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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - UPPSC (UP) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern)

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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 1

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 1
The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key-Points

  • Deogarh temple (in Lalitpur District, Uttar Pradesh) was built in the early sixth century CE.

    • It a classic example of a late Gupta Period type of temple.

    • This temple is in the Panchayatana style of architecture where the main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four smaller subsidiary shrines at the four corners.

    • The temple is west facing and devoted to Vishnu.

    • Hence Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

  • Kamakhya temple (Assam), a Shakti Peeth, is dedicated to Goddess Kamakhya and was built in the seventeenth century.

    • It was built in Ahom style.

    • Hence Pair 2 is correctly matched.

  • Bhitargaon is a town in Kanpur district, Uttar Pradesh, India, known for its ancient Hindu temple, the largest Indian brick temple to survive from the time of the Gupta Empire.

    • Hence Pair 3 is not correctly matched.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 2

Match the following explorers of Sindhu civilization with cities discovered by them:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 2
The correct answer is a - III, b - I, c - IV, d - II.

Key-Points

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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 3

What is the name of the initiative launched by HRD Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal for Higher Educational Institutions?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 3
The correct answer is YUKTI 2.0.
  • YUKTI stands for 'Young India combating COVID with Knowledge, Technology and Innovation’.
  • In April 2020, Minister launched the YUKTI portal.
  • The 2.0 portal will serve as an online depository for innovative ideas and help students, teachers, and researchers in higher educational institutions.

Key-Points

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 4

Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India belongs to which of the following Article?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 4
The correct answer is 243 G.

Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India consists of article 243G.

Key-Points

  • Article 243G of Constitution of India "Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats"

  • The 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

  • ​The 11th Schedule of Indian Constitution was added in 1992 by the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act.

  • This schedule contains 29 subjects.

  • This schedule covers important topics such as Panchayat's powers, rural development, poverty alleviation, market, roads and drinking water, etc.

  • It is expected that the subjects covered under the eleventh schedule of the Indian constitution are made to ensure the development of rural India.

Additional Information

  • Article 243H in The Constitution Of India:

    • ​Authorise a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls, and fees in accordance with such procedure and subject to such limits.

  • Article 243I in The Constitution Of India:

    • ​Constitution of Finance Commissions to review the financial position

    • The distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls,.’ and fees leviable by the State, which may be divided between them under this Part ​.

  • Article 243J in The Constitution Of India:

    • ​The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 5

The election to constitute a Panchayat should be completed before the expiration of a period of______ from the date of its dissolution.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 5

Key-Points

  • The election to constitute a Panchayat should be completed before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.

  • Article 243E:

    • Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.

    • No amendment of any law for the time being in force shall have the effect of causing dissolution of a Panchayat at any level, which is functioning immediately before such amendment, till the expiration of its duration specified in clause (1).

    • An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed-

      • before the expiry of its duration specified in clause (1).

      • before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 6

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Attorney General for India?

1. The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the President may determine.

2. The prior consent in writing of the Attorney General is not required for the Supreme Court to initiate criminal contempt action.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 6

Key-Points

  • Recently, Attorney-General K.K. Venugopal has given his consent to initiate contempt of court proceedings against artist Rachita Taneja for her tweets and cartoons.

  • The prior consent in writing of the Attorney General is required for the Supreme Court to initiate criminal contempt action in a case according to the Contempt of Court Act, 1971. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • Attorney-General's consent is a form of check on the much-debated suo-motu power of criminal contempt.

  • Attorney General of India :

      • The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.

      • He is the highest law officer in the country.

      • APPOINTMENT AND TERM :

      • The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president.

      • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and

      • he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in

      • the opinion of the president.

      • The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.

      • Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.

      • S/he holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that S/he may be removed by the president at any time.

      • S/he may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president.

      • Conventionally, She/he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

      • The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the President may determine.

    • DUTIES AND FUNCTIONS :

      • As the chief law officer of the Government of India, the duties of the AG include the following:

      • To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, which are referred to him by the president.

      • To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to him by the president.

      • To discharge the functions conferred on him by the Constitution or any other law.

      • The president has assigned the following duties to the AG :

        • To appear on behalf of the Government of India in all cases in the Supreme Court in which the Government of India is concerned.

        • To represent the Government of India in any reference made by the president to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.

        • To appear (when required by the Government of India) in any high court in any case in which the Government of India is concerned.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 7

Khanqahs in Sufism refer to:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 7
A correct answer is a place where Sufi Masters held theirs assembles.

Important Point

  • The word "Khanqah" is used to define a place of spiritual teaching through discourses on spirituality by a murshid (spiritual mentor, or guide).

  • The word finds its origins in the Persian language.

  • The place is also served as a common place where the message of communal harmony is imparted.

  • It was a building designed specifically for gatherings of a Sufi brotherhood and was a place for spiritual retreat and character reformation.

  • Sama was the creation of mood to nearness to god by reciting music.

Additional Information

Sufism is an important concept that influenced religion in India in the medieval ages.

  • It is a mystical form of Islam, a school of practice that focuses on the spiritual search for God and shuns materialism.

  • It stresses asceticism.

  • There is a lot of emphasis on love and devotion towards God.

  • The term ‘Sufi’ is probably derived from the Arabic ‘suf’ word which means ‘one who wears wool’.

  • This is because woollen clothes were generally associated with ascetics.

  • Another possible origin of the word is ‘safa’ which means purity in Arabic.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 8

Consider the following statements about the Ramsar convention

1. It is an international treaty for the conservation and wise use of wetlands.

2. Montreux Record is kept as a part of the Ramsar List

3. Chilka Lake (Odisha) was placed in the Montreux record but was later removed from it

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 8
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

In News -

  • India has added 10 more wetlands to sites protected by the Ramsar Convention.

  • With this, a total of 37 sites in the country have been recognised under the international treaty.

Key-Points

  • About Ramsar convention:

    • It is an international treaty for the conservation and wise use of wetlands. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

    • It is named after the Iranian city of Ramsar, on the Caspian Sea, where the treaty was signed on 2 February 1971.

    • Known officially as ‘the Convention on Wetlands of International Importance, especially as Waterfowl Habitat’ (or, more recently, just ‘the Convention on Wetlands’), it came into force in 1975.

  • Montreux Record:

    • Montreux Record under the Convention is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference.

    • It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

    • The Montreux Record was established by Recommendation of the Conference of the Contracting Parties (1990).

    • Sites may be added to and removed from the Record only with the approval of the Contracting Parties in which they lie.

    • Currently, two wetlands of India are in Montreux record: Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake (Manipur).

    • Chilka Lake (Odisha)was placed in the record but was later removed from it. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 9

Which of the following do NOT form part of a strategy of sustainable development?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 9

Important Point

  • Organic farming is more eco-friendly as it does not involve the use of chemical fertilizers, weedicides, herbicides, etc. So, option 1 is correct.

  • Reducing the use of private vehicles will reduce pollution. E.g., No car day in Delhi and Paris were organized recently. So, option 2 is correct.

  • Safeguarding the habitats of indigenous communities, flora and fauna mean taking into account human as well as animal and plant biodiversity, which forms part of sustainable development. So, option 3 is correct.

  • Option 4 goes against the idea of inter-generational equity. We should not compromise on the needs of future generations against the present generation. So, it is the only incorrect option.

Additional Information

Sustainable development (SD)

  • It is a process for meeting human development goals while maintaining the ability of natural systems to continue to provide the natural resources and ecosystem services upon which the economy and society depend.

  • Essentially we should not use more than nature can replenish.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 10

According to the 2011 Census Mirzapur district has a population of 2,496,970, roughly equal to the nation of Kuwait or the US state of Nevada. This gives how much ranking in India (out of a total of 640)?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 10

Key-Points

  • According to the 2011 Census Mirzapur district has a population of 2,496,970, roughly equal to the nation of Kuwait or the US state of Nevada.

    • This gives it a ranking of 174th in India (out of a total of 640).

  • The district has a population density of 561 inhabitants per square kilometer.

  • Its population growth rate over the decade 2001-2011 was 17.89%.

  • Mirzapur has a sex ratio of 900 females for every 1000 males, and a literacy rate of 70.38%.

    • The female literacy rate here is 54%.

Additional Information

  • Mirzapur district is one of the 75 districts of Uttar Pradesh state in northern India.

    • The district is bounded on the north by Bhadohi and Varanasi districts, on the east by Chandauli district, on the south by Sonbhadra district, and on the northwest by Allahabad.

  • The district occupies an area of 4521 km2.

    • Mirzapur city is the district headquarters.

  • It consists of several Ghats where historical sculptures are still present.

    • During the Ganges festival, these Ghats are decorated with lights and diyas.

      • It is a part of the Red Corridor.

  • It was once the largest district in Uttar Pradesh until the Sonbhadra district was separated from Mirzapur in 1989.

Important Point

  • This district is known for the Vindhyavasini temple in Vindhyachal and several tourist attractions like waterfalls like Rajdari & Devdari and dams.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 11

PM SVANidhi is a micro credit scheme for _____.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 11

Key-Points

  • It is launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) for providing affordable loans to street vendors.

  • The scheme would benefit vendors, hawkers, and people involved in goods and services related to textiles, apparel, artisan products, barbers shops, laundry services, etc. in different areas.

  • The vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly installments within a year. The loans would be without collateral.

  • Self Help Groups can also avail loan.

  • There will be no penalty on early repayment of loan.

  • The scheme is valid until March 2022.

  • On timely/early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy of 7% per annum will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through direct benefit transfer on a half-yearly basis.

  • The scheme incentivizes digital transactions by the street vendors through monthly cashback.

  • if a street vendor repays the installments on time or earlier, he or she can develop his or her credit score that makes him/her eligible for a higher amount of term loan such as Rs. 20,000.

  • MoHUA, in collaboration with State Governments, will launch a capacity building and financial literacy programme of all the stakeholders and Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) activities throughout the country.

  • This platform will integrate the web portal/ mobile app with the Udyami Mitra portal of SIDBI for credit management and the PAiSA portal of MoHUA to administer interest subsidy automatically.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 12

In October 2020, Department of Posts has entered into an agreement with Postal Service of which country for the electronic exchange of customs data related to postal shipments exchanged between the two countries?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 12
The correct answer is United States.
  • Department of Posts and United States Postal Service, USPS have entered into an agreement.

  • It is for the electronic exchange of customs data related to postal shipments exchanged between the two countries.

  • The agreement will make it possible to transmit and receive electronic data of international postal items prior to their physical arrival at the destination.

  • USA:

    • Capital - Washington, D.C.

    • Currency - US Dollar.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 13

India and which of the following countries will reopen the Chilahati-Haldibari rail link nearly after 55 years?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 13
The correct answer is Bangladesh.
  • India and Bangladesh will reopen the Chilahati-Haldibari rail link after nearly 55 years.

  • It was cut off during the 1965 India-Pakistan war.

  • The inauguration of the rail link took place during the virtual summit of the PMs of India and Bangladesh on 17 Dec 2020.

  • The Haldibari-Chilahati rail link was part of the Broad Gauge main route from Kolkata to Siliguri.

  • Bangladesh:

    • Capital - Dhaka.

    • Currency - Bangladeshi Taka.

    • President - Abdul Hamid.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 14

Calcium carbide is used for artificial ripening of green fruits because it produces

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 14

Key-Points

  • Calcium carbide is used to artificially ripen fruits.

    • Calcium carbide comes in contact with moisture it produces acetylene gas.

    • Calcium carbide is synthesized industrially from calcium oxide (lime), CaO, and carbon in the form of coke at about 2,200 °C (4,000 °F).

    • CaC2 is a chemical compound with a chemical name Calcium Carbide

Additional Information

  • Methylene:

    • It is a colorless gas that fluoresces in the mid-infrared range and only persists in dilution or as an adduct.

    • Methylene is the simplest carbene.

    • It is usually detected only at very low temperatures, or as a short-lived intermediate in chemical reactions.

  • Florigen:

    • Florigen is the hypothesized hormone-like molecule responsible for controlling and triggering flowering in plants.

    • Florigen is produced in the leaves and acts in the shoot apical meristem of buds and growing tips.

  • Auxin:

    • Auxin was discovered by Darwin in the year 1880.

    • It Prevents the separation of the leaves.

    • It saves the crops from falling.

    • This is the hormone that controls the growth of plants.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 15

Which of the following substances is used in black and white photography?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 15

Key-Points

  • Silver Bromide is used in black and white photography.

  • A photographic film is coated with silver bromide. when light falls on the surface, the exposed part of the film is darkened from which photograph is developed. That’s why it is used in photography.

  • When we take a picture, the camera lens projects a small but accurate image on the surface of this light-sensitive layer, and the silver bromide is decomposed more or less, depending on the intensity of the light received in various points of the image.

  • Silver bromide (AgBr), a soft, pale-yellow, water-insoluble salt well known (along with other silver halides) for its unusual sensitivity to light.

Additional Information

  • Calcium nitrate:

    • ​It is mainly used as a nitrogen fertilizer in agriculture and is produced in granulated form.

    • It is also used in wastewater pre-conditioning for odor emission prevention, and inset accelerating concrete admixtures.

  • Sodium chloride:

    • NaCl, also known as salt, is an essential compound. It is used to flavor and preserves foods.

    • As a preservative, salt helps to prevent spoilage and helps to keep foods like ready-to-eat meats and cheeses safe to eat.

    • Salt is also used in fermenting processes for foods like sauerkraut, pickles, and kefir.

  • Calcium Hydroxide:

    • It is used in industrial settings, such as sewage treatment, paper production, construction, and food processing.

    • It also has medical and dental uses.

    • For example, root canal fillings often contain calcium hydroxide.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 16

Which of the following is/are the uses of Algae?

1. Carbon dioxide fixation

2. Purification of wastewater

3. Food supplements

4. Biofuel production

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 16

Key-Points

  • Uses of Algae

    • Carbon Dioxide Fixation:

      • Like any other plant, algae, when grown using sunlight, consume (or absorb) carbon dioxide (CO2) as they grow, releasing oxygen (O2).

      • For high productivity, algae require more CO2, which can be supplied by emissions sources such as power plants, ethanol facilities, and other sources.

    • Bio-fuel & Oil extraction:

      • Algae can be used to make Biodiesel (see algaculture), Bioethanol, and biobutanol and can produce vastly superior amounts of vegetable oil, compared to terrestrial crops grown for the same purpose.

    • Purification of wastewater:

      • Algae thrive in nutrient-rich waters like municipal wastewaters (sewage), animal wastes, and some industrial effluents, at the same time purifying these wastes while producing biomass suitable for biofuels production.

    • Food Supplements:

      • Algae are the national foods of many nations.

      • Laver is used to making "laver bread" in Wales where it is known as bara lawr; in Korea, gim; in Japan, nori and aonori.

      • It is also used along the west coast of North America from California to British Columbia, in Hawaii, and by the Māori of New Zealand.

Additional Information

  • Algae is commercially cultivated for Pharmaceuticals, Nutraceuticals, Cosmetics, and Aquaculture purposes.

    • Humans use algae as food, for the production of useful compounds, as biofilters to remove nutrients and other pollutants from wastewaters, to assay water quality, as indicators of environmental change, in space technology, and as laboratory research systems.

  • Characteristics of Algae

    • Algae are photosynthetic organisms

    • Algae can be either unicellular or multicellular organisms

    • Algae lack a well-defined body, so, structures like roots, stems, or leaves are absent

    • Algaes are found where there is adequate moisture.

    • Reproduction in algae occurs in both asexual and sexual forms.

      • Asexual reproduction occurs by spore formation.

    • Algae are free-living, although some can form a symbiotic relationship with other organisms.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 17

If a plant has high ozone-forming potential, it means

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 17

Key-Points

  • Urban trees reduce air pollution by having particulates and gases deposit on their leaves and branches.

    • On the other hand, trees can potentially reduce air quality through a range of mechanisms, one being the emission of organic compounds that can lead to ozone formation.

    • The Volatile organic compounds (VOC) emitted by urban plants could trigger the formation of ground-level (bad) ozone.

    • A plant's ozone-forming potential is determined by its ability to release the VOCs into the atmosphere.

  • ​Hence the option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Ozone is a gas made up of three oxygen atoms (O3).

    • It occurs naturally in small (trace) amounts in the upper atmosphere (the stratosphere).

    • Ozone protects life on Earth from the Sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation.

    • Although ozone in the upper atmosphere provides protection from UV rays, ozone at ground-level is a toxic substance that is harmful to humans to breathe.

    • Ozone can be formed when volatile organic compounds (including those from plants, automobile, and industrial sources) combine with nitrogen oxide emissions (often from vehicles or fuel combustion) in the presence of sunlight.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 18

Which wildlife sanctuaries is a tri-state protected area in northern India, Which is also famous for the Critically Endangered gharial and Dolphin?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 18

Key-Points

  • National Chambal Sanctuary, also called the National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary, is a tri-state protected area in northern India
  • It is home to critically endangered gharial (small crocodiles), the red-crowned roof turtle, and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.
  • Within the sanctuary, the pristine Chambal River cuts through edges of ravines and hills with many sandy beaches protected under India's Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.

Additional Information

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 19

Which of the following is tropical grassland?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 19
The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Savannah.

Tropical Grassland -

  • Tropical Grassland is also known as Savannah grassland because it is confined within the tropics or tropical climate or Savannah climate. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • It is best developed in Sudan and hence also known as Sudan type climate.

  • Mean annual rainfall ranges from 80 – 160 cm.

  • Mean annual temperature is greater than 18° C.

  • Savannah grasslands of Africa are of this type.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 20

Which of the following rivers originates in the Saharanpur district in Uttar Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 20

Key-Points

About Hindon River:

  • The Hindon river originates in the Saharanpur district, from the Upper Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh state. It is a tributary river of the Yamuna river in India
  • The Hindon rivers flow between the Ganges and Yamuna rivers for 400 km through some districts in the U.P state like Meerut district, Baghpat district, Muzaffarnagar district, Ghaziabad district, and Gautam Buddh Nagar district before it joins the Yamuna river outside New Delhi.
  • One of the Air Force Bases of the Indian Air Force also lies in its bank named 'The Hindon Air Base' located in the Ghaziabad district.
  • The Kali river is the tributary of the Hindon River which originates in the Rajaji Range of Shivalik Hills and travels about 150 km passing through some districts in Uttar Pradesh.
  • Alamgirpur, one of the founding sites of the IVC(Indus Valley Civilization) site was found on its bank which is located along the Hindon River, 28 km from New Delhi.

Additional Information

  • About Saharanpur district:
  • It is the Northernmost district of Uttar Pradesh state. Saharanpur district Bordering some of the states of India like Uttarakhand, Haryana, and Himachal Pradesh which is close to the foothills of the Shivalik range.

    Image View of The Hindon River:

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 21

Which of the following regions of Uttar Pradesh was known as 'Chedi' during Sixth Century B.C.?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 21
The correct answer is Bundelkhand.
  • Chedi was an ancient Indian kingdom which fell roughly in the Bundelkhand division of Madhya Pradesh regions to the south of river Yamuna along the river Ken.

  • Its capital city was called Suktimati in Sanskrit and Sotthivati-nagara in Pali and in Pali-language Buddhist texts, it has been listed as one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas.

Important point

  • Chedi is considered to be one of the ancient tribes who came to the subcontinent and settled at two places – one group settled in the region of Nepal, while the other group came to Uttarpradesh.

  • The two distinct settlements of Chedis were one was in the mountains of Nepal and the other in Bundelkhand near Kaushambi.

  • The Chedis were mentioned in the Rigveda as the ancient people of India.

Additional Information

  • It has been discussed in Mahabharata that the Chedi Kingdom was ruled by Shishupala, an ally of Jarasandha of Magadha and Duryodhana of Kuru.

  • He was a rival of Vasudeva Krishna who was his uncle's son who killed him during the Rajasuya sacrifice of the Pandava king Yudhishthira.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 22

What is the name of the initiative launched by the Railway Police Force to ensure the security and safe travel to the women passengers?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 22

Key-Points

  • Meri Saheli initiative has been launched by the RPF to ensure the safety of women during their journey by trains.

  • Under this initiative, the seat number and coach number of the female passengers will be noted down by a team of lady officers and other staff.

  • The passengers will be informed to dial the helpline number (182 or 1512) in case of any emergency.

  • During the journey, the RPF personnel present at stop stations will also keep a watch on these coaches and berths.

  • The passengers will also be instructed to avoid buying any eatables from persons/stalls other than IRCTC authorized stalls.

  • At the end of the journey, feedback will also be collected from the lady passengers.

Sahyatri:

  • Sahyatri Mobile application was launched in October to facilitate the passengers to register complaints online.

  • The app also facilitated the sharing of the database of criminals, information regarding unidentified dead bodies and criminals, etc.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 23

In which among the following states will India’s first National maritime heritage museum be built with the aim to boost the underwater or marine archaeology?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 23
  • India’s first National maritime heritage museum will be built in Lothal, Gujarat with the aim to boost the underwater or marine archaeology.

  • The Government of India and the Government of Portugal are coordinating to build this.

  • The Museum will be showcasing the salvaged material from shipwreck sites in the Indian Ocean waters.

  • Lothal was selected as it has lots of archaeological remains and showcased the trade route through the water.

  • Museum project will most likely be implemented by the Ministry of Shipping through its Sagarmala program and the museum will be run as an independent research centre.

  • Gujarat Capital-Gandhinagar

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 24

After Sikkim, the first Union Territory to become 100 per cent organic is

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 24
The correct answer is Lakshadweep.
  • After Sikkim, Lakshadweep is the first Union Territory to become 100 per cent organic as all farming is carried out without the use of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides, providing access to safer food choices and making agriculture a more environment-friendly activity.

  • The Ministry of agriculture has declared the island as organic.

  • Lakshadweep

    • It consists of 36 islands and is India’s smallest UT.

    • It is a uni-district UT and comprises 12 atolls, three reefs, five submerged banks and 10 inhabited islands.

    • All islands are 220-440 km away from Kochi.

    • The Capital is Kavaratti and it is also the principal town of the UT.

Additional Information

  • In September 2020, Lakshadweep administration formally declared that its entire farming community was practicing organic agriculture and using organic inputs such as compost, poultry manure, green leaf manure.

  • The UT was following organic or biological methods for plant protection as well.

  • Synthetic chemicals for agriculture were reduced in a phased manner and stopped completely by 2005, according to the declarations provided by the Lakshadweep administration.

  • The administration had not spent or earmarked any amount for procurement or distribution of synthetic chemicals in budget since 2005. Neither was any synthetic chemicals for agriculture practice transported from outside to Lakshadweep islands since that time.

  • The UT administration had imposed a formal uniform ban on sale, use and entry of synthetic chemicals for agriculture purpose from October 2017 onwards to make the islands a chemical-free zone.

  • According to the requirement of organic certification, no genetically modified organism is allowed to be used in the entire territory.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 25

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 25

Key-Points

  • Indus Valley Civilization was an urban society.

    • John Marshall was the first scholar to use the term ‘Indus Valley Civilisation'.

    • The Harappans were the earliest people to produce cotton.

    • The Indus Valley Civilisation belongs to the Protohistoric Period (Chalcolithic Age/Bronze Age).

  • Later Vedic Society was an agrarian society.

    • Agriculture began to replace the rearing of cattle.

    • Manure was known to people of this age.

    • Rice, barley, beans, sesame, and wheat were cultivated.

  • Rigvedic Society was a mixed economy, both agriculture and pastoralism.

    • They possessed better knowledge of agriculture.

    • Ploughshare is mentioned in Rigveda.​

    • The cow was the standard unit of exchange.

  • Medieval Period mainly consisted of Land Lordism.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 26

Match the following :

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 26

Key-Points

  • From the 6th century B.C. onwards, the growing use of iron in eastern Uttar Pradesh and western Bihar Created favourable conditions for the formation of large territorial states.
  • The rise of large states with towns as their base of operations strengthened the territorial idea.
  • People's allegiance to the Janapadas or the territory to which they belonged was stronger than Jana or the tribe to which they belonged. From the 6th century B.C. onwards, India's political history is the history of struggles between these states for supremacy.
  • The kingdom of Magadha emerged to be the most powerful and succeeded in founding the empire.
    • Magadha came into prominence under the leadership of Bimbisara.
    • Bimbisara :
      • Founder of Haryanka dynasty.
      • Contemporary of the Buddha.
      • The policy of conquest and aggression.
    • The earliest capital of Magadha was at Rajgir, which was called Girivraja at that time.
    • Magadha enjoyed an advantageous geographical position because of its two capitals.
      • Rajgir - surrounded by a group of five hills.
      • Pataliputra - situated at the confluence of the Ganga, the Gandak, the Ghagra, and the Son.
        • It was a true water fort (Jaldurga). not easy to capture this town in ancient times.
  • Mahajanapadas :
    • In the age of the Buddha, there were 16 large states called Mahajanapadas.
    • They mainly were situated north of the Vindhyas and extended from the northwest frontier to Bihar.
    • From these 16 Mahajanapadas, Magadha, Koshala, Vatsa,, and Avanti were powerful states.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 27

Who was the chief supervisor of the collection of revenue from the whole kingdom In Mauryan administration?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 27
The correct answer is Samaharta.
  • Samaharta was the Chief Collector general of revenue that supervises the collection of revenue from the Mauryan kingdom as per the Arthashastra of Chanakya,

Key-Points

  • Pradeshtri was known as the Divisional Commissioner.

  • They were the modern district magistrates and in charge of the district.

  • They were to make tours once in every 5 years to inspect the entire administration of the areas under control.

  • Antipapal was known as the Governor of the frontier.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding CAATSA.

1. CAATSA stands for Countering America’s Adversaries through Sanctions Act (CAATSA).

2. These sanctions comprise a ban on granting specific US export licences and authorizations for any goods or technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 28

Key-Points

  • CAATSA stands for Countering America’s Adversaries through Sanctions Act (CAATSA). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It is a US federal law that imposed sanctions on Iran, North Korea, and Russia.
  • The bill provides sanctions for activities concerning:
    • cybersecurity
    • crude oil projects,
    • financial institutions,
    • corruption,
    • human rights abuses,
    • evasion of sanctions,
    • transactions with Russian defence or intelligence sectors,
    • export pipelines,
    • privatization of state-owned assets by government officials,
    • arms transfers to Syria
  • Turkey decided to move ahead with the procurement and testing of the S-400, despite the availability of alternative, NATO-interoperable systems to meet its defence requirements.
  • This decision resulted in Turkey’s suspension and pending removal from the global F-35 Joint Strike Fighter partnership.
  • These sanctions comprise:
    • a ban on granting specific US export licences and authorizations for any goods or technology. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • a ban on loans or credits by US financial institutions totalling more than $10 million in any 12-month period.
    • a ban on US Export-Import Bank assistance for exports.
  • Additionally, sanctions will include full blocking sanctions and visa restrictions as well.
  • Last year, the US had removed Turkey from its F-35 jet programme over concerns that sensitive information could be accessed by Russia if Turkey used Russian systems along with US jets.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 29

Match the following pairs:

Which of the following codes are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 29

Key-Points

Additional Information

  • Chandrayaan 1:
    • Chandrayaan-1, India's first mission to Moon, was launched successfully on October 22, 2008, from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.
    • The spacecraft was orbiting around the Moon at a height of 100 km from the lunar surface.
    • Aims - For chemical, mineralogical and photo-geologic mapping of the Moon.
    • The spacecraft carried 11 scientific instruments built in India, the USA, UK, Germany, Sweden, and Bulgaria.
  • EDUSAT:
    • It is a communication satellite, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation, to serve the educational sector.
    • It is a man-made satellite.
    • The first Indian satellite built solely for serving the educational sector.
    • EDUSAT is primarily meant for providing connectivity to school, college, and higher levels of education for better academic outcomes.
    • Launched successfully by GSLV-F01 on 20-9-2004 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota.
    • This satellite is meant for distant classroom education from school level to higher education.
  • SROSS - C:
    • SROSS-C is the third satellite in the Stretched Rohini Satellite Series (SROSS), flown onboard an ASLV vehicle.
    • It carried a Gamma-Ray Burst payload, Retarding Potential Analyser (RPA) experiment.
    • Launch date May 20, 1992.
  • Rohini:
    • Rohini (RS-1) was an experimental satellite launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
    • It was launched by the Satellite Launch Vehicle-3 rocket (SLV-3) on July 18, 1980.
    • RS-1 was a 35 kg experimental spin-stabilized satellite.
    • Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located in Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 30

Which among the following statements are NOT correct with respect to Round Table Conferences during British Rule?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 16 (Old Pattern) - Question 30
The Correct Answer is Option 4 i.e All of the above.
  • Round Table Conferences:

    • First Round Table conference held from 12 November 1930 to 19 January 1931.

      • Dr. B R Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the ‘untouchables’ in the first round table conference.

    • Second Round Table Conference held from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931

      • Mahatma Gandhi took part in the Second Round Table Conference. Hence, Option 2 is NOT correct.

    • ​Third Round Table Conference was held in London on November 17, 1932 (17 November 1932 - 24 December 1932).

      • Congress did not attend the third round table conference.

      • The recommendations of the conference were published in “White Paper” in March 1933.

      • The government of India Act of 1935 was passed on the basis of these recommendations.

  • B.R. Ambedkar and Tej Bahadur Sapru took part in all the three round table conferences.

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