SSC CHSL Mock Test -2


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC CHSL Mock Test Series | SSC CHSL Mock Test -2


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This mock test of SSC CHSL Mock Test -2 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC CHSL Mock Test -2 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC CHSL Mock Test -2 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC CHSL Mock Test -2 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC CHSL Mock Test -2 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Q. Veena wanted they / to stop coming to / her house too often.

Solution:

The error lies in part 1.
The sentence uses the pronoun 'they', used to refer to a group of people; which is incorrect here, given the context. The correct word here should be the pronoun 'them', which is used as the object of the verb.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 2

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Q. Outside of Pune / nobody even know / him or his family.

Solution:

The error lies in part 2.
The sentence uses the noun 'nobody', which takes a singular verb. So, the verb must be 'knows' and not 'know'.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 3

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence

Q. The promises he had made (seem) forgotten and yet, they continued to affect him.

Solution:

The second option is the answer. The given sentence appears in past tense with the use of- 'made' and 'continued'- and so the improvement is to change- seem- to 'seemed'. This brings the sentence to its right meaning and forms proper grammatical sense. Thus, seemed is the right word for improvement in the given sentence.
Corrected sentence- The promises he had made seemed forgotten and yet, they continued to affect him.

QUESTION: 4

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence

Q. Prize money of the event (is) been under wraps to not extrinsically motivate the teams.

Solution:

The first option is the answer. Had is not the answer as it is past tense. Has and have are both present tense, however have is used with plural nouns and has is used with singular nouns. Here, prize money is singular. Thus, 'has' is the right word for improvement in the given sentence.

Corrected sentence- Prize money of the event has been kept under wraps to not extrinsically motivate the teams.

Additional note: 
Extrinsically means: Not forming an essential or inherent part of a thing; ( so that the context becomes more clear)

QUESTION: 5

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Being all powerful

Solution:

The first option is the answer. Omnipotent means someone who is all powerful. Tyrant refers to an oppressive ruler, dictator is also somewhat similar meaning a type of governance with one person having all the power and advisory is having power to make recommendation but no power to implement it.
Thus, omnipotent is the right word.

QUESTION: 6

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Sudden collapse or failure

Solution:

The second option is the answer. Debacle is a sudden fail or collapse. Ricochet is bouncing back, projection is displaying and instantaneous means something that has happened suddenly.
Thus, debacle is the right word.

QUESTION: 7

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. 

Research method and research methodology are different and it is ___(A)___ to know it. In simple terms, research method refers to the tools employed in the ___(B)___. For example, a survey, a questionnaire etc. On the other hand, research methodology is the justification of ___(C)___ the particular research method. Method is one ___(D)___ of research that collects and analyses data. While, methodology ___(E)___ the way for the methods to be carried out properly.

Both are relevant to a study and need to be mentioned. The research design followed has an impact on the type of methods used and that is explained by the methodology.

Q. Which of the following most appropriately fits in blank A?

Solution:

The second option is the answer. Besides important, the other words do not hold any proper meaning for the given blank. 

Thus, the most appropriate word for blank A is important.

QUESTION: 8

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. 

Research method and research methodology are different and it is ___(A)___ to know it. In simple terms, research method refers to the tools employed in the ___(B)___. For example, a survey, a questionnaire etc. On the other hand, research methodology is the justification of ___(C)___ the particular research method. Method is one ___(D)___ of research that collects and analyses data. While, methodology ___(E)___ the way for the methods to be carried out properly.

Both are relevant to a study and need to be mentioned. The research design followed has an impact on the type of methods used and that is explained by the methodology.

Q. Which of the following most appropriately fits in blank B?

Solution:

The first option is the answer. The given passage discusses research methods and methodology. With this given context, study is the only right fitting word from the given options for blank B.

Thus, study is the most appropriate word for blank B.

QUESTION: 9

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. 

Research method and research methodology are different and it is ___(A)___ to know it. In simple terms, research method refers to the tools employed in the ___(B)___. For example, a survey, a questionnaire etc. On the other hand, research methodology is the justification of ___(C)___ the particular research method. Method is one ___(D)___ of research that collects and analyses data. While, methodology ___(E)___ the way for the methods to be carried out properly.

Both are relevant to a study and need to be mentioned. The research design followed has an impact on the type of methods used and that is explained by the methodology.

Q. Which of the following most appropriately fits in blank C?

Solution:

The third option is the answer. Acting, purposing and relating all hold different course of action and do not fit in with the given blank. Using on the other hand, makes the right fit.

Thus, using is the most appropriate for blank C.

QUESTION: 10

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. 

Research method and research methodology are different and it is ___(A)___ to know it. In simple terms, research method refers to the tools employed in the ___(B)___. For example, a survey, a questionnaire etc. On the other hand, research methodology is the justification of ___(C)___ the particular research method. Method is one ___(D)___ of research that collects and analyses data. While, methodology ___(E)___ the way for the methods to be carried out properly.

Both are relevant to a study and need to be mentioned. The research design followed has an impact on the type of methods used and that is explained by the methodology.

Q. Which of the following most appropriately fits in blank D?

Solution:

The second option is the answer. The given blank indicates that research method being one part and the best word to replace part with is component. The other given options have specific meaning that goes over the meaning of part.
Thus, component is the most appropriate for blank D.

QUESTION: 11

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. 

Research method and research methodology are different and it is ___(A)___ to know it. In simple terms, research method refers to the tools employed in the ___(B)___. For example, a survey, a questionnaire etc. On the other hand, research methodology is the justification of ___(C)___ the particular research method. Method is one ___(D)___ of research that collects and analyses data. While, methodology ___(E)___ the way for the methods to be carried out properly.

Both are relevant to a study and need to be mentioned. The research design followed has an impact on the type of methods used and that is explained by the methodology.

Q. Which of the following most appropriately fits in blank E?

Solution:

The second option is the answer. Builds and courses do not fit well with clearing the way as meant in the given blank. Paves and creates hold the same meaning, however, paves is chosen because it is more formal and appropriate.

Thus, paves is the most appropriate word for blank E.

QUESTION: 12

The sentence given with blanks is to be filled with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Q. Disagreements are not inherently bad because they allow ________ discussion of new information and difference perspectives on old ones.

Solution:

The fourth option is the answer. The other options beside some, do not hold proper meaning for the given blank. 'An' is the wrong article to be used, 'in' does not fit in grammatically and 'to' does not follow with discussion and rather it does with discuss.

Thus, some is the right word for the given blank.

QUESTION: 13

The sentence given with blanks is to be filled with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Q. ________ the perfect plan took weeks and will only take longer to execute.

Solution:

The fourth option is the answer. Assembling means bringing together different components, furnishing means providing and tinkering means playing around with something; these meanings do not fit the given blank. Concocting means making something.

Thus, concocting is the right word for the given blank.

QUESTION: 14

A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Q. The President was impeached by the Parliament for having colluded with the Russian government for his campaign.

Solution:

The active form of the sentence is given so it has to be converted to passive voice. Now, past perfect tense has been used in the original sentence and so the answer should also be in the same tense, this eliminates option b and c. the pattern to be used is –

Object (President)+ Verb (impeached) + Subject (Parliament)

The wrong verb is used in option ‘d’ – have – and thus that option is eliminated and so option  a’ is the correct option. 

QUESTION: 15

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the 4 alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/Direct speech.

Q. “Aren’t you too sick to work, Suzie?” Midge asked.

Solution:

When converting a question to indirect speech, the pronoun ‘you’ becomes ‘she’ and also the conditional conjunction ‘whether’ comes in.

As the given question has an enquiry, the verb ‘enquired’ can also be used instead of ‘asked’. The simple present tense verb ‘aren’t’ becomes simple past tense ‘wasn’t’.

So, the sentence becomes,
Midge + asked + Suzie + added conjunction ‘whether’ + changed pronoun ‘she’ + changed verb ‘wasn’t’ + too sick to work.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3. 

QUESTION: 16

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelled. Find the correctly spelled word.

Solution:

The correct option is 3, i.e., ocular.
Let’s find out the meaning of the given words –
Margin – the border or edge of something
National – of or belonging to a nation, something that is common to the nation
Ocular – related to the eyes and/or vision
Pectin – this is a gelatinous substance found in ripe fruits and which is also used to set jams and jellies

QUESTION: 17

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelled. Find the correctly spelled word.

Solution:

The correct option is 4, i.e. Temple

Let’s find out the meaning of the given words –

Quicksilver – the liquid form of the metal mercury or to be astonishingly fast

Resist – to have the ability to handle or withstand the effects of something

Standard – a level to match up to, a quality to be attained

Temple -  a place devoted to the worship for a sacred deity  -gods and goddesses

QUESTION: 18

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.Suppress

Solution:

‘Press’ would mean to physically squeeze something together, same as ‘Compress’, whereas ‘Hold’ would be an answer if it would have been followed by ‘Back’. This makes ‘Repress’ the correct answer. 

QUESTION: 19

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Contrast

Solution:

The original word means ‘dissimilarity’ or ‘juxtaposition’, which is most similar to option 1 as compared to the other 3 options.

QUESTION: 20

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Panic

Solution:

Panic is a sudden state of fear or alarm which may cause erratic behaviour. ‘anxiety’ and ‘fright’ have similar meaning and are thus synonyms and ‘hysteria’ is any uncontrollable expression of emotion which is similar to what happens in a situation of panic.

QUESTION: 21

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Jealousy

Solution:

Jealousy means showing resentment towards someone or their achievements and/or possessions. This is similar to ‘envy’ and ‘resentfulness’ and ‘lust’ is just another negative emotion.

QUESTION: 22

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the given parts to form a coherent paragraph.

All I know is that I stood spellbound in his
P: the heavy mahogany bureau
Q: its north-facing windows in front of
R: high-ceilinged studio room, with 

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2.

The sentence that logically follows the given sentence is R as it fits most meaningfully.

The sentence that would follow R is Q as it further describes the 'studio room' mentioned in R.

This leaves us with P to be the last sentence of the arrangement.

Therefore, the most logical and coherent way of forming a sentence from the given options is option 2, i.e., RQP.

The sentence would be:

All I know is that I stood spellbound in his high-ceilinged studio room, with its north-facing windows in front of the heavy mahogany bureau.

QUESTION: 23

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the given parts to form a coherent paragraph.

In the loveliest town of all, where
P: the houses were white and high and
Q: stopped to get a drink of sarsaparilla
R: the elms trees were green, Stuart 

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1.

The sentence that follows the above sentence is P as it fits most meaningfully.

The sentence that follows P is R as it further describes the 'loveliest town'.

This leaves us with Q to be the last sentence of the arrangement.

Therefore, the most logical and coherent way of forming a sentence from the given options is option 1, i.e., PRQ.

The sentence would be:

In the loveliest town of all, where the houses were white and high and the elms trees were green, Stuart stopped to get a drink of sarsaparilla.

QUESTION: 24

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Alpha mom

Solution:

The correct option is option 2.
To understand the meaning better, we can use it in a sentence.

For example:
Nowadays, with the growing participation of women in outdoor activities, we see a lot of alpha moms taking up jobs efficiently.

QUESTION: 25

In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and indicate the number of that meaning as your answer.

Live wire

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., 'An unpredictable person'.

'Live wire' refers to an energetic or unpredictable person.

Example - 'My sister was the live wire while I was the quiet one.'

QUESTION: 26

In the following question, select the odd letters/numbers from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Consider the English alphabetical series for the numerical value of letters.

1) DGJ21 → D + 3 = G, G + 3 = J, D = 4, G = 7, J = 10, 4 + 7 + 10 = 21

2) ORU54 → O + 3 = R, R + 3 = U, O = 15, R = 18, U = 21, 15 + 18 + 21 = 54

3) BEH16 → B + 3 = E, E + 3 = H, B = 2, E = 5, H = 8, 2 + 5 + 8 = 15 ≠ 16

4) WZC52 → W + 3 = Z, Z + 3 = C, W = 23, Z = 26, C = 3, 23 + 26 + 3 = 52

Hence, ‘BEH16’ is the odd one.

QUESTION: 27

In the following question, select the odd image from the given alternatives.

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:
In each of the above figure except figure 3, it has $ in place of &.
Hence, figure given in option 3 is the correct one.

QUESTION: 28

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Here, all except Capital One are Indian companies while Capital One is a US Company.
Hence, ‘Capital One’ is the odd one.

QUESTION: 29

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

Q. TIT : MAK :: OUT : ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:

Same pattern will be followed for OUT : ?.

Hence, ‘HMK’ is the correct alternative.  

QUESTION: 30

In the Following Question, Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Q. Asthma : Lungs :: ? : Brain

Solution:

Asthma is a disease related to lungs. Similarly, stroke is a disease related to brain.
Hence, ‘Stroke’ is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 31

In the following question, select the related image from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Mirror image of the first figure is shown in the second figure.

Hence, figure given in the option 3 is the correct one.

QUESTION: 32

Find the wrong term in the following series.

83, 87, 96, 114, 137

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:

83 + 4 = 87                  (i.e., 22 = 4)

87 + 9 = 96                  (i.e., 32 = 9)

96 + 16 = 112 ≠ 114    (i.e., 42 = 16)

112 + 25 = 137             (i.e., 52 = 25)

In place of 114, there should be 112.

Hence, 114 is the wrong term in the given series.

QUESTION: 33

Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

Q. v _ s _ v _ _ a _ i _ a

Solution:

By checking each option:
1) iaisvs → vis/ visa / visa
2) vaisvs → vvsa / visa / visa
3) iaisva → visa / visa / viaa
4) iaiavs → visa / viaa / visa
Hence, ‘iaisvs’ will complete the given series.

QUESTION: 34

Find the wrong term in the following series.

E, H, M, Q, W

Solution:

Consider the English alphabetical series for the numerical value of letters.
The followed pattern is:

Clearly, in place of M, there should be L.

QUESTION: 35

If “STUDY” is coded as “89” then how will “PARTY” be coded as?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:
S + T + U + D + Y = 19 + 20 + 21 + 4 + 25 = 89
Same pattern will be followed for “PARTY”.
P + A + R + T + Y = 16 + 1 + 18 + 20 + 25 = 80
Hence, “PARTY” will be coded as “80”.

QUESTION: 36

Tarun was standing facing north-east. He turned 90 degrees clockwise direction and then 45 degrees in anti-clockwise direction. He again turned 180 degrees in anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?

Solution:

The diagram for the given direction problem is as follows:

Hence, he is facing towards the west direction.

QUESTION: 37

There are eight members in a family. Harshat is son of Vipan who is husband of Kajal. Naresh is father-in-law of Kajal. Naresh has three sons and no daughter. Raju and Kaju are siblings. Naresh and Sakshi are married to each other. Harshat has no sibling. Akash is nephew of Vipan and Kaju.

Q. How is Sakshi related to Akash?

Solution:

The diagram for given family tree is as follows:

Hence, Sakshi is the grandmother of Akash.

QUESTION: 38

In a row of 36 students, Vaani is at 23rd position from the left end. Vansh is 3rd to the left of Vaani. Find position of Vansh from the right if all are facing north?

Solution:

Position of Vansh from the left = 20th
Total number of students = 36
From the right = ?
Total students = Position of Vansh from the left end + Position of Vansh from the right end – 1
⇒ 36 = 20 + Position of Vansh from the right end – 1
Position of Vansh from the right end = 36 – 20 + 1 = 17
Hence, 17 is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 39

Find angle between the minute and hour hand of the clock when hour hand is at 3 and minute hand is at 2?

Solution:

Time = 3:10
In 1 hour angle covered by hour hand is 30 degrees.
Angle covered by hour hand in 19/6 hours = 19/6 × 30 = 95 degree
Angle covered by minute hand in 1 minute = 6 degree
Angle covered by minute hand in 10 minutes = 6 × 10 = 60 degree
Required angle = 95 – 60 = 35 degrees
Hence, ‘35 degrees’ is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 40

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Filariasis
2. Filterable
3. Film
4. Filtration

Solution:

1. Filariasis
3. Film
2. Filterable
4. Filtration
Hence, answer is 1324.

QUESTION: 41

In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word. 

SALVAGEABLE

Solution:

1) LEVELS → SALVAGEABLE, hence word can be formed.
2) AVAILABLE → SALVAGEABLE, hence word cannot be formed. (letter ‘I’ is not present)
3) BEAGLES → SALVAGEABLE, hence word can be formed.
4) EAGLES → SALVAGEABLE, hence word can be formed.
Hence, the answer is AVAILABLE.

QUESTION: 42

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given below.

Q. Delhi, Goa, State

Solution:

Given elements: Delhi, Goa, State
Here, Goa is a state and Delhi is a UT.

Hence, the answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 43

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternative.

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:
8 × 2 + 3 = 19
19 × 2 + 3 = 41
41 × 2 + 3 = 85
85 × 2 + 3 = 173
173 × 2 + 3 = 349
349 × 2 + 3 = 701
Hence, answer is 701.

QUESTION: 44

Correct the following equation by interchanging the two signs.

11300 × 25 + 36 – 48 ÷ 2 = 392

Solution:

Given equation: 11300 × 25 + 36 – 48 ÷ 2 = 392
Let’s check each option,

1) Interchanging + and – :
Equation will become 11300 × 25 - 36 + 48 ÷ 2
= 11300 × 25 – 36 + 24
= 282500 – 36 + 24
= 282488

2) Interchanging + and ÷ :
Equation will become 11300 × 25 ÷ 36 – 48 + 2
= 11300 × 25 ÷ 36 – 48 + 2
= 11300 × 0.69 – 48 + 2
= 7797 – 48 + 2
= 7751

3) Interchanging - and × :
Equation will become 11300 - 25 + 36 × 48 ÷ 2
= 11300 – 25 + 36 × 24
= 11300 – 25 + 864
= 12139

4) Interchanging ÷ and × :
Equation will become 11300 ÷ 25 + 36 – 48 × 2
= 452 + 36 – 48 × 2
= 452 + 36 – 96
= 392

Thus, using option 4, we will get the correct answer.

QUESTION: 45

If 3$4 = 1, 5$8 = 9, then find the value of 6$10.

Solution:

Here,
3$4 = 4 – 3 = 1, Square of 1 = 1
5$8 = 8 – 5 = 3, Square of 3 = 9
6$10 = 10 – 6 = 4, Square of 4 = 16
Hence, 16 is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 46

Seven friends – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a straight line facing the north in such a way that R is at 5th position from the right and T is at 5th position from the left. Between R and T is U. V is sitting adjacent to T and Q is sitting adjacent to R. P is 3rd to the right of U.

Who is sitting at the 3rd position from the left end?

Solution:

The linear arrangement is as follows:

Hence, R is sitting at the 3rd position from the left end.

QUESTION: 47

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Solution:


Hence, figure given in option 1 is the correct one.

QUESTION: 48

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Solution:


Hence, the answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 49

Which sides of the dice will be adjacent to symbol *?

Solution:

Here, * is placed at same position in both the cubes.
The numbers adjacent to * are #, %, @ and &.
Hence, the answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 50

How many squares are there in the given figure?

Solution:


Number of squares = ADRO, ABFE, BCGF, EFIH, FGJI, HIML, IJNM, LMPO, MNQP, CDKJ, JKRQ, ACJH, HJQO, EGNL
Hence, there are 14 squares in the given figure.

QUESTION: 51

If [x – (1/x)] = 2, then what is the value of [x + 1/x]?

Solution:

[x – (1/x)] = 2
Squaring on both the sides
⇒ x2 + (1/x2) – 2 = 4    [∵ (a - b)2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab]
⇒ x2 + (1/x2) = 6
Adding 2 to both the side
⇒ x2 + (1/x2) + 2 = 8
⇒ [x + (1/x)]2 = 8
Taking square roots on both the sides
⇒ x + 1/x = 2√2

QUESTION: 52

If sinA  =  3/5 and 0 < A < π/2 and 27cotA.cos2A  =  psin2A, then find the value of p.

Solution:

⇒ cos2A = 1- sin2A
⇒ 1 - (3/5) 2 = 1 - 9/25 = 16/25
⇒ So, cosA = 4/5 and cotA = cosA/sinA = 4/3
⇒ So, 27 × (4/3) × (16/25) = p × (9/25)
∴ p = 64

QUESTION: 53

The length of two parallel sides of a trapezium are 20cm and 15 cm. If its area is 175 cm2. Find its height.

Solution:

Area of trapezium 

∴ the height of trapezium is 10 cm

QUESTION: 54

Find the smallest fraction.

Solution:

Solving the fractions and converting then into decimal,
⇒ (12/5 + 8/3) = 76/15 = 5.067
⇒ (11/4 + 7/2) = 25/4 = 6.25
⇒ (10/3 + 9/4) = 67/12 = 5.583
⇒ (9/2 + 6/5) = 57/10 = 5.7
∴ The smallest fraction is (12/5 + 8/3)

QUESTION: 55

If (x + y) : (y + z) : (z + x) = 10 : 11 : 13 and x + y + z = 238, then value of y is:

Solution:

(x + y) : (y + z) : (z + x) = 10 : 11 : 13
And, (x + y + z) = 238
⇒ (x + y) = 10k
⇒ (y + z) = 11k
⇒ (z + x) = 13k
⇒ 2(x + y + z) = 34k
⇒ 34k = 2 × 238
⇒ k = 14
⇒ z + x = 13 × 14
⇒ z + x = 182
As given,
⇒ y + 182 = 238
∴ y = 56

QUESTION: 56

The equation of straight line passing through point (3, 2) and perpendicular to the line y = x is:

Solution:

Slope of the line y = x = 1
So the slope of line perpendicular to it = -1
[For perpendicular lines m1m2 = -1]
In our given options only option (ii) and (iii) satisfy the condition.
Line must pass from the point (3, 2)
So putting in equation x + y = 5
3 + 2 = 5 (Satisfies)
So the answer is (ii)

QUESTION: 57

A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 3. When some more milk is added to it, the ratio of milk to water in the resulting mixture becomes 2 : 1. If the initial Quantity of mixture was 800 liters, then find the quantity of the final mixture (in liters).

Solution:

Let the quantity of additional milk is x liters
In the mixture of 800 liters
Quantity of milk = (5/8) × 800 = 500 liters
So the quantity of water is = 300 liters
According to the question,
⇒ (500 + x)/300 = 2/1
⇒ 500 + x = 600
⇒ x = 600 – 500 = 100 liters

So, the new quantity of the mixture is 800 + 100 = 900 liters
∴ The final quantity of the mixture is 900 liters

QUESTION: 58

 

The height of pole is 40 meter. If  sinθ = 8/17,  then length of shadow of pole will be:

Solution:


Height = 40 meter

QUESTION: 59

The mean of 20 numbers is 60. If two numbers 35 and 85 are removed, then what will be the mean of remaining numbers?

Solution:

Average of 20 numbers is 60
∴ Sum of these 20 numbers = 20 × 60 = 1200
If two numbers 35 and 85 are removed
Sum of remaining 18 numbers = 1200 - 35 - 85 = 1080
∴ Average of these 18 numbers = 1080/18 = 60

QUESTION: 60

The passing marks of an exam is 60% marks. A student gets 320 marks and yet fails by 16 marks. What are the maximum marks?

Solution:

Let the maximum marks be a.
According to the question,
⇒ (60a/100) = 320 + 16
⇒ a = 336/0.6 = 560
∴ Maximum marks are 560.

QUESTION: 61

Shopkeeper want to clear his stock so he put a board of 30% discount still it doesn’t affect the sales. So edit the board and put the sign of 30% + 30% discount. By this way, how much actual discount he is offering?

Solution:

For successive discount,
Successive discount = (-a) + (-b) + (-a)(-b)/100
Here, a = 30%, b = 30%
∴ Successive discount offered = (-30) + (-30) + (900/100) = -60 + 9 = -51%

QUESTION: 62

The speed of a boat during the climbing against the flow is 20 km/h and the speed of flow is 7 km/hr. The speed of downstream is ……. km/h.

Solution:

Speed of climbing the flow = speed of upstream = speed of boat – speed of flow = 20 kmph
⇒ The speed of boat - 7 = 20
⇒ The speed of boat = 20 + 7 = 27 km/h
∴ The speed of downstream = The speed of boat + The speed of stream = 27 + 7 = 34 km/h

QUESTION: 63

Ramesh can complete a work in 15 days and along with Geeta, he completes the same work in 6 days. If Geeta along with Rajan takes 9 days to complete the same work, time taken by Rajan alone to complete the same work is …….. days.

Solution:

Time taken by Rajan and Geeta to complete the work = 6 days

As we know, work is directly proportional to time, w/t = constant

Time taken by Ramesh to complete work = 15 days

According to the question,
1/15 + 1/x = 1/6

Where x = time taken by Geeta to complete the same work,
⇒ 1/x = 1/6 – 1/15
⇒ x = 10 days

For finding the efficiency of Rajan,
1/10 + 1/y = 1/9

Where, y = time taken by Rajan alone to complete the same work,
⇒ 1/y = 1/9 – 1/10
⇒ 1/y = 1/90
∴ y = work efficiency of Rajan = 90 days

QUESTION: 64

Kinjal lend a money to her friend on simple interest of 5% for 4 years. If at last she got the total amount of Rs. 12000, the amount she lend is Rs. ….

Solution:

Simple Interest = PRT/100
Here, R = 5%
T = 4 years
Total amount = P + I = 12000
⇒ I = 12000 - P
⇒ I = P × 5 × 4/100
⇒ 12000 - P = 20P/100
⇒ 12000 – P = 0.2P
⇒ 12000 = 1.2P
∴ P = 12000/1.2 = Rs. 10,000

QUESTION: 65

What will be the value of that smallest positive integer N, such that  is an integer?

Solution:

We know that (70)2 = 4900 and (75)2 = 5625 and the no. 547N is < (75)2
Also,
⇒ (74)2 = 5476
∴ N = 6

QUESTION: 66

The ratio of two numbers is 5 : 7 and their LCM is 105. If X is the ratio of sum of the numbers and difference of the numbers. What is the value of X?

Solution:

Let the two numbers be 5x and 7x respectively.
LCM of 5x and 7x is 35x.
⇒ 35x = 105
⇒ x = 105/35 = 3
⇒ The sum of the two numbers = 5 × 3 + 7 × 3 = 15 + 21 = 36
Difference of the two numbers = 21 – 15 = 6
X = 36/6 = 6
∴ X = 6

QUESTION: 67

Find the total surface area (in cm2) of a right circular cylinder of diameter 98 cm and height 16 cm.

Solution:

Diameter = 98 & height = 16
So, r = 98/2 = 49
We know, total surface area of a right circular cylinder of diameter = 2πr (r + h)
∴ Total surface area of right circular cylinder = 2 × 22/7 × 49 × (49 + 16) = 20020 cm2

QUESTION: 68

Find the difference of two numbers such that their product is 108 and the third proportion be 16.

Solution:

Let the two numbers be x and y
xy = 108 ⇒ x = 108/y
x : y = y : 16
x × 16 = y2
108/y × 16 = y2
y3 = 108 × 16
⇒ y = 12
x = 108/12 = 9
y – x = 12 – 9 = 3

QUESTION: 69

The equation of straight line which passes through the point (1, -2) and cuts off equal intercepts from axes is

Solution:

According to the question, straight line passes through the point (1, -2). So it must satisfy the equation.so we put this value in each equation
(i) x + y = 1
1 - 2 = 1 (Not satisfied)
(ii) x - y = 1
1 - (-2) = 1 (Not satisfied)
(iii) x + y + 1 = 0
1 - 2 + 1 = 0 (Satisfied)
(iv) x - y - 2 = 0
1 - (-2) - 2 = 0 (Not satisfied)
The only equation satisfies is x + y + 1 = 0
Hence the answer is (C)

QUESTION: 70

A cord AB is such that AB is equal to the radius of circle and any point P is taken on the major arc of the AB. What will be the measure of angle ∠APB? Where AP ≠ BP.

Solution:


 

Join A and B with center O and AB is equal to the radius
Then OA = OB = AB = radius
ΔAOB is equilateral triangle
So, ∠AOB = 60°
∠AOB = 2 × ∠APB

[∵ The angle subtended by an arc at the center is double the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle]
60° = 2 × ∠APB
∴ ∠APB = 30°

QUESTION: 71

Find the area of a cyclic quadrilateral with sides 20 cm, 16 cm, 9 cm and 5 cm.

Solution:

If the sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are a, b, c and d, then
Area of cyclic quadrilateral = √(p – a)(p – b)(p – c)(p – d),
Where p = (a + b + c + d)/2
Let, a = 20 cm, b = 16 cm, c = 9 cm, d = 5 cm
⇒ p = (20 + 16 + 9 + 5)/2 = 25
∴ Area of cyclic quadrilateral = √(5 × 9 × 16 × 20) = √14400 = 120 cm2

QUESTION: 72

Directions: The pie-chart given below represents the details of the Deployment of 600 security personnel at 5 check posts during a festival. Based on the data given in the pie-chart answer the following question.

Q. How many total security personnel are deployed at Check Post A and E together?

Solution:

The security personnel deployed at Check Post A = 16% of 600 = 96
The security personnel deployed at Check Post E = 19% of 600 = 114
Total security personnel are deployed at Check Post A and E = 96 + 114 = 210

QUESTION: 73

Directions: The pie-chart given below represents the details of the Deployment of 600 security personnel at 5 check posts during a festival. Based on the data given in the pie-chart answer the following question.

Solution:

The security personnel deployed at Check Post B = 32% of 600 = 192

The security personnel deployed at Check Post C = 24% of 600 = 144

Ratio = 192/144 = 4/3
Ratio = 4 ∶ 3

QUESTION: 74

Directions: The pie-chart given below represents the details of the Deployment of 600 security personnel at 5 check posts during a festival. Based on the data given in the pie-chart answer the following question.

Q. How many more security personnel are deployed at check post B as compared to Check Post D?

Solution:

The security personnel deployed at Check Post B = 32% of 600 = 192
The security personnel deployed at Check Post D = 9% of 600 = 54
Required Personnel = 192- 54 = 138

QUESTION: 75

Directions: The pie-chart given below represents the details of the Deployment of 600 security personnel at 5 check posts during a festival. Based on the data given in the pie-chart answer the following question.

Q. How many more security personnel are deployed at check post A as compared to Check Post having least number of security personnel?

Solution:

The security personnel deployed at Check Post A = 16% of 600 = 96
Check post having least security personnel is Post D.
The security personnel deployed at Check Post D = 9% of 600 = 54
Required security Personnel = 96 - 54 = 42.

QUESTION: 76

Who will be the 1st recipient of the ‘Bhagwan Mahavir Ahimsa Puraskar’ on 17 April 2019?

Solution:
  • IAF Wing Commander, Abhinandan Varthaman will be the 1st recipient of the ‘Bhagwan Mahavir Ahimsa Puraskar’ instituted by the Akhil Bharatiya Digambar Jain Mahasamiti.
  • He shot down a Pakistani Air Force jet F-16 with an R-73 air-to-air missile in a dogfight on February 27.
  • He will be awarded on April 17, 2019. The award has a cash prize of Rs. 2.51 lakh, citation, and memento.
QUESTION: 77

Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) launched STARS scheme to fund science projects. What does 'A' stand for in STARS?

Solution:
  • Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) launched STARS – Scheme for Translational and Advanced Research in Science to fund science projects.
  • The ministry has approved funds worth Rs 250 crore for the scheme.
  • These funds will be utilised to sponsor about 500 science projects.
  • The project will be coordinated by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore.
QUESTION: 78

The aim of the 'National Action Plan - Viral Hepatitis' programme is to combat hepatitis and achieve countrywide elimination of Hepatitis C by ________.

Solution:
  • The government of India launched the 'National Action Plan - Viral Hepatitis' in Mumbai on 24 February 2019.
  • The aim of the programme is to combat hepatitis and achieve countrywide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030.
  • The action plan takes forward the National Viral Hepatitis Control Program launched by the Union Health Minister in July 2018.
QUESTION: 79

Given below are the names of certain schemes launched by the government and the year of their launch. Identify the INCORRECT pair.

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

Which country became the 30th member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation on 6 February 2019?

Solution:
  • Macedonia signed an accord to join the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
  • By this, it became the 30th member of NATO.
  • The Macedonia-NATO accord followed a deal with Greece, which ended a 27-year-old dispute over Macedonia’s name.
  • NATO is an intergovernmental military alliance between North American and European countries.  
  • Macedonia Capital: Skopje.
  • Currency: Macedonian Denar.
QUESTION: 81

Who will assume the role of interim President of World Bank from 1 February 2019?

Solution:
  • World Bank President Jim Yong Kim will step down from his position on 1 February 2019.
  • He was appointed as President of World bank in July 2012.
  • Kristalina Georgieva, World Bank CEO, will assume the role of interim President from 1 February 2019.
  • The United States is the largest shareholder of the World Bank.
  • The World Bank's headquarter is in Washington D.C.
QUESTION: 82

________ launched a special programme for School Children called “Young Scientist Programme” “YUva VIgyani KAryakram”.

Solution:
  • ISRO launched a special programme for School Children called “Young Scientist Programme” “YUva VIgyani KAryakram” (युविका).
  • It is primarily aimed at imparting basic knowledge on Space Technology, Space Science and Space Applications to the younger ones.
  • It will be of around two weeks duration during summer holidays and students of the 9th standard are eligible for it.
QUESTION: 83

Who became the first female winner of the MRF Challenge Series at the final event of the season?

Solution:
  • Jamie Chadwick became the first female winner of the MRF Challenge Series at the final event of the season.
  • She won 3 of the 5 races in Chennai, India, to close an 18-point margin on Belgium's Max Defourny and take the title.
  • She became the first woman to win a British F3 race in August 2018.
  • The last woman to start Formula 1 Grand Prix was Lella Lombardi in 1976.
QUESTION: 84

One of the oldest rock cut Barabar Caves are located in which of the following Indian state?

Solution:
  • Barabar Caves are the oldest rock cut caves that are located in Bihar.
  • They are Located in the Jehanabad district of Bihar.
  • They are a Part of Barabar and Nagarjuni hills
  • They were Founded in 322-185 BCE.
QUESTION: 85

Given below are certain facts related to History of Economic Planning in India. Identify the correct statement(s).
A. S.N Agarwal gave the “People’s Plan” in the year 1944.
B. M.N Roy gave the “Gandhian Plan” in the year 1945.
C. J.P Narayan gave the “Sarvodaya Plan” in the year 1950.

Solution:
  • S.N Agarwal gave the “Gandhian Plan” in the year 1944. The main focus area of this plan was  “Agriculture and Rural economy”.
  • M.N Roy gave the “People’s Plan” in the year 1945. The plan was for 10 years and “Agriculture” was given the greatest priority.
  • J.P Narayan gave the “Sarvodaya Plan” in the year 1950. “Small and Cotton industries”, along with “Agriculture” were given emphasis.
QUESTION: 86

The term 'Laissez Faire' is mainly associated with which among the following?

Solution:
  • The term ' Laissez Faire' is used in order to denote the capitalist type of economy. 
  • It means that the economy is market-based and there is no role of the government in this kind of economy. 
  • In case of a socialist economy, all the means of production and distribution are controlled by the government. 
  • In the mixed economy, there are characteristics of both the capitalist economy and the socialist economy. 
  • India is an example of mixed economy whereas US and China are the examples of capitalist and socialist economies respectively. 
QUESTION: 87

The oldest land mass of India is part of_________.

Solution:
  • The oldest land mass of India is part of Gondwana land.
  • The oldest land mass of India is Peninsular India.
  • Gondwana land includes present-day Australia, South Africa, Antarctica as one land mass.
  • According to Continental drift theory, Gondwana land split into pieces and Indo-Australian plate is one of those pieces.
  • Peninsular India was part of Indo-Australian plate that collided with Eurasian plate thereby subduing Tethys ocean and forming the Himalayas.
QUESTION: 88

Which of the following was not a feature of Government of India Act,1935?

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

In what time period did Bindusara reign as the Emperor of the Maurya Empire?

Solution:

After Chandragupta abdicated the throne, Bindusara stepped in as the emperor. He extended the reach of the Empire in the south to Mysore. His reign lasted from 297 BC to 273 BC.

QUESTION: 90

Who among the following is the Minister of State with Independent Charge for Power and New and Renewable Energy?

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Anti-Defection law?

Solution:

10th Schedule:

  • 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Anti-Defection law.
  • It was inserted in the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment in 1985.
  • Articles 102 (2) and Articles 191 (2) deals with Anti-Defection Law.
  • It defines the provisions for the disqualification of members of a party on the grounds of defection to another political party.

 Conditions of Disqualification:

  • If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
  • If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorized to do so, without obtaining prior permission.

Power to Disqualify:

  • The Speaker or the Chairman of the House has the rights to take the decision to disqualify a member. 
QUESTION: 92

Terminal velocity ________.

Solution:

Terminal Velocity refers to the constant speed that a freely falling object eventually attain when the resistance of the medium through which it is falling prevents it further acceleration. In short this velocity is achieved when the speed of a moving object is no longer increasing or decreasing i.e. the object’s acceleration (or deceleration) is zero.

QUESTION: 93

In an electric appliance, current flowing through a 300 V source is 5 A. Calculate the time taken by the device when the energy used is 3750 Wh. 

Solution:

Power = current × voltage = 5 × 300 = 1500 W
Work = Power × time = 3750/1500 = 2.5 hrs = 2.5 × 3600 = 9000 seconds

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following options is ‘not’ an example of “thermosetting plastics”?

Solution:

Thermosetting plastics:

  • Generally, semifluid substances with low molecular masses
  • Becomes hard on heating and infusible due to the cross-linking between the polymer chains
  • Three dimensional in nature
  • Examples: Bakelite, melamine-formaldehyde resin, urea formaldehyde resin
QUESTION: 95

Among which of the following coal types, which one is referred as Brown coal?

Solution:

Lignite is referred as brown coal which is a soft, brown, combustible, sedimentary rock formed from naturally compressed peat. It is considered the lowest rank of coal due to its relatively low heat content. 

QUESTION: 96

Which disease is caused when there is accelerated breakdown of red blood cells in adults?

Solution:

Jaundice is caused when there is an accelerated breakdown of red blood cells in adults. Jaundice causes yellow skin and eyes. The yellowing happens due to an excess of bilirubin in the blood which occurs due to liver disease which happens due to excessive breakdown of red blood cells.

QUESTION: 97

How many pairs of Autosomes are present in human beings?

Solution:

Any chromosome that is not a sex chromosome is referred to as Autosome.

Autosomes transfer genetic information from the parents to the offspring.

Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes of which 22 pairs are called autosomes and the 23rd pair is called allosome or sex chromosomes.

QUESTION: 98

Andromeda is a

Solution:

Andromeda is a spiral galaxy approximately 780 kiloparsecs (2.5 millionlight-years) from Earth.  It is the nearest major galaxy to the Milky Way.

QUESTION: 99

Which among these language translators that can convert high level language program into machine language at one go.

Solution:
  • Compiler is a language translator that can convert high level language program into machine language at one go.
  • The interpreter converts high level language program into machine language by converting it line by line.
  • The assembler converts program written in assembly language into machine language.
QUESTION: 100

How many ecological hotspots are present in India?

Solution:

A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. The four ecological hotspots are-
1) The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
2) Indo Burma region
3) Southern Himalayas
4) Sunderbans