rectangular with a roof in the form of pidhas or a pyramid. For e.g. SunTemple, Konark's Jagamohana.
• Khakhra Deula: The roof of the sanctum is semicylindrical in shape. For e.g. Vaital temple atBhubaneswar and Varahi temple at Chaurasi.

• 64 Yogini Temples:

• There is another class of temples that are almost unique in their conception and execution in the wholecountry; these are the circular shaped, hypaethral or roofless structures dedicated to the sixtyfouryoginis belonging to the Tantric order.
• Out of all the five shrines of yogini worship existing in the whole country, two are situated in Odisha, the Chausathi Yogini temples one at Hirapur near Bhubaneswar and the other atRanipur-Jharial in Titlagarh subdivision of Balangir district.
• The other three temples are Chaunsath Yogini Temple in Khajuraho, Chaunsath Yogini Mandirin Bhedaghat, near Jabalpur, Chausath Yogini Temple, Morena, also known as Ekattarso Mahadeva Temple, all in Madhya Pradesh.

Typically, the Arabian Sea experiences a lesser number of cyclones than the Bay of Bengal. Still, in 2019 it saw a more significant amount of tropical cyclones than the Bay of Bengal. Five of the eight cyclones - 60 per cent of the total - that affected India in 2019 were in the Arabian Sea. The Arabian Sea is comparatively less prone to cyclonic storms than the Bay of Bengal because:
• The Arabian Sea has less sea surface temperature than the Bay of Bengal. This cold sea surface temperature is not favourable for the development and sustenance of cyclonic storms. So, statement (2) is correct.
• Coriolis Force is directly proportional to the latitude, as both the water bodies are on similar latitude Coriolis Force is almost the same. So, statement (1) is not correct.
• Track of Tropical cyclone is determined by tropical easterly wind; thus cyclones move from east to west direction; therefore cyclones originating in the Bay of Bengal hit the eastern coast of India while cyclones of the Arabian Sea move away from the west coast of India. Generally, 25% of the cyclones that develop over the Arabian Sea approach the west coast. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

The office of the Indian Vice-President is modelled on the lines of the American Vice-President. So, Statement (1) is correct. But there is a difference. The American Vice-President succeeds to the presidency when it falls vacant, and remains President for the unexpired term of his predecessor. According to Article 65, the Indian Vice-President, does not assume the office of the President when it falls vacant for the unexpired term. He merely serves as an acting President until the new President assumes charge. So, Statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

The Central Pollution Control Board of India is a statutory organisation established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act. Though, the CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. However, it is established under the Water Act. So the statement (1) is not correct.
One of the significant drawbacks of the Act is that any air pollutant released into the atmosphere by a ship or aircraft does not come under the purview of the Act. So the statement (2) is not correct.
The Act was amended in 1987 to include noise as an air pollutant. So the statement (3) is not correct.

Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) started in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas to enable them to avail of opportunities in high and professional education courses and get employment in various sectors. Hence they do not deal with the Scheduled Castes. Hence statement (1) is not correct.
It had been decided in the Budget 2018-19 that by the year 2022, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an Eklavya Model Residential School. Also, Eklavya schools will be on par with Navodaya Vidyalaya and will have special facilities for preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill development. Hence statement (3) is correct.
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is implementing the scheme. There will be an autonomous society under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs - similar to Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti - to run the Eklavya Model Residential Schools. These schools are being set up by grants provided under Article 275(1) of the Constitution. Hence statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Final Experimental Demonstration Object Research (Fedor), also known as Skybot F850, is a robot, first-ever sent up by Russia. Fedor copies human movements, a critical skill that allows it to remotely help astronauts or even people on Earth carry out tasks while they are strapped into an exoskeleton. Fedor is described as potentially useful on Earth for working in high radiation environments. Russia launched a crewless rocket carrying a life-size humanoid robot that will spend ten days learning to assist astronauts on the International Space Station. So, statement (1) is not correct.
Fedor is not the first robot to go into space. In 2011, NASA sent up Robonaut 2, a humanoid robot developed with General Motors and a similar aim of working in high-risk environments. It was flown back to Earth in 2018 after experiencing technical problems. In 2013, Japan sent up a small robot called Kirobo along with the ISS's first Japanese space commander. It was developed with Toyota, and it was able to hold conversations only in Japanese. So, statement (2) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

The Aravallis date back to millions of years when a pre-Indian sub-continent collided with the mainland Eurasian Plate. Thus, it is the oldest fold mountain of Indian Subcontinent. So, statement (1) is correct.
The Aravalli Mountain Range in Northwestern India runs approximately 692 km in a south-west direction, starting near Delhi, passing through southern Haryana and Rajasthan, and ending in Gujarat. So, statement (2) is not correct.
The Supreme Court-appointed Central Empowered Committee revealed that 31 of 128 hills in the Aravalli region in Rajasthan had vanished in the last 50 years due to illegal quarrying. Although Aravalli is facing a biodiversity threat it is not declared as a Biodiversity Hotspot. So, statement (3) is not correct.
Biodiversity Hotspot: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet two strict criteria:
• Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as "endemic" species).
• Have lost at least 70 percent of its primary native vegetation. Many of the biodiversity hotspots exceed the two criteria. For example, both the Sundaland Hotspot in Southeast Asia and the Tropical Andes Hotspot in South America have about 15,000 endemic plant species. The loss of vegetation in some hotspots has reached a startling 95 percent. Therefore, the answer is (c).

Various features of the Indian Constitution and polity have their roots in the erstwhile British Rule. Certain events in the British Rule laid down the legal framework for the organisation and functioning of government and administration in British India. The various Acts under both the East India Company rule (Regulating Act 1773, Pitts India Act 1784 etc.) and under the British Crown (Government of India Act 1858, Indian Councils Act 1892 etc.) shaped the evolution of the Indian Constitution. So, statement (1) is correct.
The Indian Constitution is a blend of Rigidity and Flexibility. A Rigid Constitution is one that requires a special procedure for its amendment, for example, the American Constitution. A Flexible Constitution, on the other hand, is one that can be amended in the same manner as the ordinary laws are changed, for example, the British Constitution. While some provisions can be amended only by 2/3 of the members present and voting, some provisions of the Indian Constitution can also be amended by a simple majority, but this does not come under Article 368. So, statement (2) is correct Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Despite opposition, these movements managed to contribute towards the liberation of the individual from the conformity born out of fear and from uncritical submission to exploitation by the priests and other classes. The movements emphasised the human intellect’s capacity to think and reason. So statement (1) is correct.
Although traditional values and customs were a prominent target of attack from the reformers, yet the reformers aimed at modernisation (e.g. political ideas of French Revolution or liberal ideas of Locke and Bentham) rather than outright westernisation based on blind imitation of alien Western cultural values. To that extent, these movements ended India’s cultural and intellectual isolation from the rest of the world. So statement (2) is correct.
One of the significant limitations of the religious reform movements was that they had a narrow social base, namely the educated and urban middle classes. In contrast, the needs of the vast masses of peasantry and the urban poor were ignored. So statement (3) is not correct.

Themes of these paintings are deeply rooted in the Indian traditions, taking inspiration from Indian epics, Puranas, love poems & Indian folk-lore but not Persian. The Rajasthani School, akin to many others, was significantly influenced by the advent of Ramananda, Tulsidas, Kabir, Raidasa etc. This is how the subjects of the Rajput paintings included the Sri Ram Charit Manas, Geet-Govinda, the divine love of Radha and Krishna, ancient tales, lives of saints, Baramasa (monthly festivities of the year) and Ragamala (Rag-Raginis) and religious texts such as the Ramayana, Mahabharata, Bhagvat Purana, Krishna Lila and Devi Mahatmyam. On the other hand, although the various Rajasthani schools were clearly inspired by Mughal tradition, which in turn was partly influenced by Persian in its origin, as far as the subject matter (or themes) of Rajasthani paintings were concerned, they were all Hindu (largely Vaishnava) in nature. There was no Persian influence there. So, statement (1) is not correct.
Two major factors contributed significantly to the development of Rajasthani Paintings. First, the commercial community of Rajputana was economically prosperous. Second, the revival of Vaishnavism and the growth of the Bhakti cult provided a direction to the development of a distinct school. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Tropical climate of Tamil Nadu allows the cultivation of cotton twice a year, first sowing before the onset of retreating monsoon and second in Jan-Feb in the regions having irrigation. As Tamil Nadu remains dry during Aug-Sep, so the picking period is free of rains. Tamil Nadu has more than 50 percentage of net irrigated area under wells, and tube-wells irrigation and groundwater depletion is the major issue in Kaveri river Basin. Apart from TN, Punjab, Haryana, Western UP, Maharashtra are also suffering from groundwater depletion. Coconut is predominantly a tropical crop. It requires warm (25° to 30°C) and relatively moist (125 to 130 cm) climate. It is mostly grown under rainfed condition in Kerala (26. 6%) and parts of coastal Tamil Nadu (20%), Karnataka (12%) and Andhra Pradesh. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Statement 1: Botulinum is a natural toxin produced by a bacteria known as Clostridium botulin. It produces the toxin when it starts reproducing.
S2: The bacteria is commonly found in the soil, river, and sea water. There are around eight types —A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, and G — of botulinum toxin and they are distinguishable when diagnosed. Butall types of toxins attack the neurons, which leads to muscle paralysis, states a study.
S3: Botulinum affects both humans and animals but the type of the toxin varies — botulinum C in birds and A, B and E in humans. The toxin has been recognised as a major cause of mortality in wild birds since the 1900s.The avian botulism that caused the mass die-off at Sambhar was caused by the climate, according to the IVRI report. Water levels were fluctuating throughout the year. Locals reported that due to a good monsoon this year, the water level reached the lake bed after a gap of 20 years.
S4: The good monsoon provided a favorable environment for the bacteria to spread. The bacteria needs anaerobic (absence of oxygen) conditions and does not grow in acidic conditions. The temperature of the water was about 25 degree Celsius. Its pH ranged between 7.4- 9.84.It also requires a nutrient-rich substrate, like areas with large amounts of decaying plant oranimal materials. The monsoon brought with it a large population of crustaceans (like shrimps, crabs, and prawns), invertebrates (snails) and plankton (like algae).These living organisms are capable of hosting the bacteria for a long period of time. According to reports, the bacteria is also found in the gills and digestive tracts of healthy fish. It reproduces through spores and these spores remain dormant for years. They are resistant to temperature changes and drying. Under favourable conditions, the spores are activated.
Learning: The IVRI report noted that after the monsoon, when the water levels receded, there might have been an increase in salinity levels which could have led to the death of these living organisms. At this point in time, the spores could have been activated. According to another theory, ‘a bird-to-bird cycle’ could also have led to the tragedy. In such an event, maggots feeding on dead birds can concentrate the toxin. Birds feeding on dead birds can get affected. This was observed in Sambhar too as researchers found only insectivorous and omnivorous birds affected and not herbivores. The IVRI report discounted external factors like water pollution and eutrophication (a body of water becoming overly enriched with minerals and nutrients, in turn inducing excessive growth of algae) as no farming was being carried out in the vicinity and the runoff from the same was not possible.

The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations. But, articles 102 (1) and 191(1) which give effect to the concept of office of profit prescribe restrictions at the central and state level on lawmakers accepting government positions. The Supreme Court in Pradyut Bordoloi vs Swapan Roy (2001) outlined the four broad principles for determining whether an office attracts the constitutional disqualification.
1. First, whether the government exercises control over appointment, removal and performance of the functions of the office.
2. Second, whether the office has any remuneration attached to it.
3. Third, whether the body in which the office is held has government powers (releasing money, allotment of land, granting licenses etc.).
4. Fourth, whether the office enables the holder to influence by way of patronage.
Learning: If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”. A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature. Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the Constitution, and for an MLA in Article 191. They can be disqualified for:
a) Holding an office of profit under government of India or state government;
b) Being of unsound mind;
c) Being an undischarged insolvent;
d) Not being an Indian citizen or for acquiring citizenship of another country.

Sir Tim Berners-Lee, inventor of the World Wide Web, has announced a “Contract for the Web” — aimed at saving the future of his invention. What is the Contract for the Web? The idea is to create a global plan of action for all stakeholders to together commit to building a “better” Web. The goal is to create a standard policy for a Web that benefits all. The Contract consists of nine principles — three each for governments, private companies, and individuals and civil society to endorse. It has been created by representatives from over 80 organisations, including governments, companies, civil society activists, and academics. The ‘Contract for the Web’ is not a legal document, or a United Nations document — though the organisation is in talks with the UN. It cannot currently bend governments or companies — even those that are on board — to its will.
S2 and S3: Principles in the Contract: 1. Governments will “Ensure everyone can connect to the Internet”, “Keep all of the Internet available, all of the time”, and “Respect and protect people’s fundamental online privacy and data rights”. 2. Companies will “Make the Internet affordable and accessible to everyone”, “Respect and protect people’s privacy and personal data to build online trust”, and “Develop technologies that support the best in humanity and challenge the worst”.3. Citizens will “Be creators and collaborators on the Web”, “Build strong communities that respect civil discourse and human dignity”, and “Fight for the Web” so that it “remains open and a global public resource for people everywhere, now and in the future”.

The conditions mentioned above are used to carve out ESZs. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-sensitive Zones”, however: The section 3(2)(v) of the Act, says that Central Government can restrict areas in which any industries, operations or processes shall not be carried out or shall be carried out subject to certain safeguards Besides the section 5 (1) of this act says that central government can prohibit or restrict the location of industries and carrying on certain operations or processes on the basis of considerations like the biological diversity of an area, maximum allowable limits of concentration of pollutants for an area, environmentally compatible land use, and proximity to protected areas. The above two clauses have been effectively used by the government to declare Eco-Sensitive Zones or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFA). The same criteria have been used by the government to declare No Development Zones.

Excerpts from the Survey: “Trust can be conceptualized as a public good with the characteristics of non-excludability i.e., the citizens can enjoy its benefits at no explicit financial cost. Trust also has the characteristics of non rival consumption i.e., the marginal cost of supplying this public good to an extra citizen is zero. It is also non-rejectable i.e., collective supply for all citizens means that it cannot be rejected. Unlike other public goods, trust grows with repeated use and therefore takes time to build. Lack of trust represents an externality where decision makers are not responsible for some of the consequences of their actions. Given the importance of trust in an economy, one might reasonably expect economic theory to address it, especially in the literature on transaction cost economics or incomplete contracts. However, this is not the case. Nobel laureate Oliver Williamson who specializes in transaction cost economics plainly states that there is no such thing as trust within economic activity: ‘It is redundant at best and can be misleading to use the term “trust” to describe commercial exchange for which cost-effective safeguards have been devised in support of more efficient exchange. Calculative trust is a contradiction in terms as per Williamson.

Statement 1: The Servarayans form part of the southern ranges of the Eastern Ghats System. It also represents the highest peak in southern part of the Eastern Ghats, with the Solaikaradu peak.
Statement 2: Cardamom hills conjoin the Anaimalai Hills to the northwest, the Palni Hills to the northeast and the Agasthyamalai Hills to the south as far as the Aryankavu. The crest of the hills forms the boundary between Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Anamudi in Eravikulam National Park, is the highest peak in Western Ghats and also the highest point in India south of the Himalayas
Statement 3: They form a southern portion of the Western Ghats. Anamala / Anaimalai Hills are south of where the Western Ghats are broken by the Palakkad Gap, which in turn is south of the Nilgiri Hills. They border the state of Kerala on the Southwest and the Cardamom Hills to the southeast.

Learning: Taxation is based on the idea of Fairness. Though fairness (i.e., the first criteria of a good tax system) is not always easy to define, economists suggested inclusion of two elements in the tax system to make it fair namely, horizontal equity and vertical equity. Individuals in identical or similar situations paying identical or similar taxes is known as horizontal equity. When ‘better off people pay more taxes it is known as vertical equity. When we combine both equities, we each closer to the Indian taxation system.Q.28 BAMP 2026 is the collective vision of the government of India and the automotive industry on where the various segments of the automotive industry and auto component industry need to be by 2026 in terms of size and contribution to the overall Indian economy. The AMP 2026 is aimed at bringing the Indian Automotive Industry among the top three of the world in engineering, manufacture and exports of vehicles & components; growing in value to over12% of India GDP and generating an additional 65 million jobs.
Learning: The objective of the Automotive Mission Plan 2026 includes:
1. To propel the Indian Automotive industry to become the engine of the “Make in India” programme.
2. To make the Indian Automotive Industry a significant contributor to the “Skill India” programme.
3. Promote safe, efficient and comfortable mobility for every person in the country, with an eye on environmental protection and affordability through both public and personal transport options.
4. To seek increase of net exports of the Indian Automotive industry several fold.
5. Promote comprehensive and stable policy dispensation for all regulations impacting the industry.

AMP 2026 is the collective vision of the government of India and the automotive industry on where the various segments of the automotive industry and auto component industry need to be by 2026 in terms of size and contribution to the overall Indian economy.
The AMP 2026 is aimed at bringing the Indian Automotive Industry among the top three of the world in engineering, manufacture and exports of vehicles & components; growing in value to over 12% of India GDP and generating an additional 65 million jobs. 
Learning: The objective of the Automotive Mission Plan 2026 includes:
1. To propel the Indian Automotive industry to become the engine of the "Make in India" programme.
2. To make the Indian Automotive Industry a significant contributor to the "Skill India" programme.
3. Promote safe, efficient and comfortable mobility for every person in the country, with an eye on environmental protection and affordability through both public and personal transport options.
4. To seek increase of net exports of the Indian Automotive industry several fold.
5. Promote comprehensive and stable policy dispensation for all regulations impacting the industry.

These terms appears repeatedly, and particularly in relation to the Greek kingdoms which neighboured or sometimes occupied the Punjab region over a period of several centuries from the 4th century BCE to the first century CE. Examples are the Seleucid Empire, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom and the Indo-Greek Kingdom. The Yavanas are mentioned in detail in Sangam literature epics such as Pattinappalai, describing their brisk trade with the Early Cholas in the Sangam period.

National Health Profile, 2019 has been released by the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI). This is the 14th edition. What is NHP? Prepared by the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI), covers comprehensive Information on demographic, socio-economic health status, health finance indicators, health infrastructure and health of human resources in the country.
Objective: To create a versatile database of health information and making it available to all stakeholders in the healthcare sector. The NHP highlights substantial health information under major indicators:
1. Demographic indicators (population and vital statistics).
2. Socio-economic indicators (education, employment, housing and amenities, drinking water and sanitation).
3. Health status indicators (incidence and prevalence of common communicable and non-communicable diseases and RCH), etc.
4. The health finance indicators provide an overview of health insurance and expenditure on health, both public and Out of Pocket Expenditure (OOP), etc.
5. Human resources provides an overview of availability of manpower working in the health sector.
6. Health infrastructure section provides details of medical and dental colleges, AYUSH institutes, nursing courses and paramedical courses, etc.
Learning: Key findings:
• Life expectancy in India has increased from 49.7 years in 1970-75 to 68.7 years in 2012-16. Life expectancy for females is 70.2 years and 67.4 years for males.
• Diabetes and hypertension rate are high among Indians while dengue and chikungunya are a cause of great concern to public health.
• Highest population density of 11,320 people per square kilometre was reported by the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT) whereas Arunachal Pradesh reported the lowest population density of 17.
• High incidence in the young and economically active population. There has been consistent decrease in the birth rate, death rate and natural growth rate in India since 1991 to 2017.