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SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Bank Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10

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SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Nine students have secured the ranks from 1 to 9 in the same class test. They are standing on the ground at a certain distance. No two persons have secured the same rank and the persons in the alphabetical order are not consecutively ranked from 1 to 9.

Note: The distance between the two students is thrice the rank of the highest ranked person among them. For example, if P secured first rank and Q secured second rank, then the distance between them will be3m.

O is to the east of the one who secured the highest rank and north of the one who secured the second last rank. Q secured two ranks higher than the one who secured the second last rank and is to the west of him. The rank value of R is half of the rank value of Q and stands to the north of Q but to the southwest of O. The distance between Q and R is the same as the distance between R and T, who stands to the east of R. The direction of R with respect to Q is the same as the direction of P with respect to T. R holds the rank exactly between N and M, who stands to the west of P. At least four persons secured the ranks higher than M. The distance between M and S is the sum of the distance between PT and RQ. O doesn’t stand to the northeast of P. L secured immediately higher rank than S but immediately less than T.M is north of S.

Q. What is the approximate shortest distance between T and N and who among the following person holds the rank according to that value?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 1
From the given information, the rank, distance and the directions of each student are obtained as follows.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Nine students have secured the ranks from 1 to 9 in the same class test. They are standing on the ground at a certain distance. No two persons have secured the same rank and the persons in the alphabetical order are not consecutively ranked from 1 to 9.

Note: The distance between the two students is thrice the rank of the highest ranked person among them. For example, if P secured first rank and Q secured second rank, then the distance between them will be3m.

O is to the east of the one who secured the highest rank and north of the one who secured the second last rank. Q secured two ranks higher than the one who secured the second last rank and is to the west of him. The rank value of R is half of the rank value of Q and stands to the north of Q but to the southwest of O. The distance between Q and R is the same as the distance between R and T, who stands to the east of R. The direction of R with respect to Q is the same as the direction of P with respect to T. R holds the rank exactly between N and M, who stands to the west of P. At least four persons secured the ranks higher than M. The distance between M and S is the sum of the distance between PT and RQ. O doesn’t stand to the northeast of P. L secured immediately higher rank than S but immediately less than T.M is north of S.

Q. What is the distance between S and L?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 2
From the given information, the rank, distance and the directions of each student are obtained as follows.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Nine students have secured the ranks from 1 to 9 in the same class test. They are standing on the ground at a certain distance. No two persons have secured the same rank and the persons in the alphabetical order are not consecutively ranked from 1 to 9.

Note: The distance between the two students is thrice the rank of the highest ranked person among them. For example, if P secured first rank and Q secured second rank, then the distance between them will be3m.

O is to the east of the one who secured the highest rank and north of the one who secured the second last rank. Q secured two ranks higher than the one who secured the second last rank and is to the west of him. The rank value of R is half of the rank value of Q and stands to the north of Q but to the southwest of O. The distance between Q and R is the same as the distance between R and T, who stands to the east of R. The direction of R with respect to Q is the same as the direction of P with respect to T. R holds the rank exactly between N and M, who stands to the west of P. At least four persons secured the ranks higher than M. The distance between M and S is the sum of the distance between PT and RQ. O doesn’t stand to the northeast of P. L secured immediately higher rank than S but immediately less than T.M is north of S.

Q. Who among the following person secured the least rank?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 3
From the given information, the rank, distance and the directions of each student are obtained as follows.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Step 1: Consider the word “UNCOPYRIGHTABLE” in the reverse order.

Step 2: The unit digit of the cube of the numbers from 15 to 19 are obtained respectively and are placed after every three letters in the series from left to right in the same order.

Step 3: If a letter has the sum of the digits of its corresponding number in the English alphabet as an odd number, then place the following symbols ‘$, €, %, @’ respectively from left to right immediately before those letters in the same order. (Continue ‘$’ after ‘@’)

Step 4: From the left end, every five elements are reversed. For example, if ‘A 5 # G R…’ is the series, then it is written as ‘R G # 5 A’ and so on. If less than five elements are there at the end, then retain them in the same order.

Step 4 is the last and final step and the final alphanumeric symbol series. As per the steps given above, find out the final alphanumeric symbol series and answer the following questions given below.

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 4
B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9

Step 1: E L B A T H G I R Y P O C N U

Step 2: 153 – 3375, 163 – 4096, 173 – 4913, 183 – 5832, 193 – 6859 =>5, 6, 3, 2, 9.

E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U9

Step 3: E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U 9

$ E € L B 5 % A T H 6 @ G $ I € R 3 % Y @ P O 2 $ C € N % U 9

Step 4: B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Step 1: Consider the word “UNCOPYRIGHTABLE” in the reverse order.

Step 2: The unit digit of the cube of the numbers from 15 to 19 are obtained respectively and are placed after every three letters in the series from left to right in the same order.

Step 3: If a letter has the sum of the digits of its corresponding number in the English alphabet as an odd number, then place the following symbols ‘$, €, %, @’ respectively from left to right immediately before those letters in the same order. (Continue ‘$’ after ‘@’)

Step 4: From the left end, every five elements are reversed. For example, if ‘A 5 # G R…’ is the series, then it is written as ‘R G # 5 A’ and so on. If less than five elements are there at the end, then retain them in the same order.

Step 4 is the last and final step and the final alphanumeric symbol series. As per the steps given above, find out the final alphanumeric symbol series and answer the following questions given below.

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?

Q. If all the vowels are deleted from the series, then which of the following element is fifteenth from the left end?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 5
B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9

Step 1: E L B A T H G I R Y P O C N U

Step 2: 153 – 3375, 163 – 4096, 173 – 4913, 183 – 5832, 193 – 6859 =>5, 6, 3, 2, 9.

E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U9

Step 3: E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U 9

$ E € L B 5 % A T H 6 @ G $ I € R 3 % Y @ P O 2 $ C € N % U 9

Step 4: B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Step 1: Consider the word “UNCOPYRIGHTABLE” in the reverse order.

Step 2: The unit digit of the cube of the numbers from 15 to 19 are obtained respectively and are placed after every three letters in the series from left to right in the same order.

Step 3: If a letter has the sum of the digits of its corresponding number in the English alphabet as an odd number, then place the following symbols ‘$, €, %, @’ respectively from left to right immediately before those letters in the same order. (Continue ‘$’ after ‘@’)

Step 4: From the left end, every five elements are reversed. For example, if ‘A 5 # G R…’ is the series, then it is written as ‘R G # 5 A’ and so on. If less than five elements are there at the end, then retain them in the same order.

Step 4 is the last and final step and the final alphanumeric symbol series. As per the steps given above, find out the final alphanumeric symbol series and answer the following questions given below.

Q. How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 6
B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9

Step 1: E L B A T H G I R Y P O C N U

Step 2: 153 – 3375, 163 – 4096, 173 – 4913, 183 – 5832, 193 – 6859 =>5, 6, 3, 2, 9.

E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U9

Step 3: E L B 5 A T H 6 G I R 3 Y P O 2 C N U 9

$ E € L B 5 % A T H 6 @ G $ I € R 3 % Y @ P O 2 $ C € N % U 9

Step 4: B L € E $ H T A % 5 I $ G @ 6 Y % 3 R € $ 2 O P @ U % N € C 9

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

An alphanumeric machine, when given an input, performs the following steps with certain logic. Apply the same concept for the given input and answer the questions given below.

Q. What will be the difference between the corresponding numbers of the letters according to alphabetical series in the last step of the given input?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Step 1: Obtain the sum of the corresponding numbers of each letter in the first and the fourth element and add all the numbers together. For example, 6(F) + 12(L) = 18, 13(M) + 25(Y) = 38, 18 + 38 = 56.

Step 2: For the first three elements, determine the corresponding letter for double the sum of the two digits. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 2 = 22, which is V. For the next three elements, determine the corresponding letter for triple the sum of the two digits. If the number is more than 26, then subtract that number with 26 and consider the resultant as the original number. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 3 = 33, then 33 - 26 = 7, which is ‘G’.

Step 3: Find the immediate next prime number of the letter which has the lowest corresponding number between the connected letters in the alphabetical series. From the first two letters, T has the lowest corresponding number (20) and the immediate next prime number is 23.

Step4: Determine the difference between the first two elements and consider the conjugate pair for the corresponding letter of the difference between the number. For example, 23-11=12, which denotes ‘L’ and its conjugate pair is ‘O’.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

An alphanumeric machine, when given an input, performs the following steps with certain logic. Apply the same concept for the given input and answer the questions given below.

Q. Which of the following letter is present in step 2 of the given input?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Step 1: Obtain the sum of the corresponding numbers of each letter in the first and the fourth element and add all the numbers together. For example, 6(F) + 12(L) = 18, 13(M) + 25(Y) = 38, 18 + 38 = 56.

Step 2: For the first three elements, determine the corresponding letter for double the sum of the two digits. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 2 = 22, which is V. For the next three elements, determine the corresponding letter for triple the sum of the two digits. If the number is more than 26, then subtract that number with 26 and consider the resultant as the original number. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 3 = 33, then 33 - 26 = 7, which is ‘G’.

Step 3: Find the immediate next prime number of the letter which has the lowest corresponding number between the connected letters in the alphabetical series. From the first two letters, T has the lowest corresponding number (20) and the immediate next prime number is 23.

Step4: Determine the difference between the first two elements and consider the conjugate pair for the corresponding letter of the difference between the number. For example, 23-11=12, which denotes ‘L’ and its conjugate pair is ‘O’.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

An alphanumeric machine, when given an input, performs the following steps with certain logic. Apply the same concept for the given input and answer the questions given below.

Q. What will be the sum of all the numbers in step 3 of the given input?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Step 1: Obtain the sum of the corresponding numbers of each letter in the first and the fourth element and add all the numbers together. For example, 6(F) + 12(L) = 18, 13(M) + 25(Y) = 38, 18 + 38 = 56.

Step 2: For the first three elements, determine the corresponding letter for double the sum of the two digits. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 2 = 22, which is V. For the next three elements, determine the corresponding letter for triple the sum of the two digits. If the number is more than 26, then subtract that number with 26 and consider the resultant as the original number. For example, 5 + 6 = 11 * 3 = 33, then 33 - 26 = 7, which is ‘G’.

Step 3: Find the immediate next prime number of the letter which has the lowest corresponding number between the connected letters in the alphabetical series. From the first two letters, T has the lowest corresponding number (20) and the immediate next prime number is 23.

Step4: Determine the difference between the first two elements and consider the conjugate pair for the corresponding letter of the difference between the number. For example, 23-11=12, which denotes ‘L’ and its conjugate pair is ‘O’.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

While it may be common for commuters to push vehicles on roads after they break down, the same can’t be said for airplanes. However, believe it or not, a group of people did exactly that at an airport in Nepal. What can be concluded from this incident?

I. An airplane broke down at an airport in Nepal

II. It is a common practice to push airplanes in Nepal

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 10
The paragraph is discussing that it is not common for us to accept that people would push an airplane on an airport but that was seen happening at a particular airport. This simply means that the airplane broke down

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

Statements:

I). The Government has formed a committee to check and revise the fees structure of the professional courses.

II). The parents of aspiring students seeking admission to professional courses had protested against the high fees charged by the professional institutes and the admission process was delayed considerably.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 11
Since the parents of aspiring students seeking admission to professional courses had protested against the high fees charged by the professional institutes, the Government has formed a committee to check and revise the fees structure of the professional courses. So, Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

Statements:

I). The current slowdown of India’s economy was unprecedented in 70 years of independent India and called for immediate policy interventions in specific industries.

II). Industries are expected to shed close to a million direct and indirect jobs due to economic slowdown.

Conclusions:

I). Clear action must be taken to stabilize the economy and get it back on the path of rapid growth.

II). Demonetization can be said to have contributed too much of the slowdown as the economy runs on cash and Demonetization led to the loss of jobs as well as incomes.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 12
The two statements are talking about the economic slowdown but we cannot conclude that the economic slowdown is caused by demonetization. There are several factors for the economic slowdown. The action must be taken to boost the economy. Therefore, only conclusion 1 follows.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

Statement: FASTags becomes mandatory for all vehicles from 15th December 2019.

Arguments:

I). One benefit of using FASTag you will notice while using the electronic system is you won’t have to wait for too long in the queue. Time is of the essence, and time is saved at both ends. Customers will feel comfortable and will be able to transact through the highway without any delay or overhead. This system will also reduce traffic snarls and slowdowns that are the primary cause of disturbance for everyone.

II). Since all the systems will be operated through an automated network, more of the process and the FASTag technology will depend on the network. It becomes gravely significant to keep the network servers up, the failure of which might cause a ruckus and difficulty in the smooth workflow. This, in turn, may also affect the customers and result in a massive loss to the government in terms of money.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 13
The FASTags or a prepaid rechargeable tag allows automatic payment of toll. The government launched the National Electronic Toll Collection System which provides for the collection of user fee through FASTag to save fuel and time, curb pollution and ensure seamless movement of traffic. With the help of a FASTag, drivers will not have to stop their vehicles at toll plazas to pay tax. A FASTag uses radio frequency identification technology to enable direct toll payments from a moving vehicle. So both arguments I and II are strong.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

If the second letter from the left end of all the words are taken after arranging the letters of each word in alphabetical order within the word, then which of the following options will have maximum number of vowels?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 14
(a) Asset, Basic, Catch→aesst, abcis, accht→ebc

(b) Click, Death, Entry→ccikl, adeht, enrty→cdn

(c) Grand, Horse, Joint→adgnr, ehors, ijnot→dhj

(d) Least, Magic, Never→aelst, acgim, eenrv→ece

(e) Phone, Quite, Round→ehnop, eiqtu, dnoru→hin

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

Statement: The word scholarship brings a smile on the face of not only the student but also on the faces of parents because in case of scholarship the expenses related to college or school are paid by either school and college authorities or by the third party. Scholarships are intended to reward a student's academic achievement and educational progression.

Which of the following statements brings forward the problems in receiving a scholarship?

I: Scholarships have more stringent requirements in terms of career options, institutes covered under it, etc.

II: In scholarships, there are a limited number of seats which results in only a few students getting the benefit.

III: Scholarship is a boon for bright students who do not get sufficient financial support.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 15
The passage above explains to us about the scholarships and their advantages.

We need to find the statements which highlight the problems faced while receiving a scholarship.

The first statement discusses a problem faced in receiving a scholarship in the form of the stringent requirements which it places in front of students.

It is limited to certain institutes and certain courses only.

Thus, it is a possible problem faced in receiving a scholarship.

The second statement also mentions about the limited number of seats available for such scholarships due to which most of the deserving students miss the opportunity of availing it during the year of their admission.

Thus, it is also a possible problem faced in receiving scholarships.

The third option is an advantage of scholarships therefore it can never prove to be a problem in receiving scholarships.

Thus, it is not relevant to the question asked and thus incorrect.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

Statement: Kam Air is not an airline the average backpacker would fly these days unless that backpack is owned by the United States military. Kam Air has only been in operation for a decade but has already experienced fatal accidents resulting in more than 100 passenger deaths, making it one of the most dangerous airlines in the world.

Which of the following assumptions hold true?

I: Kam Air is an inexpensive airline.

II: Kam Air is preferred by people all over the world but only citizens of the United States can travel through it.

III: Kam Air is one of the most unsafe airlines which people avoid travelling in.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 16
The passage above discusses the Kam Airlines which reported more than 100 passenger deaths within a decade. Such information helps us to assume that it is one of the most unsafe airlines.

No one will prefer travelling in such an airline.

Thus, option III holds true.

Option I is incorrect as no mention is made regarding the prices of Kam Airlines.

Thus, we cannot assume that it is an inexpensive airline.

Option II is completely the opposite of what is mentioned in the passage.

After learning the fact that this airline has reported more than 100 passenger deaths within a decade, it is impossible that people from all around the globe would prefer travelling in it.

Thus, it is incorrect.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

Direction: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

Statement: Governments play a key role in facilitating the private sector – including social entrepreneurs – to address poverty alleviation by focusing on four main areas of responsibility: infrastructure, providing public services, facilitating job creation, and regulating markets.

Which of the following statements is/are a viable option for the government in its approach?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 17
The passage above talks about the roles which the government plays in order to curb the poverty out of its nation.

We need to find such statements which are a viable option for the government to proceed further in this direction.

The first option is convincing as it suggests the government to introduce news well-paid jobs for the unemployed ones.

At least some people will be benefited out of it which will, in turn, support the economy of the country.

Thus, it is the correct answer.

The second option is unrealistic as providing a food packet to every citizen of a nation is not possible.

Moreover, it is not a solution to curb poverty as well.

Therefore, it is incorrect.

The third option suggests increasing the funds on defence which will not be beneficial for fighting with poverty. Hence, only the first option is correct.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are certain types of coins. In every type there are different numbers of coins.

Type of a coin is given by a code. Codes are decided according to the number of coins in a particular type.

After finding the codes of the type of coins, the codes are arranged in ascending order such that first five codes are categorized in group X and the other 5 are categorized in group.

Q. If the coin code is 55 then what is the number of coins in that type of coin?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 18
The pattern followed here is,

If number is odd,

Step 1 → multiply by 3

Step 2 → add 15

Step 3 → divide by 2

And,

If number is even,

Step 1 → divide by 2

Step 2 → multiply by 5

Step 3 → add 5

Now separating coins code in the group X and group Y.

Thus, if the coin code is 55 then then the number of coins in that type of coin is “20”.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are certain types of coins. In every type there are different numbers of coins.

Type of a coin is given by a code. Codes are decided according to the number of coins in a particular type.

After finding the codes of the type of coins, the codes are arranged in ascending order such that first five codes are categorized in group X and the other 5 are categorized in group.

What is the absolute difference of codes of highest number of coins in group X and lowest number of coins in group Y?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 19
The pattern followed here is,

If number is odd,

Step 1 → multiply by 3

Step 2 → add 15

Step 3 → divide by 2

And,

If number is even,

Step 1 → divide by 2

Step 2 → multiply by 5

Step 3 → add 5

Now separating coins code in the group X and group Y.

Highest number of coins in group X is 45 and code of coin is 75.

Lowest number of coins in group Y is 44 and code of coin is 115.

Absolute difference = 115 – 75 = 40

Hence, the correct option is (C).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are certain types of coins. In every type there are different numbers of coins.

Type of a coin is given by a code. Codes are decided according to the number of coins in a particular type.

After finding the codes of the type of coins, the codes are arranged in ascending order such that first five codes are categorized in group X and the other 5 are categorized in group.

Q. In group Y, what are the numbers of coins, which represent the highest code?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 20
The pattern followed here is,

If number is odd,

Step 1 → multiply by 3

Step 2 → add 15

Step 3 → divide by 2

And,

If number is even,

Step 1 → divide by 2

Step 2 → multiply by 5

Step 3 → add 5

Now separating coins code in the group X and group Y.

Thus, in group Y, the number of coins is 82 which represents the highest code.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

In April 2025, which of the following statements regarding the launch of ‘Bandhan 2.0’ by Axis Max Life Insurance are correct?
1. ‘Bandhan 2.0’ is an AI-enabled platform aimed at transforming the onboarding process for new hires.
2. Axis Max Life Insurance is a collaboration between Max Financial Services and Axis Bank.
3. The platform integrates immersive storytelling and gamification for enhanced user engagement.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

The correct answer is All 1, 2 and 3

In News

  • Axis Max Life launched the AI-enabled platform ‘Bandhan 2.0’ to improve the onboarding process for new hires.

Explanation

  • Axis Max Life Insurance has launched Bandhan 2.0, an augmented reality-based onboarding platform that promises to redefine how organisations welcome and integrate talent.
  • The platform is designed to integrate AI, gamification, and storytelling to make onboarding more engaging.
  • ‘Bandhan 2.0’ provides real-time leadership engagement for a more immersive experience.
  • Axis Max Life Insurance is a joint venture between Max Financial Services and Axis Bank.
  • It aims to simplify the process of bringing new employees onboard through interactive technology.
  • Axis Max Life focuses on enhancing the overall employee experience through technology-driven platforms.
  • The platform represents Axis Max Life's commitment to technological innovation in HR processes.

Additional Information

  • Axis Max Life Insurance offers a range of life insurance products.
    • Founded in 2000
    • HQ  Gurugram, Haryana
  • Max Financial Services
    • Founded in 1988
    • HQ Noida 
  • AI and AR are emerging technologies that enhance customer and employee engagement.
  • The integration of gamification in onboarding processes has been shown to improve employee retention.
  • ‘Bandhan 2.0’ aims to set a new benchmark in employee engagement in the insurance industry.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

The National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) system is a widely used electronic payment system that enables individuals, businesses, and institutions to transfer funds domestically between different bank branches. NEFT offers a secure and efficient means of transferring money, ensuring the timely settlement of payments across the country. Which of the following is an important characteristic of NEFT transactions?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

The correct answer is NEFT operates on a batch processing system, with transactions processed at half-hour intervals.
In News

  • NEFT operates in batches, processing transactions multiple times a day.

Explanation

  • NEFT allows for domestic electronic funds transfer without any minimum or maximum limit on the amount.
  • The system operates on a batch processing model, with transactions processed at half-hour intervals.
  • NEFT can be used for transferring funds across the country, not limited by city boundaries.
  • The RBI has mandated that there be no charges on NEFT transactions as per the latest guidelines.
  • NEFT operates 24x7, allowing users to transfer funds on weekends and holidays as well.

Additional Information

  • RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement)
    • Designed for high-value transactions (Over Rs. 2 lakh).
    • Transactions are processed and settled in real-time.
  • RBI Guidelines
    • Ensures smooth operation and consumer protection in electronic payment systems.
    • Mandates no charges for NEFT transactions under its latest rules.
  • NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer)
    • It is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one to one funds transfer.
    • Operates for small to large transactions across India
    • No upper or lower limit for NEFT transactions
    • It works on the system of STP - Straight Through Processing
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

In June 2025, the Uttarakhand government, through SETU Aayog, signed strategic partnerships to drive inclusive growth and digital empowerment across the state. The MoUs were aimed at creating a technology skill hub, advancing AI-based skill development, and enhancing social welfare. Which of the following organisations was NOT part of this trilateral collaboration?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

The correct answer is Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation.
In News

  • Uttarakhand government signed MoUs with Tata Trusts, NASSCOM, and Wadhwani Foundation to enhance digital skills and social development under the SETU Aayog initiative.

Explanation

  • The Government of Uttarakhand signed three MoUs with Tata Trusts, NASSCOM, and Wadhwani Foundation at the Secretariat in Dehradun.
  • Three agreements were signed on June 4, 2025, under SETU Aayog for state-wide transformation.
  • Tata Trusts to work on a Social Development Pact focusing on livelihoods, health, and nutrition.
  • A 10-year partnership focusing on water management, nutrition, telemedicine, rural livelihoods, and green energy.
  • NASSCOM to help establish a Technology Skill Hub aimed at IT and emerging tech training.
  • Wadhwani Foundation to implement AI-based skill development initiatives for the youth.
  • The partnership targets 1.5 lakh beneficiaries and long-term digital empowerment.

Additional Information

  • SETU Aayog is Uttarakhand’s nodal body for strategic development and institutional reforms.
  • The Skill Hub will include content on cybersecurity, AI, cloud computing, and entrepreneurship.
  • Tata Trusts has been actively involved in pan-India rural upliftment and community development.
  • Wadhwani Foundation works globally to promote skill-led economic acceleration via technology.
  • No involvement of the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation was reported in this initiative.
  • Uttarakhand
    • Capital: Deharadun
    • CM: Pushkar Singh Dhami
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

In August 2025, Andhra Pradesh CM Chandrababu Naidu launched the Annadata Sukhibhava-PM Kisan scheme. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Under the first instalment, Rs 3,175 crore was disbursed to 46.86 lakh farmers across Andhra Pradesh.
2. Each eligible farmer will receive Rs 20,000 annually — Rs 14,000 from the Government of India and Rs 6,000 from the State.
3. In the first tranche, each farmer received Rs 7,000 (Rs 5,000 from the state and Rs 2,000 from the centre).

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.
In News

  • AP CM N. Chandrababu Naidu launched the ‘Annadata Sukhibhava–PM Kisan’ scheme at Prakasam district, Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation

  • N. Chandrababu Naidu, Chief Minister (CM) of Andhra Pradesh (AP) formally launched the Annadata SukhibhavaPradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM KISAN) scheme at Veerayapalem in Prakasam district, AP.
  • Statement 1 is correct: During the event, AP CM also disbursed Rs 3,175 crore to 46.86 lakh farmers across the state as part of the 1st installment of the scheme.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Clubbing the Centre's contribution of Rs 6,000 under PM-Kisan and the state's contribution of Rs 14,000, the southern state aims to disburse Rs 20,000 per annum to eligible farmers under 'Annadatha Sukhibhava'-PM Kisan scheme in three installments. Given statement swapped values.
  • Statement 3 is correct: In 1st tranche: Rs 7,000 disbursed (State Rs 5,000 + Centre Rs 2,000).
  • Farmers to get three instalments annually (Rs 7,000 + Rs 7,000 + Rs 6,000).
  • Scheme aims at doubling farm income & ensuring social security to farmers.
  • Implements DBT transfer for transparency.

Additional Information

  • The original PM-Kisan scheme supports farmers with Rs 6,000 annually (Govt of India).
  • DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer) system avoids leakages & ensures timely disbursal.
  • NABARD plays key role in farm financing in AP and across India.
  • Andhra Pradesh is a leading producer of rice, maize, and horticultural crops in India.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

In May 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced a specialized data platform to bridge persistent gaps in climate-related financial information. This initiative features a public directory of data sources and a restricted-access portal offering standardized datasets to financial institutions. What is the name of this newly launched platform?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

The correct answer is RBI-Climate Risk Information System (RBI-CRIS).
In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India launched the ‘RBI-Climate Risk Information System (RBI-CRIS)’ platform to fill gaps in climate-related financial information.

Key Points

  • Reserve bank launches climate risk data platform to address financial sector risks
  • As concerns mount over the financial sector’s exposure to climate-related risks, India’s central bank announced the launch of the Reserve Bank–Climate Risk Information System (RBI-CRIS)
  • The platform has two components: a public web-based directory and a restricted-access data portal.
  • The public directory lists meteorological and geo-spatial data sources available on the RBI website.
  • The restricted portal will provide standardized datasets to regulated financial institutions.
  • The initiative supports banks in managing climate-related financial risks.
  • The platform aligns with RBI’s broader green finance and sustainability agenda.

Additional Information

  • Climate risk data is crucial for assessing financial stability and resilience of banks.
  • RBI has been integrating ESG (Environmental, Social, E) considerations in its regulations.
  • India is a signatory to the Paris Agreement, making climate finance a key policy focus.
  • Central banks globally are adopting similar climate risk data systems to manage systemic risks.
  • RBI
    • Established in 1935
    • HQ Mumbai
    • Governor  Sanjay Malhotra
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

In July 2025, In the first half of 2025, India’s National Stock Exchange (NSE) emerged among the top four global exchanges in terms of IPO fundraising, outperforming even Nasdaq Global Market in number of IPOs hosted. How much amount was raised by NSE through IPOs during H1-CY25?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

The correct answer is USD 5.51 billion.
In News

  • NSE ranked 4th globally in IPO fundraising in H1-2025, raising USD 5.51 billion, according to S&P Global Market Intelligence.

Explanation

  • NSE ranked 4th after Nasdaq Global Market, NYSE, and Nasdaq Global Select Market.
  • National Stock Exchange (NSE) raised USD 5.51 billion in IPOs during H1-CY25.
  • It accounted for 8.9% of the global IPO fundraising total of USD 61.95 billion.
  • NSE hosted 73 IPOs—more than any other global exchange including Nasdaq Global Market (66).
  • India witnessed 119 IPOs across mainboard and SME platforms in H1-2025.
  • The total IPO fundraising in India was ₹51,150 crore, a rise from ₹37,682 crore via 157 IPOs in 2024.

Additional Information

  • NSE was founded in 1992 and is headquartered in Mumbai, India.
  • An IPO (Initial Public Offering) is the first sale of stock by a company to the public.
  • IPO activity often reflects investor confidence and market liquidity.
  • The Nasdaq Global Market is part of the U.S.-based Nasdaq exchange specializing in growth companies.

SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

In April 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed penalties on three financial institutions: Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, and Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Ltd. The penalties were imposed for non-compliance with regulatory guidelines concerning 'Interest Rate on Advances', 'Kissan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme', and 'Lending to MSMEs'. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the penalties?
Statements:
1. Indian Bank faced a penalty of Rs 1.78 crore for non-compliance with the KCC scheme and MSME sector lending.
2. Indian Overseas Bank was penalized Rs 63.60 lakh for violating the guidelines on agricultural loans and MSME sector lending.
3. Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Ltd was fined Rs 71.30 lakh for non-compliance with the KYC guidelines and other regulatory guidelines.

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
In News

  • RBI imposed penalties on Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, and Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Ltd for non-compliance with various regulatory directives.

Explanation

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has levied monetary penalties on two banks Indian Bank and Indian Overseas Bank along with a non-banking financial company, Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Ltd, due to their failure to comply with several regulatory guidelines.
  • Indian Bank was penalized Rs 1.61 crore for violations related to the KCC scheme and MSME sector lending.
  • Indian Overseas Bank faced a penalty of Rs 63.60 lakh for non-compliance with agricultural loan guidelines and MSME sector lending.
  • Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Ltd was fined Rs 71.30 lakh for non-compliance with KYC and other regulatory guidelines.
  • These penalties reflect RBI's commitment to ensuring regulatory compliance in the financial sector.
  • The fines highlight the importance of adhering to sectoral regulations and the need for continuous monitoring of financial institutions.

Additional Information

  • Indian Bank
    • Founded in 1907
    • Headquartered in Chennai
  • Indian Overseas Bank
    • Founded in 1937
    • Headquartered in Chennai
  • Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Ltd
    • Founded in 1997
    • Headquartered in Mumbai
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

In June 2025, IIT Kharagpur and Singapore’s Institute of Microelectronics (IME), under A*STAR, have formalised a partnership to drive semiconductor innovation and talent development through a newly signed Memorandum of Understanding at SEMICON Southeast Asia 2025. Which of these domains is not explicitly mentioned as part of the joint research initiative under the MoU?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

The correct answer is Biometric authentication systems and blockchain.
In News

  • IIT Kharagpur and Singapore’s IME signed an MoU during SEMICON Southeast Asia 2025 for collaborative semiconductor research. 

Explanation

  • The MoU covers collaborative R&D in advanced semiconductor technologies, including post‑CMOS and advanced transistor architectures. 
  • Research domains include heterogeneous integration, chip packaging, AI hardware accelerators, and photonic systems. 
  • Quantum devices, thermal management and reliability diagnostics are also part of the partnership. 
  • No mention is made of biometric authentication or blockchain systems in the MoU.
  • This collaboration aligns with the India Semiconductor Mission and aims to build global semiconductor capabilities.

Additional Information

  • Post‑CMOS refers to next‑generation chip technologies following traditional CMOS scaling.
  • Heterogeneous integration combines different chip components like logic, memory and analog on a single package.
  • AI-driven hardware accelerators improve performance for machine learning workloads.
  • Photonic systems use light for data transfer and computation at high speeds.
  • The joint efforts will include internships, student exchanges, joint research and knowledge sharing programmes. 
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

In July 2025, India formally deposited its Instrument of Ratification for the long‑pending Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)—a pact signed in March 2024 after 16 years of negotiations, promising investment commitments of USD 100 billion and tariff relaxations. Among the four EFTA member countries (Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein), which country was the most recent to complete its ratification process for the TEPA agreement with India?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

The correct answer is Switzerland
In News

  • Switzerland completed ratification of the India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).

Explanation

  • Switzerland has completed the ratification of a significant trade deal between India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)
  • India-EFTA TEPA was signed on March 10, 2024, in New Delhi.
  • Negotiations lasted 16 years since 2008.
  • EFTA includes Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.
  • Switzerland is the 12th largest investor in India.
  • Switzerland ratified the agreement; it may come into force in October 2025.
  • EFTA committed to invest USD 100 billion in India over 15 years.

Additional Information

  • TEPA aims to boost trade, investment, and market access between India and EFTA.
  • Swiss investments in India rose from CHF 551 million in 2000 to CHF 10 billion in 2024.
  • EFTA is a non-EU trade bloc focused on liberalizing trade among member nations.
  • TEPA includes cooperation in sustainable development and digital trade.
  • Ratification by all EFTA members is needed before agreement comes into effect.
SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

The Basel III guidelines, introduced in 2010 by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, aim to strengthen the regulation, supervision, and risk management within the banking sector. These guidelines focus on improving the stability of the financial system by setting higher capital requirements, enhancing liquidity standards, and addressing systemic risks. Which of the following is NOT one of the key parameters focused on by the Basel III framework?

Detailed Solution for SBI PO Mains Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

The correct answer is Return on Assets.
In News

  • Basel III guidelines focus on improving bank capital and liquidity standards.

Explanation

  • Basel III aims to ensure that banks have sufficient capital to absorb financial shocks.
  • Key parameters include Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR), Leverage Ratio, Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR), and Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR).
  • These measures were introduced to prevent financial crises like the 2008 financial meltdown.
  • The Basel III framework sets a global standard for banking regulations, with the CAR set at 9% in India.
  • The Leverage Ratio aims to limit the extent of a bank's exposure to debt relative to its capital.
  • The NSFR focuses on long-term funding stability for banks.

Additional Information

  • Basel III
    • Introduced in 2010 in response to the 2008 financial crisis.
    • Improves banking system stability with stricter capital and liquidity requirements.
  • Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)
    • Minimum ratio of a bank’s capital to its risk-weighted assets.
  • Leverage Ratio
    • Measures a bank’s capital relative to its total assets to avoid over-leveraging.
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