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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 1

Consider the following:

  1. Nagasena associated with book Milinda Panho.
  2. Buddhaghosa was founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism 
  3. Vasubandhu wrote from the perspective of the Sautrantika schools.

How many of the above statements are correct about Buddhist scholars?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is correct: Nagasena answered questions about Buddhism posed by Menander I (or Milinda), the Indo-Greek king, and the conversation is recorded in the book Milinda Panho around 150 BC.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Nagarjuna lived around 150 AD-250 AD and was the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism. Buddhaghosa was a 5th-century Indian Theravada Buddhist commentator and scholar famous for his work, Visuddhimagga (Path of Purification)
  • Statement 3 is correct: Vasubandhu was a proponent of Mahayana Buddhism in 4th- 5th century AD from Gandhara and wrote from the perspectives of the Sarvastivada and Sautrantika schools His works, such as the "Abhidharmakosa" and the "Vimshika," are highly regarded in Mahayana Buddhism
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 2

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Coinage Act, 2011 gives the central government the power to design and mint coins in various denominations.
  2. All of India’s currency note printing presses are owned by the Government of India.
  3. The first banknote issued in independent India was the Re 1 note that replaced the portrait of King George with the symbol of the Lion Capital of the Ashoka Pillar at Sarnath.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 2

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The Coinage Act, 2011 gives the central government the power to design and mint coins in various denominations. In the case of coins, the role of the RBI is limited to the distribution of coins that are supplied by the central government.
  • The government decides on the quantity of coins to be minted on the basis of indents received from the RBI on a yearly basis, the central bank says. Coins are minted in four mints owned by the Government of India in Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kolkata and Noida.
  • Two of India’s currency note printing presses (in Nasik and Dewas) are owned by the Government of India; two others (in Mysore and Salboni) are owned by the RBI through its wholly owned subsidiary, Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Ltd (BRBNML).
  • Ashoka Pillar Banknotes: The first banknote issued in independent India was the Re 1 note issued in 1949. While retaining the existing design, the new banknotes replaced the portrait of King George with the symbol of the Lion Capital of the Ashoka Pillar at Sarnath in the watermark window.
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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 3

Which of the following are the examples of Oxidation Reaction?

  1. The taste of butter changes if left for a longer time
  2. Wine gets sour with time
  3. A reddish brown powder gets coated on articles made of iron

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 3

The term oxidation was originally used to describe reactions in which an element combines with oxygen. The iron metal is oxidized to form the iron oxide known as rust.
Electrochemical reactions are great examples of oxidation reactions.
All the above are the examples of Oxidation Reaction.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 4

Recently the Ministry of Jal Shakti released a document, which is the first such census of water bodies in India. Consider the following statements in this context.

  1. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of lakes in India.
  2. Among the total number of utilised water bodies in India, majority is used for irrigation.
  3. More than 90% of water bodies can be found in rural regions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 4

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • West Bengal boasts of the highest number of ponds and reservoirs; Andhra Pradesh the highest number of tanks; and Tamil Nadu the highest number of lakes.
  • The majority of water bodies serve as resources for fish farming, with their subsequent uses including irrigation, replenishing groundwater, and providing water for household and drinking needs. Among the total 20,30,040 utilised water bodies, 55.5% (11,26,830) are dedicated to fish farming, 16.5% (3,35,768) to irrigation, 12.1% (2,44,918) to groundwater replenishment, and 10.1% (2,05,197) to domestic and drinking water needs. The remaining are employed for recreational, industrial, religious and other purposes.
  • A substantial 97.1% of water bodies can be found in rural regions; only 2.9% are situated in urban areas. Of these, 83.7% are in use, while the rest are non-functional or unused due to factors such as construction, siltation, irreparable damage, and industrial effluents, among others.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 5

Consider the following statements.

  1. The combination of high temperature and low humidity is referred to as the wet bulb temperature.
  2. High moisture content in the atmosphere makes it difficult for the sweat to evaporate and bodies to cool down.
  3. Oral rehydration solutions (ORS) can act as lifesavers during heatstroke.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 5

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The combination of high temperature and high humidity, referred to as the wet bulb temperature, is what makes heatwaves deadly. High moisture content in the atmosphere makes it difficult for the sweat to evaporate and bodies to cool down, as a result of which the internal body temperature increases sharply, and is often fatal.

Access to drinking water or oral rehydration solutions (ORS). These can be lifesavers in such situations.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 6

Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), sometimes seen in news is the initiative of 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 6

The EU in 2021, came up with a proposal for a Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM).

The CBAM plans to impose a tariff on a set of carbon-intensive imports, which will have to be paid by EU importers and companies who export such goods to EU countries.

With the CBAM, the EU also wants to create a level-playing field for business in the bloc with those outside by making equal the price for the carbon content of goods regardless of where they are made.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 7

Consider the following:
1. Accessibility
2. Affordability
3. Frontline functionaries
4. Real-time Data

How many of the above given are the pillars of Tele-law initiative?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 7

Tele-law initiative

  • The Tele-law initiative was a program launched by the Government of India in collaboration with the Ministry of Law and Justice, along with the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), to provide free legal services to marginalized and disadvantaged communities in remote areas of the country.

Pillars of Tele-law initiative Accessibility

  • Tele-Law service is made accessible to citizens of India via video conferencing/ telephonic facilities available at CSCs, situated at the Panchayat level.
  • The Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App has also been launched, which allows benefi ciaries to obtain advice from Panel Lawyers directly through their mobile phones.

Affordability

  • Tele-Law is provided free of cost to those persons entitled to free legal aid under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities (LSA) Act, 1987, and at a nominal fee of Rs. 30/- per consultation for “others”.

Frontline Functionaries

  • Para Legal Volunteers (PLVs) have been stationed to act as intermediaries, bridging the gap between common people and the Tele-Law service, and also to create public awareness about TeleLaw.
  • Village Level Entrepreneurs (VLEs) who run the CSCs facilitate online registration of benefi ciaries with Panel Lawyers.
  • Panel Lawyers have been positioned to provide legal advice and consultation to people.
  • State Coordinators manage different stakeholders in effective implementation of Tele-Law programme in States/UTs.

Real-time Data

  • A dedicated Tele-Law dashboard has been developed to capture real-time data on nature of cases registered & advice enabled. This data has also been hosted on the Prayas Dashboard.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 8

‘Agatti Island’, often mentioned in the news, is located in which one of the following union territories of India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 8

The Agatti Island is at a distance of 459 km from Kochi and is located west of Kavaratti Island. It lies between 10 48′ and 10 53′ N latitude and 72 09′ and 7 13′ E longitude, having an area of 3.84 sq km, with a maximum length of 10 km and width of 2 km. It has a northeast, southwest trend with a long tail on the south. The lagoon area of this island is 17.50 sq km.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 9

The name of rock type means ‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action of pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes. It is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation and reorganisation of materials within the original rocks.
Which one of the following types of rocks is best described by the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 9

The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action of pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes. Metamorphism occurs when rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are subjected to great amounts of pressure by overlying rocks.
Metamorphism is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation and reorganisation of materials within the original rocks.

  • Mechanical disruption and reorganisation of the original minerals within rocks due to breaking and crushing without any appreciable chemical changes is called dynamic metamorphism.
  • The materials of rocks chemically alter and recrystallise due to thermal metamorphism.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 10

With reference to Temperate Deciduous Forest and Tundra, consider the following statements:

  1. The flora includes trees like beech, oak, maple and cherry. 
  2. The typical animals seen here are reindeer, arctic fox, polar bear, snowy owl and arctic hare.
  3. These are generally the most productive agricultural areas of the earth.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 10
  • Statement 1 is correct: Temperate Deciduous Forest extends over Central and Southern Europe, Eastern North America, Western China, Japan, New Zealand etc. It has moderate average temperature and abundant rainfall. The flora includes trees like beech, oak, maple and cherry. 
  • Statement 2 is correct: Most animals found in Temperate Deciduous Forest are the familiar vertebrates and invertebrates. Animals such as are reindeer, arctic fox, polar bear, snowy owl, lemming, and arctic hare are seen in Tundra region which is Northern and Southern most region of world adjoining the ice bound poles.
  • Statement 3 is correct: These are generally the most productive agricultural areas of the earth. The fertile former forest ground was ideal for agricultural use as arable or pasture land. Thus these regions are among the most densely populated on earth and much of the original forest has been cleared.

Temperate Deciduous Forest

  • The temperate forests are characterised by a moderate climate and broad-leafed deciduous trees, which shed their leaves in fall, are bare over winter and grow new foliage in the spring.
  • The precipitation is fairly uniform throughout.  Soils of temperate forests are podzolic and fairly deep.

Tundra

  • Tundra means a “barren land” since they are found where environmental conditions are very severe.
  • There are two types of tundra- arctic and alpine.  Arctic tundra extends as a continuous belt below the polar ice cap and above the tree line in the northern hemisphere. It occupies the northern fringe of Canada, Alaska, European Russia, Siberia and island group of Arctic Ocean.
  • On the South Pole, tundra is very small since most of it is covered by ocean. Alpine tundra occurs at high mountains above the with respect to Arctic mountains are found at all latitudes therefore alpine tundra shows day and night temperature variations. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 11

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has provided approval for Bima Sugam Portal. Consider the following statements in this regard:

  1. It will bring all companies selling life, general insurance, and health insurance on a single platform.
  2. It will facilitate the purchase of insurance policies as well as the settlement of claims.
  3. The policyholder can access various portal services through an e-insurance account (E-IA).

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is correct: All insurance requirements, including those for life, health, and general insurance (including motor, travel, etc.), will be met by BIMA Sugam.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Bima Sugam portal will provide following services to the policyholders.  1) Buy insurance policy 2) Claim Settlement 3) Agent Portability 4) Policy Portability. Hence, it will be responsible for the sale, servicing and the claims management attached to the insurance policies.      
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Bima Sugam platform will provide all these facilities to policyholders with an e-insurance account (E-IA) and E-BIMA account. It will give policyholders an option to maintain a single repository for their family, which will create ease for claim settlements due to linkages of information stored at one place. Hence, it is envisaged to be a platform where a centralized technology infrastructure will help manage policyholders’ entire policy.

Supplementary Notes:
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

  • The IRDA regulates the licensing and registration of insurers, intermediaries, and insurance agents. It sets the eligibility criteria, qualificat ions, and capital requirements for obtaining licenses in the insurance business.
  • The recent initiative by IRDAI Bima Sugam is perceived to be a big game changer in the general insurance market development.
  • It is a revolutionary step with ambitions of becoming the largest online market for insurance products and services which has not been practiced anywhere in the world.
  • Going by the diversity and the size of India’s population it may prove to be quite successful and a model for other developing economies. It will facilitate convergence of all stakeholders and insurance services in a single place.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 12

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : Longer surf boards are more stable while maneuvering in water.
Statement-II : Longer surf boards have more volume and surface area interacting with water.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 12
  • Longer surfboards provide more stability due to their increased surface area and volume interacting with the water. This larger planing surface makes it easier for riders to maintain balance, especially for beginners who are still developing their skills.
  • The extended length of the board distributes the rider's weight over a larger area, reducing the chances of tipping or wobbling.
  • Beginners often benefit from longer boards that prioritize stability, making it easier for them to learn the fundamentals of paddling, balance, and catching waves.
  • Additional factors like thickness, rocker (curve of the board), and fin configurations also play a role in shaping a surfboard's performance.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 13

Consider the following pairs :

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 13

Many of the Sangam texts, including the didactic ones, were written by the brahmana scholars of Prakrit or Sanskrit. The didactic texts cover the early centuries of the Christian era and prescribe a code of conduct not only for the king and his court but also for the various social groups and occupations. These categories could have been possible only after the fourth century, when brahmanas rose in number under the Pallavas. The texts also refer to the grants of villages and also to the descent of kings from the solar and lunar dynasties.

  • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Besides the Sangam texts, we have a text called Tolkkappiyam, which deals with grammar and poetics.
  • Pair 2 is correctly matched: In addition, we have the twin Tamil epics, Silappadikaram and Manimekalai. The two were composed around the sixth century. The first is considered to be the brightest gem of early Tamil literature. It deals with a love story in which a dignitary called Kovalan prefers a courtesan called Madhavi of Kaveripattanam to his wedded wife Kannagi from a noble family. The author apparently seems to be a Jaina and tries to locate the scenes of the story in all the kingdoms of the Tamil state. The other epic, Manimekalai, was written by a grain merchant from Madurai. It deals with the adventures of the daughter born of the union of Kovalan and Madhavi.
  • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Another important Tamil text deals with philosophy and wise maxims and is called Tirukkural.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 14

With reference to the early Arab invasions of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The battle of Qadisiya brought the Arab armies to the frontiers of al-Hind.
  2. The early invasion of Arabs took place on the eastern coast of India.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 14
  • Battle of al-Qādisiyyah: The battle was fought near Al-Ḥīrah (in present-day Iraq) between forces of the Sāsānian dynasty and an invading Arab army. The Arab victory over the army of Yazdegerd III (reigned 632–651 AD) marked the end of his dynasty and the beginning of Arab and Islamic rule in Persia.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The battle of Al Qadisiya brought the Arab armies to the frontiers of al-Hind. The conquest of India, however, proved to be no walkover for this army. While they had won relatively easy victories in Christian and Zoroastrian lands, they were checkmated in Sind, Kabul and Zabul, three tiny Hindu kingdoms on the northwestern frontier of India, for almost four centuries.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The invasions, which culminated in the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate in A.D. 1206, fall broadly into four phases, with the first two overlapping to some extent.
    • The first phase covers the Arab attacks on the western coast of India from A.D. 636-712.
    • The second includes the Arab and Turkish offensives against the Hindu kingdoms of modern Afghanistan between A.D. 643-870.
    • The third stage, incorporating the Turkish attempts to conquer the Punjab, ends with the death of Mahmud Ghazni.
    • Muhammad Ghur's conquests between A.D.1175-1206 bring to a close the fourth phase.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 15

Consider the following statements :

  1. Political Parties are required to be registered with Election Commission of India under Section 29A of the Representation of People Act, 1951
  2. Political Parties can recommend disqualifi cation of Members of the House in certain contingencies under the Tenth Schedule
  3. Election Commission of India calls for details of expenses made by Political Parties in the elections
  4. Election Commission of India can suspend or withdraw recognition of a political party.

How many of the above statements justify constitutional and legal rights and liabilities of Political Parties in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 15

Constitutional/Legal Provisions: Political Parties’ Rights and Liabilities

  • Political parties in India enjoy specific constitutional and legal rights and responsibilities, as outlined below:
  • Registration with ECI (Election Commission of India): Pobtical parties are mandated to be registered with the ECI as per Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 — a Central Legislation. This registration grants them recognition and official status as pobtical entities.
  • Disclosure of Election Expenses: To ensure transparency and accountabihty, the ECI requires political parties to provide details of expenses incurr e d during election s. This financial disclosure is essential for maintaining the integrity of the electoral process.
  • Intimation of Contributions: Political pari ies are obhgated to inform the ECI of contributions valued at Rs. 20,000/-and above, as per section 29C of the Representation of the People Act. This provision ensures that significant contributions are made pubhc to prevent undue influence on pohtical parties.
  • ECI’s Authority: The Election Commission of Incha is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections under Article 324 of the Constitution. It plays a crucial role in overseeing and regulating the conduct of elections. Additionally, the ECI has the power to suspend or withdraw recognition of a pohtical party in certain circumstances.
  • Tenth Schedule and Disqualification: Under the Tenth Schedule of the Inchan Constitution, political parties hold the authority to recommend the disqualification ofMembersoftheHouse(bothParhamentand State Legislatures) in sped fie contingencies. This schedule addresses issues related to defection and helps maintain the stahihty of the pohtical system.
  • These constitutional and legal provisions collectively shape the functioning of political parties in Incha and contribute to the democratic and transparent nature of the electoral process.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the Inflation:
Statement-I: It is the percentage change in the value of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) on a year-on year basis.
Statement-II: In India, inflation is calculated by taking the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 16
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, infl ation is calculated by taking the WPI as base.

Supplementary Notes: Inflation

  • Inflation is the percentage change in the value of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) on a year-on year basis. It effectively measures the change in the prices of a basket of goods and services in a year. In India, inflation is calculated by taking the WPI as base.
  • Inflation occurs due to an imbalance between demand and supply of money, changes in production and distribution cost or increase in taxes on products. When economy experiences infl ation, i.e. when the price level of goods and services rises, the value of currency reduces. This means now each unit of currency buys fewer goods and services.
  • It has its worst impact on consumers. High prices of day-to-day goods make it diffi cult for consumers to afford even the basic commodities in life. This leaves them with no choice but to ask for higher incomes. Hence the government tries to keep inflation under control.
  • Contrary to its negative effects, a moderate level of inflation characterizes a good economy. An inflation rate of 2 or 3% is beneficial for an economy as it encourages people to buy more and borrow more, because during times of lower inflation, the level of interest rate also remains low. Hence the government as well as the central bank always strives to achieve a limited level of inflation.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 17

The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in which of the following states?

1. Tripura
2. Manipur
3. Assam
4. Meghalaya
5. Nagaland
6. Mizoram

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 17

Administrative features of Sixth Schedule Areas

  • Autonomy within state executive authority: The tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram have been established as autonomous districts. However, these districts remain under the executive authority of the respective states.
  • Governor’s power to organize and reorganize: The governor is granted the authority to organize and reorganize the autonomous districts.
    • This includes the ability to modify their geographical boundaries, increase or decrease their areas, rename them, and undertake similar actions.
  • Division of autonomous districts into regions: In the case of multiple tribes residing within an autonomous district, the governor has the power to divide the district into several autonomous regions.
    • This allows for more specifi c governance tailored to the needs of distinct tribal communities.
  • District Council: Each autonomous district is equipped with a district council comprising 30 members. Among these members, four are nominated by the governor, while the remaining 26 are elected through adult franchise.
    • The elected members serve a term of fi ve years, unless the council is dissolved earlier. Nominated members hold offi ce at the governor’s discretion.
  • Regional Council for each autonomous region: Additionally, each autonomous region within the district has a separate regional council.
    • The specific functions and composition of these regional councils may vary, providing local governance at a more granular level.
    • These provisions in the Sixth Schedule aim to grant autonomy and self- governance to the tribal areas, while still maintaining a connection with the state administration.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding Insurance In India:

  1. Properties in India cannot be insured with a foreign insurer.
  2. The orders given by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) are final, and there lies no appeal against these orders.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 18
  • Insurance in India is a dynamic sector that encompasses a wide range of products and services to protect individuals, businesses, and assets against various risks. The insurance industry in India is regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). The government also has implemented the Insurance Laws (Amendment) Act, 2015.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Properties in India can now be insured with a foreign insurer with prior permission of IRDAI, which was earlier to be done with the approval of the Central Government.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Appeals against the orders of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) are to be referred to SAT as the amended law provides for any insurer or insurance intermediary aggrieved by any order made by IRDAI to prefer an appeal to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

  1. Shyamji Krishnavarma had started in London an Indian Home Rule Society‘India House’-as a centre for Indian students.
  2. Revolutionaries such as Savarkar and Hardayal became the members of India House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 19

Shyamji Krishnavarma had started in London in 1905 an Indian Home Rule Society- ‗India House‘-as a centre for Indian students, a scholarship scheme to bring radical youth from India, and a journal The Indian Sociologist. Revolutionaries such as Savarkar and Hardayal became the members of India House.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 20

With reference to the properties of the Graphene, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a two-dimensional form of carbon.
  2. It consists of a multi layers of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
  3. It is prepared by heating Graphite, Coal tar and or Shellac.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 20

Graphene:

  • Context: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) established India Innovation Centre for Graphene (IICG) at Kochi, Kerala
  • IICG is India’s first Graphene Centre.
  • IICG is a joint venture of the Digital University of Kerala, Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET) and Tata Steel Limited.
  • IICG aims to foster Research and development, product innovation and capacity building in the area of Graphene and twodimensional materials (2DM).
  • It will also support the Graphene-Aurora program of the MeitY.
  • This programme aims to fill the gap between R&D and commercialization by providing a complete facility to startup and industry.
  • About Graphene:
    • It is a two-dimensional form (allotrope) of carbon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Consists of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice like a honeycomb. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • It is prepared by heating Graphite, Coal tar and or Shellac or a mixture of these three in an inert atmosphere. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Applications:
    • Electronics- Super-capacitors, touchscreens, better energy storage etc.
    • Biomedical- Can be used in targeted drug delivery, etc.
    • Defence- Developing stealth coatings, etc.
    • Ultra-sensitive sensors: For environmental monitoring, etc.
    • Along with IICG, Centre of Excellence in Intelligent Internet of Things Sensors was also launched.
    • It aims at creating incubation facilities, build capacity in intelligent IoT sensors, promote research and innovation,
    • IoT is the interconnection of computing devices in everyday lives with the internet. Intelligent IOT is integrated with Artificial Intelligence.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 21

With reference to the features of administration contained in the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes.
Statement-II: The jurisdiction of high court over suits and cases between the tribes is specifi ed by the Governor.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 21

Administration in Tribal Area

  • Within their territorial jurisdictions, the district and regional councils possess the   authority to establish village councils or courts dedicated to resolving disputes among the tribes.
  • These councils hear appeals arising from such cases. The Governor specifi es the jurisdiction of the high court over these suits and cases.
  • The district council is empowered to establish, construct, or manage essential institutions and facilities within the district, such as primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, and roads.
  • It can also formulate regulations governing money lending and trading activities conducted by non-tribals. However, the assent of the governor is required for the implementation of such regulations.
  • Furthermore, the district and regional councils are authorized to assess and collect land revenue, as well as impose certain specifi ed taxes within their jurisdictions.
  • In the autonomous districts and autonomous regions, the acts passed by the Parliament or the state legislature do not automatically apply. Instead, they may be applied with modifi cations and exceptions as determined by the relevant authorities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 22

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 22

The shrines of the temples were of three kinds:
(i) Sandhara type (without Pradikshinapatha);
(ii) Nirandhara type (with Pradakshinapatha); and
(iii) Sarvatobhadra (which can be accessed from all sides).
Some of the important temple sites of this period are Deogarh in Uttar Pradesh, Eran, Nachna-Kuthara and Udaygiri near Vidisha in Madhya Pradesh. These temples are simple structures consisting of a veranda, a hall and a shrine at the rear.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

  1. Temperature inversion, that causes air pollutants to dwell near the surface for a longer time leading to serious health risks to all life forms, is a typical feature of the summer season.
  2. PM2.5, due to their small size, reaches deeper into the respiratory system as compared to PM10 or larger particles.
  3. The pollutants emitted by engines such as Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC) in the presence of sunlight produce ozone as a secondary pollutant.

How many of the above statements is/are correct about the various effects of air pollution at the global as well as local level?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 23

Statement 1 is incorrect: Temperature inversion is the phenomenon of inversion of the atmospheric temperature gradient that occurs during the winter season that causes the formation of smog and lets it stay longer near the surface.
Temperature Inversion

  • Usually, the higher the altitude, the lower the temperature of the air. Temperature inversion is a meteorological phenomenon that develops when cool air is trapped in the ground under a layer of warm air.
  • There are four types of temperature inversions:
    • A ground inversion occurs most often on clear nights when the air close to the ground is cooled by radiation.
    • A turbulence inversion is created when a layer of calm air lies above turbulent air. As the turbulent layer brings warm air down and cools its upper part through what’s called vertical mixing, the layer of calm air above eventually ends up being warmer, thus causing an inversion.
    • A subsidence inversion forms when a large layer of air sinks due to high pressure and heats up as a result.
    • A frontal inversion develops when a cold air mass undercuts a warm air mass and keeps it on top.

Temperature Inversions and Smog

  • The warmer air in a temperature inversion acts as a lid, trapping pollutants near the ground and making them unable to disperse until the weather changes. As a result, the compounds end up reacting with each other to form other pollutants such as groundlevel ozone, thus posing a serious risk to human health.
  • Temperature inversions are more common during the winter in the northern hemisphere due to high pressure, clear skies, and long nights, which allow heat to dissipate easily from the ground. This leads to a phenomenon called winter smog, which is further exacerbated by homes burning wood and coal for warmth.

PM10 vs PM2.5

  • PM10 and PM2.5 often derive from different emissions sources, and also have different chemical compositions. Emissions from the combustion of gasoline, oil, diesel fuel or wood produce much of the PM2.5 pollution found in outdoor air, as well as a significant proportion of PM10. PM10 also includes dust from construction sites, landfills and agriculture, wildfires and brush/waste burning, industrial sources, wind-blown dust from open lands, pollen, and fragments of bacteria.
  • PM may be either directly emitted from sources (primary particles) or formed in the atmosphere through chemical reactions of gases (secondary particles) such as sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOX), and certain organic compounds. These organic compounds can be emitted by both natural sources, such as trees and vegetation, as well as from man-made (anthropogenic) sources, such as industrial processes and motor vehicle exhaust.
  • Both PM2.5 and PM10 can be inhaled, with some depositing throughout the airways, though the locations of particle deposition in the lung depend on particle size. PM2.5 is more likely to travel into and deposit on the surface of the deeper parts of the lung, while PM10 is more likely to deposit on the surfaces of the larger airways of the upper region of the lung. Particles deposited on the lung surface can induce tissue damage and lung inflammation.

Formation of Ground Ozone

  • Tropospheric, or ground-level ozone, is not emitted directly into the air but is created by chemical reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOC). This happens when pollutants emitted by cars, power plants, industrial boilers, refineries, chemical plants, and other sources chemically react in the presence of sunlight.
  • Ozone is most likely to reach unhealthy levels on hot sunny days in urban environments, but can still reach high levels during colder months. Ozone can also be transported long distances by wind, so even rural areas can experience high ozone levels.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding BRICS Bank:

  1. It was created by the Fortaleza Declaration.
  2. It supports projects in both public and private sectors through loans and other instruments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is correct: Together with the process of globalisation, world regional forces have also been asserting their power through different short of alignments—the Fortaleza Declaration of Heads of State (late July 2014) from Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (the BRICS countries) is another such attempt—the creation of a BRICS Bank, i.e., the New Development Bank (NDB).
  • Statement 2 is correct: To fulfil the purpose of the bank, It supports projects in both public and private sectors through loans, equity investments, and other tailored instruments.

Major highlights of the bank are as given below:

  • The bank will have an initial subscribed capital of $50 billion— equally shared by the five nations.
  • The capital base is to be used for funding infrastructure and ‘sustainable development’ projects in the BRICS countries initially.
  • Other low and middle-income countries will be able to get funding as time progresses.
  • A Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) of $100 billion is to be created to provide additional liquidity protection to member nations during balance of payments problems.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 25

Which of the following texts elaborates on the trading activity during the Sangam age?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 25

Pattinappalai, composed by the poet Katiyalur Uruttirankannanar, offers elaborate descriptions of the bustling trading activity during the rule of Karikalan. It is the Sangam Age text that elaborates on trading activities and provides insights into the commerce and trade of that time. It describes the bustling port city of Puhar (Kaveripattinam) and the maritime trade that was an essential part of the Sangam culture.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 26

With reference to legislative reforms introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861, consider the following statements:

  1. The act for the first time separated the legislative and executive functions of the British government in India.
  2. The act provided for a majority of nonofficial members in the Governor General Executive Council for legislative purposes.
  3. The Central Legislative Council constituted under this act did not have the right to vote on the Budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 26
  • The Indian Councils Act of 1861 enlarged the Governor General’s Executive Council for the purpose of making laws. The Governor General's executive council consisted of five members. And for the purpose of the legislation, the council was reinforced by six to twelve nominated members for a two-year term. Half of these were to be nonofficials, both European and Indian not in the service of the Crown. There were similar councils in the provinces. Thus, the act did not provide for the non-official majority. The executive council was still dominated by officials. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Central legislative council constituted under the Indian Councils Act of 1861 came to be known as the Imperial Legislative Council. The Council possessed no powers at all. It could not discuss the budget or a financial measure or any other important bill without the previous approval of the Government. It could not discuss the actions of the administration. The council did not have the right to vote on the Budget. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Charter Act of 1853 for the first time separated the legislative and executive functions of the British government in India. The Council under the act of 1853 in its legislative capacity was to consist of 12 members. These included the Governor General, Commander-in-Chief, four members of his council and six legislative members. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 27

As the exhaust passes through which of the following, where the unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 27

Option (a) is correct: As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
Control of Air Pollution

  • Automobiles are a major cause for atmospheric pollution at least in the metro cities. As the number of vehicles increase on the streets, this problem is now shifting to the other cities too.
  • Proper maintenance of automobiles along with use of lead-free petrol or diesel can reduce the pollutants they emit.
  • Catalytic converters, having expensive metals namely platinum-palladium and rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases.
  • As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
  • Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 28

Which of the following statements about factors affecting exchange rate system is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 28

Factors affecting exchange rate system

  • The exchange rate is the value of a currency in terms of a different currency. Many buyers and sellers are engaged in the foreign currency market, including students, commercial banks, brokers, and more.
  • Foreign Exchange Reserves are important assets held by the central bank in foreign currencies as reserves. They are commonly used to support the exchange rate and set monetary policy. Most of the reserves are usually held in US dollars, given the currency’s importance in the international financial and trading system.
  • India’s foreign exchange reserves include:
    • Foreign Currency Assets
    • Gold Reserves
    • Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
    • Reserve position with International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Factors Affecting the Exchange Rate of India

  • Intervention of The Reserve Bank of India: During high volatility in the exchange rate, RBI intervenes to prevent the exchange rate going out of control.
    • For example, the RBI sells dollars when Indian rupee depreciates too much, while it purchases dollars when the Indian rupee appreciates beyond a certain level.
  • Inflation rate: The increase in inflation rate can increase the demand for foreign currency which can negatively impact the exchange rate of the national currency.
    • For example, an increase in the inflation level of petroleum oil can increase the demand for foreign currency leading to the depreciation of Indian rupee.
  • Interest rate: Interest rates on government securities and bonds, corporate securities etc affect the outflow and inflow of foreign currency.
    • If the interest rates on government bonds are higher compared to other country forex markets, it can increase the inflow of foreign currency, while lower interest rates can lead to the outflow of foreign currency. This affects the exchange rate of Indian rupee.
  • Exports and imports: Exports and imports affect exchange rate as exports earn of foreign currency while imports require payments in foreign currency.
    • Thus, if the overall exports increases, the national currency appreciates, while an increase in imports leads to the depreciation of the national currency.
  • A part from above, the Indian foreign exchange market is also affected by factors such as the receipts in the accounts of exports in invisibles in the current account, inflow in the capital account such as FDI, external commercial borrowings, foreign institutional investments, NRI deposits, tourism activities etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 29

Consider the following statements with reference to the Naegleria fowleri:

  1. It is a free-living amoeba commonly found in warm fresh water and soil.
  2. People can be infected with Naegleria fowleri even by drinking contaminated water.
  3. It feeds on other small organisms like bacteria found in the sediment of lakes and rivers.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 29
  • Statement 1 is correct: Naegleria is a freeliving amoeba (a single-celled living organism). It is so small that it can only be seen with a microscope. Naegleria fowleri is a heat-loving (thermophilic) organism, meaning it thrives in heat and likes warm water. It grows best at high temperatures up to 115°F (46°C) and can survive for short periods at even higher temperatures.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Naegleria fowleri infects people when water containing the amoeba enters the body through the nose. The amoeba then travels up the nose to the brain, where it destroys the brain tissue and causes a devastating infection called primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). PAM is almost always fatal. Naegleria fowleri infections may also happen when people use contaminated tap water to cleanse their noses during religious practices or rinse their sinuses (sending water up the nose). People cannot be infected with Naegleria fowleri by drinking contaminated water.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Naegleria fowleri eats other small organisms like bacteria found in the sediment in lakes and rivers. Infections usually happen when temperatures are hot, which results in higher water temperatures and lower water levels. While infections with Naegleria fowleri are rare, they happen mainly during the summer months of July, August, and September. Naegleria fowleri infection cannot spread from one person to another.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 30

SuperBIT, recently seen in the news, is a:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 30
  • Recent context: The first images for research purposes captured by NASA’s Super Pressure Balloon Imaging Telescope (SuperBIT) instrument have been released.
  • The dark matter observatory consists of a telescope mounted on a balloon lofted to an altitude of 32.9 kilometres on April 16, 2023. The platform allows researchers to investigate scientific targets from a nearspace environment. Using a balloon is much more economical than a launch vehicle to deploy an instrument in orbit. The super-pressure balloon can gather scientific data by circumnavigating the world for up to 100 days after deployment. The height of the balloon prevents most of the atmospheric interference for the imaging instrument on board.
  • The goal of the observatory is to map the amount of dark matter in its targets, by measuring the amount of light from distant sources that is amplified and distorted. The targets of SuperBIT exhibit weak gravitational lensing, as against the strong gravitational lensing of more massive targets, such as galaxy clusters. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
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