# SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 9

## 200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for SSC JE Electrical Engineering | SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 9

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Attempt SSC JE (EE) Mock Test- 9 | 200 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for SSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series for SSC JE Electrical Engineering for SSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

### If CRICKET is coded as FULFNHW, then BRIDE would be coded as-

Solution: As,

C→+3 FR→+3 UI→+3 LC→+3 FK→+3 NE→+3 HT→+3 W

Similarly,

B→ER→UI→LD→GE→H

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 2

### Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Pigeons, Birds and Dogs?

Solution: Pigeons come under the class of Birds. But dog is different.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 3

### In a certain language, 'tom kun sud’ means ‘dogs are barking, ‘kun jo mop’ means ‘dogs and horses’, and ‘mut tom ko’ means ‘donkeys are mad’, Which word in that language means ‘barking’?

Solution: In the first and second statements, the common code word is ‘kun’, and the common word is ‘dogs’. So ‘kun’ means ‘dogs’.

In the first and third statements, the common code-word is ‘torn’, and the common word is ‘are’. So, ‘tom’ means ‘are’. Thus in the first statement, ‘sud’ means ‘barking’.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 4

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a statement followed by two conclusions is given. Select a conclusion that follows the statement.

Statement:

Heena told Maya that a ghost lived on the Neem tree in the outskirts of the villa.

Conclusions:

I. Neem trees grow only on the outskirt of the villa.

II. All the ghosts live on Neem tree.

Solution: Neither of the conclusions follows the statement. As per the statement, a ghost lived on the Neem tree, which is on the villa’s outskirts, but it does not suggest the neem trees do not grow inside the villa.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 5

Dhanesh walks 50 m east, and then he turns to his right and walks 30 metres. Now, in which is he from his starting point?

Solution:

Dhanesh is in the southeast direction from his starting point.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 6

B is the only child of the only daughter of C’s paternal grandfather. How is C’s father related to B?

Solution:

B is the child of the sister of C's father. Therefore, C’s father is the maternal uncle of B.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 7

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way, and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

Solution: All others are negative.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS: A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the questions figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS: In the following figure circle represents literate, and the bigger rectangle represents healthy, and the smaller rectangle represents rich people.

Which number represents those literates who are neither rich nor healthy?

Solution: Those who are neither rich nor healthy but are literates are represented by 4.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 10

Which one of the following figures represents the relationship among Males, Fathers, Advocates?

Solution:

All fathers are males, Few males and fathers can be advocates.

QUESTION: 11

Vishal walks 2 km towards South. He then turns right and walks 3 km; he now turns left and walks 5 km. Further, he moves 2 km after turning to the left. In which direction is he facing?

Solution:

He is facing towards the east.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 12

In a row In East-West direction, Dipika is on 11th position from West and Sudesh is on 15th position from East end. If they exchange their positions, Sudesh will be on the 9th position from the East end. How many persons are there In the row?

Solution:

Total number of persons in the row =11+9−1

=20−1=19

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 13

Choose the odd number from the given alternatives-

Solution: 1331=(11)3

3375=(15)3

1728=(12)3

Except 2890, all the other numbers are perfect cubes.

2890 is the odd number.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS: In the given diagram, the circle represents wise men, the square represents experienced men, the triangle represents teachers. Which region represents teachers who are wise as well as experienced?

Solution: Number 2 is common to all three. Therefore it represents teachers who are wise as well as experienced.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 15

B is the brother of A, whose only sister is the mother of C, D is the maternal grandmother of C. How is A related to D?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 16

Maya starts from point T, walks straight to point U, which is 4 ft away. She turns left at 90° and walks to W, which is 4 ft away, turns 90° right and goes 3 ft to P, turns 90° right and walks 1 ft to Q, turns left at 90° and goes to V, which is 1 ft away and once again turns 90° right and goes to R, 3 ft away. What is the distance between T and R?

Solution: The movements of Maya from T to R are as shown in

Distance between T and R

= TR=TU+UR

=TU+PW+QV

=(4+3+1)ft =8 ft.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 17

If QKKQUGQL is the code for OMISSION, which word is coded as RYVIWZB?

Solution: In the code, we have alternately one letter two places ahead and the other two places behind the corresponding letter in the word.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 18

Directions: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

8, 27, 141, 996, ?

Solution: Pattern is-

8 × 3 + 3 = 27

27 × 5 + 6 = 141

141 × 7 + 9 = 996

996 x 9 + 12 = 8976

QUESTION: 19

In the following question, select the odd one out.

Solution: ‘Guitar’ is a string operated musical instrument.

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 20

Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden.

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 21

A woman has only 25 p and 50 p coins in her bag. If in all, she has 40 coins which total Rs.12.75, then the number of 50 p coins is?

Solution: Let the number of 50 paise coins and 25 paise coins be x and y, respectively.

Then x+y=40....... (1)

And

2x + y = 51....... (2)

By solving (1) and (2), we get

x = 11

Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 22

DIRECTIONS: In each of the following questions, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.

Solution: All except oil are used to join something.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 23

The city A is situated 2 miles away in the northwest direction from the city B. C is situated at 2 miles away in the South-west direction from A. D is situated 2 miles away in the northwest direction from C. E is located 2 miles away in the southwest direction from D. In which direction is E located in relation to B?

Solution:

In the figure given above, E is located to the west in relation to B.

Hence, the correct option is ©

QUESTION: 24

Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held on the line AB?

Question Figures

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 25

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, select the answer figure In which the question figure Is hidden/embedded.

Question Figure

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 26

If HOSPITAL is written as 32574618 in a certain code, how would POSTAL be written in that code?

Solution: According to the question,

H→3 O→2 S→5 P→7 I→4 T→6 A→1 L→8

According to direct letter coding,

P→7 O→2 S→5 T→6 A→1 L→8

So, the code is 725618.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 27

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a piece of paper is folded in the manner shown in the question figure(s). Select the figure out of the answer choices showing the unfolded pattern after the punches (cut).

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 28

‘K’ walked 5 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metres. He then took a right turn and walked for 20 metres, and again took a right turn and walked 10 metres. How far is he from the starting point?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 29

In a row of students, if John, who is 16th from the left, and Johnson, who is 8th from the right, interchange their positions, John becomes 33rd from left. How many students are there in the row?

Solution:

Total number of students

= 33 + 8 - 1

= 40

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 30

In a certain code language, ‘col tip mot’ means ‘singing is appreciable’, ‘mot baj min’ means ‘dancing is good’ and ‘tip nop baj’ means ‘singing and dancing’, which of the following means ‘good’ in that code language?

Solution: ‘col tip mot’=‘singing is appreciable’______(1)

‘mot baj min’=‘dancing is good’______(2)

‘tip nop baj’=‘singing and dancing’_____(3)

From(1)and(2), mot=is

From(2)and(3),baj=dancing

From(2) min=good

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 31

Pavan walked 30 meters towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 meters. He again took a left turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and stopped. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped?

Solution:

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS: Choose the odd one out from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except MOTHER: TMPRHD, the rest of the group follow the arrangement given below.

Pattern is-

S U N D A Y

1 2 3 4 5 6

Y A D S U N

6 5 4 1 2 3

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 33

DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, four figures are given. Three are similar in a certain way, and so form a group. Find out which one of the figures does not belong to that group.

Solution: The pattern of 3 dots is not followed in option(c) hence does not belong to that group.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 34

Directions: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

NEVER : SELDOM :: ALWAYS: ?

Solution: SELDOM is the opposite of NEVER in the same way OFTEN is the opposite of ALWAYS.
QUESTION: 35

Find the missing term

24, 60, 120, 210, ?

Solution: The pattern is 24 + [6 × (6 + 0)], 60 + [6 × (6 +4)], 120 + [6 × (6 + 9)], ......

So, missing term = 210 + [6 × (6 + 15)] = 210 + 126 = 336.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 36

Two trucks start from the opposite points of the main road, 300 km apart. The first truck runs for 50 km and takes a right turn, and then runs for 25 km. It then turns left and runs for another 50 km, and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to a minor breakdown, the other truck has run only 75 km along the main road. What would be the distance between the two trucks at this point?

Solution:

Let T1 and T2 are two trucks with A and P as their starting points, respectively.

Required distance = AP - (AE + PQ) = 300 — (100 + 75) = 125km

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 37

Find the missing number in a series given below:

9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127, ?

Solution: The pattern is x3, +4, x5, +6, x7, +8 etc.

So, the missing term is 1127 + 8 = 1135.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 38

Lokesh is taller than Gagan but not shorter than Abhishek. Abhishek and Suresh are of the same height. Lokesh is shorter than Lalit. Amongst the boys, who is the tallest?

Solution: Lokesh > Gagan

Lokesh > Abhishek

Abhishek = Suresh

Lokesh > Abhishek = Suresh

Lalit > Lokesh

Lalit > Lokesh > Abhishek = Suresh

OR

Lalit > Lokesh > Gagan

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, find the missing letters in the given series.

AOP, CQR, EST, GUV,?

Solution: Pattern 1

Pattern 2:

Pattern 3:

So, the missing letters are IWX.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 40

DIRECTIONS: In each of the following equation, which one of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct:

10 + 10 ÷ 10 – 10 × 10 = 10

Solution: Given that

10 + 10 ÷ 10 – 10 × 10 = 10

After interchanging + and ×,

10 x 10 ÷ 10 – 10 + 10 = 10

⇒10×1−10+10=10⇒10=10.

Hence, the correct option is (C)

QUESTION: 41

In a certain code, MAIN is written as IMNA and GOAL is written as AGLO. How is DUSK written in that code?

Solution: The letters of both the words are changing their position in this way-

Similarly-

Hence, the correct option is (A)

QUESTION: 42

How many hexagons are there in the figure given below?

Solution:

∴ Total hexagons = CDEKLM, CEUKMQ, CFHJMQ, BEUKNP, BFHJNP = 5

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 43

If every Sunday of any month is on the fourth, eleventh eighteenth and twenty-fifth, then which day will be the last day of the month if the first day of the month is Thursday?

Solution: We have no information regarding the total number of days in the month.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 44

DIRECTIONS: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular area at equal distances between each other but not necessarily in the same order. Some people face the centre while some face outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the centre).

R sits second to the right of T.T face the centre. O sits third to the left of R. R and O face opposite directions. R does not face the centre. Immediate neighbours of O face the centre. P sits second to the right of O. U sits to the immediate left of P. N sits second to the left of Q. Q faces the same direction as O. Q is not an immediate neighbour of T. Immediate neighbours of R face opposite directions. (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour faces outside.

Who sits second to the left of U?

Solution: As per the given information, we draw the following arrangement as shown below

S sits second to the left of U.

Hence, the correct option is ©

QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular area at equal distances between each other but not necessarily in the same order. Some people face the centre while some face outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the centre).

R sits second to the right of T.T face the centre. O sits third to the left of R. R and O face opposite directions. R does not face the centre. Immediate neighbours of O face the centre. P sits second to the right of O. U sits to the immediate left of P. N sits second to the left of Q. Q faces the same direction as O. Q is not an immediate neighbour of T. Immediate neighbours of R face opposite directions. (i.e. if one neighbour faces the centre, the other neighbour faces outside.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement, and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

Solution: As per the given information, we draw the following arrangement as shown below

N does not belong to that group because N is facing outside and the other facing inside the centre.

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, find the missing letters in the given series.

CDE, IJK, NOP,?

Solution:

The missing letters are RST.

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS: Select the related letters,word/number/figure from the given alternatives.

11:121:110:: 15:225 : 210::?

Solution: The second number Is the squáre of the first number, and the third number Is obtained by subtracting the first number from thé second number.

(11)2= 121, and 121—11 = 110

(15)2= 225, and 225— 15 =210

Similarly,

(19)2 = 361 and 361 — 19=342

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS: Find out missing number/letter/number and letter from the following given options/figures.

Solution: The arrangement is

2 x 3=6

3 x 4 = 12

4 x 5 = 20

5 x 2 = 10

Then, missing number is 20

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 49

DIRECTIONS: In the question below, select the related figure from the given alternatives.

Solution: According to the question figure-

A is opposite to F

E is opposite to C

B is opposite to D

Hence, the correct option is (D)

QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS: A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of the alphabet, as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4, and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column; for example, 'N’ can be represented by 21, 67 etc., and ‘R’ can be represented by 57, 66 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘METER’.

Solution: M ⇒ 56, 65, 88, 95

E ⇒ 20, 40, 78, 97

T ⇒ 41, 59, 68, 77

R ⇒ 01, 13, 22, 57, 66

Hence, the correct option is (B)

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following was not done during the time of Lord Curzon?

Solution: Hunter Education Commission was founded in 1882 by Lord Ripon (1880-1884 AD) during British rule. The government appointed the commission under the chairmanship of William Wilson Hunter to review the progress made in the field of education by Charles Wood’s Declaration. This commission is not formed during Lord Curzon.
QUESTION: 52

Who led the English Army in the Battle of Buxar?

Solution: The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the forces under the command of the British East India Company led by Hector Munro and the combined armies of Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal till 1763; the Nawab of Awadh; and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
QUESTION: 53

Who was elected the President of All India Workers and Peasants Party in Calcutta in 1928?

Solution: In late November 1928, the WPP of Bengal executive committee met with Philip Spratt and Muzaffar Ahmed. They decided to appoint Sohan Singh Josh of the Punjab Kirti Kisan Party to chair the All India Workers and Peasants Conference, to be held in Calcutta in December.
QUESTION: 54

Which of the following events is NOT considered for the time being of Viceroy Lord Lytton?

Solution: Lord Lytton remained the Viceroy of India from 1876-1880. Second Afghan war 1878-80, Vernacular Press Act-1878 and Arms act- 1878 were important features of the Lord Lytton viceroyalty.
QUESTION: 55

Who of the following Viceroy is related to the Burma war?

Solution: Dalhousie and Dufferin, both Viceroy, are related to the Burma war.
QUESTION: 56

After which war did Babur hold the title of Ghazi?

Solution: On 16 March 1527, the armies of Babur and Rana Sanga fought against each other in the battle of Khanwa. Babur assumed the title “Ghazi” after this battle.
QUESTION: 57

In which language were the Buddhist literary works generally written?

Solution: Buddhist literary works were generally written as Pali.
QUESTION: 58

Who among the following is NOT a famous dancer of Bharatanatyam?

Solution: Jhaveri sisters are famous dancers of Manipuri dance.
QUESTION: 59

During _____________ motion of an object along a straight line, the velocity remains constant with time.

Solution: Uniform motion is defined as the motion of an object in which the object travels in a straight line, and its velocity remains constant along that line as it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, irrespective of the length of the time.
QUESTION: 60

1kWh = _________ x 106J.

Solution: 1kWh = 3.6 x 106J.
QUESTION: 61

As an object falls freely its ___________________.

Solution: Before the object begins falling, it has gravitational potential energy, which can be calculated by mgh, So the initial potential energy will equal the kinetic energy of the object right before it hits the ground. The potential energy has been converted into kinetic energy.
QUESTION: 62

In a ___________________ wave particles of the medium vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

Solution: A transverse wave is a moving wave that consists of oscillations occurring perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
QUESTION: 63

When the vibrating object moves backwards, it creates a region of low pressure in the medium called _______________.

Solution: The vibrating object produces a series of compressions and rarefactions, one after the other in the medium. These pulses travel one behind the other as the sound waves move forward. When this sound wave reaches our ear, it forces the tympanic membrane to vibrate and thus causes the sensation of hearing.
QUESTION: 64

Ethanol reacts with sodium leading to the evolution of which gas?

Solution: If a small piece of sodium is dropped into some ethanol, it reacts steadily to give off bubbles of hydrogen gas and leaves a colourless solution of sodium ethoxide.
QUESTION: 65

Atomic number is always equal to ______.

Solution: The number of protons in the nucleus of the atom is equal to the atomic number (Z).
QUESTION: 66

An atom can achieve octet by ______.

I. Sharing electron

II. Gaining electron

III. Losing electron

Solution: An atom can achieve an octet by Sharing electron, Gaining electron and Losing electron.
QUESTION: 67

What is formed when a helium atom loses one electron?

Solution: When a helium atom loses electrons, it gets a positive charge because the number of protons in the helium atom becomes greater than the number of electrons. When a helium atom loses one electron, it becomes a positive ion with a +1 charge.
QUESTION: 68

Which of the following electromagnetic waves has minimum wavelength?

Solution: Gamma rays have the smallest wavelengths and the most energy of any wave in the electromagnetic spectrum.
QUESTION: 69

Salivary amylase breaks down ______.

Solution: An amylase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of starch into sugars. Amylase is present in the saliva of humans and some other mammals, where it begins the chemical process of digestion.
QUESTION: 70

Which of the following represents the pair of sex chromosomes in men?

Solution: Males typically have two different kinds of sex chromosomes (XY) and are called the heterogametic sex.
QUESTION: 71

Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ______.

Solution: Pepsin is an endopeptidase that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides (protease). It is produced in the stomach and is one of the main digestive enzymes in the digestive systems of humans and many other animals, where it helps digest the proteins in food.
QUESTION: 72

How is the nitrogen taken up by the plants?

I. In the form of inorganic nitrates or nitrites

II. In the form of organic compounds

III. Directly taken up from the atmosphere

Solution: Plants take nitrogen from the soil by absorption through their roots as amino acids, nitrate ions, nitrite ions, or ammonium ions. Most nitrogen obtained by terrestrial animals can be traced back to the eating of plants at some stage of the food chain.
QUESTION: 73

Why do plants close stomata when it does NOT need carbon dioxide for photosynthesis

Solution: The plant closes stomata when it does not need carbon dioxide to prevent water loss.
QUESTION: 74

In Microsoft Word, _______________ provides information about the current document.

Solution: A status bar is a horizontal window at the bottom of a parent window in which an application can display various kinds of status information. The status bar can be divided into parts to display more than one type of information.
QUESTION: 75

Web applications are designed to interpret _____________ to display text, images etc.

Solution: Web applications are designed to interpret HTML to display text, images etc.
QUESTION: 76

SEBI is ___________.

Solution: The Securities and Exchange Board of India is the regulator for the securities market in India. It was a regulatory body established in 1988 and given statutory powers on 30 January 1992 through the SEBI Act, 1992.
QUESTION: 77

Which one among the following administers the International Development Association (IDA)?

Solution: The International Development Association (IDA) is the part of the World Bank that helps the world’s poorest countries. IDA complements the World Bank’s original lending arm—the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD).
QUESTION: 78

Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Human Development Index?

Solution: The HDI was calculated in 2010 using the following indicators: Health - Life expectancy at birth,

Education - expected years schooling for school-age children and average years of schooling in the adult population and Income - measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (PPP US\$).

QUESTION: 79

The term "Smart Money" broadly refers to ___________.

Solution: The term "Smart Money" broadly refers to Internet Banking.
QUESTION: 80

Visible and invisible items of debit and credit are the part of___________.

Solution: A BOP account, like a typical business account, is based on a double-entry system that contains two sides - The credit side and the Debit side. Any transaction which brings in foreign exchange (currency) is recorded on the credit side, whereas any transaction that causes a country to lose foreign exchange is recorded on the debit side.
QUESTION: 81

Which of the following cities is closest to the Equator?

Solution: Singapore (1°17′N):- one of largest equatorial cities + most dynamic economic centre in Southeast Asia.
QUESTION: 82

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Solution: Metamorphic rocks are rocks formed from other rocks. They are sedimentary or igneous rocks that have undergone changes as a result of extreme pressure and heat. Marble is produced by the metamorphism of Limestone. Basalt is produced by the metamorphism Granite. Serpentine is produced by the metamorphism of Gabbro. But Conglomerate is a coarse-grained clastic sedimentary rock.
QUESTION: 83

Which of the following is a Block Mountain?

Solution: Often, fault-block mountains have a steep front side and a sloping backside. Examples of fault-block mountains include the Sierra Nevada mountains in North America. The Harz Mountains in Germany. Vosges mountain in France.
QUESTION: 84

Why is Carbon Monoxide a pollutant?

Solution: Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odourless, tasteless, and toxic air pollutant. It is produced in the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels, such as gasoline, natural gas, oil, coal, and wood. Breathing the high concentrations of CO leads to reduced oxygen (O2) transport by haemoglobin.
QUESTION: 85

The outermost range of Himalayas is called_________.

Solution: The outermost range of the Himalayas is called Shiwaliks.
QUESTION: 86

Which of the following causes rainfall during winters in the northwestern part of India?

Solution: Western Disturbances causes rainfall during winters in the northwestern part of India.
QUESTION: 87

The largest herbarium of India is located at -

Solution: The largest herbarium in India is Indian Botanical Garden, Kolkata. It consists of 1000000 number of specimens.
QUESTION: 88

The longest sea beach in India is -

Solution: Marina Beach in Chennai is the longest natural beach in India
QUESTION: 89

What is the minimum age required to become a member of the municipality?

Solution: According to Article 243V(1)(b), the minimum age for election as a member of a Municipality is 21 years.
QUESTION: 90

Part of XVII of India Constitution deals with ______.

Solution: Part XVII part of the constitution consists of official language from Article ( 343-351).
QUESTION: 91

The constitution of India refers to the budget as the ______.

Solution: The Union Budget of India, also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India. The Government presents it on the first day of February so that it could be materialised before the commencement of the new financial year in April.
QUESTION: 92

The India Parliament should meet at least ______.

Solution: The period during which the House meets to conduct its business is called a session. The Constitution empowers the president to summon each House at such intervals that there should not be more than a six-month gap between the two sessions. Hence the Parliament must meet at least twice a year.
QUESTION: 93

After how much time the laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become inoperative and cease to operate?

Solution: After Six months, the laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National Emergency become inoperative and cease to operate.
QUESTION: 94

Who has been elected as the new President of the World Bank?

Solution: David Malpass, a top US Treasury official in the Trump administration, was unanimously selected as the new President of the World Bank for five years.
QUESTION: 95

Project-75 India, sometimes seen in the news, is associated with which Indian armed force?

Solution: To counter the growing Chinese footprint in the Indian Ocean region, the Indian Navy has initiated the process to acquire six lethal submarines under the ambitious Project-75 India.
QUESTION: 96

What is the theme of the 2019 World Health Day (WHD)?

Solution: The World Health Day (WHD) is observed every year on the 7th of April as a global health awareness day under the sponsorship of the World Health Organization (WHO). The day also celebrated the establishment of WHO in 1948. The 2019 theme is “Universal Coverage: Everyone, Everywhere”.
QUESTION: 97

Which of the following ships has become the first-ever Coast Guard ship to visit Indonesia?

Solution: Indian Coast Guard Ship 'INS Vijit' has become the first-ever Coast Guard ship to visit the Indonesian port of Sabang on March 17, 2019.
QUESTION: 98

Who has become the youngest Indian woman to win on Ladies European Tour (LET)?

Solution: Diksha Dagar, an Indian female professional deaf golfer, has created history by becoming the youngest Indian woman to win on the Ladies European Tour (LET) at the age of 18 as she won the 2019 Investec South African Women's Open in Cape Town on 16th March. She also became the 2nd Indian woman golfer to win a title after Aditi Ashok.
QUESTION: 99

Which country is hosting the 2019 SAFF Women's Championship?

Solution: The 5th edition of the SAFF Women's Championship 2019 has started in Biratnagar, Nepal, on March 12.
QUESTION: 100

Which of the following Indian companies has won the 'Global Slag Company of the Year' award?

Solution:

Tata Steel has been named as the 'Global Slag Company of the Year' at the 14th Global Slag Conference and Exhibition 2019 in Aachen, Germany.

QUESTION: 101

If the frequency of 3-phase supply to the stator of a 3-phase induction motor is increased, then synchronous speed………….

Solution:

QUESTION: 102

For a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency, no. of poles, and the load torque are all halved. The motor speed will be-

Solution:

QUESTION: 103

What is the use of the circuit shown in the figure below?

Solution:

Resistance is connected in one phase of three phase induction motor is to provide smooth starting to the motor.

QUESTION: 104

The RMS value of high frequency AC signal applied to a PMMC instrument is 120V. then reading of PMMC instrument will be –

Solution:

The permanent magnet moving coil instrument or PMMC type instrument uses two permanent magnets in order to create stationary magnetic field. These types of instruments are only used for measuring the DC quantities as if we apply AC current to these type of instruments the direction of current will be reversed during negative half cycle and hence the direction of torque will also be reversed which gives average value of torque zero.

QUESTION: 105

In the power system, the resonance rarely occurs at the supply frequency because

Solution:

Resonance in an electrical system occurs when inductive reactance of the circuit becomes equal to capacitive reactance of the circuit. Resonance causes high voltages in the electrical system. In transmission lines, the capacitance is very small as compared to inductance so that resonance rarely occurs.

QUESTION: 106

In case of slow developing faults transformer, the Buchholz relay

Solution:

In case of slow developing faults within the transformer, the heat due to fault causes the decomposition of some transformer oil in the main tank. When a predetermined amount of gas gets accumulated, it exerts pressure on the float to complete the alarm circuit.

QUESTION: 107

The value of voltage across the diode in the figure given below is-

Solution:

There will be no current in the circuit as the diode is reverse biased.

So, the whole voltage will cross the diode.

QUESTION: 108

In 132 kV system, the phase to ground capacitance is 0.01 μA, and inductance is 6H. The voltage that appears across the contacts of circuit breaker if a magnetizing current of 10 A is interrupted is

Solution:

QUESTION: 109

We have three resistance each of value 1 Ω, 2 Ω and 3 Ω. If all the three resistances are to be connected in a circuit, how many different values of equivalent resistance are possible?

Solution:

Eight different values can be obtained if they are connected in different ways.
All three in series (1 combination)
All three in parallel (1 combination)
One in series two in parallel (3 combination)
Two in series one in parallel ( 3 combination)
Total Eight different values can be obtained if they are connected in different ways.
All three in series (1 combination)
All three in parallel (1 combination)
One in series two in parallel (3 combination)
Two in series one in parallel ( 3 combination)
Total = 1 + 1 + 3 + 3 = 8

QUESTION: 110

A 4-pole, the 3-phase induction motor is running at 4% slip at full load. If the speed of the motor is 750 rpm, the supply frequency is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 111

If the speed of a universal motor in AC operation is (N AC) and in DC operation is N DC) (and I = current, V = supply voltage, r = resistance, X = reactance, = power factor) then the speed ratio-

Solution: For AC supply

For DC supply,

From equation (1) and (2)

On solving we will get finally,

QUESTION: 112

A capacitor stores energy in the form of

Solution:

A capacitor stores electrostatic energy whereas an inductor stores energy in the form of magnetic energy.

QUESTION: 113

If the inductance and capacitance of a power system are respectively 1H and the instantaneous value of interrupted current is 10A, then the voltage across the breaker contacts will be -

Solution:

QUESTION: 114

If four capacitors connected in parallel, the net capacitance is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 115

On what factor does the specific resistivity of the material depends

Solution:

Specific resistance is defined as the property of the material which depends on the temperature and chemical composition of the material.

QUESTION: 116

A lossy capacitor with a loss angle of 0.01 radian draws a current of 0.5 A when supplied at 1000V from a sinusoidal voltage source. The active power consumed by the capacitor is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 117

The ratio of the reading of two-watt meters connected to measure active power in a balanced 3-phase load is 2: 1. The power factor of the load is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 118

A 40 KVA transformer has a core loss of 400W and full load copper loss of 800W. The fraction of rated load at maximum efficiency is-

Solution: Let KVA at maximum efficiency be (Sn)

Therefore fraction of rated load at maximum efficiency = 70.71%

QUESTION: 119

A 4-pole, 1200 rpm DC lap wound generator has 1520 conductors. If the flux per pole is 0.01 weber, the emf of the generator is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 120

Three equal impedances are first connected in delta across a 3-phase balanced supply. If the same impedances are connected in star across the same supply

Solution:

When three equal Impedances connected in delta across 3 – phase balanced supply, if they are connected in star power consumption will be 1/3rd of previous consumption.

QUESTION: 121

If in an R-L-C series circuit the current lags the applied voltage by then-

Solution:

Angle between V and I is

Power factor angle

As we know, for series R-L-C Circuit

QUESTION: 122

A CRT with parallel deflection plate is 40 cm long and 10 mm apart have Ea=1000 V. Screen is 50 cm apart from center of parallel plates. Calculate the input voltage required to deflect the beam 5 cm.

Solution:

Given, Ea=1000 V and Id=0.4 m, d=0.01 m, L=0.5 m and Ed=?
we know that,

QUESTION: 123

If (Rg) in the circuit shown in the figure is variable between and , then maximum power transferred to the load (Rl) will be-

Solution:

(Rg) should be minimum to transfer maximum power to the load; therefore, we take

QUESTION: 124

A 1 – phase energy meter does 100 revolution in 90 seconds. Meter constant for instrument is 1200 rev./KWh, then power consumed by load is –

Solution:

We know that,

QUESTION: 125

The controlling torque in gravity controlled meter is proportional to -

Solution:

For gravity control

For spring control

QUESTION: 126

A 0 – 200 V voltmeter has guaranteed accuracy of 2% at full scale. Find the % error if the measured value is 144 V

Solution:

Maximum error = 2% of 240 = (200)×(2/100)= 4 V
% error when measured 100V = 4×(100/144)=2.78 %

QUESTION: 127

Determine the value of shunt required to give multiplying power of 41 whereas the instrument resistance is 1600 Ω -

Solution:

We know that,

QUESTION: 128

Inductance of moving iron instrument is given as  If the control spring torque is  then find deflection in rad for a current of 3 A –

Solution:

Deflecting torque of moving iron instrument is given as,

QUESTION: 129

The impedance reflected back to the source in Fig. is………………..

Solution:

QUESTION: 130

An ideal transformer has N1 = 100 turns
N2 = 200 turns with a mutual flux of
ϕm (t) = -0.05(t2 - 2t). The induced emf of secondary in volts is

Solution:

QUESTION: 131

In a transformer maximum efficiency occurs at 80% of a full load then what is the Relation between ironless at rated voltage (Pi) and copper loss full load.

Solution:

At maximum efficiency
Pc = Pi
Copper loss at 70% of full load
= (0.8)2 Pc
Iron loss at rated voltage = Pi
Pi = (0.8)2Pc
Pi=16/25Pe
25 Pi = 16 Pc

QUESTION: 132

A current wave starts at zero, rises instantaneously, then remains at a value of 20 A for 10 sec, then decreases instantaneously, remaining at a value of -10A for 20 sec, and then repeats this cycle. The RMS value of the wave is.

Solution:

QUESTION: 133

The following is the apparent disadvantage of auto transformer as compared to two-winding transformer

Solution:

Drawback of auto transformer
(1) If the transformer ratio K1 is far from unity, then the Auto transformer would not be economical one.
(2) The short circuit current in Auto transformer is higher than the short circuit current in two winding transformer.
(3) The main disadvantage of autotransformer is the direct electrical connection between low tension and high tension side, so it might be possible that the insulation of Cu may fail due to which a large current flow in windings.

QUESTION: 134

The voltage wave given by v =4 cos produces a current wave i =1.5 cos in a circuit. The current wave-

Solution:

QUESTION: 135

A 250 V d.c. shunt motor takes a total current of 20 A. Resistance of shunt field winding is 200 Ω and that of armature is 0.3 Ω  What is the current in the armature?

Solution:

QUESTION: 136

An electric load consumed 17.32 kW at a power factor of 0.707 (lagging). For changing the load power factor to 0.866 (lagging), the capacitor that is to be connected in parallel with the load should draw-

Solution:

QUESTION: 137

A 200/400 V, 20 kVA, 50 Hz single-phase transformer has, at full-load, a copper loss of 120 W. If it has an efficiency of 98% at full-load, determine the iron losses.

Solution:

Transformer Efficiency η
η = 1 - (losses/input)
= 1- (Copper Loss + Iron Loss)/Input kVA
0.98  = 1- {( 120 + Pi)/(20x1000)}
0.98 x 20000 = 20000 - 120 -Pi
Pi = 20000 - 19600-120
= 280 W

QUESTION: 138

In low oil circuit breaker, the oil performs the function of

Solution:

In Low Oil Circuit Breaker the are extinction process is carried out in the upper chamber. So, it is called as an arc extinction chamber or current interruption chamber of Minimum Oil Circuit Breaker (MOCB).

QUESTION: 139

A transistor is operating in common emitter mode, as shown in the figure given below. The voltage (VCE) is-

Solution: Let the transistor be in the active region then by applying Kirchoff's law to the base-emitter loop,

The transistor is operating in the active region. The initial assumption is valid.

Now, from collector to emitter loop,

QUESTION: 140

The current I in the circuit shown is Figure is

Solution:

QUESTION: 141

Consider the following circuit.

What is the equivalent resistance between points A and B when VA < VB?

Solution:

When V< VB,the diode is reverse biased and can be replaced by an ‘open’. Therefore, RAB = 10 Ω

QUESTION: 142

An over-excited 3-phase synchronous motor can be used to

Solution:

An over-excited 3-phase synchronous motor is not only used as a motor to supply the needed mechanical power but also acts as a power factor correction device.But generally prefered for power factor correction.

QUESTION: 143

A 18.65 kW, 220 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, Y-connected synchronous motor is running with a light load. The load angle is 4o(elect.) and back e.m.f. generated per phase in 110 V. If the armature resistance per phase is 0.1Ω and synchronous reactance/ phase is 1.5Ω then resultant armature voltage/phase is ……………….

Solution:

QUESTION: 144

Which of the following expression is the mathematical representation of Mass Action law in electronics?

Solution:

Mass action law states that at thermal equilibrium, the productof number of holes and number of electrons in a semiconductor are constant and is independent of donor and acceptor impurity doping (only intrinsic concentration is considered).

QUESTION: 145

Semiconductor A has a higher band-gap than semiconductor B. If both A and B have the same electron and hole mobilities then

Solution:

We have, intrinsic carrier concentration,
ηi∞e-Eg/2kT
And, hole concentration (by mass action law) is, p=ni2/n
⇒∞e-Eg/2kT
Thus, EgA>EgB
⇒p< pB
Hence, hole concentration in semiconductor A is less than that of B.

QUESTION: 146

The temperature coefficient of an intrinsic semiconductor is-

Solution: Negative and large.
QUESTION: 147

An ammeter is obtained by shunting a galvanometer with resistance. What should an additional shunt be connected across it to double the range?

Solution:

In the first case,

Now let R is connected across the ammeter.

QUESTION: 148

Time constant of the network shown in the figure is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 149

Which of the following statement is correct?

Solution:

Since copper is a metal, conductor, thus it has more number of free electrons in conduction band than that of silicon. Hence, fermi level of copper is at higher energy level than that of silicon.

QUESTION: 150

In a transformer, the core loss is found to be 46W at 50 Hz and is 80 W at 70 Hz, both losses being measured at the same peak flux density. The hysteresis loss and eddy current loss at 60 Hz is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 151

The secondary load impedance of a step-up transformer is ZS The primary impedance  ZP will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 152

In an Intrinsic semiconductor ________.

Solution:

Semiconductors which are chemically pure, meaning free of impurities, are called Intrinsic Semiconductors or Un doped Semiconductor or i-type Semiconductor. The most common intrinsic semiconductors are Silicon (Si) and Germanium (Ge), which belong to Group IV of the periodic table. The atomic numbers of Si and Ge are 14 and 32.

QUESTION: 153

A power insulator has 4 units. The voltage across the bottom-most unit is 33.33% of the total voltage. Its string efficiency is-

Solution:

The string efficiency is given as

QUESTION: 154

A transistor is a combination of two p-n junction with their

Solution:

a transistor is a combination of two diodes, we have two junctions here. As one junction is between the emitter and base, that is called as Emitter-Base junction and likewise, the other is Collector-Base junction. A transistor is a combination of two p-n junction with their p region connected together and n region connected together.

QUESTION: 155

The total line current drawn by the circuit shown in the figure is …………………

Solution:

I = |IL+IR| = |V/jXL + V/R|
= |240/j30 + 240/30
= 8√2 A

QUESTION: 156

A capacitor is charged by a battery. When the capacitor is having air core, the charge on the plates is 70 μC When the same capacitor has mica core of dielectric 7, the charge on the plates is

Solution:

QUESTION: 157

Variation in dc excitation of a synchronous motor causes variation in-

Solution: V curves and inverted V curves are drawn between armature current verses. Field excitation and power factor field excitation, respectively.
QUESTION: 158

The open loop control system is one in which __________.

Solution:

One type of control system in which the output has no influence or effect on the control action of the input signal is called an Open-loop system.

QUESTION: 159

A 10 kVA, 2000/400 V single-phase transformer has a primary resistance and inductive reactance of 5 Ω and 12 Ω respectively. The secondary values are 0.2 Ω and  0.48 Ωrespectively. What is the impedance of the transformer referred to the secondary side?

Solution:

QUESTION: 160

The condition of a semiconductor diode can be determined quickly using:

Solution:

On a digital display meter with a diode checking capability appears, the small diode symbol is the bottom option of the rotating dial to check the functionality of the diode. The curve tracer of can displays the characteristics of a host of devices, including the semiconductor diode.
By properly connecting the diode to the test panel at the bottom center of the unit and adjusting the controls, the display can be obtained.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 161

In a 50 kVA  transformer, the iron loss is 500 W and full-load Cu loss in 800 W. The efficiency of the transformer at full-load at 0.8 p.f. lagging is

Solution:

=kVA×cosϕ
=50×0.8
=40 kW
Total F.L. losses
=500+800
=1300 W
=1.3 kW
=40+1.3
=41.3 kW

QUESTION: 162

A circuit element that opposes the change in circuit voltage is

Solution:

A capacitor opposes change in voltage while an inductor opposes change in current However, a resistor neither opposes change in voltage nor change in current.

QUESTION: 163

A  100 kVA, 2200/440 V transformer has primary values R1=0.3 Ω, X1=1.1Ω and secondary values R2=0.01 Ω   and X2=0.035 Ω  The equivalent impedance of the transformer referred to the primary side is

Solution:

QUESTION: 164

The current in a 2.2 kΩ resistor is i(t)=5 sin(2π×100t+45)mA. What is the instantaneous value of resistor voltage at t = 0.4ms?

Solution:

Vm = Im×R
= 5mA × 2.2kΩ = 11V
∴ v(t) =11 sin (2π×100t+45)V
At t = 0.4ms, v
= 11 sin[2π×100]
(0.4×10-3)+45]V
= 11(14.4 + 45)
= 9.47 V

QUESTION: 165

The voltage across the open circuit is?

Solution:

The voltage across all branches in a parallel circuit is the same as that of the source voltage.
So, the voltage across the 10-ohm resistor and the open circuit is the same=100V.
Hence, the correct option is (A).

QUESTION: 166

The low voltage winding of a 300 kVA, 11000/2200 V, 50 Hz   transformer has 190 turns and a resistance of 0.06 Ω The high voltage side has 910 turns and a resistance of  1.6 Ω. When low voltage winding is short-circuited, the full-load current is obtained with 550 V applied to h.b. side. What is the equivalent resistance referred to high voltage side?

Solution:

QUESTION: 167

If the discharge voltage of a thyite arrester is 373 kV RMS and the rated voltage is 211 kV RMS, the discharge factor of the arrester is -

Solution:

QUESTION: 168

What will the maximum power (in W) transferred from the source to the load of the circuit given below?

Solution:

Vth = 40V
For maximum power transfer from source to load , load impedance must be
Zi=Z*th
ZL=10 - j20
Pmax=Vth2/4Rth
Pmax = 402/4x10 =40W

QUESTION: 169

In a 3-phase induction motor, starting torque will be maximum when-

Solution:

QUESTION: 170

In a ____________ circuit, the total resistance is smaller than the smallest resistance in the circuit.

Solution: In a parallel circuit, the equivalent resistance = 1/sum of the reciprocals of all the resistances in the circuit.

So, it is smaller than the smallest resistance in the circuit.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 171

Capacitor preferred when there is high frequency in the circuits is __________.

Solution:

Mica capacitors are preferred for high-frequency circuits because they have low ohmic losses and less reactance.
Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 172

A wire has a resistance. It is stretched by one-tenth of its original length. Then its resistance will be-

Solution:

From equation (3) and (4)

QUESTION: 173

Two incandescent bulbs of rating 230 V, 100 W and 230 V. 500 W are connected parallel across the mains. As a result, what will happen?

Solution:

QUESTION: 174

A DC shunt generator builds upto 230 V. Other condition remaining the same; if only the residual magnetism of the original machine is reversed, the voltage to which the generator will build up is -

Solution: On reversing only the field or only the armature terminals in the case of the DC shunt generator, there will be no build-up voltage, and the voltage across the armature becomes zero.
QUESTION: 175

For the given V-I characteristic find out the value of dynamic resistance Rac?

Solution:

Since the dynamic resistance is the reciprocal of line as-

QUESTION: 176

The moderator used in a fast breeder reactor is-

Solution: No moderator is used in fast breeder reactors.
QUESTION: 177

A Zener diode has a Zener resistance of 4Ω if the current through it changes from 15 mA to 20 mA, the change of voltage across the Zener diode will be

Solution:

ΔI = 5mA
ΔV = rz ΔI
= 4 × 5 × 10–3
= 0.02 V

QUESTION: 178

Which one of the correct definition of work function

Solution:

Work function is the minimum excess energy needed or required for thermionic emission and it is the emission of electrons form the heated of metals.

QUESTION: 179

A 50 kVA, 500 V, single phase a.c. generator gave the following test results:
Open circuit test: A field current of 12 A produced an e.m.f. of 300 V.
Short circuit test: A field current of 12 A caused a current of 175 A to flow in the short-circuited armature.
The synchronous impedance of the generator is

Solution:

Synchronous impedance,
Zs = 300/175 = 1.71 Ω

QUESTION: 180

In a three phase system power measured by using two wattmeter method and total power measured by both wattmeter is 50kW and power factor is 0.5 lagging. Reading of second wattmeter is –

Solution:

Total power,
P = 50kW
ϕ = 60 °
since at  ϕ = 60 °  one watt meter reads 0 watts  and entire power is reading by another watt meter
so at this condition the reading of another watt meter is zero.

QUESTION: 181

Solution:

QUESTION: 182

What will be the multiplying power of shunt of 400 Ω which is used with 800 Ω -

Solution:

QUESTION: 183

In reference to the figure, the voltage waveform v9t) is measured by a PMMC, a PMMC combined with bridge rectifier and a moving iron (MI) instrument. Two lists are prepared thereafter :

Instrument list List of instrument reading
List - II
a. PMMC
b. PMMC rectifier
c. M.I.
List - II
i. 5 V
ii. 2.75 V
iii. 2.5 V
The correct option relating the instruments and their reading is

Solution:

Vavg = area/(time period)
From given waveform
Vavg = (10*4)/16 = 2.5 Volts
PMMC rectifier will read rms value = 2.75 Volts
Vrms = (peak value)/2 (for square wave)
= 10/2 = 5V

QUESTION: 184

Bucholtz relay cannot be used on-

Solution: Oil should be present.
QUESTION: 185

A transformer is working at its full load, and its efficiency is also maximum. The iron loss is 1000 watts. Then, its copper loss at half of the full load will be-

Solution:

QUESTION: 186

The condition for maximum power output from dc motor is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 187

In two wattmeter method of measurement of three-phase power of a balanced load, if both the wattmeters indicate the same reading, then the power factor of the load is-

Solution:

QUESTION: 188

The Req for the circuit shown in figure is

Solution:

Equivalent of 6 ohm 3 ohm in parallel = 6x3/9= 2 ohm
This 2 ohm again in series with 2 ohm resistor = 2+2 =4 ohm
Equivalent of 1 ohm & 5 ohm series = 1+5 = 6 ohm
Now 6 ohm & 4 ohm in parallel so its equivalent = 6x4/10 =2.4
Hence Req of the network = 4+2.4 +8 = 14.4

QUESTION: 189

An AC voltage source with an internal impedance is connected to a load of impedance . For maximum power transfer to the load, the condition is-

Solution: From the maximum power transfer theorem.

QUESTION: 190

A 100 KVA single phase transformer exhibits maximum efficiency at 80% of full load, and the total loss in the transform under this condition is 1000 W. The ohmic losses at full load will be-

Solution:

QUESTION: 191

The voltage across a load is v(t) = 60(ωt-10)cos V and the current through the load in the direction of the voltage drop is i(t)=1.5cos(ωt+50)A The reactive power is

Solution:

The r.m.s. values of voltage and current phasors are :
Vr.m.s.=60/√2∠-10V;
Ir.m.s.=1.5√2∠-50
∴ Complex power,
S = Vr.m.s.I*r.m.s.
=60√2∠-10×1.5/√2∠-50
Complex power,
S=45∠-60VA-(22.5-j38.97)VA.
Therefore, reactive power = 38.97 VAR, leading because reactive power is negative.

QUESTION: 192

In Fig.,

Solution:

Since the collector (p-type) is positive w.r.t. base (n-type), the collector is forward biased.

QUESTION: 193

The total load taken from an a.c. supply consists of
A- a heating load of 15 kW
B- a motor load of 40 kVA at p.f. 0.6 lagging
C- a load of 20 kW at p.f. 0.8 lagging
A capacitor is connected in parallel with load and p.f. raised to unity. The kVAR rating of the capacitor should be