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Practice Test for XAT - 3


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Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 1

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

A long-held view of the history of the English colonies that became the United States has been that England’s policy toward these colonies before 1763 was dictated by commercial interests and that a change to a more imperial policy, dominated by expansionist militarist objectives, generated the tensions that ultimately led to the American Revolution. In a recent study, Stephen Saunders Webb has presented a formidable challenge to this view. According to Webb, England already had a military imperial policy for more than a century before the American Revolution. He sees Charles II, the English monarch between 1660 and 1685, as the proper successor of the Tudor monarchs of the sixteenth century and of Oliver Cromwell, all of whom were bent on extending centralized executive power over England’s possessions through the use of what Webb calls “garrison government.” Garrison government allowed the colonists a legislative assembly, but real authority, in Webb’s view, belonged to the colonial governor, who was appointed by the king and supported by the “garrison,” that is, by the local contingent of English troops under the colonial governor’s command.

According to Webb, the purpose of garrison government was to provide military support for a royal policy designed to limit the power of the upper classes in the American colonies. Webb argues that the colonial legislative assemblies represented the interests not of the common people but of the colonial upper classes, a coalition of merchants and nobility who favored self-rule and sought to elevate legislative authority at the expense of the executive. It was, according to Webb, the colonial governors who favored the small farmer, opposed the plantation system, and tried through taxation to break up large holdings of land. Backed by the military presence of the garrison, these governors tried to prevent the gentry and merchants, allied in the colonial assemblies, from transforming colonial America into a capitalistic oligarchy.

Webb’s study illuminates the political alignments that existed in the colonies in the century prior to the American Revolution, but his view of the crown’s use of the military as an instrument of colonial policy is not entirely convincing. England during the seventeenth century was not noted for its military achievements. Cromwell did mount England’s most ambitious overseas military expedition in more than a century, but it proved to be an utter failure. Under Charles II, the English army was too small to be a major instrument of government. Not until the war with France in 1697 did William III persuade Parliament to create a professional standing army, and Parliament's price for doing so was to keep the army under tight legislative control. While it may be true that the crown attempted to curtail the power of the colonial upper classes, it is hard to imagine how the English army during the seventeenth century could have provided significant military support for such a policy.

Q. The passage can best be described as a

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 1

C is correct as Webb's recent study is the main idea being discussed.

B and D are too vague to be correct answer.

A is wrong as this is indirectly what the author tries to do but this is not the central theme.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 2

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

A long-held view of the history of the English colonies that became the United States has been that England’s policy toward these colonies before 1763 was dictated by commercial interests and that a change to a more imperial policy, dominated by expansionist militarist objectives, generated the tensions that ultimately led to the American Revolution. In a recent study, Stephen Saunders Webb has presented a formidable challenge to this view. According to Webb, England already had a military imperial policy for more than a century before the American Revolution. He sees Charles II, the English monarch between 1660 and 1685, as the proper successor of the Tudor monarchs of the sixteenth century and of Oliver Cromwell, all of whom were bent on extending centralized executive power over England’s possessions through the use of what Webb calls “garrison government.” Garrison government allowed the colonists a legislative assembly, but real authority, in Webb’s view, belonged to the colonial governor, who was appointed by the king and supported by the “garrison,” that is, by the local contingent of English troops under the colonial governor’s command.

According to Webb, the purpose of garrison government was to provide military support for a royal policy designed to limit the power of the upper classes in the American colonies. Webb argues that the colonial legislative assemblies represented the interests not of the common people but of the colonial upper classes, a coalition of merchants and nobility who favored self-rule and sought to elevate legislative authority at the expense of the executive. It was, according to Webb, the colonial governors who favored the small farmer, opposed the plantation system, and tried through taxation to break up large holdings of land. Backed by the military presence of the garrison, these governors tried to prevent the gentry and merchants, allied in the colonial assemblies, from transforming colonial America into a capitalistic oligarchy.

Webb’s study illuminates the political alignments that existed in the colonies in the century prior to the American Revolution, but his view of the crown’s use of the military as an instrument of colonial policy is not entirely convincing. England during the seventeenth century was not noted for its military achievements. Cromwell did mount England’s most ambitious overseas military expedition in more than a century, but it proved to be an utter failure. Under Charles II, the English army was too small to be a major instrument of government. Not until the war with France in 1697 did William III persuade Parliament to create a professional standing army, and Parliaments price for doing so was to keep the army under tight legislative control. While it may be true that the crown attempted to curtail the power of the colonial upper classes, it is hard to imagine how the English army during the seventeenth century could have provided significant military support for such a policy.

Q.The passage suggests that the view referred to in first paragraph argued that

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 2

D is clearly mentioned, hence it is correct.

A and B are irrelevant is wrong as it is opposite because the first seven lines talk about the American revolution being against the imperial military invasion post 1763

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 3

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

A long-held view of the history of the English colonies that became the United States has been that England’s policy toward these colonies before 1763 was dictated by commercial interests and that a change to a more imperial policy, dominated by expansionist militarist objectives, generated the tensions that ultimately led to the American Revolution. In a recent study, Stephen Saunders Webb has presented a formidable challenge to this view. According to Webb, England already had a military imperial policy for more than a century before the American Revolution. He sees Charles II, the English monarch between 1660 and 1685, as the proper successor of the Tudor monarchs of the sixteenth century and of Oliver Cromwell, all of whom were bent on extending centralized executive power over England’s possessions through the use of what Webb calls “garrison government.” Garrison government allowed the colonists a legislative assembly, but real authority, in Webb’s view, belonged to the colonial governor, who was appointed by the king and supported by the “garrison,” that is, by the local contingent of English troops under the colonial governor’s command.

According to Webb, the purpose of garrison government was to provide military support for a royal policy designed to limit the power of the upper classes in the American colonies. Webb argues that the colonial legislative assemblies represented the interests not of the common people but of the colonial upper classes, a coalition of merchants and nobility who favored self-rule and sought to elevate legislative authority at the expense of the executive. It was, according to Webb, the colonial governors who favored the small farmer, opposed the plantation system, and tried through taxation to break up large holdings of land. Backed by the military presence of the garrison, these governors tried to prevent the gentry and merchants, allied in the colonial assemblies, from transforming colonial America into a capitalistic oligarchy.

Webb’s study illuminates the political alignments that existed in the colonies in the century prior to the American Revolution, but his view of the crown’s use of the military as an instrument of colonial policy is not entirely convincing. England during the seventeenth century was not noted for its military achievements. Cromwell did mount England’s most ambitious overseas military expedition in more than a century, but it proved to be an utter failure. Under Charles II, the English army was too small to be a major instrument of government. Not until the war with France in 1697 did William III persuade Parliament to create a professional standing army, and Parliaments price for doing so was to keep the army under tight legislative control. While it may be true that the crown attempted to curtail the power of the colonial upper classes, it is hard to imagine how the English army during the seventeenth century could have provided significant military support for such a policy.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that Webb would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements regarding garrison government?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 3

B is incorrect as Garrison governments did not exist before the military came in.

C and D are also irrelevant.

So, A is correct answer.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 4

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

A long-held view of the history of the English colonies that became the United States has been that England’s policy toward these colonies before 1763 was dictated by commercial interests and that a change to a more imperial policy, dominated by expansionist militarist objectives, generated the tensions that ultimately led to the American Revolution. In a recent study, Stephen Saunders Webb has presented a formidable challenge to this view. According to Webb, England already had a military imperial policy for more than a century before the American Revolution. He sees Charles II, the English monarch between 1660 and 1685, as the proper successor of the Tudor monarchs of the sixteenth century and of Oliver Cromwell, all of whom were bent on extending centralized executive power over England’s possessions through the use of what Webb calls “garrison government.” Garrison government allowed the colonists a legislative assembly, but real authority, in Webb’s view, belonged to the colonial governor, who was appointed by the king and supported by the “garrison,” that is, by the local contingent of English troops under the colonial governor’s command.

According to Webb, the purpose of garrison government was to provide military support for a royal policy designed to limit the power of the upper classes in the American colonies. Webb argues that the colonial legislative assemblies represented the interests not of the common people but of the colonial upper classes, a coalition of merchants and nobility who favored self-rule and sought to elevate legislative authority at the expense of the executive. It was, according to Webb, the colonial governors who favored the small farmer, opposed the plantation system, and tried through taxation to break up large holdings of land. Backed by the military presence of the garrison, these governors tried to prevent the gentry and merchants, allied in the colonial assemblies, from transforming colonial America into a capitalistic oligarchy.

Webb’s study illuminates the political alignments that existed in the colonies in the century prior to the American Revolution, but his view of the crown’s use of the military as an instrument of colonial policy is not entirely convincing. England during the seventeenth century was not noted for its military achievements. Cromwell did mount England’s most ambitious overseas military expedition in more than a century, but it proved to be an utter failure. Under Charles II, the English army was too small to be a major instrument of government. Not until the war with France in 1697 did William III persuade Parliament to create a professional standing army, and Parliaments price for doing so was to keep the army under tight legislative control. While it may be true that the crown attempted to curtail the power of the colonial upper classes, it is hard to imagine how the English army during the seventeenth century could have provided significant military support for such a policy.

Q. According to the passage, Webb views Charles II as the “proper successor” (line 13) of the Tudor monarchs and Cromwell because Charles II

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 4

B is correct as it is mentioned in the passage.

A and C are not mentioned.

D is wrong because it did not resist those efforts but had to seek their blessings.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 5

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

A long-held view of the history of the English colonies that became the United States has been that England’s policy toward these colonies before 1763 was dictated by commercial interests and that a change to a more imperial policy, dominated by expansionist militarist objectives, generated the tensions that ultimately led to the American Revolution. In a recent study, Stephen Saunders Webb has presented a formidable challenge to this view. According to Webb, England already had a military imperial policy for more than a century before the American Revolution. He sees Charles II, the English monarch between 1660 and 1685, as the proper successor of the Tudor monarchs of the sixteenth century and of Oliver Cromwell, all of whom were bent on extending centralized executive power over England’s possessions through the use of what Webb calls “garrison government.” Garrison government allowed the colonists a legislative assembly, but real authority, in Webb’s view, belonged to the colonial governor, who was appointed by the king and supported by the “garrison,” that is, by the local contingent of English troops under the colonial governor’s command.

According to Webb, the purpose of garrison government was to provide military support for a royal policy designed to limit the power of the upper classes in the American colonies. Webb argues that the colonial legislative assemblies represented the interests not of the common people but of the colonial upper classes, a coalition of merchants and nobility who favored self-rule and sought to elevate legislative authority at the expense of the executive. It was, according to Webb, the colonial governors who favored the small farmer, opposed the plantation system, and tried through taxation to break up large holdings of land. Backed by the military presence of the garrison, these governors tried to prevent the gentry and merchants, allied in the colonial assemblies, from transforming colonial America into a capitalistic oligarchy.

Webb’s study illuminates the political alignments that existed in the colonies in the century prior to the American Revolution, but his view of the crown’s use of the military as an instrument of colonial policy is not entirely convincing. England during the seventeenth century was not noted for its military achievements. Cromwell did mount England’s most ambitious overseas military expedition in more than a century, but it proved to be an utter failure. Under Charles II, the English army was too small to be a major instrument of government. Not until the war with France in 1697 did William III persuade Parliament to create a professional standing army, and Parliaments price for doing so was to keep the army under tight legislative control. While it may be true that the crown attempted to curtail the power of the colonial upper classes, it is hard to imagine how the English army during the seventeenth century could have provided significant military support for such a policy.

Q. According to Webb’s view of colonial history, which of the following was (were) true of the merchants and nobility?
I.  They were opposed to policies formulated by Charles II that would have transformed the colonies into capitalistic oligarchies.
II.  They were opposed to attempts by the English crown to limit the power of the legislative assemblies.
III. They were united with small farmers in their opposition to the stationing of English troops in the colonies.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 5

Here only B is correct as ,statement 1 is wrong because it is opposite - the author mentions that the garrison governments did not allow the high-class colonists from doing so, hence they ought to have been opposed.

And statement 2 is wrong as Webb does not agree that the high-class colonists were united with the farmers.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 6

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

A long-held view of the history of the English colonies that became the United States has been that England’s policy toward these colonies before 1763 was dictated by commercial interests and that a change to a more imperial policy, dominated by expansionist militarist objectives, generated the tensions that ultimately led to the American Revolution. In a recent study, Stephen Saunders Webb has presented a formidable challenge to this view. According to Webb, England already had a military imperial policy for more than a century before the American Revolution. He sees Charles II, the English monarch between 1660 and 1685, as the proper successor of the Tudor monarchs of the sixteenth century and of Oliver Cromwell, all of whom were bent on extending centralized executive power over England’s possessions through the use of what Webb calls “garrison government.” Garrison government allowed the colonists a legislative assembly, but real authority, in Webb’s view, belonged to the colonial governor, who was appointed by the king and supported by the “garrison,” that is, by the local contingent of English troops under the colonial governor’s command.

According to Webb, the purpose of garrison government was to provide military support for a royal policy designed to limit the power of the upper classes in the American colonies. Webb argues that the colonial legislative assemblies represented the interests not of the common people but of the colonial upper classes, a coalition of merchants and nobility who favored self-rule and sought to elevate legislative authority at the expense of the executive. It was, according to Webb, the colonial governors who favored the small farmer, opposed the plantation system, and tried through taxation to break up large holdings of land. Backed by the military presence of the garrison, these governors tried to prevent the gentry and merchants, allied in the colonial assemblies, from transforming colonial America into a capitalistic oligarchy.

Webb’s study illuminates the political alignments that existed in the colonies in the century prior to the American Revolution, but his view of the crown’s use of the military as an instrument of colonial policy is not entirely convincing. England during the seventeenth century was not noted for its military achievements. Cromwell did mount England’s most ambitious overseas military expedition in more than a century, but it proved to be an utter failure. Under Charles II, the English army was too small to be a major instrument of government. Not until the war with France in 1697 did William III persuade Parliament to create a professional standing army, and Parliaments price for doing so was to keep the army under tight legislative control. While it may be true that the crown attempted to curtail the power of the colonial upper classes, it is hard to imagine how the English army during the seventeenth century could have provided significant military support for such a policy.

Q. The author suggests that if William III had wanted to make use of the standing army to administer garrison government in the American colonies, he would have had to

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 6

A and D are incorrect as they are irrelevant.

B is wrong as legislative assemblies worked with the garrison governments.

C is clearly mentioned in the passage.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 7

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Viruses, infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid packaged in a protein coat (the capsid), are difficult to resist. Unable to reproduce outside a living cell, viruses reproduce only by subverting the genetic mechanisms of a host cell. In one kind of viral life cycle, the virus first binds to the cell’s surface, then penetrates the cell and sheds its capsid. The exposed viral nucleic acid produces new viruses from the contents of the cell. Finally, the cell releases the viral progeny, and a new cell cycle of infection begins. The human body responds to a viral infection by producing antibodies: complex, highly specific proteins that selectively bind to foreign molecules such as viruses. An antibody can either interfere with a virus’s ability to bind to a cell, or can prevent it from releasing its nucleic acid.
Unfortunately, the common cold, produced most often by rhinoviruses, is intractable to antiviral defense. Humans have difficulty resisting colds because rhinoviruses are so diverse, including at least 100 strains. The strains differ most in the molecular structure of the proteins in their capsids. Since disease-fighting antibodies bind to the capsid, an antibody developed to protect against one rhinovirus strain is useless against other strains. Different antibodies must be produced for each strain.

A defense against rhinoviruses might nonetheless succeed by exploiting hidden similarities among the rhinovirus strains. For example, most rhinovirus strains bind to the same kind of molecule (delta-receptors) on a cell’s surface when they attack human cells. Colonno, taking advantage of these common receptors, devised a strategy for blocking the attachment of rhinoviruses to their appropriate receptors. Rather than fruitlessly searching for an antibody that would bind to all rhinoviruses, Colonno realized that an antibody binding to the common receptors of a human cell would prevent rhinoviruses from initiating an infection. Because human cells normally do not develop antibodies to components of their own cells, Colonno injected human cells into mice, which did produce an antibody to the common receptor. In isolated human cells, this antibody proved to be extraordinarily effective at thwarting the rhinovirus. Moreover, when the antibody was given to chimpanzees, it inhibited rhinoviral growth, and in humans it lessened both the severity and duration of cold symptoms.

Another possible defense against rhinoviruses was proposed by Rossman, who described rhinoviruses’ detailed molecular structure. Rossman showed that protein sequences common to all rhinovirus strains lie at the base of a deep “canyon” scoring each face of the capsid. The narrow opening of this canyon possibly prevents the relatively large antibody molecules from binding to the common sequence, but smaller molecules might reach it. Among these smaller, non - antibody molecules, some might bind to the common sequence, lock the nucleic acid in its coat, and thereby prevent the virus from reproducing.

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 7

B is incorrect as nothing about the challenge is mentioned here in the passage.

C is incorrect as no future research is suggested.

D is vague option which is easy to discard.

Hence, A is correct .

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 8

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Viruses, infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid packaged in a protein coat (the capsid), are difficult to resist. Unable to reproduce outside a living cell, viruses reproduce only by subverting the genetic mechanisms of a host cell. In one kind of viral life cycle, the virus first binds to the cell’s surface, then penetrates the cell and sheds its capsid. The exposed viral nucleic acid produces new viruses from the contents of the cell. Finally, the cell releases the viral progeny, and a new cell cycle of infection begins. The human body responds to a viral infection by producing antibodies: complex, highly specific proteins that selectively bind to foreign molecules such as viruses. An antibody can either interfere with a virus’s ability to bind to a cell, or can prevent it from releasing its nucleic acid.
Unfortunately, the common cold, produced most often by rhinoviruses, is intractable to antiviral defense. Humans have difficulty resisting colds because rhinoviruses are so diverse, including at least 100 strains. The strains differ most in the molecular structure of the proteins in their capsids. Since disease-fighting antibodies bind to the capsid, an antibody developed to protect against one rhinovirus strain is useless against other strains. Different antibodies must be produced for each strain.

A defense against rhinoviruses might nonetheless succeed by exploiting hidden similarities among the rhinovirus strains. For example, most rhinovirus strains bind to the same kind of molecule (delta-receptors) on a cell’s surface when they attack human cells. Colonno, taking advantage of these common receptors, devised a strategy for blocking the attachment of rhinoviruses to their appropriate receptors. Rather than fruitlessly searching for an antibody that would bind to all rhinoviruses, Colonno realized that an antibody binding to the common receptors of a human cell would prevent rhinoviruses from initiating an infection. Because human cells normally do not develop antibodies to components of their own cells, Colonno injected human cells into mice, which did produce an antibody to the common receptor. In isolated human cells, this antibody proved to be extraordinarily effective at thwarting the rhinovirus. Moreover, when the antibody was given to chimpanzees, it inhibited rhinoviral growth, and in humans it lessened both the severity and duration of cold symptoms.

Another possible defense against rhinoviruses was proposed by Rossman, who described rhinoviruses’ detailed molecular structure. Rossman showed that protein sequences common to all rhinovirus strains lie at the base of a deep “canyon” scoring each face of the capsid. The narrow opening of this canyon possibly prevents the relatively large antibody molecules from binding to the common sequence, but smaller molecules might reach it. Among these smaller, non - antibody molecules, some might bind to the common sequence, lock the nucleic acid in its coat, and thereby prevent the virus from reproducing.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the protein sequences of the capsid that vary most among strains of rhinovirus are those

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 8

option A and C are wrong as they are mentioned in the passage but are quite irrelevant with the question asked.

D is wrong as delta receptors are on the cells and this is about the virus

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 9

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Viruses, infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid packaged in a protein coat (the capsid), are difficult to resist. Unable to reproduce outside a living cell, viruses reproduce only by subverting the genetic mechanisms of a host cell. In one kind of viral life cycle, the virus first binds to the cell’s surface, then penetrates the cell and sheds its capsid. The exposed viral nucleic acid produces new viruses from the contents of the cell. Finally, the cell releases the viral progeny, and a new cell cycle of infection begins. The human body responds to a viral infection by producing antibodies: complex, highly specific proteins that selectively bind to foreign molecules such as viruses. An antibody can either interfere with a virus’s ability to bind to a cell, or can prevent it from releasing its nucleic acid.
Unfortunately, the common cold, produced most often by rhinoviruses, is intractable to antiviral defense. Humans have difficulty resisting colds because rhinoviruses are so diverse, including at least 100 strains. The strains differ most in the molecular structure of the proteins in their capsids. Since disease-fighting antibodies bind to the capsid, an antibody developed to protect against one rhinovirus strain is useless against other strains. Different antibodies must be produced for each strain.

A defense against rhinoviruses might nonetheless succeed by exploiting hidden similarities among the rhinovirus strains. For example, most rhinovirus strains bind to the same kind of molecule (delta-receptors) on a cell’s surface when they attack human cells. Colonno, taking advantage of these common receptors, devised a strategy for blocking the attachment of rhinoviruses to their appropriate receptors. Rather than fruitlessly searching for an antibody that would bind to all rhinoviruses, Colonno realized that an antibody binding to the common receptors of a human cell would prevent rhinoviruses from initiating an infection. Because human cells normally do not develop antibodies to components of their own cells, Colonno injected human cells into mice, which did produce an antibody to the common receptor. In isolated human cells, this antibody proved to be extraordinarily effective at thwarting the rhinovirus. Moreover, when the antibody was given to chimpanzees, it inhibited rhinoviral growth, and in humans it lessened both the severity and duration of cold symptoms.

Another possible defense against rhinoviruses was proposed by Rossman, who described rhinoviruses’ detailed molecular structure. Rossman showed that protein sequences common to all rhinovirus strains lie at the base of a deep “canyon” scoring each face of the capsid. The narrow opening of this canyon possibly prevents the relatively large antibody molecules from binding to the common sequence, but smaller molecules might reach it. Among these smaller, non - antibody molecules, some might bind to the common sequence, lock the nucleic acid in its coat, and thereby prevent the virus from reproducing.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that a cell lacking delta-receptors will be

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 9

Newer antibodies definitely is not the way forward according to the author - the first study described how mice became immune and also chimps became partially immune due to hindering the reception of the virus into host cell.

Second study talked about non-antibody type cells preferably small enough to be able to enter the canyon to go and destroy the virus by binding to it and the final line of the passage is a clue.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 10

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Viruses, infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid packaged in a protein coat (the capsid), are difficult to resist. Unable to reproduce outside a living cell, viruses reproduce only by subverting the genetic mechanisms of a host cell. In one kind of viral life cycle, the virus first binds to the cell’s surface, then penetrates the cell and sheds its capsid. The exposed viral nucleic acid produces new viruses from the contents of the cell. Finally, the cell releases the viral progeny, and a new cell cycle of infection begins. The human body responds to a viral infection by producing antibodies: complex, highly specific proteins that selectively bind to foreign molecules such as viruses. An antibody can either interfere with a virus’s ability to bind to a cell, or can prevent it from releasing its nucleic acid.
Unfortunately, the common cold, produced most often by rhinoviruses, is intractable to antiviral defense. Humans have difficulty resisting colds because rhinoviruses are so diverse, including at least 100 strains. The strains differ most in the molecular structure of the proteins in their capsids. Since disease-fighting antibodies bind to the capsid, an antibody developed to protect against one rhinovirus strain is useless against other strains. Different antibodies must be produced for each strain.

A defense against rhinoviruses might nonetheless succeed by exploiting hidden similarities among the rhinovirus strains. For example, most rhinovirus strains bind to the same kind of molecule (delta-receptors) on a cell’s surface when they attack human cells. Colonno, taking advantage of these common receptors, devised a strategy for blocking the attachment of rhinoviruses to their appropriate receptors. Rather than fruitlessly searching for an antibody that would bind to all rhinoviruses, Colonno realized that an antibody binding to the common receptors of a human cell would prevent rhinoviruses from initiating an infection. Because human cells normally do not develop antibodies to components of their own cells, Colonno injected human cells into mice, which did produce an antibody to the common receptor. In isolated human cells, this antibody proved to be extraordinarily effective at thwarting the rhinovirus. Moreover, when the antibody was given to chimpanzees, it inhibited rhinoviral growth, and in humans it lessened both the severity and duration of cold symptoms.

Another possible defense against rhinoviruses was proposed by Rossman, who described rhinoviruses’ detailed molecular structure. Rossman showed that protein sequences common to all rhinovirus strains lie at the base of a deep “canyon” scoring each face of the capsid. The narrow opening of this canyon possibly prevents the relatively large antibody molecules from binding to the common sequence, but smaller molecules might reach it. Among these smaller, non - antibody molecules, some might bind to the common sequence, lock the nucleic acid in its coat, and thereby prevent the virus from reproducing.

Q. Which of the following research strategies for developing a defense against the common cold would the author be likely to find most promising?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 10

C is the correct answer. It perfectly describes that the small non anti-body small sized cells can go into the canyon and help nip the problem in the bud.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 11

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Viruses, infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid packaged in a protein coat (the capsid), are difficult to resist. Unable to reproduce outside a living cell, viruses reproduce only by subverting the genetic mechanisms of a host cell. In one kind of viral life cycle, the virus first binds to the cell’s surface, then penetrates the cell and sheds its capsid. The exposed viral nucleic acid produces new viruses from the contents of the cell. Finally, the cell releases the viral progeny, and a new cell cycle of infection begins. The human body responds to a viral infection by producing antibodies: complex, highly specific proteins that selectively bind to foreign molecules such as viruses. An antibody can either interfere with a virus’s ability to bind to a cell, or can prevent it from releasing its nucleic acid.
Unfortunately, the common cold, produced most often by rhinoviruses, is intractable to antiviral defense. Humans have difficulty resisting colds because rhinoviruses are so diverse, including at least 100 strains. The strains differ most in the molecular structure of the proteins in their capsids. Since disease-fighting antibodies bind to the capsid, an antibody developed to protect against one rhinovirus strain is useless against other strains. Different antibodies must be produced for each strain.

A defense against rhinoviruses might nonetheless succeed by exploiting hidden similarities among the rhinovirus strains. For example, most rhinovirus strains bind to the same kind of molecule (delta-receptors) on a cell’s surface when they attack human cells. Colonno, taking advantage of these common receptors, devised a strategy for blocking the attachment of rhinoviruses to their appropriate receptors. Rather than fruitlessly searching for an antibody that would bind to all rhinoviruses, Colonno realized that an antibody binding to the common receptors of a human cell would prevent rhinoviruses from initiating an infection. Because human cells normally do not develop antibodies to components of their own cells, Colonno injected human cells into mice, which did produce an antibody to the common receptor. In isolated human cells, this antibody proved to be extraordinarily effective at thwarting the rhinovirus. Moreover, when the antibody was given to chimpanzees, it inhibited rhinoviral growth, and in humans it lessened both the severity and duration of cold symptoms.

Another possible defense against rhinoviruses was proposed by Rossman, who described rhinoviruses’ detailed molecular structure. Rossman showed that protein sequences common to all rhinovirus strains lie at the base of a deep “canyon” scoring each face of the capsid. The narrow opening of this canyon possibly prevents the relatively large antibody molecules from binding to the common sequence, but smaller molecules might reach it. Among these smaller, non - antibody molecules, some might bind to the common sequence, lock the nucleic acid in its coat, and thereby prevent the virus from reproducing.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the purpose of Colonno’s experiments was to determine whether

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 11

D is correct because if you cannot bind antibody to the virus - bind it to the common receptors of the cells - this is exactly what the first study does.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 12

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Viruses, infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid packaged in a protein coat (the capsid), are difficult to resist. Unable to reproduce outside a living cell, viruses reproduce only by subverting the genetic mechanisms of a host cell. In one kind of viral life cycle, the virus first binds to the cell’s surface, then penetrates the cell and sheds its capsid. The exposed viral nucleic acid produces new viruses from the contents of the cell. Finally, the cell releases the viral progeny, and a new cell cycle of infection begins. The human body responds to a viral infection by producing antibodies: complex, highly specific proteins that selectively bind to foreign molecules such as viruses. An antibody can either interfere with a virus’s ability to bind to a cell, or can prevent it from releasing its nucleic acid.
Unfortunately, the common cold, produced most often by rhinoviruses, is intractable to antiviral defense. Humans have difficulty resisting colds because rhinoviruses are so diverse, including at least 100 strains. The strains differ most in the molecular structure of the proteins in their capsids. Since disease-fighting antibodies bind to the capsid, an antibody developed to protect against one rhinovirus strain is useless against other strains. Different antibodies must be produced for each strain.

A defense against rhinoviruses might nonetheless succeed by exploiting hidden similarities among the rhinovirus strains. For example, most rhinovirus strains bind to the same kind of molecule (delta-receptors) on a cell’s surface when they attack human cells. Colonno, taking advantage of these common receptors, devised a strategy for blocking the attachment of rhinoviruses to their appropriate receptors. Rather than fruitlessly searching for an antibody that would bind to all rhinoviruses, Colonno realized that an antibody binding to the common receptors of a human cell would prevent rhinoviruses from initiating an infection. Because human cells normally do not develop antibodies to components of their own cells, Colonno injected human cells into mice, which did produce an antibody to the common receptor. In isolated human cells, this antibody proved to be extraordinarily effective at thwarting the rhinovirus. Moreover, when the antibody was given to chimpanzees, it inhibited rhinoviral growth, and in humans it lessened both the severity and duration of cold symptoms.

Another possible defense against rhinoviruses was proposed by Rossman, who described rhinoviruses’ detailed molecular structure. Rossman showed that protein sequences common to all rhinovirus strains lie at the base of a deep “canyon” scoring each face of the capsid. The narrow opening of this canyon possibly prevents the relatively large antibody molecules from binding to the common sequence, but smaller molecules might reach it. Among these smaller, non - antibody molecules, some might bind to the common sequence, lock the nucleic acid in its coat, and thereby prevent the virus from reproducing.

Q. According to the passage, Rossman’s research suggests that

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 12

If we eliminate the options then, we will come to the answer straight away.

B is TRUE but irrelevant to the study.

C is not true as all strains bind successfully and are structurally similar (with deep small canyon).

D is irrelevant.

Hence, A is correct.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 13

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Classical physics defines the vacuum as a state of absence: a vacuum is said to exist in a region of space if there is nothing in it. In the quantum field theories that describe the physics of elementary particles, the vacuum becomes somewhat more complicated. Even in empty space, particles can appear spontaneously as a result of fluctuations of the vacuum. For example, an electron and a positron, or antielectron, can be created out of the void. Particles created in this way have only a fleeting existence; they are annihilated almost as soon as they appear, and their presence can never be detected directly. They are called virtual particles in order to distinguish them from real particles, whose lifetimes are not constrained in the same way, and which can be detected. Thus it is still possible to define that vacuum as a space that has no real particles in it.

One might expect that the vacuum would always be the state of lowest possible energy for a given region of space. If an area is initially empty and a real particle is put into it, the total energy, it seems, should be raised by at least the energy equivalent of the mass of the added particle. A surprising result of some recent theoretical investigations is that this assumption is not invariably true. There are conditions under which the introduction of a real particle of finite mass into an empty region of space can reduce the total energy. If the reduction in energy is great enough, an electron and a positron will be spontaneously created. Under these conditions the electron and positron are not a result of vacuum fluctuations but are real particles, which exist indefinitely and can be detected. In other words, under these conditions the vacuum is an unstable state and can decay into a state of lower energy; i.e., one in which real particles are created.

The essential condition for the decay of the vacuum is the presence of an intense electric field. As a result of the decay of the vacuum, the space permeated by such a field can be said to acquire an electric charge, and it can be called a charged vacuum. The particles that materialize in the space make the charge manifest. An electric field of sufficient intensity to create a charged vacuum is likely to be found in only one place: in the immediate vicinity of a superheavy atomic nucleus, one with about twice as many protons as the heaviest natural nuclei known. A nucleus that large cannot be stable, but it might be possible to assemble one next to a vacuum for long enough to observe the decay of the vacuum. Experiments attempting to achieve this are now under way.

Q. According to the passage, the assumption that the introduction of a real particle into a vacuum raises the total energy of that region of space has been cast into doubt by which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 13

A, B and C are wrong because the finding is based on theory and we are trying to conduct experiments to verify it. And there is no observation.

D is mentioned in the passage.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 14

​Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Classical physics defines the vacuum as a state of absence: a vacuum is said to exist in a region of space if there is nothing in it. In the quantum field theories that describe the physics of elementary particles, the vacuum becomes somewhat more complicated. Even in empty space, particles can appear spontaneously as a result of fluctuations of the vacuum. For example, an electron and a positron, or antielectron, can be created out of the void. Particles created in this way have only a fleeting existence; they are annihilated almost as soon as they appear, and their presence can never be detected directly. They are called virtual particles in order to distinguish them from real particles, whose lifetimes are not constrained in the same way, and which can be detected. Thus it is still possible to define that vacuum as a space that has no real particles in it.

One might expect that the vacuum would always be the state of lowest possible energy for a given region of space. If an area is initially empty and a real particle is put into it, the total energy, it seems, should be raised by at least the energy equivalent of the mass of the added particle. A surprising result of some recent theoretical investigations is that this assumption is not invariably true. There are conditions under which the introduction of a real particle of finite mass into an empty region of space can reduce the total energy. If the reduction in energy is great enough, an electron and a positron will be spontaneously created. Under these conditions the electron and positron are not a result of vacuum fluctuations but are real particles, which exist indefinitely and can be detected. In other words, under these conditions the vacuum is an unstable state and can decay into a state of lower energy; i.e., one in which real particles are created.

The essential condition for the decay of the vacuum is the presence of an intense electric field. As a result of the decay of the vacuum, the space permeated by such a field can be said to acquire an electric charge, and it can be called a charged vacuum. The particles that materialize in the space make the charge manifest. An electric field of sufficient intensity to create a charged vacuum is likely to be found in only one place: in the immediate vicinity of a superheavy atomic nucleus, one with about twice as many protons as the heaviest natural nuclei known. A nucleus that large cannot be stable, but it might be possible to assemble one next to a vacuum for long enough to observe the decay of the vacuum. Experiments attempting to achieve this are now under way.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists are currently making efforts to observe which of the following events?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 14

A and D are incorrect as decay is in the presence of a charge and results in real particles.

C is opposite as we are not creating the atomic nucleus.

B is correct as it has covered the essence totally.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 15

​Rea​d the passage carefully and answer within the context

Classical physics defines the vacuum as a state of absence: a vacuum is said to exist in a region of space if there is nothing in it. In the quantum field theories that describe the physics of elementary particles, the vacuum becomes somewhat more complicated. Even in empty space, particles can appear spontaneously as a result of fluctuations of the vacuum. For example, an electron and a positron, or antielectron, can be created out of the void. Particles created in this way have only a fleeting existence; they are annihilated almost as soon as they appear, and their presence can never be detected directly. They are called virtual particles in order to distinguish them from real particles, whose lifetimes are not constrained in the same way, and which can be detected. Thus it is still possible to define that vacuum as a space that has no real particles in it.

One might expect that the vacuum would always be the state of lowest possible energy for a given region of space. If an area is initially empty and a real particle is put into it, the total energy, it seems, should be raised by at least the energy equivalent of the mass of the added particle. A surprising result of some recent theoretical investigations is that this assumption is not invariably true. There are conditions under which the introduction of a real particle of finite mass into an empty region of space can reduce the total energy. If the reduction in energy is great enough, an electron and a positron will be spontaneously created. Under these conditions the electron and positron are not a result of vacuum fluctuations but are real particles, which exist indefinitely and can be detected. In other words, under these conditions the vacuum is an unstable state and can decay into a state of lower energy; i.e., one in which real particles are created.

The essential condition for the decay of the vacuum is the presence of an intense electric field. As a result of the decay of the vacuum, the space permeated by such a field can be said to acquire an electric charge, and it can be called a charged vacuum. The particles that materialize in the space make the charge manifest. An electric field of sufficient intensity to create a charged vacuum is likely to be found in only one place: in the immediate vicinity of a superheavy atomic nucleus, one with about twice as many protons as the heaviest natural nuclei known. A nucleus that large cannot be stable, but it might be possible to assemble one next to a vacuum for long enough to observe the decay of the vacuum. Experiments attempting to achieve this are now under way.

Q. Physicist's recent investigations of the decay of the vacuum, as described in the passage, most closely resemble which of the following hypothetical events in other disciplines?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 15

A, C and D are irrelevant to what is being asked in the question.

B is clearly mentioned in first paragraph.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 16

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Classical physics defines the vacuum as a state of absence: a vacuum is said to exist in a region of space if there is nothing in it. In the quantum field theories that describe the physics of elementary particles, the vacuum becomes somewhat more complicated. Even in empty space, particles can appear spontaneously as a result of fluctuations of the vacuum. For example, an electron and a positron, or antielectron, can be created out of the void. Particles created in this way have only a fleeting existence; they are annihilated almost as soon as they appear, and their presence can never be detected directly. They are called virtual particles in order to distinguish them from real particles, whose lifetimes are not constrained in the same way, and which can be detected. Thus it is still possible to define that vacuum as a space that has no real particles in it.

One might expect that the vacuum would always be the state of lowest possible energy for a given region of space. If an area is initially empty and a real particle is put into it, the total energy, it seems, should be raised by at least the energy equivalent of the mass of the added particle. A surprising result of some recent theoretical investigations is that this assumption is not invariably true. There are conditions under which the introduction of a real particle of finite mass into an empty region of space can reduce the total energy. If the reduction in energy is great enough, an electron and a positron will be spontaneously created. Under these conditions the electron and positron are not a result of vacuum fluctuations but are real particles, which exist indefinitely and can be detected. In other words, under these conditions the vacuum is an unstable state and can decay into a state of lower energy; i.e., one in which real particles are created.

The essential condition for the decay of the vacuum is the presence of an intense electric field. As a result of the decay of the vacuum, the space permeated by such a field can be said to acquire an electric charge, and it can be called a charged vacuum. The particles that materialize in the space make the charge manifest. An electric field of sufficient intensity to create a charged vacuum is likely to be found in only one place: in the immediate vicinity of a superheavy atomic nucleus, one with about twice as many protons as the heaviest natural nuclei known. A nucleus that large cannot be stable, but it might be possible to assemble one next to a vacuum for long enough to observe the decay of the vacuum. Experiments attempting to achieve this are now under way.

Q. According to the passage, the author considers the reduction of energy in an empty region of space to which a real particle has been added to be

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 16

A and B are opposite to what is being asked.

C is irrelevant and seems like correct but is not.

D is clearly mentioned in the paragraph.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 17

​​Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Classical physics defines the vacuum as a state of absence: a vacuum is said to exist in a region of space if there is nothing in it. In the quantum field theories that describe the physics of elementary particles, the vacuum becomes somewhat more complicated. Even in empty space, particles can appear spontaneously as a result of fluctuations of the vacuum. For example, an electron and a positron, or antielectron, can be created out of the void. Particles created in this way have only a fleeting existence; they are annihilated almost as soon as they appear, and their presence can never be detected directly. They are called virtual particles in order to distinguish them from real particles, whose lifetimes are not constrained in the same way, and which can be detected. Thus it is still possible to define that vacuum as a space that has no real particles in it.

One might expect that the vacuum would always be the state of lowest possible energy for a given region of space. If an area is initially empty and a real particle is put into it, the total energy, it seems, should be raised by at least the energy equivalent of the mass of the added particle. A surprising result of some recent theoretical investigations is that this assumption is not invariably true. There are conditions under which the introduction of a real particle of finite mass into an empty region of space can reduce the total energy. If the reduction in energy is great enough, an electron and a positron will be spontaneously created. Under these conditions the electron and positron are not a result of vacuum fluctuations but are real particles, which exist indefinitely and can be detected. In other words, under these conditions the vacuum is an unstable state and can decay into a state of lower energy; i.e., one in which real particles are created.

The essential condition for the decay of the vacuum is the presence of an intense electric field. As a result of the decay of the vacuum, the space permeated by such a field can be said to acquire an electric charge, and it can be called a charged vacuum. The particles that materialize in the space make the charge manifest. An electric field of sufficient intensity to create a charged vacuum is likely to be found in only one place: in the immediate vicinity of a superheavy atomic nucleus, one with about twice as many protons as the heaviest natural nuclei known. A nucleus that large cannot be stable, but it might be possible to assemble one next to a vacuum for long enough to observe the decay of the vacuum. Experiments attempting to achieve this are now under way.

Q. According to the passage, virtual particles differ from real particles in which of the following ways?
I.  Virtual particles have extremely short lifetimes.
II. Virtual particles are created in an intense electric field.
III. Virtual particles cannot be detected directly.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 17

Statement 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is just opposite to the what is being stated.
Hence, D is the correct option.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 18

​​Read the passage carefully and answer within the context

Classical physics defines the vacuum as a state of absence: a vacuum is said to exist in a region of space if there is nothing in it. In the quantum field theories that describe the physics of elementary particles, the vacuum becomes somewhat more complicated. Even in empty space, particles can appear spontaneously as a result of fluctuations of the vacuum. For example, an electron and a positron, or antielectron, can be created out of the void. Particles created in this way have only a fleeting existence; they are annihilated almost as soon as they appear, and their presence can never be detected directly. They are called virtual particles in order to distinguish them from real particles, whose lifetimes are not constrained in the same way, and which can be detected. Thus it is still possible to define that vacuum as a space that has no real particles in it.

One might expect that the vacuum would always be the state of lowest possible energy for a given region of space. If an area is initially empty and a real particle is put into it, the total energy, it seems, should be raised by at least the energy equivalent of the mass of the added particle. A surprising result of some recent theoretical investigations is that this assumption is not invariably true. There are conditions under which the introduction of a real particle of finite mass into an empty region of space can reduce the total energy. If the reduction in energy is great enough, an electron and a positron will be spontaneously created. Under these conditions the electron and positron are not a result of vacuum fluctuations but are real particles, which exist indefinitely and can be detected. In other words, under these conditions the vacuum is an unstable state and can decay into a state of lower energy; i.e., one in which real particles are created.

The essential condition for the decay of the vacuum is the presence of an intense electric field. As a result of the decay of the vacuum, the space permeated by such a field can be said to acquire an electric charge, and it can be called a charged vacuum. The particles that materialize in the space make the charge manifest. An electric field of sufficient intensity to create a charged vacuum is likely to be found in only one place: in the immediate vicinity of a superheavy atomic nucleus, one with about twice as many protons as the heaviest natural nuclei known. A nucleus that large cannot be stable, but it might be possible to assemble one next to a vacuum for long enough to observe the decay of the vacuum. Experiments attempting to achieve this are now under way.

Q. The author’s assertions concerning the conditions that lead to the decay of the vacuum would be most weakened if which of the following occurred?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 18

A is wrong as it is with the theory.

B is incorrect as we are not looking for virtual particles at all - but for real ones.

D is wrong as it is opposite of what makes up the experiment.

C is correct as mentioned in the passage.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 19

There are five sentences which need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. Key in the most appropriate sequence.

A. Similarly, turning to caste, even though being lower caste is undoubtedly a separate cause of disparity, its impact is all the greater when the lower-caste families also happen to be poor.

B. Belonging to a privileged class can help a woman to overcome many barriers that obstruct women from less thriving classes.

C. It is the interactive presence of these two kinds of deprivation - being low class and being female - that massively impoverishes women from the less privileged classes.

D. A congruence of class deprivation and gender discrimination can blight the lives of poorer women very severely.

E. Gender is certainly a contributor to societal inequality, but it does not act independently of class.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 19

A direct link can be easily spotted in statements B, D and C as all talk about different classes and their impact.

However, C summarizes the results talked about in both B and D, so B and D should be followed by C.

Further A talks about "turning to caste", hence it marks the end to the result obtained in C.

Hence, A should follow C.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 20

There are five sentences which need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. Key in the most appropriate sequence.

A. When identity is thus ‘defined by contrast’, divergence with the West becomes central.

B. Indian religious literature such as the Bhagavad Gita or the Tantric texts, which are identified as differing from secular writings seen as ‘western’, elicits much greater interest in the West than do other Indian writings, including India's long history of heterodoxy.

C. There is a similar neglect of Indian writing on non-religious subjects, from mathematics, epistemology and natural science to economics and linguistics.

D. Through selective emphasis that point up differences with the West, other civilizations can, in this way, be redefined in alien terms, which can be exotic and charming, or else bizarre and terrifying, or simply strange and engaging.

E.The exception is the Kamasutra in which western readers have managed to cultivate an interest.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 20

There is a direct link between statements C and E because C talks of western neglect of Indian writings and E speaks of exception that is kamasutra.

There is also a link between B and D because B speaks about differing western perception about Bhagwat Gita and D talks about selective emphasis that point up differences with the West.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 21

There are five sentences which need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. Key in the most appropriate sequence.

A.This is now orthodoxy to which I subscribe - up to a point.

B.It emerged from the mathematics of chance and statistics.

C.Therefore the risk is measurable and manageable.

D.The fundamental concept: Prices are not predictable, but the mathematical laws of chance can describe their fluctuations.

E.This is how what business schools now call modern finance was born.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 21

There is a direct link between statements D, C and B, in that order.

D describes a fundamental concept, C explains the results and B establishes the cause.

E and A are also related because E provides the origin of modern finance and A states that this is now orthodoxy.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 22

There are five sentences which need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. Key in the most appropriate sequence.

A. He felt justified in bypassing Congress altogether on a variety of moves.

B. At times he was fighting the entire Congress.

C. Bush felt he had a mission to restore power to the presidency.

D. Bush was not fighting just the democrats.

E. Representative democracy is a messy business, and a CEO of the White House does not like a legislature of second guessers and time wasters.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 22

DBA necessarily need to come together but we have two choice having the same.

So let us look for another link. That link is between C & D.

Because both are talking of the mission of Bush.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 23

Key in the option which correctly summarizes the above paragraph : 

You seemed at first to take no notice of your school-fellows, or rather to set yourself against them because they were strangers to you. They knew as little of you as you did of them; this would have been the reason for their keeping aloof from you as well, which you would have felt as a hardship. Learn never to conceive a prejudice against others because you know nothing of them. It is bad reasoning, and makes enemies of half the world. Do not think ill of them till they behave ill to you; and then strive to avoid the faults which you see in them. This will disarm their hostility sooner than pique or resentment or complaint.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 23

The author is cautioning us not to be prejudiced against someone without any significant reason.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 24

In this paragraph last sentence that completes the paragraph has been deleted. From the given options chooses the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

Adorno’s account of import and function distinguishes his sociology of art from both hermeneutical and empirical approaches. He argues that, both as categories and as phenomena, import and function need to be understood in terms of each other. On one hand, an artwork’s import and its functions in society can be diametrically opposed. On other hand, one cannot give a proper account of an artwork’s social functions if one does not raise import-related questions about their significance. So too, an artwork’s import embodies the work’s social functions and has potential relevance for various social contexts.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 24

(1) talks about social functions in general while the paragraph talks about the social functions of artwork.

The last two sentences of the paragraph highlight the importance of import, so,(2) is an appropriate option.

(3) can be negated as it claims that social functions are antithetical (opposed) to society, which is self-contradictory.

(4) just rephrases the third sentence of the paragraph.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 25

In this paragraph last sentence that completes the paragraph has been deleted. From the given options chooses the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

War was also widely seen before 1914 by the upper class across Europe as an assertion of masculine honour, like a duel, as it were, only on a much bigger scale. Duelling was a common way of avenging real or imagined slights to a man’s honour in virtually every European country at the time. Only in Britain had it died out: the point of a duel was to vindicate one’s manly honour by standing unmoving as your opponent fired a bullet at you at twenty or thirty paces, and the invention of modern cricket, in which a man was required to face down a different kind of round, hard object as it hurtled towards him from the other end of the wicket, was a satisfactory(and comfortingly legal) substitute.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 25

The paragraph talks about the popular perception of war in Europe before 1914;it was similar to a duel. Britain stood apart from other European nations in that it substituted duelling with cricket.

(2) appropriately states the qualities of men that are evident in the last sentence of the paragraph and that ultimately led to war.

(1) talks about the male code of conduct a century later, which may start a new paragraph but should not conclude the given paragraph.

The information contained in (3) doesn’t contrast with the last sentence, so ‘yet’ is unwarranted.

Though (4) talks about the war, he reasons provided for the war are not related to the paragraph at all. 

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 26

Out of the given statements, 4 of them can be grouped together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify one odd one out into the following sentences:

(1) Though the air is chilly at dawn and night, the sun can be harsh on your face and skin, making it feel sunburnt or wrinkled; just as one takes care of nourishing the skin, with the various lotions and moisturizes, it is also equally important to take care of the body with the right nourishment this season.

(2) Winter! The weather where you not just bring out those woollen sweaters and mufflers, but also want to just tuck yourself in, sipping hot tea or soup; but one has to drag oneself off the bed and run around doing the various chores; some indoors and some outdoors.

(3) Winter abounds with fruits like apples, custard apples, oranges, kiwis, the ever present bananas and pomegranates. All fruits have their own nutritional value and can work wonders if added to your winter diet. Majority of them are rich in vitamins C,D and E, and antioxidants and fibre. As our intake of water during winter reduces drastically, these fruits can provide the necessary fibre in the digestive system.

(4) Unlike what you might expect,the overwhelming majority of cold-weather casualties do not result from vehicular accidents, falls on ice or snow-related activities. Rather,they are attributable to leading killers like heart disease, stroke and respiratory disease,and are especially common among septuagenarians and octagenarians.

(5) While we lean more towards the intake of fluids in the summer,our food habits change during the winter;one craves for hot food, sometimes even spicy ones.


Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 26

The passage talks about the weather in ‘winter’, the general tendency during winter and how fruits play an important part in keeping us nourished.

Choice 2 is the ideal beginning for ‘winter’ with sweaters and mufflers, hot tea and soups.

Choice 1 describes a typical winter day wherein the dawn and night is chilly but the day is crackling with the sharp rays of the sun.

Choice 5 follows describing our food habits during winter and how we feel like tucking in hot and spicy food.

Choice 3 sums up with the natural bounty of winter fruits and how they can work wonders if included in our diet.

Hence, 2153 form a logical sequence of the paragraph.

Choice 4 speaks about the dark side of winter and the resulting deaths due to the cold. This is not in sync with the essence of the paragraph and hence the odd one out.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 27

What is the remainder obtained when the sum of the squares of any thirty consecutive natural numbers is divided by 12?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 27

Let a, a + 1, a + 2, …, a + 29 be thirty consecutive natural numbers and N be the sum of their squares.
N = a2 + (a + 1)2 + (a + 2)2 +…+ (a + 29)2
N = 30a2 + 2a(1 + 2 + ….+ 29) + (12 + 22 + …+ 292)

Remainder when   (29 x 30 x 59)/6 is divided by 12 = 11
Now

As (a2 + 29a) is always even, remainder obtained
when 30(a2 + 29a) is divided by 12 = 0.
So the remainder obtained when the sum of the squares of any thirty consecutive natural numbers is
divided by 12 = 11.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 28

x and y are natural numbers such that x > y > 1. If 8! is divisible by x2 × y2, then how many such sets (x, y) are possible?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 28

There are four prime numbers less than 8 i.e. 2, 3, 5
and 7.

The highest powers of 2, 3, 5 and 7 in 8! are 7, 2, 1 and 1 respectively.

The possible sets of values of (x2, y2) are:
(32, 22)
(42, 22)
(42, 32)
(62, 22)
(82, 32)
(62, 42)
(122, 22)

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 29

w, x, y and z are natural numbers such that:
(i) logy x = 3/2
(ii) logz w = 5/4
(iii) y – z = 9

Q. What is the value of ‘x – w’?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 29


Since both x and w are natural numbers, the above is
true only when  x(1/3)= 5 and  w(2/5)= 4 .
Hence,
x = 125, w = 32 and x – w = 93.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 30

A right angled triangle is given. Draw a line that is parallel to the hypotenuse, leaving a smaller triangle. There was a 35% reduction in the length of the hypotenuse of the triangle. If the area of the original triangle was 34 cm2, what is the area (in cm2) of the smaller triangle?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 30

Let ABC be the required triangle cut along DE there is 35% decrease in hypotenuse since both triangles are similar height and base are also get reduced by 35% or new base and height are 65% of original values.

New Area = Area*(65/100)2 = 14.365
 

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 31

Six unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability that at least two heads occur.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 31

Probability that one heads occurs = 6C1 (1/2)(1/2)5= 6 (1/26)

Probability that all tails occur =6C0 (1/2)6 =(1/26)

Hence, probability that at least two heads occur = 1 - (1/26) - 6 (1/26) = 57/64

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 32

There is a copper sheet in the form of square. Its  side is 12 cm and  is converted into a box with open top. The sheet is placed horizontally. Then, equal sized squares, each of side x cm, are cut from the four corners of the sheet. Finally, the four resulting sides are bent vertically upwards in the shape of a box. If x is an integer, then what value of x maximizes the volume of the box?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 32

Go by answer options

1. x = 3 then l&b = 6 and h = 3 vol = 6*6*3 = 108

2. x = 4 then l&b = 4 and h = 4 vol = 4*4*4 = 64

3. x = 1 then l&b = 10 and h = 1 vol = 10*10*1 = 100

4. x = 2 then l&b = 8 and h = 2 vol = 8*8*2 = 128

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 33

When I was 3/5th of your present age , you were 1/3rd of my present age. If my age after 4 years will be 40 then after how many years will your age be 40?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 33

36 – (3x/5) = x -12 .
Solving X = 30 so after 10 years your age will be 40.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 34

A man's income is increased by Rs 400 but the income tax is reduced from 5% to 4 %. He pays the same amount of tax as before. What is his new income ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 34

Lets initial income be X.

New income is (X + 400).

Now 5% of X = 4% of (X + 400).

Solving X = 1600.

Hence, new Income is 2000.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 35

If |b| ≥ 1 and x =  -|a|b, then which one of the following is necessarily true?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 35

½ b½  ³ 1, x = -½ a½ b
when b = -2, and a= 1 x = 2, a - xb = 1+4 = 5
hence (a) and (bn) can be ruled out
when b = 1, a = xb is positive.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 36

The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money after 2 years at 10% rate of interest is Rs. 25. Find the difference in the interests after 3 years.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 36

Let principal = P
Rate = 10%
Time = 2 years
According to the question, compound interest - simple interest = 25

⇒ 0.21P - 0.2P = 25
⇒ P = 2500
After 3 years, difference 

Required difference = 0.331P - 0.3P = 0.031P = Rs. 77.5

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 37

Patliputra, capital of Bihar has 10000 families.It was found that 40% families buy newspaper Anand Patrika, 20% families buy newspaper Bharat and 10% families buy newspaper City News , 5% families buy Anand Patrika and Bharat, 3% buy Bharat and City News and 4% buy Anand patrika and City news. If 2% families buy all the three newspapers, then the number of families that buy none of these newspapers is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 37

Let Anand Patrika be A. Bharat be B . City News be C.
Number of families who buy none of A, B and C = N - n(A ∪ B ∪ C), 
where N = Total number of families.
n(A): Number of Newspaper A readers.
n(B): Number of Newspaper B readers.
n(C): Number of Newspaper C readers. 

Number of families who buy none of A, B and C

= 10000 - {n(A) + n(B) + n(C) - n(A ∩ B) - n(B ∩ C) - n(A ∩ C) + n(A ∩ B ∩ C)}
= 10000 - 4000 - 2000 - 1000 + 500 + 300 + 400 - 200 
= 4000

Number of families who buy none of A, B and C = 4000

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 38

If the height of a cone is decreased by 20% and its radius is increased by 30%, then what is the percentage increase in the total surface area of the cone?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 38

The total surface area of a cone = πr2 + πrl.
Where

Given that h decreases by 20% whereas r increases by 30%. Now without knowing the ratio of r and h, we cannot find the percentage change in l and thus we cannot determine the percentage change in the total surface area of the cone. 

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 39

LCM of 2 natural numbers is 87. How many such pair exists ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 39

5 pairs. ( 1, 87) ; ( 3, 87) ; ( 29, 87) ;  ( 87, 87 ) ; ( 3, 29)

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 40

A, B, C working together completes a work in 15 days. After working for 5 days A quits, B & C completes the remaining work in 20 days. Find A alone will complete the work in how many days?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 40

Let total work be 60 units.
Rate of ( A + B + C ) = 4 units / day
In 5 days they complete 20 units of work.

Now 40 units B & C completes in 20 days.
Therefore R ( B + C) = 2 units / day
Hence Rate (A ) = 2 units / day
Hence A completes the total work in 30 days.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 41

The number of roots common between the two equations x3 + 3x+ 4x + 5 = 0 and x3+ 2x+ 7x + 3 = 0 is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 41

Subtracting one equation from other we get a quadratic equation x- 3x + 2 = 0, which has two roots 1,2, but neither of them satisfies these equations.

Hence, 0 will be the answer.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 42

The amounts deposited by Mr. Herald and Mr. George are in the ratio 9:13, respectively. The total amount deposited is Rs. 132000. After some time, Mr. Herald withdraws Rs. 18000. Find the money withdrawn by Mr. George so that the new ratio of their deposits becomes 4 : 7.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 42

Total amount deposited by Mr. Herald and Mr. George = Rs. 132000

Ratio of the amounts deposited = 9:13

Let the common ratio be x. 

Money deposited by Mr. Herald = 9x 

Money deposited by Mr. George = 13x 

Now, 9x + 13x = Rs. 132,000

22x = Rs. 132,000 ; x = 6000

Money deposited by Mr. Herald = 9 x 6000 = Rs. 54,000

Money deposited by Mr. George = 13 x 6000 = Rs. 78,000

Money withdrawn by Mr. Herald = Rs. 18000

Money left in the account of Mr. Herald = Rs. (54000 - 18000) = Rs. 36,000

Let the money withdrawn by Mr. George be Rs. y. 

New ratio = 4 : 7 

Now,
36000 / 78000 - y = 4 / 7

y = 15000

Money withdrawn by Mr. George = Rs. 15,000

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 43

If the sum of the following series is n/m (where m and n are co-prime). Find the value of m - n. 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 43

Let Nth term = 1 / ( 1+ n2 + n4)

= ½ [ 1 / (  n2 - n + 1) - 1 / ( 1+ n2 + n) ]
= Put n = 1, 2, 3, ……40
= ½[ 1 -  1 / 1641]  = 820 / 1641

Therefore m – n = 1641 – 820 = 821.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 44

If six straight lines and 6 circles intersect each other, then the maximum possible number of distinct points of intersection is ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 44

The number of points of intersection using 6 straight lines is 6C2 = (6 x 5)/(1 x 2) = 15

We know that a straight line and a circle can intersect in at most two different points

∴ The number points of intersection = 6C1 × 6C1 × 2 = 72

We know that two circles can intersect in at most two different points. The number points of intersection possible by five circles in 6C2 × 2 = 30

∴ The maximum number of distinct points of intersection = 15 + 72 + 30 = 117

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 45

Read the following information and answer:

The city of Dholpur conducted elections for electing four posts – Mayor, Councilman, Administrator and Commissioner. Each of five persons – Bheem, Motu, Chutki, Laddu and Kaliya – contested for all the four posts. There are nine wards – Ward 1 through Ward 9 – in Dholpur. Further, each citizencasts exactly one vote, favouring any one of the five persons. After all the citizens voted, the four officials are elected based on the following criteria:

1. The candidate who received the highest number of votes across the nine wards combined is elected the Mayor.

2.For a candidate to be elected as the Councilman, he should have received at least 15% of the votes polled in a ward for each ward. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate with the highest number of votes is elected the Councilman.

3.For a candidate to be elected as the Administrator, he should have received at least 15% of the votes polled in that ward for at least 6 wards. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate who topped * the maximum number of wards in elected the Administrator.

4.For a candidate to be elected as the Commissioner, he must have topped* the maximum number of wards.
The same person can be elected to two or more posts.

*A candidate is said to have topped a ward if he received a maximum number of votes across the five candidates in that ward

The following table provides the votes received by the five candidates in each ward of the city:

Q. What is the difference between the number of votes received by the Mayor in Ward 6 and the number of votes received by the Administrator in Ward 9?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 45

The total votes received by the five candidates across the nine wards is given in the first table below. The second table provides 15% of the total votes polled in each ward.

Bheem would have been elected as the Mayor, since he received the highest number of votes.

Bheem received less than 15% votes in ward 1, ward 4, ward 7 and ward 9. Motu and Chutki received at least 15% votes in all the wards. Laddu received less than 15% votes in ward 6 and ward 7. Kaliya received less than 15% votes in ward 3, ward 4 and ward 5.

Only Motu and Chutki are eligible to be Councilmen. Among the two, Chutki received the higher number of votes and will be elected the councilmen.
Except for Bheem, all the others are eligible for Administrator, among them, Motu received the maximum number of votes in one ward. Chutki received the maximum number of votes in one ward. Laddu received the maximum number of votes in three wards. Kaliya received the maximum number of votes in two wards.

Hence, Laddu will be elected as the Administrator.

Bheem received the maximum number of votes in four wards. Hence, Bheem will be elected as the commissioner as well.

The Mayor, Bheem, in Ward 6 received 200 votes. The Administrator, Laddu, received 245 votes in Ward 9. Hence, the difference= 45.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 46

Read the following information and answer:

The city of Dholpur conducted elections for electing four posts – Mayor, Councilman, Administrator and Commissioner. Each of five persons – Bheem, Motu, Chutki, Laddu and Kaliya – contested for all the four posts. There are nine wards – Ward 1 through Ward 9 – in Dholpur. Further, each citizencasts exactly one vote, favouring any one of the five persons. After all the citizens voted, the four officials are elected based on the following criteria:

1. The candidate who received the highest number of votes across the nine wards combined is elected the Mayor.

2.For a candidate to be elected as the Councilman, he should have received at least 15% of the votes polled in a ward for each ward. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate with the highest number of votes is elected the Councilman.

3.For a candidate to be elected as the Administrator, he should have received at least 15% of the votes polled in that ward for at least 6 wards. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate who topped * the maximum number of wards in elected the Administrator.

4.For a candidate to be elected as the Commissioner, he must have topped* the maximum number of wards.
The same person can be elected to two or more posts.

*A candidate is said to have topped a ward if he received a maximum number of votes across the five candidates in that ward

The following table provides the votes received by the five candidates in each ward of the city:

Q. Who will be elected for more than one post?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 47

Read the following information and answer:

The city of Dholpur conducted elections for electing four posts – Mayor, Councilman, Administrator and Commissioner. Each of five persons – Bheem, Motu, Chutki, Laddu and Kaliya – contested for all the four posts. There are nine wards – Ward 1 through Ward 9 – in Dholpur. Further, each citizencasts exactly one vote, favouring any one of the five persons. After all the citizens voted, the four officials are elected based on the following criteria:

1. The candidate who received the highest number of votes across the nine wards combined is elected the Mayor.

2.For a candidate to be elected as the Councilman, he should have received at least 15% of the votes polled in a ward for each ward. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate with the highest number of votes is elected the Councilman.

3.For a candidate to be elected as the Administrator, he should have received at least 15% of the votes polled in that ward for at least 6 wards. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate who topped * the maximum number of wards in elected the Administrator.

4.For a candidate to be elected as the Commissioner, he must have topped* the maximum number of wards.
The same person can be elected to two or more posts.

*A candidate is said to have topped a ward if he received a maximum number of votes across the five candidates in that ward

The following table provides the votes received by the five candidates in each ward of the city:

Q. What is the difference between the total number of votes received by the Commissioner and the total number of votes received by the Councilman?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 47

Bheem received the maximum number of votes in four wards. Hence, Bheem will be elected as the commissioner as well.
Required difference = 1630- 1530 = 100.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 48

Read the following information and answer:

The city of Dholpur conducted elections for electing four posts – Mayor, Councilman, Administrator and Commissioner. Each of five persons – Bheem, Motu, Chutki, Laddu and Kaliya – contested for all the four posts. There are nine wards – Ward 1 through Ward 9 – in Dholpur. Further, each citizencasts exactly one vote, favouring any one of the five persons. After all the citizens voted, the four officials are elected based on the following criteria:

1. The candidate who received the highest number of votes across the nine wards combined is elected the Mayor.

2.For a candidate to be elected as the Councilman, he should have received at least 15% of the votes polled in a ward for each ward. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate with the highest number of votes is elected the Councilman.

3.For a candidate to be elected as the Administrator, he should have received at least 15% of the votes polled in that ward for at least 6 wards. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate who topped * the maximum number of wards in elected the Administrator.

4.For a candidate to be elected as the Commissioner, he must have topped* the maximum number of wards.
The same person can be elected to two or more posts.

*A candidate is said to have topped a ward if he received a maximum number of votes across the five candidates in that ward

The following table provides the votes received by the five candidates in each ward of the city:

Q. If the total number of votes received by the Mayor, Councilman, Administrator and the Commissioner as a percentage of the total number of votes polled is a%, b%, c% and d%, which of the following is true?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 48

Since the mayor and commissioner are the same, a=d. From the options, only option D satisfies.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 49

Study the given data and answer the following question.

The given data provides information about the salary, increments, investments and expenses.
The following table gives salaries of different persons in 2006:

The following pie chart gives contributions of investments towards funds which are included neither in expenditures nor in savings.

Total funds = Rs. 61,200

The following graph gives increments in salaries (in %):

The following graph gives their percentage expenses out of the salary:

Q. In 2008, the savings of Bharat were what percent of the savings of Ankita in 2007, if investments were not taken into consideration?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 49

Salary of Bharat in 2008 = 37,600 x 1.6 x 1.5 = Rs. 90,240

Savings = 90,240 x 0.7 - 61,200 x (0.24) = Rs. 48,480

Salary of Ankita in 2007 = 73,870 x 1.4 = Rs. 1,03,418

Savings = 1,03,418 x 0.8 - (61,200 x 0.13) = Rs. 74,778

Required % = (48,480 x 100)/74,778 = 64.83%.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 50

Study the given data and answer the following question.

The given data provides information about the salary, increments, investments and expenses.
The following table gives salaries of different persons in 2006:

The following pie chart gives contributions of investments towards funds which are included neither in expenditures nor in savings.

Total funds = Rs. 61,200

The following graph gives increments in salaries (in %):

The following graph gives their percentage expenses out of the salary:

Q. The salary of Manisha in year 2008 was what % more than her total savings for the years 2006 and 2007?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 50

Salary of Manisha in 2008 = 87,700 x 1.2 x 1.3 = Rs. 1,36,812

Savings of Manisha in 2006 = 87,700 x 0.7 - 61,200 x 0.25 = Rs. 46,090

Savings of Manisha in 2007 = 87,700 x 1.2 x 0.6 - 61,200 x 0.25 = Rs. 47,844

Savings of Manisha in 2006 = 87,700 x 0.7 - 61,200 x 0.25 = Rs. 46,090

Savings of Manisha in 2007 = 87,700 x 1.2 x 0.6 - 61,200 x 0.25 = Rs. 47,844

Required % = (42,878/93,934) x 100 = 45.64%

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 51

Study the given data and answer the following question.

The given data provides information about the salary, increments, investments and expenses.
The following table gives salaries of different persons in 2006:

The following pie chart gives contributions of investments towards funds which are included neither in expenditures nor in savings.

Total funds = Rs. 61,200

The following graph gives increments in salaries (in %):

The following graph gives their percentage expenses out of the salary:

Q. If a pie chart is made using the savings of all 4 persons in years 2007-2008, the angle corresponding to Poonam's savings will be

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 51

Total savings of Bharat in 2008 = (37,600 x 1.6 x 1.5) x 0.7 - 0.24 x 61,200 = Rs. 48,480

Total savings of Poonam in 2008 = 81,433 x 0.6 - 23,256 = Rs. 25,604

Total savings of Manisha in 2008 = 1,36,812 x 0.5 - 15,300 = Rs. 53,106

Total savings of Ankita in 2008 = Rs. 1,24,102 x 0.4 - (7956) = Rs. 41,685

Angle = 25,604 x 360/1,68,875 = 54.58 degrees.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 52

Study the given data and answer the following question.

The given data provides information about the salary, increments, investments and expenses.
The following table gives salaries of different persons in 2006:

The following pie chart gives contributions of investments towards funds which are included neither in expenditures nor in savings.

Total funds = Rs. 61,200

The following graph gives increments in salaries (in %):

The following graph gives their percentage expenses out of the salary:

Q. If income and savings of Manisha in 2009 increased by 14% and 68%, respectively, over their corresponding values in 2007, then what percentage of income did she spend in 2009? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 52

Savings of Manisha in 2007 = (87,700 x 1.2) x 0.6 - 15,300 = Rs. 47,844
In 2009, Manisha's savings = Rs. 80,378

Salary in 2009 = Rs. 1,55,966
% expense = (60,288/1,55,966) x 100 = 38.65%

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 53

Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Laxmi, Priya and Swati are summer intern at Infosys. The company has allotted each of them a project based on their area of interest. When they met the HR head, they are informed that, based on their performance they can be finally selected for Asst manager. All of them are eager to convert their internship into a job offer.
Each of them is assigned a mentor who evaluates the intern’s performance along with the HR head.

In the second week of her eight-week internship, Swati realizes that the project requires inputs from subjects she studied in her third trimester. However, during the third trimester, Swati was significantly distracted by an inter-college sports meet, affecting her grasp of the subjects.

Q. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate way forward for Swati?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 54

Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Laxmi, Priya and Swati are summer intern at Infosys. The company has allotted each of them a project based on their area of interest. When they met the HR head, they are informed that, based on their performance they can be finally selected for Asst manager. All of them are eager to convert their internship into a job offer.
Each of them is assigned a mentor who evaluates the intern’s performance along with the HR head.

Laxmi's got a project wherein she has to understand the employees perception about HR policies of Infosys. She was advised to interview only the good performers identified by the HR because poor performers, they  believes, usually is pessimistic about the policies.

Q. Which of the following courses of action will BEST enable Laxmi to provide the organization with a complete picture?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 55

Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Laxmi, Priya and Swati are summer intern at Infosys. The company has allotted each of them a project based on their area of interest. When they met the HR head, they are informed that, based on their performance they can be finally selected for Asst manager. All of them are eager to convert their internship into a job offer.
Each of them is assigned a mentor who evaluates the intern’s performance along with the HR head.

Priya, got a project where she has to understand work-life balance of the sales executive personnel. She collected the following information about their outbounds:

1. Frequent meetings help strengthen relationships with key customers.
2. Travelling has no effect on the personal lives of the sales executives as most of them are single.
3. Travel enhances the financial health of the sales executives since their fixed salaries are low.
4. Frequent travel has no significant impact on market budget, given the current high margins from sales.
5. The sales executives have the autonomy to decide the frequency of their travel. Priya thinks that the frequency of travel is higher than required.

Q. Which of the following combinations of the above reasons can enable Priya BEST substantiate her thinking?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 56

Read the situation below and answer the questions:
A Transnational Company gets his  spring water from Nagdah, a village in Madhubani district.. The unprocessed natural spring water is directly bottled by the TNC. The company brands it as 'Tisleri ' and sells at 50% premium vis-a-vis other brands that sell processed water.

The local panchayat,  controls the spring water usage. Hence, the company signed a 100-year lease with the panchayat for exclusive access to the spring water for business purposes. This contract contributes 50% to the panchayat's revenues besides providing 500 jobs in the panchayat. The spring also meets domestic and agricultural needs of the people of Nagdah and the surrounding villages.

Ragini owns a small parcel of farming land in Nagdah. She grows cannabis in some part of her land and earns a significant amount of money from it. Soon after the bottling plant was commissioned, Ragini, instigated by a landlord with a vested interest, starts accusing the TNC of robbing her of water and impacting her livelihood. She threatens to take the TNC to court.

Q. Which of the following options will BEST solve the TNC's problem?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 57

Read the situation below and answer the question:

A Transnational Company gets his  spring water from Nagdah, a village in Madhubani district.. The unprocessed natural spring water is directly bottled by the TNC. The company brands it as 'Tisleri ' and sells at 50% premium vis-a-vis other brands that sell processed water.

The local panchayat,  controls the spring water usage. Hence, the company signed a 100-year lease with the panchayat for exclusive access to the spring water for business purposes. This contract contributes 50% to the panchayat's revenues besides providing 500 jobs in the panchayat. The spring also meets domestic and agricultural needs of the people of Nagdah and the surrounding villages.

The TNC has spotted traces of chemicals in their fortnightly water quality analysis. The TNCrealizes that this is due to the contaminated agricultural runoff, flowing into the spring from the nearby fields where farmers use pesticides and fertilizers. This requires an immediate solution. Which of the following options will BEST resolve the situation for the TNC?

Q. Which of the following options will BEST solve the TNC's problem?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 58

Read the situation and answer the question:

A Transnational Company gets his  spring water from Nagdah, a village in Madhubani district.. The unprocessed natural spring water is directly bottled by the TNC. The company brands it as 'Tisleri ' and sells at 50% premium vis-a-vis other brands that sell processed water.

The local panchayat,  controls the spring water usage. Hence, the company signed a 100-year lease with the panchayat for exclusive access to the spring water for business purposes. This contract contributes 50% to the panchayat's revenues besides providing 500 jobs in the panchayat. The spring also meets domestic and agricultural needs of the people of Nagdah and the surrounding villages.

The TNC is concerned about chemical contamination of the natural spring water due to the agricultural runoff with pesticides and fertilizers. The TNC is looking for a sustainable solution to this contamination.

Q. Which of the following courses of action will BEST solve the issue?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 59

Read the situation below and answer the questions:

The Computer valley, selling computer hardware, is the only one of its kind in the remote village of Darbhanga. Because online purchases take two weeks or more to arrive, The Computer valley is a quick stop for buying items such as pen drives and USB cables. Besides selling computer hardware, The Computer valley also undertakes repairs of out-of-warranty products.

The Computer valley revenues for the last 3 years has decreased to 4 % from 12% in earlier years. As the e- commerce is growing small shops is struggling to increase profitability.  The Computer valley has been offering a discount on MRP to compete with e-commerce prices.

Q. Which of the following is the BEST reason for The Computer valley NOT to reduce the current discount offered to the customers?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 60

Read the situation below and answer the questions:

The Computer valley, selling computer hardware, is the only one of its kind in the remote village of Darbhanga. Because online purchases take two weeks or more to arrive, The Computer valley is a quick stop for buying items such as pen drives and USB cables. Besides selling computer hardware, The Computer valley also undertakes repairs of out-of-warranty products.

The Computer valley wants to increase the variety of products sold, including expensive ones. However, it is averse to accumulating unsold products, specifically of the expensive kind.

Q. Which of the following is the BEST option if The Computer valley wants to increase the variety of the products it sells?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 61

Read the situation below and answer the question:

The Computer valley, selling computer hardware, is the only one of its kind in the remote village of Darbhanga. Because online purchases take two weeks or more to arrive, The Computer valley is a quick stop for buying items such as pen drives and USB cables. Besides selling computer hardware, The Computer valley also undertakes repairs of out-of-warranty products.

The Computer valley for repairing its products contacted Digital Sales,  a company in service  industry on a condition that other brands are not to be taken. Repairs currently account for 15% of its revenues.

Q. Which of the following, if true, will BEST help The Computer valley to decide on the franchise?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 62

Read the situation below and answer the question:

When Priyanka opened the package, she was perplexed. She received cotton sofa covers instead of satin sofa covers, she had ordered. Priyanka ordered them for her father’s new house from a popular e-commerce website “Slipmart” that hosted products of many sellers.

Confused, Priyanka contacted the seller's office using the details given on the package. The seller's representative profusely regretted and promised to send the satin sofa covers at no extra cost. He added that Priyanka need not return the cotton covers she received. Priyanka happily accepted the deal.

A few days later, Priyanka received another package from the seller. Unfortunately, this package also contained cotton sofa covers. Completely disillusioned with the seller's professionalism, Priyanka decided to put to use these cotton sofa covers also.

Q. Slipmart asked feedback for her experience of online shopping. Same day,  her father said that the balcony curtains needed to be changed. He suggested that they be bought from a local shop. 'If something went wrong, we could at least yell at the seller,' he added.
Priyanka stared at her laptop and began writing her feedback. What would Priyanka DEFINITELY achieve by giving feedback?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 63

Read the situation below and answer the question:

When Priyanka opened the package, she was perplexed. She received cotton sofa covers instead of satin sofa covers, she had ordered. Priyanka ordered them for her father’s new house from a popular e-commerce website “Slipmart” that hosted products of many sellers.

Confused, Priyanka contacted the seller's office using the details given on the package. The seller's representative profusely regretted and promised to send the satin sofa covers at no extra cost. He added that Priyanka need not return the cotton covers she received. Priyanka happily accepted the deal.

A few days later, Priyanka received another package from the seller. Unfortunately, this package also contained cotton sofa covers. Completely disillusioned with the seller's professionalism, Priyanka decided to put to use these cotton sofa covers also.

Q. Priyanka gave least star out of the maximum 5 stars to the seller and described her experience as pathetic. When the RM called and pleaded with her to change her feedback and upgrade them to 5-star, as they had already terminated the employee contract. He appealed that they were a young organization and that their sales were getting badly affected. Given the circumstances, what should be the IDEAL response?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 64

Read the situation below and answer the question:

When Priyanka opened the package, she was perplexed. She received cotton sofa covers instead of satin sofa covers, she had ordered. Priyanka ordered them for her father’s new house from a popular e-commerce website “Slipmart” that hosted products of many sellers.

Confused, Priyanka contacted the seller's office using the details given on the package. The seller's representative profusely regretted and promised to send the satin sofa covers at no extra cost. He added that Priyanka need not return the cotton covers she received. Priyanka happily accepted the deal.

A few days later, Priyanka received another package from the seller. Unfortunately, this package also contained cotton sofa covers. Completely disillusioned with the seller's professionalism, Priyanka decided to put to use these cotton sofa covers also.

Q. When few weeks passed, the RM enquired, 'In case you are using the cotton sofa covers and like them, kindly rate them on the e- commerce website. It will help us serve our customers better.'
Later that evening, her father remarked, 'You know, I really love these sofa covers though I am not sure why you bought so many of them'. Which of the following reasons gives Priyanka the BEST rationale to ignore the sales head's request?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 65

Read the situation below and answer the question:

Deepak, who is originally from Ranchi, worked in Jamshedpur with TATA STEEL, a government construction company. Although HR policies concerning job security & work-life balance attracted Deepak to TATA STEEL, over time he found his work monotonous with no growth opportunities. However, the proximity to Ranchi enabled him to visit his parents at his convenience.
Recently Deepak applied to DFL, a multinational company engaged in construction related operations, making inroads into many Indian states. DFL interviewed Deepak and offered him three times his current salary at TATA STEEL.

Q. While considering DFL's offer, Deepak pondered over the following facts:
1. A recent government policy made poor performance punishable by salary reduction or dismissal.

2. The first assignment at DFL is a bridge construction project in a village near Ranchi.

3. With his current savings, Deepak need not depend on regular income for at least six months.

4. Though an exemplary performer, Deepak has hardly been recognized at TATA STEEL.

5. Based on the annual performance review at DFL, Deepak will either earn double the salary or get fired. ​

Which of the following combinations of the above facts will BEST help Deepak decide on joining DFL?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 66

Read the situation below and answer the question:

Deepak, who is originally from Ranchi, worked in Jamshedpur with TATA STEEL, a government construction company. Although HR policies concerning job security & work-life balance attracted Deepak to TATA STEEL, over time he found his work monotonous with no growth opportunities. However, the proximity to Ranchi enabled him to visit his parents at his convenience.
Recently Deepak applied to DFL, a multinational company engaged in construction related operations, making inroads into many Indian states. DFL interviewed Deepak and offered him three times his current salary at TATA STEEL.

Q. While mulling over the offer, Deepak consulted Natrajan, his trusted senior at TATA STEEL. Natrajan, who had friends in DFL, disclosed that it preferred government employees for its projects in Jharkhand, Bihar and Chhattisgarh. 'Once the project is completed, DFL may not need your skills,' observed Natrajan.
Which of the following, if true, will BEST enable Deepak to decide on the offer?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 67

Read the situation below and answer the question:

Deepak, who is originally from Ranchi, worked in Jamshedpur with TATA STEEL, a government construction company. Although HR policies concerning job security & work-life balance attracted Deepak to TATA STEEL, over time he found his work monotonous with no growth opportunities. However, the proximity to Ranchi enabled him to visit his parents at his convenience.
Recently Deepak applied to DFL, a multinational company engaged in construction related operations, making inroads into many Indian states. DFL interviewed Deepak and offered him three times his current salary at TATA STEEL.

Q. Deepak, in his current job, came across incidences of bribing by private sector officials. He wondered if he might have to bribe government officials while at DFL.

He reflected on his interview with DFL:

1. The interviewers were puzzled how Deepak could manage his EMIs with his current income.

2. One interviewer was constantly probing how Deepak managed to meet his project deadlines with little cooperation from his subordinates.

3. 'What would you do if your project has a fortnight's deadline and it takes a month to obtain a permit?,' asked another interviewer.

4. A question that intrigued Deepak was, 'Should a pack of dacoits share their loot with one of their gang, who had killed a bystander against their motto 'Thou shalt not kill'?'

Which of the following sequences of the above statements is in the MOST appropriate DESCENDING order of bribing undertones?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 68

Read the situation below and answer the questions:

Two industrial towns, Ranchi and Hazaribagh, about 90 kms. apart, are similar in land area, population, gender diversity and per capita incomes.
Amarjeet Singh owns a bakery named TASTY in Ranchi. He specializes in croissants, masala bread and whole wheat bread; eggless cakes are also a favorite.
Among the four bakeries in Ranchi, Amarjeet's bakery with a market share of 30% is second only to the oldest Bread cafe bakery whose market share is 40%. Bread cafe commands a loyal customer base and does not offer eggless varieties.

Q. Amarjeet has decided to open a branch in Hazaribagh. Which of the following facts about Hazaribagh will BEST support his decision?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 69

Read the situation below and answer the questions:

Two industrial towns, Ranchi and Hazaribagh, about 90 kms. apart, are similar in land area, population, gender diversity and per capita incomes.
Amarjeet Singh owns a bakery named TASTY in Ranchi. He specializes in croissants, masala bread and whole wheat bread; eggless cakes are also a favorite.
Among the four bakeries in Ranchi, Amarjeet's bakery with a market share of 30% is second only to the oldest Bread cafe bakery whose market share is 40%. Bread cafe commands a loyal customer base and does not offer eggless varieties.

Q. Amarjeet wishes to open a 100% eggless branch in Hazaribagh. To explore feasibility, he collected the following facts:

1. Eggless products account for 30% of TASTY's sales.

2. At least 20% of all bakery sales in Hazaribagh is from eggless products.

3. The eggless varieties of TASTY contain minute traces of egg.

4. TASTY currently makes 3% of its revenue from Hazaribagh customers and all of it comes from eggless products.

5. Bread cafe's Hazaribagh branch struggles with a market share of 10%.

From the combinations below, in the DESCENDING order of effectiveness, choose the one that BEST supports Amarjeet's decision.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 70

Read the situation below and answer the questions:

Two industrial towns, Ranchi and Hazaribagh, about 90 kms. apart, are similar in land area, population, gender diversity and per capita incomes.
Amarjeet Singh owns a bakery named TASTY in Ranchi. He specializes in croissants, masala bread and whole wheat bread; eggless cakes are also a favorite.
Among the four bakeries in Ranchi, Amarjeet's bakery with a market share of 30% is second only to the oldest Bread cafe bakery whose market share is 40%. Bread cafe commands a loyal customer base and does not offer eggless varieties.

Q. From a newspaper, Amarjeet has learnt that Americans use their own ovens to bake ready-to-bake products, sold by some bakeries. This idea is apparently catching up in Indian metros as well.
Amarjeet wants to try this out in his bakery. He has gathered the following facts:

1. US bakeries that also sell ready-to-bake products earned higher revenues compared to those that do not.

2. Around 7% of Amarjeet's regular customers own baking ovens in their homes.

3. The sale of baking ovens in India is forecast to increase by 12% every year, for the next three years.

4. 50% of Amarjeet's regular customers are fulltime working couples.

5. In Indian metros, ready-to-bake products give higher profit margins compared to finished products.

Select the BEST of the following sequences of the above facts, in DESCENDING order of effectiveness, to support Amarjeet.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 71

Read the situation below and answer the question:

A prosperous Emperor Ashoka  once ruled over a kingdom named Patliputra. The kingdom was known for its high mountains and sprawling plains, and 90% of its land was under forest cover. Trade in forest produce was the mainstay of its economy, supported by subsistence agriculture.
With the increase of population, over time the forest in the plains was cleared for agriculture. The forest in the mountains continued to supply nutrient-enriched water and abundant forest produce to the plains. As a result, agricultural yields were bountiful. The plains prospered as compared to the mountains.

Q. Those living in the mountain areas thought of deforesting for their growth. Ashoka was afraid that expansion of agriculture would result in deforestation of the mountains.

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for Ashoka to conserve the mountain forest?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 72

Read the situation below and answer the question:

A prosperous Emperor Ashoka  once ruled over a kingdom named Patliputra. The kingdom was known for its high mountains and sprawling plains, and 90% of its land was under forest cover. Trade in forest produce was the mainstay of its economy, supported by subsistence agriculture.
With the increase of population, over time the forest in the plains was cleared for agriculture. The forest in the mountains continued to supply nutrient-enriched water and abundant forest produce to the plains. As a result, agricultural yields were bountiful. The plains prospered as compared to the mountains.

Q. In order to refraincutting of trees , Ashoka  issued anorder against cutting of trees in the mountains. In coming times, thanks to the growing agriculture, the king along with plains people began to prosper. However, mountain people became relatively poor, thanks to Ashoka's order.

Which of the following options should mountain people choose to BEST protect their long-term interests?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 73

Read the situation below and answer the question:

A prosperous Emperor Ashoka  once ruled over a kingdom named Patliputra. The kingdom was known for its high mountains and sprawling plains, and 90% of its land was under forest cover. Trade in forest produce was the mainstay of its economy, supported by subsistence agriculture.
With the increase of population, over time the forest in the plains was cleared for agriculture. The forest in the mountains continued to supply nutrient-enriched water and abundant forest produce to the plains. As a result, agricultural yields were bountiful. The plains prospered as compared to the mountains.

Q. The villagers of the mountains had informed KingAshoka about the presence of a expensive metal in large quantity under a large part of the forest. They aked him to repeal his order and allow cutting of trees for mining purpose.
Ashoka knew that the precious metal would make his kingdom prosper. However, he was worried that mining would reduce the flow of water and forest produce to the plains.
Ashoka's advisor Kautilya presented the following action plans for his consideration:

1. Repeal the forest order and charge hefty royalty for mining in the mountains

2. Permit mining in the mountains and enforce rainwater harvesting in the plains

3. Permit mining in the mountains and begin afforestation in the plains

4. Continue with the forest order in the mountains

5. Permit limited mining in rotation but maintain the forest order in the rest of the mountains

Which of the following sequences of action plans, in the DESCENDING order of their ability to contribute to Patliputra's sustainable prosperity, will be the MOST appropriate for Ashoka?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 74

The 'Dalong Village' covering an area of 11.35 sq. km. has recently (May 2017) been declared as Biodiversity Heritage Site under Section 37(1) of Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The village is situated in the Indian State of -

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 75

........... is the first woman to head a public sector bank.

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 76

World Tourism Day is celebrated on-

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 77

Where is Bose Institute?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 78

When is the International Yoga Day celebrated?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 79

The two-day festival 'North East Calling', is organized by which ministry?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 80

When Government of India confers the "Highest Civilian Honor for Women" by presenting "Nari Shakti  Puraskars" ?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 81

The motif of 'Hampi with Chariot' is printed on the reverse of which currency note?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 82

Election Commission of India has decided that the voter's identification shall be mandatory in the elections at the time of poll. Which of the following shall be the main document of identification of a voter?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 83

'Line of Blood' is a book written by whom?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 84

Which state launch a project that aims to provide free internet access to the poor in the State?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 85

The National Aeronautics and Space Administration renamed its Wide Field Infrared Survey Telescope as?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 86

M.P. Veerendra Kumar passed away at the age of 83 due to cardiac arrest in Kozhikode, Kerala. He was a famous?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 87

Name the first cricketer to score 1000 runs in an innings in any competitive match

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 88

According to international standard, what is the distance of marathon race?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 89

Beighton Cup is associated with which of the following?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 90

The super computer ‘PARAM’ was developed by

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 91

Which of the following was Indian’s first mapping satellite?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 92

The third generation anti-tank missile that was successfully test fired by DRDO at Rajasthan in named

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 93

Who is said to be the father of Indian Space Programme? 

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 94

Which of the following cities of middle east was damaged hugely on August 4, 2020 by a powerful blast?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 95

What is 'Hope'?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 96

'Assam Keelback' is -

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 97

'ASEEM' portal has been launched by -

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 98

Kakrapar Atomic Energy Plant is located in -

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 99

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Uttarakhand has been adjudged as one of the country’s five best performing states in which central government scheme aimed at addressing declining child sex ratio and issues of women empowerment?

Practice Test for XAT - 3 - Question 100

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Q. Name the acclaimed filmmaker who will be directing a feature film on the life and works of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, to be jointly produced by India and Bangladesh.

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