SRMJEE Mock Test - 7 (Medical) - JEE MCQ

or f = -100 cm = -1 m
Power = -1 D which is the choice (1).

Current sensitivity is given by:

It can only be increased by increasing the number of turns in the coil, inserting a soft iron cylinder inside the coil and increasing the strength of the magnetic field.

The position of the 30^th bright fringe is given by

Hence the shift of the central fringe is

The current will be equally divided at junction P. The field at the centre due to wires PQ and SR will be equal in magnitude but opposite in the direction, so its effective field will be zero. Similarly, net field due to wires PS and QR is zero. Therefore, the net field at the centre of the loop is zero.

The substances with a lower value of reduction potential are stronger reducing agents.
Hence, the increasing order of the strengths as reducing agents is:
Cl₂, Fe³⁺, H₂, Zn

Electrode potential of the cell must be +ve for spontaneous reaction.
Zn²⁺ → Zn; E⁰ = -0.76 V
Cu²⁺ → Cu; E⁰ = -0.34 V
Redox reaction is:

E_cell = E⁰_cathode - E⁰_anode
= -034 - (-0.76)
= +0.42 V
E_cell is positive, so the above reaction is feasible.
Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

2AgCI(s) + H₂ (g) (1 bar) → 2HCI (aq) + 2 Ag(s)
The cell with this cell reaction can be represented as:
Pt(s), H₂(g), 1 bar/1 M HCI(aq) || 1 M Ag⁺(aq)/Ag(s)
Silver is undergoing reduction (Ag⁺ → Ag) in this reaction, hence it will act as cathode in the cell.
Option (1) has KCI which is not present in the cell, so it is incorrect.
Option (2) at cathode Ag is being oxidised to Ag⁺ and at cathode oxidation does not take place. Hence, it is also incorrect.
Option (3) has AgCI(s) and AgCI which do not ionize. It is also incorrect.

Zone refining:-

It is based upon fractional crystallization as the impurity prefer to stay in the melt and on solidification, only pure metal solidifies on the surface of melt.

The principle in this process is solubility of the impurity in the metal in melt state is greater than in solid state.

The 5f-orbitals extend into space beyond the 6s and 6p-orbitals and participate in bonding. This is in direct contrast to the lanthanides where the 4f-orbitals are buried deep inside in the atom, totally shielded by outer orbitals and thus unable to take part in bonding.

(i) Neuron is a part of neural tissue while the remaining three belong to connective tissue. 
(ii) Thyroid gland is an endocrine gland while the remaining three are exocrine glands 
(iii) Adrenal gland is an endocrine gland while the remaining three are exocrine glands.

• When there is a decrease in glomerular blood flow, the JG (Juxtaglomerular) cells in the kidneys respond by releasing a hormone called renin.
• Renin plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin mechanism. It converts angiotensinogen, a protein present in the blood, into angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II.
• Angiotensin II acts as a potent vasoconstrictor, causing the blood vessels to narrow, which increases the glomerular blood pressure and subsequently the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
• The release of renin is part of a complex regulatory system that helps regulate blood pressure and maintain renal function.

Line in NCERT: "The JG cells to release renin which converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I and further to angiotensin II."

Glycocalyx is the outermost layer of the cell envelope. Cell wall lies between plasma membrane andd glycocalyx.

Line in NCERT: "The cell envelope consists of a tightly bound three layered structure i.e., the outermost glycocalyx followed by the cell wall and then the plasma membrane."

To determine the correct statements:

• Statement i is incorrect because lipids are generally water insoluble, not soluble.
• Statement ii is correct as it accurately describes the types of fatty acids.
• Statement iii is incorrect because glycerol is not a simple sugar; it is a trihydroxy alcohol (trihydroxy propane) that combines with fatty acids to form triglycerides.
• Statement iv is correct as phospholipids are indeed found in cell membranes and contain phosphorus.

Thus, the correct statements are ii and iv, making Option A the right choice.

The correct order from smallest to largest is virus, PPLO (Mycoplasma), typical bacteria, and typical eukaryotic cell. Viruses are the smallest, usually only visible with an electron microscope. PPLOs are slightly larger than the largest viruses but smaller than typical bacteria. Typical bacteria are larger than viruses and PPLOs and are visible under light microscopes. Eukaryotic cells are the largest, significantly bigger than viruses, PPLOs, and typical bacteria, making Option A the correct choice.

Topic in NCERT: PROKARYOTIC CELLS

Line in NCERT: "Typical bacteria (1-2 µm) PPLO (about 0.1 µm) A typical eukaryotic cell (10-20 µm) Viruses (0.02-0.2 µm)"

Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Compared to other types of microoganisms, yeasts especially Saccharomyces cerevisiae is the common microbes employed in ethanol production due to its high ethanol productivity, high ethanol tolerance and ability of fermenting wide range of sugars.

NCERT Topic: Microbes in industrial products

NCERT Line: "Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for commercial production of ethanol."

The given diagram represents post-transcriptional processing resulting in the formation of mRNA. Since, introns and exons are present, it is transcription in eukaryotes.

NCERT Topic: transcription in eukaryotes

NCERT Line: "Figure 5.11 Process of Transcription in Eukaryotes"

The Law of Segregation clarifies that alleles segregate independently during gamete formation, ensuring that each gamete receives only one of the two factors or alleles from a parent. This segregation process underlies the inheritance of traits and explains why both parental traits are not always visible in the F1 generation. Heterozygous parents, which carry two different alleles for a trait, produce gametes with equal proportions of each allele, contributing to genetic diversity in offspring.

Line in NCERT: "Though the parents contain two alleles during gamete formation, the factors or alleles of a pair segregate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors."

• If the genotype is AaBb the alleles that are produced will be AB, Ab, aB, ab, since there are two diallelic characters in the genotypes the person must be heterozygous for both genes. AABB is homozygous. So, the correct answer is "AaBb".

Fig: Diallelic characters in the genotype

Hence, the correct option is B.

NCERT Reference: Topic - INHERITANCE OF TWO GENES” of chapter "Principles of Inheritance and Variation"  of NCERT 

Minimum passing marks = Marks obtained + Marks failed by
= 164 + 76 = 240
Minimum passing marks = 240
Minimum passing percentage = 40%
Maximum Marks = × 100
= 600

AD = Height of the tower.

C is the top of the platform.

BC = DE = 40√3 m

Calculating:

tan 30° = AB / BC
1 / √3 = AB / 40√3

AB = 40 m

Height of the tower = AB + Height of the platform
AD = 40 + 5 = 45 m

Thus, the tower is 45 metres tall.

Consider the following direction diagram,

According to the question we can form the following diagram, where Rana starts from point O.

OE = 8−3 = 5 miles

DE = 12 miles

∴ OD = √12² + 5² (Using theorem of right triangle)

OD = 13 miles

Hence, the distance between initial and final position is 13 miles.

Let x - 1/x = 5.

Square both sides: (x - 1/x)² = 5² x² - 2 + 1/x² = 25 x² + 1/x² = 27.

Now, square x² + 1/x² to find x⁴ + 1/x⁴: (x² + 1/x²)² = 27² x⁴ + 2 + 1/x⁴ = 729 x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 729 - 2 = 727.

Thus, the correct answer is A) 727

Last paragraph of the passage says, "While cross-country comparisons are somewhat difficult given that the reporting of equity ownership data is not uniform ..." So, option 3 is correct.

Comparable, in the passage, refers to comparing the related things, i.e. holdings in companies in India and other countries. So, option 2 is correct.