SBI Clerk Mains Mock Test - 3 - Bank Exams MCQ

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
In News

• Indian Railways (IR) commissioned the indigenously developed Kavach 4.0 ATP system on the Mathura–Kota section after formal regulatory approval in July 2024 as part of the national safety roll-out plan.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: Indian Railways (IR), under the Ministry of Railways (MoR), commissioned the indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system Kavach 4.0 on the Mathura–Kota section of the high-density Delhi–Mumbai rail corridor
• Kavach 4.0 received formal approval from the Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO) in July 2024 after thorough evaluation
• Statement 2 is correct: Kavach was initiated in 2015, first operated on South Central Railway in 2018, and is certified SIL-4, the highest train safety rating.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: National rollout plan aims to equip the entire network (not just metros) in six years, with IRISET collaborating academically to train future engineers for deployment.
• Kavach 4.0 will be integrated into technical curricula through MoUs with AICTE-approved institutes.
• Over ₹1 lakh crore per year is invested by Indian Railways in safety initiatives.
• The ATP system is designed to prevent train collisions and improve operational safety.
• Mathura–Kota segment was strategically selected for the first major commissioning of Kavach 4.0.

The correct answer is Gujarat.
In News

• India has won the bid to host the 23rd World Police & Fire Games in 2029, which will be hosted in Gujarat, with Ahmedabad as the main venue.

Explanation

• India has won the bid to host the 23rd edition of the World Police and Fire Games 2029 in Gujarat.
• India is the second Asian country (after China) to host the World Police & Fire Games
• Events will be held mainly in Ahmedabad, with some in Gandhinagar and Ekta Nagar.
• 21st edition: Birmingham, USA (2025); 22nd: Perth, Australia (2027); 18th was in Chengdu, China (2019).
• World Police & Fire Games are a worldwide multi-sport event for serving law enforcement/fire personnel.
• India’s hosting highlights Gujarat’s sports infrastructure and global event management capability.

The correct answer is 500 GW.
In News

• India’s first fully automated Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) factory inaugurated in Karnataka with 5 GWh capacity.

Explanation

• India's first 'fully automated' Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) manufacturing facility factory opens in Karnataka
• Manufacturing capacity is 5 Gigawatt hours, ranking it among India’s largest advanced BESS plants.
• Inaugurated by Union Minister Pralhad Joshi from the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
• The factory supports India’s target of achieving 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.
• An additional Rs. 5,400 crore Viability Gap Funding (VGF) announced to support building 30 GWh battery storage systems.
• This funding adds to the existing Rs. 3,700 crore under the current VGF scheme.
• The initiative aligns with India’s renewable energy expansion and climate goals.

Additional Information

• Viability Gap Funding scheme:
  • Launched in 2004 with a total project outlay of ₹9,400 crore.
  • Provides 40% of project cost (₹3,760 crore) as VGF; remaining 60% funded by companies.
  • The initial budgetary grant was ₹3,700 crore.
  • Administered by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.
  • Aims to develop 4,000 megawatt hours (MWh) of BESS by 2030-31.

The correct answer is 28 June.
In News

• National Insurance Awareness Day is observed on 28 June every year in India.

Explanation

• 28 June celebrated as National Insurance Awareness Day across India.
• The event highlights the importance of insurance for financial stability and protection.
• The first Indian insurance company was the Oriental Life Insurance Company, formed in 1818 in Kolkata.
• India is the world’s 5th largest life insurance market, with a 32-34% annual growth rate in recent years.
• The day promotes public awareness about products, safety, and customer rights.
• The historical emergence and evolution of insurance coverage in the country are showcased.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.
Explanation

• Statement 1 – Correct: RBI’s Annual Report confirmed that the total balance sheet for FY25 increased by 8.2% to ₹76.25 lakh crore, while the surplus rose by 27.37% to ₹2.68 lakh crore compared to ₹2.10 lakh crore in FY24.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: The cost of printing currency notes actually increased by 25% to ₹6,372.82 crore, not declined by 15%. The circulation of ₹500 notes indeed accounted for 86% in value and 40.9% in volume.
• Statement 3 – Correct: E-Rupee circulation recorded a sharp increase of 334%, touching ₹1016.5 crore as of March 2025, indicating significant progress in the adoption of India’s digital currency.
• Balance Sheet Side: On the asset side, RBI saw gold reserves expand by 52.09%, domestic investments by 14.32%, and foreign investments by 1.70%.
• Forex Gains: Foreign exchange operations yielded gains of ₹1.11 lakh crore, a rise of 33% compared to FY24.
• Banknotes in Circulation: In value terms, circulation rose by 6%, while volume increased by 5.6% by March 2025.

Additional Information

• ₹2000 Withdrawal: By March 2025, 98.2% of the ₹2000 denomination notes had been returned following the withdrawal announcement.
• Counterfeit Notes: Fake notes of ₹200 and ₹500 denominations were reported to rise by 13.9% and 37.3%, respectively, although overall counterfeit notes across denominations saw a decline.
• Currency in Circulation: Total banknotes in circulation reached ₹36.86 lakh crore. Denominations range from ₹2 to ₹2000, though ₹2, ₹5, and ₹2000 denominations are no longer printed.
• Contingency Fund: RBI’s contingency fund provision was recorded at ₹44,861.70 crore in FY25.
• Reserve Bank of India
  • Established 1935
  • Headquarters Mumbai
  • Current Governor Sanjay Malhotra

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2
Explanation

• Statement 1 – Correct: The campaign was launched in New Delhi by Union Housing Minister Manohar Lal with the objective of strengthening PMAY-U 2.0 delivery mechanisms for housing-for-all goals.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The inauguration was attended by Union MoS Tokhan Sahu, MoHUA Secretary Srinivas Katikithala, and Kuldip Narayan, JS & MD, Housing for All (HFA).
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Angikaar 2025 is not limited to land reforms; instead, it integrates awareness drives, beneficiary facilitation, and inter-departmental coordination for holistic urban housing solutions.
• The campaign creates a beneficiary-centric approach to ensure inclusiveness and grassroots outreach.
• Emphasis is on convergence of various schemes related to social welfare to complement PMAY-U.
• Policy priority lies in affordable housing solutions for low-income segments in urban India.

The correct answer is AI-powered chatbot assistance.
Explanation

• Government revamps Sugamya Bharat App.
• The revamped app introduces an AI-powered chatbot to support users in real time with queries and accessibility challenges.
• The app now boasts a more intuitive and user-friendly interface for elderly and differently-abled users.
• SBA allows uploading geo-tagged photographs of inaccessible places to enable quick corrective action by authorities.
• It integrates notifications on new government schemes, accessibility circulars, and resources for disability support.
• As of June 2025, there are over 14,358 registered users and nearly 84,000 downloads across mobile platforms.
• Since inception, over 2,700 complaints have been processed, with around 1,900 resolved.
• Available in 10 Indian languages, the app covers accessibility relating to public facilities, transport, and ICT systems.

The correct answer is All 1, 2 and 3.
Explanation

• Statement 1 Correct: Kumar Mangalam Birla Honoured with USISPF Global Leadership.
• Kumar Mangalam Birla was recognized for strengthening U.S.-India business ties and leading cross-border growth.
• Statement 2 Correct: The award has previously been given to influential government and business leaders with notable contributions to bilateral economic relations.
• Statement 3 Correct: Under Birla’s leadership, Aditya Birla Group has invested over $15 billion and employs 5,400+ in 15 U.S. states.
• Co-awardees included Arvind Krishna (IBM) and Toshiaki Higashihara (Hitachi), reflecting global recognition.
• The award highlights Aditya Birla Group’s deep and strategic international presence.
• Awarded at 8th Annual Leadership Summit, held in Washington, United States of America
• Birla has also received the Padma Bhushan and other major national business honors recently.

The correct answer is All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation

• Statement 1 – Correct: Common shares (paid-up equity capital) issued by the bank are recognized as a primary element of Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Statutory reserves maintained by the bank are included in CET1 capital according to RBI norms.
• Statement 3 – Correct: Stock surplus (share premium from common shares issued) is also a permitted component of CET1 capital.
• Statement 4 – Correct: The AFS (Available-for-Sale) reserve is additionally regarded as a part of the Common Equity component of Tier 1 capital as per RBI guidelines.
• Significance: Including these elements in CET1 capital ensures a robust core capital base for banks, supporting their resilience against risk and regulatory capital requirements.

The correct answer is Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address; Address-as-a-Service.
Explanation

• Department of Posts (DoP) released a comprehensive policy document on DHRUVA , setting the framework for a national Digital Address Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), to build a standardized, interoperable, and geo-coded digital addressing system across
• DHRUVA stands for Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address, a comprehensive policy released by the Department of Posts for establishing a standardized, interoperable, and geo-coded digital address system across India.
• The Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) approach of DHRUVA allows secure, efficient, and accessible address data management, streamlining interactions between citizens, government agencies, and private organizations.
• DHRUVA is built on the Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN), leveraging advanced geo-coding to integrate physical and virtual address data for enhanced service delivery and logistics.
• The policy underpins the vision for Digital Address DPI, where citizens and businesses interact seamlessly, reducing errors and improving efficiency in e-governance, commerce, and public service access.
• Address-as-a-Service introduces API-based address sharing and verification, supporting digital onboarding, financial services, e-commerce, and emergency response systems.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e., Both I and III.
Explanation

• These are conditional sentences, and in these types of sentences, one part of the sentence depends upon the other because of cause and effect.
  • Conditional word + subject + v1/v5 + object, subject + will/ shall/ may + v1 + object.
  • If + subject + v2 + object, subject + would/ should/ could/ might + v1 + object.
  • If + subject + had + v3 + object, subject + would/ should/ could/ might + have + v3 + object.
  • Had + subject + v3 + object, subject + would + have + v3 + object.

Part I:

• Part I is a First Conditional sentence, and hence follows rule number ‘1’.
• According to this rule, the error lies in the wrong usage of ‘would have got’ in the main clause.
• Hence, ‘would have got’ should be replaced by ‘will get’ to make the sentence correct.
• Let’s see an example: 
  • If Rohan practices Maths daily, he will get good marks in it. (Correct)​
  • If Rohan practices Maths daily, he would have got good marks in it. (Worng) ​

Part III:

• Part III is a Second Conditional sentence, and hence follows rule number ‘2’.
• According to the rule, the error lies in the wrong usage of ‘shall report’ in the main clause.
• Hence, ‘shall report’ should be replaced by ‘should report’ to make the sentence correct.
• Let’s see an example:
  • If you read the book, you would appreciate it. (Correct)​
  • If you read the book, you will appreciate it.  (Worng)​

​Correct sentences are:

• Correct sentence I: “If she gets the lead role in the play, she will get a good chance of showing her acting prowess.”
• Correct sentence III: “If he disliked his transfer offer outside the state, he should report it to the higher authority.” ​

The correct answer is option (3) i.e. "Leading".
Explanation

• Let us see the meaning of the word "Leading":
  • Leading: Most important.
• The word in the brackets- "magnificent"- is a contextual misfit and does not make the sentence meaningful.
• Let us see the meaning of the word "Magnificent":
  • Magnificent: Extremely beautiful, elaborate, or impressive.

The correct answer is '​Numbers do not reveal tiger conservation.'
Explanation

• The first sentence of the second paragraph says ''Decades of research in ecology and evolution suggest that numbers are critical to avoid extinction'', the second-last sentence of the third paragraph says ''We know that most tiger reserves in India are small and embedded in human-dominated landscapes'' and the last sentence of the last paragraph concludes ''So, does the landscape between tiger reserves (agricultural fields, reserve forests, built-up areas, and roads) allow tigers to move through them?.''
• From the above sentences, we can say that the central theme of the passage is ''​Numbers do not reveal tiger conservation.''​

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'Small and isolated populations.'
Explanation

• The given passage is all about tiger conservation.
• The fourth sentence of the second paragraph says "Small and isolated populations face a high probability of extinction''.
• From the above sentence, we can say that according to the passage, small and isolated populations faces a high probability of extinction.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'Intended.'
Explanation

• The given sentence "Policy intervention without knowledge of the ground realities often ends up as an exercise in self-gratification for those in authority and results in little or no benefit for the ___(1)___ target group'' is saying that policy intervention without knowledge of the ground realities often ends up in little or no benefit for the planned target group.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Intended'.
• Also, the use of the word ''target'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'intended' in the blank.
• The word 'Intended' means Planned or meant.
  • Example: The gunman had missed his intended target from point-blank range.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'Wanting.'
Explanation

• The given sentence "It is true that there are always more people ___(2)___ to adopt children than the number of children actually available for adoption...'' is saying that there are always more people who have a desire or wish to adopt children than the number of children actually available for adoption.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Wanting'.
• Also, the use of the word ''adopt'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'wanting' in the blank.
• The word 'Wanting' means To have a desire to possess or do something; wish for.
  • Example: There is no shame in wanting to be successful.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'Residing.'
Explanation

• The given sentence "There were 6,996 orphaned, abandoned, and surrendered children ___(9)___ in childcare institutions considered adoptable, but only 2,430 were declared legally free for adoption by Child Welfare Committees'' is saying that there were 6,996 orphaned, abandoned, and surrendered children living in childcare institutions considered adoptable.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Residing'.
• Also, the use of the word ''childcare'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'residing' in the blank.
• The word 'Residing' means To have one's permanent home in a particular place.
  • Example: At that time there were many American writers residing in Paris.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

• These are conditional sentences, and in these types of sentences, one part of the sentence depends upon the other because of cause and effect.
• Conditional word + subject + v1/v5 + object, subject + will/ shall/ may + v1 + object.
• If + subject + v2 + object, subject + would/ should/ could/ might + v1 + object.
• If + subject + had + v3 + object, subject + would/ should/ could/ might + have + v3 + object.
• Had + subject + v3 + object, subject + would + have + v3 + object.

• Part I is a First Conditional sentence and follows rule number ‘1’, when there is ‘unless’ in the conditional clause, ‘not’ is never used with it because the conjunction ‘unless’ itself is used in the negative sense, and
• According to this rule, the error lies in the wrong usage of ‘doesn’t’ after ‘unless’.
• Hence, ‘doesn’t find’ should be replaced by ‘finds’ to make the sentence correct.
• Let’s see an example-
  • Unless you work hard, you will not succeed in the exams. (Correct) ​
  • Unless you don’t work hard, you will not succeed in the exams. (Wrong)​

• Part II follows rule number ‘4’.
• According to the rule, the error lies in the wrong usage of ‘would meet’ in the main clause.
• Hence, ‘would meet’ should be replaced by ‘would have met’ to make the sentence correct.
• Let’s see an example:
  • Had I watched that movie, I would have participated in the discussion. (Correct) ​
  • Had I watched that movie, I would participate in the discussion. (Wrong) ​

• Correct sentence I: “Unless the country finds ways to restore confidence in its democratic institutions, the nation will lack the foundation to play its role in the world.”​
• Correct sentence II: “Had he reached home on time, he would have met his nieces and nephews who stay abroad.” ​

• The conjunction ‘unless’ has a negative connotation, and for this reason ‘no’, ‘not’, ‘never’ – words with a negative meaning should not be used with it.
• For example:
  • Unless you know the basic central tendency, you will not be able to do advanced statistics. (Correct) ​
  • Unless you do not know the basic central tendency, you will not be able to do advanced statistics. (Wrong) ​

Explanation
From Series I,
515 + 4 = 519
519 + 8 = 527
527 + 16 = 543
543 + 32 = 575
575 + 64 = 639
639 + 128 = 767
Value of P = 540
From Series II
214 + 6 = 220
220 + 12 = 232
232 + 18 = 250
250 + 24 = 274
274 + 30 = 304
Value of Q = 210
Required value = (540 + 210)/3 = 750/3 = 250

Explanation
Total employees in company A = 5500 × 6/11 = 3000
Total employees in company B = 5500 × 5/11 = 2500
For company A,
66.66% = 2/3
Total male employees = 3000 × 2/3 = 2000
Number of male employees in HR department = 2000 × 7.5/100 = 150
Remaining male employees = 2000 - 150 = 1850
Number of males in Admin department = 1850 × 11/37 = 550
Number of males in IT department = 1850 × 26/37 = 1300
Total female employees = 3000 - 2000 = 1000|
Number of female employees in IT department = 1000 × 50/100 = 500
Remaining female employees = 1000 - 500 = 500
Let, number of females in HR = a
And, number of females in Admin = 5a + 20
According to the information,
⇒ a + 5a + 20 = 500
⇒ 6a = 480
⇒ a = 480/6 = 80
Number of females in HR department = 80
Number of females in Admin department = 80 × 5 + 20 = 420
For company B,
Total male employees = 2500 × 40/100 = 1000
Number of males in HR department = 1000 × 1/20 = 50
Number of males in Admin department = 1000 × 10/20 = 500
Number of males in IT department = 1000 × 9/20 = 450
Total female employees = 2500 - 1000 = 1500
Number of females in HR department = 80 × (100 + 50)/100 = 120
Number of females in IT department = 1500 × 40/100 = 600
Number of females in Admin department = 1500 - (120 + 600) = 780

Calculation
The total number of female employees working in Admin and IT departments of both companies
⇒ 420 + 500 + 780 + 600 = 2300
∴ The correct answer is option 2

Series I:
50 + (2³ × 1) = 58
58 + (2³ × 2) = 74
74 + (2³ × 3) = 98
98 + (2³ × 4) = 130
130 + (2³ × 5) = 170
So, the value of A = 50

Value of P = 930/5 = 186
Explanation
Value of P = 186 = (31 × 3 × 2)
Value of A = 50 = (5 × 5 × 2)
HCF of (186, 50) = 2

Given:
24.98² + 519.99 ÷ 25.98 - 639.97 - 18.09² = 399.98 + 506.15 - ?²
Concept used:
Follow the 'BODMAS' Rule
B ⇒ Bracket, O ⇒ of, D ⇒ Division, M ⇒ Multiplication, A ⇒ Addition, S ⇒ Subtraction
Calculation:
⇒ 24.98² + 519.99 ÷ 25.98 - 639.97 - 18.09² = 399.98 + 506.15 - ?²
⇒ 25² + 520/26 - 640 - 18² = 400 + 506 - ?²
⇒ 625 + 20 - 640 - 324 = 906 - ?²
⇒ ?² = 906 - 625 - 20 + 640 + 324
⇒ ? = √1225
∴ The value of '?' is 35.

Find the value of K from the series.
The series is: 4, 18, 48, 110, 180, 294
Let's identify the pattern.
2³ - 2² = 8 - 4 = 4
3³ - 3² = 27 - 9 = 18
4³ - 4² = 64 - 16 = 48
5³ - 5² = 125 - 25 = 100. (The series has 110 here, so this is the wrong term.)
6³ - 6² = 216 - 36 = 180
7³ - 7² = 343 - 49 = 294
The wrong term is 110, which should be 100. Therefore, K = 100.
Thus,

​​

Calculations:
Tech enrollments in P = 40.
Tech enrollments in U = 40 × 125% = 40 × 1.25 = 50.
Total enrollments in Q = 200; Total enrollments in S = 250. Sum = 450.
Total enrollments in U = 50% of 450 = 225.
Enrollments remaining for Business & Creative = 225 - 50 = 175.
Ratio of Business: Creative is 2:3 (Total 5 parts).
Value of 1 part = 175 / 5 = 35.
Business enrollments = 2 parts = 2 × 35 = 70.
Hence, the correct answer is 70.

Concept used:
1) If the digits after decimal in a given number is less than 5, then the digits after decimal are omitted and the rest number will be the approximate value.
2) If the digits after decimal in a given number is more than 5, then the digits after decimal are omitted and the rest of the number is increased by 1. The obtained number will be the approximate value.
3) The BODMAS rule should be followed to solve the question as per the given table:

Calculation
16/3% of 449.84 ÷ √143.76 × (1.96)² = ? - (18.88)² + (18.11)² + 33.33
⇒ 16/300 × 450 ÷ √144 × 2² = ? - 19² + 18² + 33
⇒ 8 × 3 ÷ 12 × 4 = ? - 361 + 324 + 33
⇒ 24 ÷ 12 × 4 = ? -361 + 324 + 33
⇒ 2 × 4 = ? - 361 + 324 + 33
⇒ ? = 8 + 361 - 324 - 33
⇒ ? = 12
∴ The value of ? is 12
Correct answer is 4

Find the value of K from the series.
The series is: 4, 18, 48, 110, 180, 294
Let's identify the pattern.
2³ - 2² = 8 - 4 = 4
3³ - 3² = 27 - 9 = 18
4³ - 4² = 64 - 16 = 48
5³ - 5² = 125 - 25 = 100. (The series has 110 here, so this is the wrong term.)
6³ - 6² = 216 - 36 = 180
7³ - 7² = 343 - 49 = 294
The wrong term is 110, which should be 100. Therefore, K = 100.
Thus,
​
Calculations:
Platform S has: 125 Tech, 50 Business, 75 Creative enrollments.
Revenue from Tech = 125 × 500 = Rs. 62,500.
Revenue from Business = 50 × 400 = Rs. 20,000.
Revenue from Creative = 75 × 300 = Rs. 22,500.
Total Revenue = 62,500 + 20,000 + 22,500 = Rs. 1,05,000.
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 1,05,000.

Given:
70.98 × 35.02 + 1235.99 – 48.03 × 24.96 – ? ÷ 2.96 = 99.98 × 24.97
Concept used:
Rules of Approximation:
1. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated value.
2. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal more than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal and raise the remaining number by '1'.The number so obtained will be the approximated value.
Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:
​

Calculation
70.98 × 35.02 + 1235.99 – 48.03 × 24.96 – ? ÷ 2.96 = 99.98 × 24.97
⇒ 71 × 35 + 1236 – 48 × 25 – ? ÷ 3= 100 × 25
⇒ 2485 + 1236 – 1200 – ? ÷ 3 = 2500
⇒ 2521 – ? ÷ 3 = 2500
⇒ ? ÷ 3 = 2521 – 2500
⇒ ? = 21 × 3
⇒ ? = 63
∴ 63 should come in place of the question mark (?).

Calculation
Let number of people lived in city B is 400.
Number of people not attending seminar from B is 400 × 40/100 =160
Number of people attending seminar from B is 400 – 160 = 240
Number of female attending seminar from B is 240 × 60/100 = 144
Number of females who not attending seminar from B is 160 × 3/8 = 60
Required average age = [ 144 × 36 + 60 × 24]/[144 + 60]
= 32.47 = 32

Explanation

• With replacement means the card is returned to the deck after it is drawn, which keeps the total number of cards the same for each draw (52 cards in a standard deck).

The first card is a Jack:

• There are 4 Jacks in a pack of 52 cards,
• So the probability of drawing a Jack = 4/52 = 1/13

The second card is a black card:

• In a standard deck, there are 26 black cards (13 clubs which are black, and 13 spades which are black).
• So the probability of drawing a black card = 26/52 = 1/2

The third card is an even numbered card:

• For this, we consider cards numbered 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10 from each suit.
• There are 4 suits, so the total number of even-numbered cards in the deck is 20.
• So the probability = 20/52 = 5/13

To find the probability of all three of these events occurring together, we multiply their probabilities, since these are independent events:

• p = (1/13) × (1/2) × (5/13) = 5/338

Therefore, the probability of drawing a Jack, then a black card, then an even-numbered card (in that order) from a standard deck of cards, with replacement, is approximately 5/338.
Hence, option(2) is correct.

Concept Used:
Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:
24.85² – 24.97 = ? × (436.97 ÷ 18.89 + 777.07 ÷ 36.7 + 5.89)
⇒ 25² – 25 = ? × (437 ÷ 19 + 777 ÷ 37 + 6)
⇒ 25² – 25 = ? × (437 ÷ 19 + 777 ÷ 37 + 6)
⇒ 625 – 25 = ? × (23 + 21 + 6)
⇒ 600 = ? × 50
⇒ ? = 12
∴ The value of (?) is 12

Explanation
From quantity I:
The perimeter of the rectangle = 66 cm
2 (l + b) = 66
l + b = 33
Difference between the length and breadth of the rectangle = 3 cm
Length or breadth of the rectangle = (33 + 3)/2 = 18 cm
Length or breadth of the rectangle = (33 - 3)/2 = 15 cm
Area of the rectangle = I× b = 18× 15 = 270 cm²
Area of the square = 270 + 19 = 289 cm²
Quantity II:
Diagonal of rhombus d1 = 32 cm
(d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)² = side²
⇒ (32/2)² + (d₂/2)² = 20²
⇒ 16² + (d₂/2)² = 20²
⇒ (d₂/2)² = 400 - 256
⇒ (d₂/2) = √144
⇒ d₂ = 2 × 12 = 24 cm
Area of the rhombus = 1/2 × d1 × d2 = 1/2 × 32 × 24 = 384 cm²
From quantity III:
Ratio between the length and breadth of the rectangle = 4: 3 = 4x: 3x
Diagonal length = 40 cm
√(4x)² + (3x)² = 40
√(16x² + 9x²) = 40
√25x² = 40
5x = 40
x = 8
Length of rectangle = 4x = 32 cm
Breath of rectangle = 3x = 24 cm
Area of rectangle = 32 × 24 = 768 cm²
Thus, Quantity III > Quantity II > Quantity I