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Test: Environment - 1 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Test: Environment - 1

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Test: Environment - 1 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding lakes in India:

  1. Natural lakes mostly lie in the Himalayan region and the floodplains of Himalayan rivers.

  2. The majority of lakes in India are Oligotrophic.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 1
Statement 2 is incorrect: The majority of lakes in India are either eutrophic or mesotrophic.

Lakes and their Condition in India In India, natural lakes (relatively few) mostly lie in the Himalayan region, the floodplains of Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra. In the semi-arid and arid regions of western and peninsular India, tens of thousands of water bodies have been constructed over millennia.

Lake ‘Sudarshan’ in Gujarat’s Girnar area was perhaps the oldest man-made lake in India, dating back to 300 BC.

Lakes are also classified on the basis of their water chemistry. Based on the levels of salinity, they are known as Freshwater, Brackish or Saline lakes (similar to that of classification of aquatic ecosystem). On the basis of their nutrient content, they are categorized as Oligotrophic (very low nutrients), Mesotrophic (moderate nutrients) and Eutrophic (highly nutrient rich).

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 2

Consider the following statements about the Climate Action Network (CAN):

  1. It is an intergovernmental body of African Nations.

  2. It promotes individual action to limit human- induced climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 2
The Climate Action Network (CAN) is a global network of over 1300 non-governmental organizations (NGOs) in more than 120 countries working to promote individual action to limit human-induced climate change. It is not an intergovernmental body of African Nations.
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Test: Environment - 1 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding phytoplankton diversity:

  1. The photosynthetic rate of phytoplankton varies with temperature and light intensity.

  2. Phytoplanktons cannot grow in areas of low nitrogen concentration.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 3
The photosynthetic rate of phytoplankton varies with temperature and light intensity, as phytoplankton are photosynthetic organisms that require light and warmth to grow and reproduce. However, phytoplankton can grow in areas of low nitrogen concentration, as long as there is sufficient availability of other essential nutrients, such as phosphorus and carbon. Phytoplankton are able to obtain nitrogen from a variety of sources, including nitrogen gas in the atmosphere and dissolved nitrogen compounds in the water. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
Test: Environment - 1 - Question 4

Which among the following Mangrove forest is located on the western coast of India?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 4
Kori creek is located on the western coast of India.

Mangroves profile in India. The mangroves of Sundarbans (West Bengal)(Eastern Coast) are the largest single block of tidal halophytic mangroves of the world. The major species of this dense mangrove forest include Herritiera fames, Rhizophora spp., Bruguiera spp., Ceriops decandra, Sonneratia spp. and Avicennia spp., Nypa fruticans are found along the creeks. This mangrove forest is famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger and crocodiles. Mangrove areas are being cleared for agricultural use.

The mangroves of Bhitarkanika (Orissa), which is the second largest in the Indian subcontinent, harbour high concentration of typical mangrove species and high genetic diversity. Mangrove swamps occur in profusion in the intertidal mudflats on both side of the creeks in the Godavari- Krishna deltaic regions of Andhra Pradesh(eastern coast).

On the west coast of India, mangroves, mostly scrubby and degraded occur along the intertidal region of estuaries and creeks in Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka. The mangrove vegetation in the coastal zone of Kerala is very sparse and thin. In Gujarat (north-west coast) mangroves Avicennia marine, Avicennia officinalis and Rhizophora mucronata are found mainly in Gulf of Kachchh and the Kori creek

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 5

Recently, The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO) 2022 report was released by which organisation?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 5
Recently, The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO) 2022 report has been released by The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Option d is correct: It is a specialised agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
  • The goal is to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough high-quality food to lead active, healthy lives.

  • With 195 members: 194 countries and the European Union, FAO works in over 130 countries worldwide.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 6

The world’s largest Marine Protected Area (MPA) has been declared at Ross Sea by which of the following organizations?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 6
  • World’s Largest Marine Protected Area (MPA) The Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR) agreed unanimously to designate the Ross Sea as a Marine Protected Area, after years of protracted negotiations.

  • The Ross Sea, its shelf and slope comprises of 2% of the Southern Ocean but they are home to 38% of the world’s Adelie penguins, 30% of the world’s Antarctic petrels and around 6% of the world’s population of Antarctic minke whales.

  • The region is important to the rest of the planet as the upwelling of nutrients forms the deep waters are carried on currents around the world.

  • The Ross Sea is also home to huge numbers of krill, a staple food for species including whales and seals. Their oil is critical for salmon farming. However there are concerns that over fishing and climate change are having significant impacts on their numbers.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 7

Which among the following options is an example of natural coastal wetlands?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 7

Concept of Wetlands:

  • Wetlands are classified as
    • Inland wetlands
    • ​Coastal Wetlands
  • Coastal Wetlands are further classified as Man-made wetlands and Natural wetlands.
  • Examples of Natural Coastal Wetlands: Estuary, Lagoon, Creek, Backwater, Bay, Coral reef, Tidal flat, Mangroves, Saltmarsh
  • Examples of Man-Made Coastal Wetland: Salt pans, Aquaculture

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 8

With reference to the ‘Wildlife Protection Act (WPA) 1972’, consider the following statements:

  1. It protects wild animals only.

  2. It doesn’t allow hunting but allows Taxidermy.

  3. It extends to all the States and Union Territories of India.

Which of the statements given below is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 8
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 has been enacted for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants against hunting and commercial exploitation.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Wildlife Protection Act 1972 (WLPA) prohibits the injuring, destroying and removing any part of a wild animals body WLPA is also against taxidermy, which is the preservation of a dead wild animal as a trophy, or in the form of rugs, preserved skins, antlers, horns, eggs, teeth, and nails.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 has been extended to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 9

Consider the following statements about the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):

  1. It is a legally binding international agreement.

  2. National action programmes (NAPs) are the key instruments to implement the Convention.

  3. It is committed to a centralised and national approach in combating desertification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 9
The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is a legally binding international agreement that aims to combat desertification and land degradation, and to promote sustainable land management.

National action programmes (NAPs) are the key instruments to implement the Convention, as they provide a framework for countries to develop and implement their own policies and strategies to address desertification and land degradation.

However, the Convention is not committed to a centralized and national approach in combating desertification, as it recognizes the need for a holistic, participatory, and integrated approach that involves all stakeholders, including local communities, civil society organizations, and the private sector.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 10

Which of the following best describes ‘Agenda 21’:

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 10
It is an action plan for the conservation of global environment in the 21st century. Agenda 21 is an action plan adopted by the United Nations (UN) at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It is a comprehensive plan of action to protect the environment and promote sustainable development in the 21st century.

Agenda 21 consists of a series of recommendations and goals related to various aspects of environmental protection and sustainable development, including climate change, biodiversity, land degradation, and poverty eradication. It is not related to human rights, nuclear disarmament, or the election of the president of SAARC.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 11

Consider the following statements about the Global Tiger Forum (GTF):

  1. It is a network of Non-Government Organisations.

  2. It is the only international body campaigning to save Tigers worldwide.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global Tiger Forum (GTF) is an inter-governmental and international body established with members from willing countries to embark on a worldwide campaign, common approach, promotion of appropriate programmes and controls to save the remaining five subspecies of tigers in the wild distributed over 14 tiger range countries of the world.

  • Statement 2 is correct: It was established in 1994 with its secretariat at New Delhi, GTF is the only inter-governmental & international body campaigning to save the TIGER worldwide

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 12

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding endemism?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 12
The incorrect statement among the ones provided is statement (b), which states that the term endemism can be applied to the species only. In fact, the term endemism can be applied to species, ecosystems, and other types of biological phenomena. An endemic species is one that is native to and restricted in distribution to a particular geographic area, such as an island or a specific region within a continent. An endemic ecosystem is one that is found only in a particular area, and an endemic disease is one that is found only in a particular region or population. Therefore, the term endemism can be applied to more than just species.
Test: Environment - 1 - Question 13

With reference to the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a non-profit body that administers domain names and Internet protocol.

  2. It is constituted under the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 13
The Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) is a non-profit organization that is responsible for coordinating the maintenance and procedures of several databases related to the namespaces and numerical spaces of the Internet. It administers the domain name system (DNS), IP address allocation, and other related functions that are essential to the global functioning of the Internet.

ICANN is not constituted under the United Nations, and it is not a government body. It is a multi-stakeholder organization that is governed by a board of directors representing various constituencies and interests from the global Internet community.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 14

Animals like Hoolock Gibbon, Tigers, Elephants and Rhinos can be found here. It was the first natural World Heritage site declared by UNESCO in India. The National park hosts two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses. It was also declared as a Tiger

Reserve.

This National Park is:

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 14
Kaziranga National Park is a national park located in the state of Assam in northeastern India. It is home to a wide variety of flora and fauna, including the Hoolock gibbon, tigers, elephants, and rhinoceroses. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1985 and is also a Tiger Reserve. The park is known for its large population of one-horned rhinoceroses, with more than two-thirds of the world's population of these animals found here.
Test: Environment - 1 - Question 15

Which of the following national parks is not a UNESCO World Heritage site?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 15
Kanha National Park is not a UNESCO World Heritage site. Kanha National Park is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh in central India and is known for its diverse array of flora and fauna, including the Bengal tiger, Indian leopard, and the Indian wild dog. It was declared a national park in 1955 and a Tiger Reserve in 1973. However, it has not been designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site.

On the other hand, Kaziranga National Park, Keoladeo National Park, and Sundarbans are all UNESCO World Heritage sites. Kaziranga National Park was declared a World Heritage site in 1985, Keoladeo National Park was declared a World Heritage site in 1985, and Sundarbans was declared a World Heritage site in 1987. These parks are known for their unique ecosystems and important populations of various species of flora and fauna.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 16

With reference to Tissue Culture Plants in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Plant seeds are cultured under controlled conditions of light, temperature, and humidity.

  2. Netherland is the highest importer of tissue culture plants from India in 2021.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 16
Recently, Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), conducted a webinar on “Export Promotion of Tissue Culture Plants such as Foliage, Live Plants, Cut Flowers, and Planting Material”.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Plant tissue culture is defined as culturing plant seeds, organs, explants, tissues, cells, or protoplasts on a chemically defined synthetic nutrient media under sterile and controlled conditions of light, temperature, and humidity.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The top ten countries importing tissue culture plants from India are the Netherlands, USA, Italy, Australia, Canada, Japan, Kenya, Senegal, Ethiopia and Nepal. In 2020-2021, India’s exports of tissue culture plants stood at US$17.17 million, with the Netherlands accounting for around 50% of the shipments.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 17

With respect to seed banks, consider the following statements:

  1. Seed bank is an ex-situ method of biodiversity conservation offering the advantage of economy of pace.

  2. India’s only seed vault is located at Chang La in Ladakh.

Which of the following statements are true

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 17
A seed bank (also seedbank or seeds bank) stores seeds as a source for planting in case seed reserves elsewhere are destroyed. It is a type of gene bank. The seeds stored may be food crops, or those of rare species to protect biodiversity. The reasons for storing seeds may be varied. In the case of food crops, many useful plants, that were developed over centuries are now no longer used for commercial agricultural production and are becoming rare.

Storing seeds also guards against catastrophic events like natural disasters, outbreaks of disease, or war. Unlike seed libraries or seed swaps, that encourage frequent reuse and sharing of seeds, seed banks are not typically open to the public. This is an example of ex-situ conservation. Ex situ conservation is the conservation and maintenance of samples of living organisms outside their natural habitat, in the form of whole plants, seed, pollen, vegetative propagules, tissue or cell cultures.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 18

Which of the following statements are correct about Biosphere Reserve?

  1. The entire Biosphere Reserve area prohibits the entry of humans.

  2. Neither existing National Park nor Wildlife Sanctuary can be the part of Biosphere Reserve.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 18
A biosphere reserve is a protected area that is designated by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) for the conservation of biodiversity and for the sustainable use of natural resources. Biosphere reserves consist of three interconnected zones: the core area, which is strictly protected and managed for conservation; the buffer zone, which is managed for research, education, and sustainable development; and the transition zone, which is managed for economic and human activities.

Contrary to statement 1, biosphere reserves are not prohibited areas where human entry is not allowed. In fact, biosphere reserves are designed to be inhabited and managed by local communities, who are involved in the conservation and sustainable use of the natural resources in the reserve.

Moreover, statement 2 is also incorrect, as a biosphere reserve can include existing national parks and wildlife sanctuaries within its boundaries, as well as other protected areas and areas of cultural significance. The purpose of a biosphere reserve is to integrate conservation and sustainable development, and it can include a variety of different types of landscapes and ecosystems within its boundaries.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 19

With reference to Birdlife International, consider the following statements :

  1. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations.

  2. It publishes the State of the World’s Birds, which is a biennial report.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 19
The State of the World’s Birds, which is an annual review of environmental resources, has been released recently.
  • Birdlife International is a global partnership of non-governmental organizations that strives to conserve birds and their habitats.

  • It was founded in 1922 as the International Council for Bird Protection.

  • The group was renamed International Committee for Bird Preservation in 1928, International Council for Bird Preservation in 1960, and BirdLife International in 1993.

  • BirdLife International has identified 13,000 Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas and is the official International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List authority for birds.

Objectives:

  • Preventing the extinction of bird species

  • Identifying and safeguarding important sites for birds

  • Maintaining and restoring key bird habitats

  • Empowering conservationists worldwide.

It publishes a quarterly magazine, BirdLife: The Magazine, which contains recent news and

authoritative articles about birds and their conservation in addition to ‘The State of the World’s Birds’ Report which is annual.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding Palermo protocols:

  1. These protocols and conventions fall within the jurisdiction of the United Nations.

  2. It grants special protection to women, children and migrants.

  3. The Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking of Persons is a legally binding instrument.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 20
  • Statement 1 is correct. The Palermo Protocols are three protocols that were adopted by the United Nations to supplement the 2000 Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (the Palermo Convention). These protocols and convention fall within the jurisdiction of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime.

    The three protocols are:

    • the Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, especially Women and Children; and

    • the Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air.

    • the Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing and Trafficking in Firearms, Their Parts and Components and Ammunition

  • Statement 2 is correct: The first two protocols grant protection especially to Women, Children and Migrants.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, especially Women and Children, was adopted by the General Assembly resolution 55/25. It entered into force on 25 December 2003. It is the first global legally binding instrument with an agreed definition on trafficking of persons.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 21

The Advance Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure applies to the first intentional trans-boundary movement of an LMO (Living modified Organism) for intentional

introduction into the environment of the Party of import. This procedure comes under which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 21
The Advance Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure applies to the first intentional trans-boundary movement of a living modified organism (LMO) for intentional introduction into the environment of the importing country. This procedure is established under the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety, which is a protocol to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Therefore, the correct answer is option (c), the Cartagena Protocol.

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is an international treaty that was adopted in 2000 to provide a framework for the safe handling, transport, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) that may have adverse effects on biodiversity, taking into account human health and the environment. The AIA procedure is one of the key mechanisms of the protocol, and it requires the exporting country to notify the importing country and obtain its prior informed consent before exporting an LMO for intentional introduction into the environment. The Cartagena Protocol is not related to the Nagoya Protocol, the Kyoto Protocol, or the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 22

With reference to National Livestock Mission, consider the following statements:

  1. It was launched in 2014-15.

  2. It seeks to ensure quantitative and qualitative improvement in livestock production systems

  3. It is being implemented as a sub-scheme of White Revolution - Rashtriya Pashudhan Vikas Yojana

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 22
  • Statement 1 is correct: National Livestock Mission (NLM) launched in 2014-15

  • Statement 2 is correct: It seeks to ensure quantitative and qualitative improvement in livestock production systems and capacity building of all stakeholders.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The scheme is being implemented as a sub-scheme of White Revolution - Rashtriya Pashudhan Vikas Yojana from April 2019.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 23

With reference to ‘Janani Suraksha Yojna’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission

  2. It entitles cash assistance to every pregnant woman irrespective of the age of mother or number of children.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 23
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM) that was launched in 2005 to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality rates in India. The scheme provides cash assistance to pregnant women to encourage them to deliver their babies in a health facility, where they can receive skilled care from trained health workers. The cash assistance is provided to eligible pregnant women irrespective of their age or the number of children they have.

Under the JSY scheme, pregnant women who deliver their babies in a health facility are entitled to receive a cash incentive of INR 1,400 (approximately USD 19) in most states. In some states, the cash incentive may be higher, and in some states, the scheme also provides additional incentives for women who receive antenatal care and other maternal health services. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in partnership with state governments and other stakeholders, and it is considered to be one of the key components of the NHM's efforts to improve maternal and child health in India.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 24

Consider the following statements about Minamata Convention:

  1. It does not cover natural emissions of mercury.

  2. India has not ratified the convention.

  3. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a "financial mechanism" to the Minamata Convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is correct: It controls the trans-boundary movement of mercury. It does not include natural emissions of mercury.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for ratification of Minamata Convention on Mercury along with flexibility for continued use of mercury-based products and processes involving mercury compound up to 2025 and depositing the instrument of ratification enabling India to become a Party of the Convention.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The GEF serves as "financial mechanism" to five conventions, which are Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 25

Which of the following are the possible characteristics of Wetlands?

  1. It is transitional in nature, and often located between terrestrial and deep waters habitats.

  2. It is covered by water or has waterlogged soil for atleast seven days during the growing season.

  3. Xerophytes plants are adaptable to wetlands.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 25
Wetlands are transitional in nature and often located between terrestrial and deep water habitats, which is characteristic 1. Wetlands are also characterized by being covered by water or having waterlogged soil for at least seven days during the growing season, which is characteristic 2. However, xerophytes plants, which are adapted to dry conditions, are not typically found in wetlands, so characteristic 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the only correct characteristics of wetlands are 1 and 2.
Test: Environment - 1 - Question 26

Consider the following statements related to Biodiversity Hotspots:

  1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.

  2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats, and Andaman, and the Nicobar Islands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 26
Key Points
  • A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human habitation.

  • Initially, 25 biodiversity hotspots were identified but subsequently, eleven more have been added to the list, bringing the total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world to 36.

  • These hotspots are also regions of accelerated habitat loss.

  • Although all the biodiversity hotspots put together cover less than 2% of the earth’s land area, the number of species they collectively harbor is extremely high, and strict protection of these hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by almost 30 percent.

  • A region to get the status of a biodiversity hotspot has to have the following two criteria

  • Endemism:- At Least 1,500 species of its vascular plants must not be found anywhere else on the Earth.

    • Such unique species of plants are known as endemic plants or native to that particular region or place.

    • These plants are almost impossible to replace if lost completely.

  • Habitat Loss:- If around 70% of the native plantation of the region is lost, then it is deemed to be a Biodiversity Hotspot.

  • Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and a high degree of endemism. They are not restricted to only tropical regions. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • Biodiversity Hotspots in India:-

    • Himalaya:-

      (i) Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China, and Myanmar).

    • Indo-Burma:-

      (i) Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of Islands (and Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, and southern China)

    • Sundalands:-

      (i) Includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines).

    • The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka:-

      (i) Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 27

With Reference to the ‘Environment (Protection) Act 1986 ’, consider the following statements:

  1. Act provides special procedures for handling hazardous substances.

  2. The act has a provision of Locus standi.

  3. Civil courts are debarred from entertaining any suit with respect to orders issued by centre government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 27
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Act prescribes a special procedure for handling hazardous substances and the concerned person has to handle the hazardous substances according to the procedure of the Act. In law, locus standi means the right to bring an action, to be heard in court, or to address the Court on a matter before it. Locus standi is the ability of a party to demonstrate to the court sufficient connection to and harm from the law or action challenged to support that party's participation in the case.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has relaxed the rule of “Locus Standi” and because of such relaxation even a common citizen can approach the Court provided he has given a notice of sixty days of the alleged offence and his intention to make a complaint to the Central Government or any other competent authority.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Act debars the Civil Courts from having any jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of an action, direction, order issued by Central Government or other statutory authority under this Act. The genesis of the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986, thus, is in Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy) and Article 51A (g) (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution.

    • The Act empowers the Central Government to take all appropriate measures to prevent and control pollution and to establish effective machinery for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and protecting controlling and abating environmental pollution.

    • The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 grants immunity to the officers of the Government for any act done under the provisions of this Act or under the powers vested in them or functions assigned to them under this Act.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 28

With reference to Anthrax disease, consider the following statements:

  1. It is caused by Bacillus Anthracis bacteria commonly found in the soil.

  2. Bacillus Anthracis bacteria is a gram-positive bacteria.

  3. Human beings cannot get infected by this bacteria.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 28
Anthrax is a disease caused by Bacillus Anthracis bacteria, which is commonly found in the soil, as mentioned in statement 1. Bacillus Anthracis is also a gram-positive bacteria, which is statement 2.

However, statement 3 is incorrect, as human beings can get infected by Bacillus Anthracis bacteria through the ingestion of contaminated food or water, or through contact with infected animals. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 29

Consider the following statements with reference to Kaziranga National Park

  1. It is the oldest park in Assam

  2. It is famous for the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros.

  3. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by IUCN.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 29
  • Statement 1 is correct: Kaziranga National Park lies partly in Golaghat District and partly in Nagaon District of Assam. It is the oldest park in Assam covering an area of 430 sq km along the river Brahmaputra on the North and the Karbi Anglong hills on the South.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The National Highway 37 passes through the park area. It is a world heritage site that is famous for the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species. It was declared a National Park in 1974

Test: Environment - 1 - Question 30

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Animal Welfare Board of India?

  1. It is a statutory body established under Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

  2. It advises on design of slaughter houses and its maintenance.

  3. It carries out the census of National Animal i.e. Royal Bengal Tiger.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: Environment - 1 - Question 30
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI), is a statutory advisory body constituted in 1962 under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

Statement 3 is incorrect: National Tiger Conservation Authority carries out the census of National Animal i.e. Royal Bengal Tiger.

Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI)

  • It is a statutory body

  • It is an advisory body advising the Government of India on animal welfare laws, and promotes animal welfare in the country of India.

  • The Animal Welfare Board of India was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,1960.

  • The Board consists of 28 Members, who serve for a period of 3 years.

  • It works to ensure that animal welfare laws in the country are followed and provides grants to Animal Welfare Organisations.

  • The Board was initially within the jurisdiction of the Government of India’s Ministry of Food and Agriculture. In 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of Environment and Forests, where it now resides.

  • It frames a range of rules on how animals ought to be humanely treated everywhere. It has also frequently litigated to have stricter laws to ensure animals were not unduly harassed or tortured.

  • HQ shifted to Ballabhgarh in Faridabad District of Haryana from Chennai, Tamil Nadu

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