UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - UPSC MCQ

• Statement 1 is correct: Before his departure from India, Timur appointed Khizr Khan as the governor of Multan. He captured Delhi and founded the Sayyid dynasty in c.1414 CE. Khizr Khan was said to be a descendant of the prophet by the author of the Tarikh-i-Mubarak Shahi, Yahya Sirhindi. He was succeeded by his son, Mubarak Shah.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Alauddin Alam Shah (Reign: 1443–51 CE) proved to be an incompetent Sultan and the weakest of the Sayyid princes. Alam Shah’s Wazir, Hamid Khan, invited Bahlol Lodhi to take charge of the army, and after realising that it would be difficult to continue as Sultan, Alam Shah left for Badaun. The Lodis were the last ruling family of the Sultanate period and the first to be headed by the Afghans, who were ruling over Sirhind when the Sayyids were in India.

Today, GWR has over 75 adjudicators across the world, who determine whether a record has been broken or not. There is even an application process – one can apply to invite an adjudicator to witness a record being broken. However, there are some strict criteria that make a Guinness World Record.

A record must satisfy all of the following criteria to count.

• It should be objectively measurable.
• It should be breakable– it cannot be something so unique that only one person can do it.
• Similarly, it should also be standardisablewith a possibility to create a set of parameters and conditions that all challengers can follow.
• It should be verifiable.
• It should be based ononly one variable.
• It should be the best in the world. For any new record, GWR sets a minimum standard that has to be met for the record to be broken.

Kapilvastu is in southern Nepal, near the Indian border. Lumbinī is a Buddhist pilgrimage site in Nepal. It is the place where, according to Buddhist tradition, queen Maya gave birth to Siddhartha Gautama at around 566 BCE.

In all, the conventional transplanting route requires some 28 irrigations. It can go up if high temperatures force more frequent watering, and go down if there is enough rain.

Direct seeding versus transplanting

That’s where direct seeding of rice (DSR) comes in. Paddy here is sown directly in the field without any nursery preparation, puddling or flooding. In transplanting, the flooded fields basically deny oxygen to the weed seeds in the soil, preventing their germination. Water, thus, acts as a natural herbicide. In DSR, water is replaced with chemical herbicides.

DSR is effective against weeds and saves water compared to transplanting.

A bot is a software application that is programmed to do certain tasks. Bots are automated, which means they run according to their instructions without a human user needing to manually start them up every time. Bots often imitate or replace a human user’s behaviour. Typically, they do repetitive tasks, and they can do them much faster than human users could.

Bots usually operate over a network; more than half of Internet traffic is bots scanning content, interacting with webpages, chatting with users, or looking for attack targets. Some bots are useful, such as search engine bots that index content for search or customer service bots that help users. Other bots are “bad” and are programmed to break into user accounts, scan the web for contact information for sending spam, or perform other malicious activities. If it’s connected to the Internet, a bot will have an associated IP address.

Bots can be:

• Chatbots: Bots that simulate human conversation by responding to certain phrases with programmed responses
• Web crawlers (Googlebots): Bots that scan content on webpages all over the Internet
• Social bots: Bots that operate on social media platforms
• Malicious bots: Bots that scrape content, spread spam content, or carry out credential stuffing attacks

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Jeera is an extremely weather-sensitive crop. It requires a moderately cool and dry climate sans any humidity, which is conducive for fungal infestation during the crop’s flowering and seed development stages. That naturally limits the area of cultivation to Saurashtra, Kutch and the northern parts of Gujarat and adjoining districts of western Rajasthan such as Jalore, Barmer, Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Pali and Nagaur. Unjha, enjoying the strategic advantage of being in the centre of the country’s jeera cultivation belt, has become the price-setting market for the crop.
• India accounts for some 70% of the world’s production of this seed spice. Other countries such as Syria, Turkey, UAE and Iran make up the balance 30%.
• India’s jeera production is meant for both its domestic market as well as for export. The top export destinations include China, Bangladesh, US, UAE, Pakistan, Saudi Arabia and Turkey. China has been importing Indian cumin aggressively.

• The teachers travelled from place to place, trying to convince one another, as well as the laypersons, about the validity of their philosophy or the way they understood the world.
• Debates took place in the Kutagarashala – literally, a hut with a pointed roof – or in groves where the travelling mendicants halted. If a philosopher succeeded in convincing one of his rivals, the followers of the latter also became his disciples. Many of these teachers, including Mahavira and the Buddha, questioned the authority of the Vedas. They also emphasised individual agency – suggesting that men and women could strive to attain liberation from the trials and tribulations of the worldly existence. This was in marked contrast to the Brahmanical position, wherein an individual’s existence was thought to be determined by his or her birth in a specific caste or gender.

• A major characteristic of an atom is its atomic number, which is defined as the number of protons. The chemical properties of an atom are determined by its atomic number. The total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) in an atom is the atomic mass number. Atoms with the same atomic number but with different atomic masses are called isotopes. Isotopes have identical chemical properties, yet have very different nuclear properties. For example, there are three isotopes of hydrogen. Two of these isotopes are stable (not radioactive), but tritium (one proton and two neutrons) is unstable. Most elements have stable isotopes.
• Radioactive isotopes can also be created for many elements. An isotope of uranium (Uranium-235) is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors. An isotope of cobalt (Cobalt-60) is used in the treatment of cancer. An isotope of iodine (Iodine-131) is used in the treatment of goitre.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Aggregate Supply (AS)

• It’s important to note that changes in aggregate demand and aggregate supply can lead to economic fluctuations.
• When aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply, it can result in infl ationary pressures.
• Conversely, if aggregate supply surpasses aggregate demand, it can lead to unemployment and deflationary pressures.

National commission for Women (NCW)

• The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards for women; recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate redressal of grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.

Functions of Women Safety Cell:

• Work relating to Project – Violence free homes set up in Delhi and seven other States including monitoring the working of special cells, release of funds for project execution and institutionalization and takeover of the project by the State
• Monitoring of cases of acid attack and matters relating to payment of compensation in such cases in all States and UTs and providing inputs for formulation of Victim Compensation Schemes.
• MIS for Acid Attack Victims

Women Welfare and Capacity Building Cell:

• Formally setup in 2019, WW&CB Cell works on the needs of womencentric interventions to address the most pressing challenges affecting empowering of women at economic, social, cultural and political level.
• The Cell has been conducting various Awareness programs, Workshops, Conferences, Seminars, Competitions, Legal Awareness Programmes, Gender sensitization workshops, capacity building, women empowerment and personality developments programs, etc. for holistic growth of women, individually and also in collaboration with multiple stakeholders.

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Mhadei sanctuary is located in the North-east of Goa, in the taluka of Sattari. The town of Valpoi which is famous for white water rafting in the monsoons, lies fairly close to this area. Its official declaration as a wildlife preserve came in 1999. The formation of this sanctuary has made Goa the only state in all of India that has completely protected the Western Ghats that are located within its boundaries. The Western Ghats are known for their extremely high level of biodiversity both in terms of flora and fauna.
• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Pakhui/Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary is bounded to the north and west by the River Bhareli (known as Kameng in Arunachal Pradesh), to the east by the River Pakke and to the south by the Nameri National Park of Assam (an IBA). Doimara Reserve Forest (RF) lies to the west of Pakhui in the Kameng distrct, while Papum RF lies to the east of the Sanctuary in East Kameng district. Pakhui has been recently declared as Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger. Pakhui is criss-crossed by a number of small rivers and perennial tributaries of Bhareli and Pakke rivers, both of which join the Brahmaputra river.
• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The Hastinapur Wild Life Sanctuary, lies alongside the Northern tip of the River Ganga, flowing through the districts of Muaffarnagar and Bijnore. The sanctuary extends all the way to the districts of Hapur and Amroha . The regions of Khadar, Khola and Bangar are also assimilated in the total spread of the sanctuary. The older route of the River Ganga , which is now just a swampy area is well known for the inhabitation of the Twelve – Horned Deers or the "Baara Singha" as famously known.

Only Statement 3 is correct.

• Bioplastic refers to plastic made from plants like maize, wheat or sugarcane or other biological material instead of petroleum. Bio-plastics are biodegradable and compostable plastic materials.
• Polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs) are polyesters produced in nature by numerous microorganisms, including through bacterial fermentation of sugars or lipids. These plastics are biodegradable and are used in the production of bioplastics. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Polylactic acid (PLA) is a thermoplastic polyester formally obtained by condensation of lactic acid with loss of water. PLA has become a popular material due to it being economically produced from renewable resources and in 2021, had the highest consumption volume of any bioplastic of the world. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Polyethylene terephthalate (PET or PETE) is a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of the polyester family of polymers. Hence option 3 is not correct.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The speed of sound in a medium depends on the temperature of the medium. The speed of sound decreases when we go from a solid to a gaseous state. In any medium, as we increase the temperature the speed of sound increases. For example, the speed of sound in air is 331 m s–1 at 0 ºC and 344 m s–1 at 22 ºC. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In the case of gases, sound travels faster in gases with low density. Since the speed of sound in air is 346 m/s and in oxygen 316 m/s at 25 ºC. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Snow leopard

• International Snow Leopard Day came into being with the adoption of the Bishkek Declaration.
• It is the National Heritage Animal of Pakistan and Afghanistan.
• Hemis National Park is the Snow Leopard capital of the world.
• India has been conserving snow leopard and its habitat through the Project Snow Leopard (PSL).
• India is also party to the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Programme since 2013.
• In India, it inhabits the higher Himalayan and trans-Himalayan landscape in the five states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

• Statement i is incorrect: because the Electoral Bond Scheme does not allow entities outside India to purchase Electoral Bonds. It only allows Inchan citizens or entities incorporated or established in Incha to do so.
• Statement II is correct: A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals

Electoral Bond Scheme

• The Government of India issued the Electoral Bond Scheme on 2nd January 2018.
• Electoral Bonds are available for purchase by individuals who are citizens of India or entities incorporated or established in India.
• Individuals have the option to buy Electoral Bonds either individually or jointly with other individuals.

The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. One of the most important temples is Pandrethan, built during the eighth and the ninth centuries. In keeping with the tradition of a water tank attached to the shrine, this temple is built on a plinth built in the middle of a tank. Although there are evidences of both Hindu and Buddhist followings in Kashmir, this temple is a Hindu one, possibly dedicated to Shiva.

To determine which pairs are correctly matched, we need to check the production site of each enzyme listed:

1. Pepsin: Produced by the stomach.
2. Lipase: Produced by the pancreas.
3. Lactase: Produced by the intestine.

Given this information, the correct pairs are:
- Pepsin: Stomach (not Pancreas, so Pair 1 is incorrect)
- Lipase: Pancreas (not Stomach, so Pair 2 is incorrect)
- Lactase: Intestine (Pair 3 is correct)

So, the only correctly matched pair is "3 only," which corresponds to Option B.

• The G4 nations are a group composed of Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan, which aim to support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. These countries seek reform in the composition of the Security Council to reflect contemporary global power dynamics.
• S1 is incorrect because the G4 nations’ main focus is not limited to economic cooperation within the Asia-Pacific region; rather, it’s centered around UN reform.
• S2 is incorrect as the G4 nations include Brazil and India, which are not European countries.
• S3 is incorrect because while the G4 nations might have interests in combating climate change and promoting sustainable development, this is not their primary purpose as a group.

Ningaloo Eclipse:

• It is a rare ‘hybrid solar eclipse’, caused by the curvature of the earth's surface and a shift from annular to total eclipse. The last one was seen in 2013, and the next one will appear in 2031.
• Its uniqueness is such that it has already been named Ningaloo, a part of western Australia from which the eclipse was most visible. The Ningaloo region is also designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Types of Solar Eclipse:
  • Total Solar Eclipse: A total eclipse happens when the Moon completely blocks out the Sun while passing between the Earth and the Sun. The Baily's Beads effect, also known as the diamond ring effect, is a phenomenon that occurs during a total solar eclipse or annular solar eclipse.
  • Annular Eclipse: It happens when the Moon is at its farthest point from the Earth. The sun is covered in such a way that only a small ring-like sliver of light is seen from the sun's disc. This ring is known as the ring of fire. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • Partial Eclipse: It occurs when the Moon passes between the Earth and the Sun but is not perfectly aligned. Hence, only a part of the Sun appears covered. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Hybrid Eclipse: A hybrid solar eclipse occurs when the eclipse is total from some locations on Earth and annular from others, due to the viewer's position relative to the Moon's shadow. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • It means that for some observers, the Moon appears to fully cover the Sun, resulting in a total solar eclipse, while for others, the Moon only partially covers the Sun, resulting in an annular solar eclipse.

• Black soil is known for its high moisture retention capacity. This is due to the presence of clay minerals, which have a large surface area that can bind water molecules. As a result, black soil can store a significant amount of water even during dry periods. This is particularly beneficial for rain-fed crops, which rely on stored soil moisture to survive during the dry season.
• Slow absorption and loss of moisture are indeed distinctive characteristics of black soil. The clay minerals in black soil tend to swell and become sticky when wet, which can impede the absorption of water. Additionally, the clay minerals can bind water molecules so tightly that it becomes difficult for plants to extract them. This combination of factors contributes to the slow absorption and loss of moisture in black soil.
• The high moisture retention capacity of black soil is directly related to its slow absorption and loss of moisture. The clay minerals in black soil are responsible for both of these characteristics.

Vertebrates

• Vertebrates are animals that have a backbone or vertebral column. They are a subgroup of the larger animal kingdom and include animals with well-developed internal skeletons. Here are some examples of vertebrates:
  • Fish: Examples include goldfi sh, salmon, tuna, sharks, and seahorses.
  • Amphibians: Examples include frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts.
  • Reptiles: Examples include turtles, snakes, lizards, crocodiles, and alligators.
  • Birds: Examples include sparrows, eagles, penguins, owls, and fl amingos.
  • Mammals: Examples include humans, dogs, cats, cows, elephants, whales, and bats.

Floral Endemism in India

• Floral Endemism is the phenomenon of flower species being unique to a defined geographical area. Its measure defines the diversity of species at any location.
• In India, the sequence of floral endemism is (in decreasing order):
  • Peninsular India including western and Eastern Ghats (about 2,600 species).
  • Eastern Himalaya and north-eastern region (about 2,500 species).
  • North-western Himalaya (about 800 species).
  • Andaman & Nicobar Islands (about 250 species).

• Statement 1 is correct: Sovereign Gold Bonds are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The Bond is issued by the Reserve Bank on behalf of the Government of India.The quantity of gold for which the investor pays is protected since he receives the ongoing market price at the time of redemption/ premature redemption. The SGB offers a superior alternative to holding gold in physical form. The risks and costs of storage are eliminated.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: A minor can invest in these bonds. The application on behalf of the minor has to be made by his/her guardian.
  Persons resident in India as defined under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 are eligible to invest in SGB. Eligible investors include individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities, and charitable institutions. Individual investors with subsequent change in residential status from resident to non-resident may continue to hold SGB till early redemption/maturity.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Bonds are issued in denominations of one gram of gold and in multiples thereof. The minimum investment in the Bond shall be one gram with a maximum limit of subscription of 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities notified by the government from time to time per fiscal year (April – March). In the case of joint holding, the limit applies to the first applicant.

• Statement 1 is correct: The IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions. The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. In other words, a portion of a member country’s quota can be withdrawn free of charge at its own discretion.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of first resort, meaning they will tap into the reserve tranche before seeking a formal credit tranche.
  In theory, members can borrow over 100% of their quota. However, if the amount being sought by the member nation exceeds its reserve tranche position (RTP), then it becomes a credit tranche that must be repaid in three years with interest.
  Initially, member nations’ reserve tranches are normally 25% of their quota. However, their RTP can change according to any lending that the IMF does with its holdings of the member’s currency.

• Sorbitol, also called D-sorbitol is a type of carbohydrate. It falls into a category of sugar alcohols called polyols. It is a water-soluble compound and is found naturally in some fruits, including apples, apricots, dates, berries, peaches, plums, and figs.
• It is also commercially manufactured from corn syrup for use in packaged foods, beverages, and medications.
• Applications of Sorbitol:
  • Sorbitol is a starch sweetener often used as a substitute for traditional sugar in diet foods (including diet drinks) and confectionary items (cakes, biscuits, etc.) Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Sorbitol along with glycerol helps to hold the toothpaste together, and it's also a sweetening agent. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Anti-diarrheal medication is used to treat sudden diarrhea (including traveler's diarrhea). It works by slowing down the movement of the gut and works in a manner opposite to the laxatives. It is used on its own as a laxative to combat constipation. It’s hyperosmotic, meaning it draws water into the colon from surrounding tissues to promote bowel movements. Hence option 2 is not correct.
  • Used as a humectant and thickener in making cosmetic creams and milky lotions
  • It is used in the preparation of synthetic vitamin C. It is also used as a stabilizer in pharmaceutical products.

Hence option 3 is correct.

• The hills had wooden buildings with pitched roofs. At several places in the hills, therefore, we will find that while the main Garbhagriha and the Shikhara are made in a Rekha-Prasada or Latina style, the Mandapa is of an older form of wooden architecture. Sometimes, the temple itself takes on a Pagoda shape.
• A unique form of architecture developed in the hills of Kumaon, Garhwal, Himachal and Kashmir. Kashmir’s proximity to prominent Gandhara sites (such as Taxila, Peshawar and the north-west frontier) lent the region a strong Gandhara influence by the fifth century CE.

Equality before law

• Equality before the law and equal opportunity of the law are fundamental principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
• These principles ensure that every citizen is treated equally and fairly under the law, without any discrimination based on caste, religion, gender, race, or place of birth.
• The Constitution of India guarantees these principles through various provisions and safeguards.
• The concept of equality before the law is embodied in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, which states that “the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.”
• This provision ensures that all individuals, irrespective of their background, are subject to the same laws and receive equal treatment from the legal system.
• One signifi cant example of equality before the law can be seen in the criminal justice system. In criminal cases, all individuals are entitled to a fair trial, regardless of their social or economic status.
• The principle of equality before the law ensures that both the accused and the victim are provided with an equal opportunity to present their case before the court. This principle protects individuals from arbitrary arrests, discriminatory practices, and ensures that justice is served impartially.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: If or when a bank makes huge losses, AT1 Bonds’ liability may be A. written off OR  B. converted into shares (process called ‘Bail-In’).  
• Statement 2 is correct: It is true that AT1 bonds are perpetual and carry no maturity date. Instead, they carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or 10 years. However, banks are not obliged to use  this call option and can opt to pay only interest on these bonds for eternity.
• Statement 3 is correct: It is true that banks issuing AT1 bonds have no obligation to pay back Principal amount to investors. However, investors will receive interest rates on these bonds until the bonds will be written off by the banks. If the RBI feels that a bank is on the brink of collapse and needs a rescue, it can simply ask the bank to cancel its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: AT1 bonds can be traded in secondary markets which means AT1 bond holders can sell these bonds to others in the stock market to raise money.  

Supplementary Notes:
Additional Tier 1 (AT1) Bonds

• Additional Tier 1 (AT1) bonds appeared in the news as the Bombay High Court recently invalidated the write off of additional Tier-1 (AT1) bonds issued by private lender Yes Bank.
• These bonds are a type of perpetual securities which offer higher risk and reward.

• The Subsidiary Alliance played a significant role in the expansion of British rule in India, and many Indian states, including Mysore, Hyderabad, and Awadh, were forced to accept it. The policy remained in effect until the Indian Rebellion of 1857, which led to the end of the British East India Company's rule in India and the beginning of direct British rule under the British Crown. The Subsidiary Alliance was a policy introduced by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805, during the British colonial rule in India.
• British were responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats under the terms of the Subsidiary Alliance. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Indian rulers who accepted the Subsidiary Alliance were required to pay for the maintenance of British troops stationed in their territories, and in return, the British promised to protect the Indian ruler from external aggression and internal rebellion. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The stationing of a British armed contingent in the territory of the ally was a key feature of the Subsidiary Alliance. Under this policy, Indian rulers were required to accept the presence of British troops in their territories. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Under this policy, Indian rulers were required to accept British control over their foreign policy and were not allowed to make treaties or alliances with other powers without British permission. This condition of the Subsidiary Alliance was intended to prevent Indian rulers from forming alliances that could potentially threaten British interests in India.