Test: Environment- 5 - UPSC MCQ

• The Government has revamped the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 2000 and notified the new Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 on April 8, 2016. The salient features of the SWM Rules, 2016 are as under;
  1. The Rules are now applicable beyond Municipal areas and extend to urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control of Indian Railways, airports, airbase, Port and harbour, defence establishments, special economic zones, State and Central government organizations, places of pilgrims, religious & historical importance.
  2. The source segregation of waste has been mandated to channelize the waste to wealth by recovery, reuse and recycle.
  3. Responsibilities of Generators have been introduced to segregate waste into three streams, Wet (Biodegradable), Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, wood, etc.) and domestic hazardous wastes (diapers, napkins, empty containers of cleaning agents, mosquito repellents, etc.) and handover segregated wastes to authorized rag-pickers or waste collectors or local bodies.
  4. Integration of waste pickers/ rag pickers and waste dealers/ Kabadiwalas in the formal system should be done by State Governments, and Self Help Group, or any other group to be formed.
  5. The generator will have to pay ‘User Fee’ to waste collector and for ‘Spot Fine’ for Littering and Non-segregation.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Recent Context - Indian astronomers collaborated with 2020 Physics Nobel Laureate Prof. Andrea Ghez on Thirty Meter Telescope Project.
• About Thirty Metre Telescope (TMT):
  1. It is a proposed astronomical observatory with an extremely large telescope (ELT). The proposed site for its installation is Maunakea in Hawaii. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  2. The Thirty-meter telescope (TMT) project is an international partnership between CalTech, Universities of California, Canada, Japan, China, and India. In India, it is being coordinated through the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
  3. “Thirty Metre” refers to the 30-meter diameter of the mirror. This, along with 492 segments of glass pieced together, will make TMT three times as wide as the world’s largest existing visible-light telescope. The larger the mirror, the more light a telescope can collect, which means, in turn, that it can “see” farther, fainter objects. It would be more than 200 times more sensitive than current telescopes and would be able to resolve objects 12 times better than the Hubble Space Telescope. Hence statement 1 is correct.
      

• National Biodiversity Authority, established in 2003 to implement the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, is an autonomous and statutory body to perform regulatory and advisory functions for Government of India on issues of conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and realization of fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
• The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates the implementation of the provisions of the Act through the decentralized system with the NBA focusing on advice the Central Government on matters relating to the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of biological resources.
• As part of its mandatory functions, NBA regulates access to India’s biological resources and associated knowledge by Indians and non‐Indians as well, for various kinds of activities, such as access for research, commercial utilization and obtaining of IPRs for the inventions based on any research or information on a biological resource obtained from India.
• The State Biodiversity Board (SBBs) focus on advice the State Government, subject to any guidelines issued by the Central Government, on matters relating to the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of biological resources.
• There is no overlap in the functions of NBA and SBBs on issues of ABS. Their domains and functions are very distinct from each other. All matters relating to requests by foreign individuals, companies or institutions and all matters relating to the transfer of results of research to any foreigner, approvals for intellectual property protection where biological resources and associated knowledge are involved will be dealt with by NBA. All matters relating to access by Indians for commercial purposes will be under the purview of the concerned State Biodiversity Boards. However, the benefit-sharing guidelines are to be issued by the NBA.
• Hence both the statements are correct.

• Radioactive waste is generated by nuclear power plants. It is often either heavy water or spent nuclear fuel. The radio-active waste is highly hazardous to the environment and all life form, due to its ability to remain in the environment for a long time and to affect the genes or the genetic material of life forms, thereby affecting future generations.
• India generates around four tonnes of nuclear waste per gigawatt (GW) annually. Any radioactive waste generated during the treatment processes of reprocessing is disposed following the Atomic Energy (Safe Disposal of Radioactive Wastes) Rules 1987, promulgated under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility – financial and/or physical – for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products. The Government has notified Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016. The rules mandate the producers, importers and brand owners to work out modalities for waste collection system based on the principle of Extended Producer Responsibility. The EPR provision is also included in the E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Biomedical waste comprises human & animal anatomical waste, treatment apparatus like needles, syringes and other materials used in health care facilities in the process of treatment and research. The Biomedical waste (BMW) management rules have been notified to efficiently manage the generated bio waste in the country.
• Salient features of BMW Management Rules, 2016:
  1. The ambit of the rules has been expanded to include vaccination camps, blood donation camps, surgical camps or any other healthcare activity.
  2. Establish a Bar-Code System for bags or containers containing bio-medical waste for disposal.
  3. Bio-medical waste is required to be segregated in 4 color coded waste categories instead of 10 to improve the segregation of waste at source. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  4. Inclusion of emissions limits for Dioxin and furans.
  5. State Government to provide land for setting up common bio-medical waste treatment and disposal facility.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Bureau of Energy Efficiency had launched the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) 2007 to establish minimum energy performance standards for buildings in India. Buildings consume a significant proportion of our energy resources and the ECBC is an essential regulatory tool to curb their energy footprint.
• The Code is applicable to buildings or building complexes that have a connected load of 100 kW or greater or a contract demand of 120 kVA or greater and are intended to be used for commercial purposes. Buildings intended for private residential purposes only are not covered by the Code. Hence the correct answer is option (d).

•  The Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) is the statutory authority, under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 who heads the Wildlife Wing of the department and exercises complete administrative control over Protected Areas (PAs) within a state. He is the member-secretary of the State Board for Wild Life. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
• Statement 3 is correct: According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 the Chief Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I has become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by Order in writing and stating the reasons therefor, permit any person to hunt such animal or cause such animal to be hunted.

• The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
• When released into the atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth’s protective shield that protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
• Adopted on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified by every country on Earth - all 197 UN Member States.
• The Montreal Protocol phases down the consumption and production of the different ODS in a step-wise manner, with different timetables for developed and developing countries (referred to as “Article 5 countries”).
• Under this treaty, all parties have specific responsibilities related to the phase-out of the different groups of ODS, control of ODS trade, annual reporting of data, national licensing systems to control ODS imports and exports, and other matters. Developing and developed countries have equal but differentiated responsibilities, but most importantly, both groups of countries have binding, time-targeted and measurable commitments.
• The substances controlled by the treaty are listed in Annexes A (CFCs, halons), B (other fully halogenated CFCs, carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloroform), C (HCFCs), E (methyl bromide) and F (HFCs). Nitrous oxide is not regulated by the Montreal Protocol. Hence the correct answer is option (c).

• Recent Context - One of the focuses of the new Science, Technology and Innovation Policy, currently being drafted by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is to increase the participation of women in science. To this end, it will adopt a strategy from Athena Swan Charter.
• About Athena Swan Charter:
• It is a charter of the program called Athena SWAN (Scientific Women Academic Network) started by the UK in 2005. 
• The Athena SWAN Charter is an evaluation and accreditation program in the UK enhancing gender equity in science, technology, engineering, mathematics, and medicine (STEMM). Participating research organizations and academic institutions are required to analyze data on gender equity and develop action plans for improvement. The program recognizes such efforts with bronze, silver, or gold accreditation. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

1. There are two types of smog: Smog is a type of intense air pollution.
   • Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate. It is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide. Chemically it is a reducing mixture and so it is also called as reducing smog.
   • Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. The main components of the photochemical smog result from the action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides produced by automobiles and factories. Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidising agents and is, therefore, called as oxidising smog.
2. Formation of Photochemical smog:
   • Nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) are emitted from the combustion of fossil fuels, along with being naturally emitted from things such as volcanos and forest fires. When exposed to ultraviolet radiation, NO₂ goes through a complex series of reactions with hydrocarbons to produce the components of photochemical smog.
3. Effects of Photochemical smog:
   • The common components of photochemical smog are ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). Photochemical smog causes serious health problems. Both ozone and PAN act as powerful eye irritants. Ozone and nitric oxide irritate the nose and throat and their high concentration causes headache, chest pain, dryness of the throat, cough and difficulty in breathing. Photochemical smog leads to cracking of rubber and extensive damage to plant life. It also causes corrosion of metals, stones, building materials, rubber and paint.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI), the first of its kind a statutory body to be established by any Government in the world, was set up in 1962, in accordance with Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Acts 1960, with headquarters at Chennai. Recently it headquarters was shifted at Ballabhgarh in Haryana state.
• Shrimati Rukmini Devi Arundale pioneered the setting up of the Board. She guided the activities of the Board for nearly twenty years till her demise in 1986.
• It is an advisory body advising the Government of India's Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying). Its basic mandate is to advise the government on animal welfare issues, and create awareness in animal welfare and to implement the regular schemes of AWBI and also the central sector schemes for the welfare of animals. Hence the correct answer is option (d). 

1. Recent Context: The Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) of the Indian Navy is set to become a National Maritime Domain Awareness (NDMA) center. The proposed NDMA center will be a multi-agency center and provide information to various stakeholders, from the fisheries department to local policing authorities on development or movements across the coast. This will make sure that any risk, especially transnational can be prevented.
2. IMAC was set up in 2014 to provide coastal security and to avert tragic incidents like the 26/11 terror attack on Mumbai.
   • It the nodal center of the National Command Control Communications and Intelligence Network (NC3I Network), and is a joint initiative of the Indian Navy, Coast Guard, and Bharat Electronics Ltd.

• IMAC tracks only non-military or commercial ships, known as white shipping. Military ships, or grey hull ships, are tracked by the Directorate of Naval Operations. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The IMAC is the center where data from various sensors and databases is aggregated, correlated, and then disseminated to various stations for enhanced awareness. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• IMAC functions under the National Security Adviser (NSA). Hence statement 3 is correct.

The Green Energy Corridor Project aims at synchronizing electricity produced from renewable sources, such as solar and wind, with conventional power stations in the grid. For evacuation of large-scale renewable energy, Intra State Transmission System (InSTS) project was sanctioned by the Ministry in 2015-16.

• Copper slag, which is produced during pyrometallurgical production of copper from copper ores contains materials like iron, alumina, calcium oxide, silica etc. For every tonne of metal production about 2.2 ton of slag is generated. Dumping or disposal of such huge quantities of slag causes environmental and space problems.
• The favourable physio-mechanical characteristics of copper slag can be utilised to make the products like cement, fill, ballast, abrasive, aggregate, roofing granules, glass, tiles etc. apart from recovering the valuable metals by various extractive metallurgical routes. When used in hydraulically bound applications, it increases workability and compressive and flexural strengths and decreases drying shrinkage of concrete. It may also improve the abrasion resistance of concrete.
• Various processes such as pyro, hydro and a combination of pyro-hydrometallurgical methods are applied for metal recovery and preparation of value-added products from copper slag. Hence the correct answer is option (d).

• Fly Ash is a fine powder, which is the by-product of burning coal in thermal power plants. It includes substantial amounts of oxides of silica, aluminium and calcium. Elements like Arsenic, Boron, Chromium, lead etc. are also found in trace concentrations.
• Owing to large-scale dependence on thermal power generation and high ash content in Indian coal, a large quantity of ash is generated in the country (nearly 200 million tons). It not only requires a large area of precious land for its disposal but is also one of the sources of air and water pollution. Advantages with fly ash utilisation:
  1. In agriculture: It improves water holding capacity, works as a soil conditioner and contains micronutrients like phosphorus, potassium and calcium thus increasing the crop yield.
  2. In Construction works- Fly ash is a proven resource material for many applications of construction industries and currently is being utilized in the manufacturing of portland cement, bricks/blocks/tiles manufacturing, road embankment construction and low-lying area development, etc.
• Concrete made with fly ash is stronger and more durable than traditional concrete made with Portland cement.
• Fly ash is a lightweight material and therefore it undergoes lesser settlement and hence can be used for embankment construction over a weak substrate such as alluvial clay or silt where excessive weight could cause failure.
  1. In the manufacturing of Absorbents that are suitable for purification of waste gases, drinking water purification, wastewater treatment etc.
  2. In preventing contamination of Water Resources- by preventing contamination of surface water through erosion, runoff, airborne particles landing on the water surface etc.

Hence, option (d) is correct.
 

1. The National Green Tribunal was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
2. The Tribunal is competent to hear matters relating to laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. These are:
   • Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
   • The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
   • The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
   • The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
   • The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
   • The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
   • The Biological Diversity Act, 2002. 
3. Some significant laws are not included: 
   • Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 which prevents any sort of destruction inside sanctuaries without permission.
   • Scheduled Tribes (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2005 which gives rights to forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes to protect and conserve forest resources.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL Convention) is one of the most significant international marine environmental conventions.
• The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is the main international convention covering prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental causes.
• The Convention includes regulations aimed at preventing and minimizing pollution from ships - both accidental pollution and that from routine operations - and currently includes six technical Annexes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2 November 1973 at IMO. The Protocol of 1978 was adopted in response to a spate of tanker accidents in 1976-1977.
• The current convention is a combination of the 1973 Convention and the 1978 Protocol, which entered into force on 2 October 1983. The Convention includes regulations aimed at preventing and minimizing pollution from ships - and currently includes six technical Annexes.
• MARPOL has been updated by amendments through the years. In 1997, a Protocol was adopted to amend the Convention and a new Annex VI (Prevention of Air Pollution from Ships) was added which entered into force on 19 May 2005. It sets limits on sulphur oxide and nitrogen oxide emissions from ship exhausts and prohibits deliberate emissions of ozone-depleting substances; designated emission control areas set more stringent standards for SOx, NOx and particulate matter. A chapter adopted in 2011 covers mandatory technical and operational energy efficiency measures aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions from ships. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India has signed the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

1. Recent Context - The blooms of dinoflagellates (Noctiluca Scintillans), commonly known as “sea sparkle” are being witnessed along the coasts of Maharashtra and Karnataka.
2. Noctiluca Scintillans
   • It is a free-living, marine-dwelling species of dinoflagellate that exhibits bioluminescence when disturbed (popularly known as mareel). Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Radiation refers to the energy emitted from a body or source. Radiation is classified as being either nonionizing or ionizing.
• Non-ionizing radiation is longer wavelength/lower frequency lower energy. While ionizing radiation is short-wavelength/high frequency higher energy.
• Non-Ionizing radiation forms: ELF (extremely low frequency or High wavelength), Radio frequencies, Microwave frequencies, Lasers, Infrared, Visible, Spectrum, Ultraviolet rays. The injury if at all caused by ionizing radiation, it is limited to burns.
• Ionizing radiation is emitted from radioactive atomic structures as high energy electromagnetic waves (gamma and x-rays) or as actual particles (alpha, beta particles)
  1. Gamma Rays - can penetrate easily to human skin and damage cells on its way through, reaching far, and can only be blocked by a very thick, strong, massive piece of concrete.  X-rays - can pass through most objects including the human body.
  2. Alpha Particles - They can be blocked by a piece of paper and human skin.
  3. Beta Particles - Beta particles can penetrate through skin, while can be blocked by some pieces of glass and metal

1.  To address the issue of ensuring environmentally sound management of hazardous waste for the safety of health and environment during handling of such waste Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling & Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008 were notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. The Rules lay down the procedure towards this process by providing provisions for authorization of hazardous waste generating and units using hazardous waste. It also provides for the establishment of a Treatment Storage and Disposal Facility (TSDF) for the disposal of hazardous wastes.
3. The rules have an important provision on the regulation of import/export of hazardous waste in pursuance of our obligation under the Basel Convention on Control of Transboundary Movement of Hazardous waste and its disposal. India is a party to the Convention.
4. The major salient features of Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016 include the following:-
   • The ambit of the Rules has been expanded by including ‘Other-Waste’.;
   • Authorization and registration requirement is replaced with one permission i.e., authorization under the rules for all stakeholders handling the hazardous and other waste; waste management hierarchy in the sequence of priority as prevention, minimization, reuse, recycling, recovery, co-processing; and safe disposal being incorporated;
   • The process of import/export of waste under the rules has been streamlined by simplifying the procedure and by revising the list of waste regulated for import/export;
   • A separate schedule has been introduced which comprises waste such as metal scrap, paper waste and various categories of electrical and electronic equipments for re-use purpose exempted from the need of obtaining Ministry’s permission;
   • The list of waste prohibited for import has been revised by inclusion of following items: waste edible fats and oils of animals or vegetable origin, household waste, critical care medical equipment, solid plastic wastes, other chemical wastes especially in solvent form.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Methanol Economy program initiated by NITI Aayog is aimed at reducing our oil import bill; reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions & converting Indian coal reserves and municipal solid waste into methanol leading to independence from import while creating new jobs by setting up Methanol Production Plants.
• “Methanol as a low carbon, hydrogen carrier fuel” produced from high ash coal, agricultural residue, CO₂ from thermal power plants and natural gas is the best pathway for meeting India’s commitment to COP 21. Hence the correct answer is option (b).

• Vitrification is an engineering approach to soil amendment. During vitrification, contaminated soil mass is treated through the processes involving melting and refreezing to create a glass-like solid that entraps inorganic contaminants and thereby isolates these from the environment. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

1. Biomagnification is the process by which toxic chemicals build up within predators. This typically occurs across an entire food chain and affects all of the organisms but animals higher up in the chain are more impacted. When predatory animals consume their prey they also consume all of the toxic chemicals within said prey.
2. When these toxins aren't easily excreted they build up in the animal's system through bioaccumulation. Therefore, when the food chain progresses, concentrations increase or magnify. Biomagnification can be considered the result of bioaccumulation. Some of the substances that cause Biomagnification include:
   • Mercury is a persistent substance, it can build up, or bioaccumulate, in living organisms, inflicting increasing levels of harm on higher-order species such as predatory fish and fish-eating birds and mammals through a process known as "biomagnification". Although the long-term effects of mercury on whole ecosystems are unclear, the survival of some affected populations and overall biodiversity is at risk
   • The concentration-effect occurs because DDT is metabolized and excreted much more slowly than the nutrients that are passed from one trophic level to the next. So DDT accumulates in the bodies (especially in fat). Thus most of the DDT remains at that trophic level. This is why the hazard of DDT to nontarget animals is particularly acute for those species living at the top of food chains.
   • Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) tend to build up in living organisms both by uptake from the environment over time (bioaccumulation) and along the food chain (biomagnification). PCBs remain stored in fatty tissues much more than in muscles or other body parts.
   • However, no data pertaining to the potential of sulfur dioxide to bioaccumulate or biomagnify in the food chain were identified.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

1. Statement 1 is correct: Environmental Impact Assessment is defined as an activity that has been designed to identify, predict and interpret the impact of an action on human health, including the well being of the ecosystem on which the survival of human beings depends. Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutorily backed by the Environment Protection Act in 1986, which contains various provisions on EIA methodology and process.
2. All projects and activities are broadly categorized into two categories - Category A and category B, based on the spatial extent of potential impacts and potential impacts on human health and natural and manmade resources. o All projects or activities included as Category ‘A’ in the Schedule require prior environmental clearance from the Central Government in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) on the recommendations of an Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) to be constituted by the Central Government. o All projects or activities included as Category ‘B’ in the Schedule require prior environmental clearance from the State/Union territory Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
3. The Public Hearing under EIA is arranged in a systematic, time-bound and transparent manner ensuring widest possible public participation at the project site(s) or in its close proximity District -wise, by the concerned State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) or the Union Territory Pollution Control Committee (UTPCC). There is no quorum required for attendance for starting the proceedings.
4. Statement 3 is not correct: The Public Consultation shall ordinarily have two components comprising of:-(a) a public hearing at the site or in its close proximity- district wise, to be carried out in the manner prescribed in Appendix IV, for ascertaining concerns of local affected persons;(b) obtain responses in writing from other concerned persons having a plausible stake in the environmental aspects of the project or activity. 

1. Recent Context - United Nations (UN) in collaboration with The Vaccine Confidence Project at the University of London has launched ‘Team Halo initiative.
2.  About Team Halo Initiative: The United Nations has collaborated with The Vaccine Confidence Project at the University of London’s School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine to undertake the Team Halo initiative.
   • It aims to use social media to counter the misinformation around COVID-19 vaccines and build confidence by busting myths and sharing information on the safety and effectiveness of vaccines. The ‘halo’ represents the ring of connected science that circles the globe. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion uses the ocean thermal gradient between cooler deep and warmer shallow or surface seawaters to run a heat engine and produce useful work, usually in the form of electricity. OTEC can operate with a very high capacity factor and so can operate in base load mode.