UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - UPSC MCQ

Prominent Boddhisattvas under Buddhism include:

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Avalokitesvara: is one of the three protective deities around Buddha. He is described as holding a Lotus flower and is also known as Padmapani. The painting can be found at Ajanta Caves. He is the most acknowledged of all the Bodhisattvas.
• The bodhisattva of compassion is the listener of the world’s cries who uses skillful means to come to their aid. He appears unofficially in Theravada Buddhism in Cambodia under the name Lokesvara. He is depicted as a female and is said to incarnate in his holiness, the Dalai Lama.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Vajrapani: is one of the three protective deities around Buddha and is also depicted in the Ajanta Caves. Vajrapaṇi is contemplated to manifest all the powers of Buddha as well as the power of all five tathagatas, namely Vairocana, Akshobhya, Amitabha, Ratnasambhava and Amoghasiddhi.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Manjusri: One of the three protective deities around Buddha is also depicted in the Ajanta Caves. He is associated with the wisdom of Buddha and is a male Bodhisattva with a wielding sword in his hand.
• Pair 4 is correctly matched: Maitreya: A future Buddha who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach pure dharma. The laughing Buddha is said to be an incarnation of Maitreya.

• New cells are required not only for replacement of worn out cells, but also for repair of cuts and injuries, for growth and for reproduction. New cells are obtained through cell division. There are two types of cell division.
  • Mitosis: In mitosis, a cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells. Mitosis is needed for growth, and repair of worn out parts.
  • Meiosis: Cell division involved in production of sex cells which give rise to the egg in female and sperm in male.
• Mitotic cell division occurs in somatic cells or reproductive cells that results in the formation of identical cells, both qualitatively and quantitively. The significance of mitosis is growth and reproduction where the product of reproduction is identical. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The nucleus divides first and then the whole cell divides. Division of one nucleus to produce two daughter nuclei a is called (karyokinesis). Division of cytoplasm to give two daughter cells is called cytokinesis.
• Significance:
  • The daughter cells receive the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In other words mitosis is an equational division in which the two daughter cells are identical to each other and to their parent cell.
  • Mitosis helps in wound healing and replacement of cells lost during wear and tear.
• Meiosis is characterized by two successive divisions of the nucleus (meiosis I and II) and cytoplasm, whereas the chromosomes divide only once. Meiosis occurs in germ cells only i.e. testis and ovary. This is a reduction division where the chromosome number becomes half.
• Meiotic cell division occurs in the gonads for sexual reproduction to produce gametes. The resultant cells, egg (in female) and sperms (in male), possess half the chromosome number of that present in the parent cell. Meiotic cell division takes place only in diploid cells responsible for production of haploid spores or gametes.
• Significance:
  • The Significance of meiosis is in sexual reproduction where ova and sperm both have half the number of chromosomes i.e. 23 each in human gametes (but normal number of chromosome of human is 46 or 23 pair) and on fertilization the chromosome number becomes normal.
  • Also during meiosis, new combination of genes are obtained in the gametes that result from meiosis. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The maximum density of water at 4 degrees Celsius is a unique and anomalous behavior that arises from the structure of water molecules and the formation of hydrogen bonds. Unlike most substances that contract and become denser as they cool and transition from a liquid to a solid state, water behaves differently.
• Here's why water achieves its maximum density at 4 degrees Celsius
  • Hydrogen Bonding: Water molecules are polar, meaning they have a partial positive charge on the hydrogen atoms and a partial negative charge on the oxygen atom. The oxygen atom is more electronegative, creating a dipole moment. This dipolar nature allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with each other.
  • Tetrahedral Arrangement: When water molecules are in the liquid state, they form a loose and constantly changing network of hydrogen bonds. However, as water cools and approaches 4 degrees Celsius, a more ordered and stable arrangement occurs. At 4 degrees Celsius, water molecules tend to form a tetrahedral arrangement due to hydrogen bonding.
  • Open Structure: In the tetrahedral arrangement, water molecules are more spaced out, creating an open structure. This open structure leads to a maximum packing of water molecules, resulting in the highest density.
  • Decrease in Density Below 4 Degrees Celsius: As water continues to cool below 4 degrees Celsius, it undergoes a phase transition from a liquid to a solid (ice). In the process, the hydrogen bonding becomes more ordered, and water molecules form a hexagonal lattice in the ice structure. This hexagonal arrangement is less dense than the open structure at 4 degrees Celsius, causing a decrease in density as water freezes.
• Specific heat capacity (often shortened to specific heat) refers to a material's property that describes how much heat energy it needs to absorb to raise its temperature by one degree. The concept plays a crucial role in understanding heat transfer and temperature changes in various contexts.
  • The specific heat of water is not maximum at zero degrees Celsius. In fact, it gradually decreases as it approaches 0°C and reaches a minimum around 4°C. It then starts increasing again with rising temperature.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: The funds can be used for meeting expenses related to post-harvest activities such as storage, transportation, and marketing of agricultural produce.
• Statement 2 is correct: The funds can be. used for meeting consumption requirements of farmers and their families such as food, education, healthcare, etc.
• Statement 3 is correct: Farmers require funds for various crop-related expenses such as purchase of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, labour costs, etc. KCC funds can be used to meet these short-term credit requirements for crop cultivation.
• Statement 4 is correct: Farmers require working capital to maintain their farm assets such as land, irrigation systems, farm machinery, etc. KCC funds can be used to meet these working capital requirements for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
• Statement 5 is correct: Produce Marketing Loan.
• Statement 6 is correct: Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.

Kisan Credit Card Scheme (KCC)

• The following people are eligible for this scheme:
• All Farmers - Individuals / Joint borrowers who are owner cultivators
• Tenant Farmers, Oral Lessees & Share Croppers
• Self Help Groups or Joint Liability Groups of Farmers
• The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is being implemented by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks and Cooperatives.

• Amensalim is an antagonistic interspecific interaction where one species suffers and the other species remains unaffected. This is commonly the effect when one species produces a chemical compound (as part of its normal metabolic reactions) that is harmful to the other species. It is also called antibiosis. The affected species is called amensal and the affecting species is called inhibitor.
• Allelopathy, in which some plants produce chemical compounds that inhibit the growth of nearby would-be competitors, is one type of amensalistic interaction. For example Black Walnut tree (Juglans nigra), secretes juglone from its roots, it is a chemical that harms or kills some of the surrounding plants species. The other plants are prohibited from growing under or near the trees while the walnut trees do not really get benefit in any way. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• The "inhibitory" chemicals are released into the environment and affect the development and growth of nearby plants. These substances influence the growth and development of agricultural and biological systems. Allelopathic chemicals can be present in the leaves, flowers, roots, fruits, or stems and may be released from these parts of the plant. Allelochemicals are introduced by the plants into the environment via root exudation, foliar leaching, volatilization, residue decomposition. They can also be found in the surrounding soil. Target species are affected by these toxins in many different ways. The toxic chemicals may reduce the plant growth by inhibiting the shoot/root growth, by blocking the nutrient uptake, or by disturbing the naturally occurring symbiotic relationship thereby destroying the plant's usable source of a nutrient. Allelochemicals may be involved in plant-plant, plant herbivore or plant insect communication via chemicals.

• India and the ASEAN countries reached an agreement to review their free trade pact for goods and set a 2025 goalpost for concluding the review aimed at addressing the “asymmetry” in bilateral trade.
• A Joint Committee of the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA), signed in 2009, deliberated on the roadmap for the review of the pact and finalised the terms of reference for the fresh negotiations.
• The AITIGA review will now be taken up at the India-ASEAN Leaders’ Summit scheduled in early September for further guidance.
• The review of AITIGA is expected to enhance and diversify trade while addressing the current asymmetry in the bilateral trade.

Nitrogen cycle:

• Nitrogen is an essential component of protein and is required by all living organisms including human beings. Our atmosphere contains nearly 79% of nitrogen but it can not be used directly by the majority of living organisms. Broadly like carbon dioxide, nitrogen also cycles from the gaseous phase to solid phase then back to gaseous phase through the activity of a wide variety of organisms. Cycling of nitrogen is vitally important for all living organisms. There are five main processes in the nitrogen cycle which are,

Nitrogen fixation:

• This process involves conversion of gaseous nitrogen into Ammonia, a form in which it can be used by plants. Atmospheric nitrogen can be fixed by the following three methods:-
  • Atmospheric fixation: Lightening, combustion and volcanic activity help in the fixation of nitrogen.
  • Industrial fixation: At high temperatures (400oC) and high pressure (200atm.), molecular nitrogen is broken into atomic nitrogen which then combines with hydrogen to form ammonia.
  • Bacterial fixation: There are two types of bacteriaSymbiotic bacteria: E.g. Rhizobium in the root nodules of leguminous plants.
  • Freeliving: e.g. 1. Nostoc 2. Azobacter 3. Cyanobacteria can combine atmospheric or dissolved nitrogen with hydrogen to form ammonia.

Nitrification:

• It is a process by which ammonia is converted into nitrates or nitrites by Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus bacteria respectively. Another soil bacteria Nitrobacter can convert nitrate into nitrite. Hence Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Assimilation:

• Assimilation involves the conversion of gaseous nitrogen, typically atmospheric nitrogen (N2), into ammonia (NH3) or ammonium ions (NH4+). This process is vital because most plants cannot directly use atmospheric nitrogen. Hence Pair 2 is correctly matched.

Ammonification:

• Ammonification is the process by which nitrogenous waste products, such as urea and uric acid, and the remains of dead organisms are converted into inorganic ammonia (NH3) or ammonium ions (NH4+). This process is carried out by various decomposer organisms, particularly ammonifying bacteria. By breaking down organic nitrogen-containing compounds into ammonia, ammonification recycles nitrogen back into the ecosystem. This ammonia can then be further transformed in the nitrogen cycle. Hence Pair 3 is correctly matched.

Denitrification:

• The conversion of nitrates back into gaseous nitrogen is called denitrification. Denitrifying bacteria live deep in soil near the water table as they like to live in oxygen-free medium. Denitrification is the reverse of nitrogen fixation. Hence Pair 4 is not correctly matched.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Any person not in a position to obtain essential commodities like food, shelter, and clothing is said to experience absolute poverty. Relative poverty does not concentrate on biological needs but rather makes a comparison between two people in society.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Since 2015 World Bank used $1.90 as the international poverty rate. The new global poverty rate is set at $2.15 using 2017 prices. This means that anyone having on less than $2.15 a day is considered to be living in extreme poverty. Just under 700 million people globally were in this situation in 2017.
• Income Level is considered in Absolute Poverty It is not considered when measuring relative poverty as a person will still be considered poor despite meeting his/her basic needs

Biodiversity Cold Spots

• Cold spots are areas where the fitness of at least one of the two species is determined by interactions with the other. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They support critical global and local ecosystem processes, contain unique evolutionary lineages and rare species, encompass the last major wilderness landscapes, support a diverse range of animal species. All cold spots would benefit from increased protection, conservation management, and restoration.
• While coldspots are relatively empty, they are also dry and unstable environments. This is why once new species emerge and evolve, they move to more comfortable environments — like the tropical biodiversity hotspots. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A new study published in Science calls this the ‘paradox of diversity’. It concludes that extreme environments like deserts, mountains or other ‘coldspots’ would be better equipped to handle rapid diversification of species than tropical regions, which are already crowded with existing species. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Indian Universities Act, 1904

• In 1902, Raleigh Commission was set up to go into conditions and prospects of universities in India and to suggest measures for improvement in their constitution and working. Based on its recommendations, the Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904.
• Universities were to give more attention to study and research.
• The number of fellows of a university and their period in office were reduced and most fellows were to be nominated by the Government.
• Government was to have powers to veto universities‘ senate regulations and could amend these regulations or pass regulations on its own.
• Conditions were to be made stricter for affiliation of private colleges.
• Five lakh rupees were to be sanctioned per annum for five years for improvement of higher education and universities.

The National Land Records Modernization Programme (NLRMP), started in 2008, aims at updating and digitising land records by the end of the 12th Plan. Eventually, the intent is to move from the presumptive title (where registration of a title does not imply the owner’s title is legally valid) to a conclusive title (where it does).
Important points related to this process may be summarised as follows:

• Digitisation will help enormously in lowering the costs of land transactions, while conclusive title will eliminate legal uncertainty and the need to use the government as an intermediary for acquiring land so as to ‘cleanse’ title.
• Given the importance of this programme, its rollout in various states needs to be accelerated— easier and quicker land transactions will especially help small and medium enterprises that do not have legal support or management.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• In a historic decision, Ecuadorians voted against the oil drilling of a protected area in the Amazon that’s home to two uncontacted tribes and serves as a biodiversity hotspot.
• Yasuni National Park, one of the world’s most biodiverse regions. The area is inhabited by the Tagaeri and Taromenani, who live in self-isolation.
• In 1989, Yasuni was designated a world biosphere reserve by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation, also known as UNESCO.

• Sublimation is the process where a substance transitions directly from the solid phase to the gas phase without passing through the liquid phase. Not all materials sublimate readily at standard temperature and pressure, but there are several examples of substances that exhibit sublimation under certain conditions.
• Dry Ice (Solid Carbon Dioxide): Dry ice is a common example of a substance that sublimates. It transforms directly from a solid to a gas at temperatures above -78.5 degrees Celsius (-109.3 degrees Fahrenheit) at standard pressure.
• Camphor: Solid camphor can sublimate at room temperature, producing vapors with a distinct, aromatic odor. This property makes camphor useful in mothballs and other applications.
• Naphthalene: Often used as the primary ingredient in mothballs, naphthalene sublimates at room temperature. The vapors help repel insects.
• Iodine: Iodine can sublimate when heated, producing a purple vapor. This property is exploited in laboratory demonstrations.
• Moth Crystals (Para-dichlorobenzene): Similar to naphthalene, para-dichlorobenzene, commonly found in moth crystals, can sublimate at room temperature.
• Anthracene: A crystalline solid that sublimates when heated, anthracene is often used in laboratory settings.
• Benzoic Acid: Solid benzoic acid can undergo sublimation under specific conditions, such as heating.
• Ammonium Chloride: Ammonium chloride sublimates when heated, and this property is utilized in some chemistry experiments.
• Cellulose (CeHioOs)n: The main component of plant cell walls, cellulose has a complex structure with strong hydrogen bonds. It decomposes well below its melting point, preventing sublimation altogether.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Context: The Union Cabinet, led by the PM, approved the establishment of three semiconductor units as part of the ‘Development of Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in India’ initiative.
• When a semiconductor is exposed to light, it can absorb photons with energies greater than the bandgap energy. This absorption can excite electrons from the valence band to the conduction band, creating additional charge carriers and thereby increasing the conductivity of the semiconductor. Hence option C is the correct answer.

Yajna Sri Satakarni (AD 165–94) was the last great king of the Satavahana dynasty, and recovered north Konkan and Malwa from the Shaka rulers. He was a patron of trade and navigation, and his coins appear not only in Andhra but also in Maharashtra, MP, and Gujarat. His enthusiasm for navigation and overseas trade is demonstrated by the representation of a ship on his coins. Hence, Option (a) is correct.

Only Option 2 is correct.

• France has emerged as a major strategic partner for India with crucial defence deals and increased military to military engagement. A key example of this is the inducting of the French Scorpene conventional submarines, being built in India under technology transfer agreement of 2005, and the Indian Air Force having received 36 Rafale fighter jets.
• These relations are further fortified with the robust network of military dialogues and regularly held joint exercises — Varuna (navy), Garuda (air force), and Shakti (army).

• Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• Context: The UN has allocated US$100 million from the Central Emergency Response Fund (CERF) to support underfunded humanitarian crises in seven countries across Africa, the Americas, and the Middle East.
• About UN Central Emergency Response Fund (CERF)
  • It was established in 2005 by the UN General Assembly to provide rapid and life-saving assistance to vulnerable populations during humanitarian crises.
  • Managed by the Emergency Relief Coordinator on behalf of the UN Secretary-General, CERF releases resources for underfunded emergencies twice a year.
  • It addresses critical funding gaps exacerbated by increased global conflicts, climate-induced disasters, and poly-crisis phenomena. The fund is replenished annually through contributions from governments, the private sector, foundations, and individuals.
  • CERF’s allocations are divided into:
    • Rapid Responses: providing immediate aid during sudden crises
    • Underfunded Emergencies support countries facing prolonged humanitarian challenges.

• Neutrons are subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They have a mass of approximately 1
• atomic mass unit (u) or 1.675 x 10A^-27 kg.
• Protons are positively charged subatomic particles located in the nucleus of an atom. Like neutrons, they also have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit (u) or 1.675 x 10A^-27 kg.
• Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles found outside the nucleus in electron shells. Electrons have a significantly smaller mass compared to protons and neutrons. The mass of an electron is about 1/1836 times the mass of a proton or neutron. It is approximately 9.109 x 10A^-31 kg.
• An alpha particle is a type of nuclear particle consisting of two protons and two neutrons. It is essentially the nucleus of a helium-4 atom. The mass of an alpha particle is approximately 4 atomic mass units (u) or 6.644 x 10A^-27 kg.
• Thus the electron has the least mass among the particles mentioned.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

The Good Friday Agreement, also known as the Belfast Agreement, is a peace agreement signed in 1998. It was signed between factions of Northern Ireland and the governments of Britain and Ireland to end decades of violence in Northern Ireland. It ended 30 years of the violence known as ‘The Troubles’ and has been hailed as a model deal to end longstanding conflicts. It was a major development in the Northern Ireland peace process of the 1990s. The agreement is made up of two interrelated documents, both agreed in Belfast on Good Friday, 10 April 1998:

• a multi-party agreement by most of Northern Ireland's political parties
• an international agreement between the British and Irish governments

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The earth, after being heated by insolation, transmits the heat to the atmospheric layers near to the earth in the long waveform. The air in contact with the land gets heated slowly, and the upper layers in contact with the lower layers also get heated. This process is called conduction.
  The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and further transmits the heat of the atmosphere. This process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as convection. The convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of air is called advection. The horizontal movement of the air is relatively more important than the vertical movement. In middle latitudes, most diurnal (day and night) variations in daily weather are caused by advection alone. In tropical regions, particularly in northern India, during the summer season, local winds called ‘loo’ are the outcome of the advection process.

Supreme Court: Composition and Appointment of Judges

• The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than 33 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
• Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of 65 years. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast fi ve years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
• Provisions exist for the appointment of a Judge of a High Court as an Ad-hoc Judge of the Supreme Court and for retired Judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts to sit and act as Judges of that Court.

• The excessive extraction of groundwater for drinking and irrigation has shifted the Earth’s axis of rotation, according to a new study. Noting that humans pumped out around 2,150 gigatons of groundwater between 1993 and 2010, the study says that the planet’s axis has drifted at the rate of 4.36 cm per year towards the east.
• Although the shift isn’t significant enough to have real-life consequences, the study shows that humans have extracted so much water from the ground that it has impacted the planet’s axis and contributed to global sea level rise.
• Earth spins around an imaginary axis which passes through the north pole, its centre of mass and the south pole — just like a top spins around its spindle. Scientists for years have known that the poles and the axis keep shifting naturally as the mass distribution in and on the planet changes. This phenomenon is known as “polar motion”.
• For instance, rocks slowly circulating inside Earth’s mantle causes the planet’s mass to shift, leading to a change in the position of the rotational axis. 
• There are several other reasons responsible for polar motion like ocean currents and even hurricanes. But this phenomenon is also impacted by human activities.

Standing Crop

• Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop.
• The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.
• The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight. Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate.

To determine which statements about The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) are not correct, let's analyze each statement:

1. It is a global initiative focused on “making nature’s values visible”.
   - This statement is correct. TEEB is indeed a global initiative aimed at highlighting the economic benefits of biodiversity and the costs of biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation.

2. It finds its institutional home at the United Nations Environment Programme in Geneva.
   - This statement is partially incorrect. While TEEB was initiated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), its secretariat is hosted by the United Nations Environment Programme's World Conservation Monitoring Centre (UNEP-WCMC) in Cambridge, UK, not in Geneva.

3. Recently, the Government of India launched the TEEB-India Initiative at G20, 2023 summit.
   - This statement is incorrect. There is no record of the Government of India launching a TEEB-India Initiative at the G20, 2023 summit.

Given this analysis:

- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is partially incorrect (due to the wrong location).
- Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, the statements that are not correct are:

1. 2 and 3

The correct answer is:

1. 2 and 3

Appointment of High Court Judges

• The Government has, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, decided as a matter of policy to appoint the Chief Justice of all High Courts from outside.
• In case of initial appointment of a Chief Justice of a High Court, the provisions of Article 217 will have to be followed. In the case of Jammu & Kashmir High Court, appointment of Chief Justice shall be made in accordance with section 95 of the Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir. Transfer of Chief Justice from one High Court to another will be governed by the provision of Article 222. Transfer of a Chief Justice to and from Jammu & Kashmir High Court shall be made in accordance with clause (1) of Article 222 of the Constitution of India read with Article 222(1A) of the Constitution (Application to Jammu & Kashmir) Order, 1954.
• For purposes of elevation as Chief Justices the inter-se seniority of puisne Judges will be reckoned on the basis of their seniority in their own High Courts and they will be considered for appointment as Chief Justices in other High Courts when their turn would normally have come for being considered for such appointment in their own High Courts.
• A puisne Judge in a High Court who has one year or less to retire when his turn for being considered for elevation as Chief Justice arrives may be considered for appointment as Chief Justice in his own High Court if vacancy is to occur in the offi ce of the Chief Justice in that High Court during that period.
• Initiation of the proposal for the appointment of Chief Justice of a High Court would be by the Chief Justice of India. The process of appointment must be initiated well in time to ensure the completion at least one month prior to the date of anticipated vacancy for the Chief Justice of the High Court. The Chief Justice of India would ensure that when a Chief Justice is transferred from one High Court to another simultaneous appointment of his successor in offi ce should be made and ordinarily the arrangement of appointment of an acting Chief Justice should not be made for more than one month.
• The Chief Justice of India would send his recommendation for the appointment of a puisne Judge of the High Court as Chief Justice of that High Court or of another High Court, in consultation with the two senior-most Judges of the Supreme Court. He would also ascertain the views of the seniormost colleague in the Supreme Court who is conversant with the affairs of the High Court in which the recommendee has been functioning and whose opinion is likely to be signifi cant in adjudging the suitability of the candidate. It is of no consequence whether the Judge of the Supreme Court, so consulted, had that High Court as Parent High Court or was transferred there from any other High Court.
• The views of the Judges of the Supreme Court thus consulted would then be sent by the Chief Justice of India alongwith his proposal, to the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs.

The correct option is 1, i.e 1 only.

• The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 Part XX of the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct
• The consent of the States is not mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
• Only those provisions of the constitution which are related to the federal structure of India can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislature by a simple majority. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.
• There is no provision of joint sitting between the two houses for money bill and Constitution Amendment Bill.
• The Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced either by the Minister or by private members and does not require prior permission of the president.

Public goods in India refer to goods and services that are provided by the government and are available to the general public without any exclusion or rivalry. These goods are typically non-excludable, meaning that it is not feasible to exclude individuals from benefiting from them, and non-rivalrous, meaning that one person's consumption does not diminish the availability or quality of the good for others. Public goods play a crucial role in enhancing the overall welfare and development of society.

Examples

• Infrastructure: infrastructure is a key public good in India. It includes the construction and maintenance of roads, highways, bridges, airports, seaports, railways, and public transportation systems. Education: Public schools and universities offer education at subsidized or no cost, ensuring that every individual has the opportunity to gain knowledge and skills necessary for personal and professional growth. Healthcare: Public healthcare services aim to ensure affordable and accessible medical facilities for all citizens.
• Government hospitals, clinics, and primary healthcare centers provide essential healthcare services, preventive care, vaccinations, and emergency medical treatment. Law enforcement: Maintaining law and order is a crucial public good. Police Development of departments, judiciary, and other law enforcement agencies are responsible for maintaining peace, protecting citizens’ rights, and ensuring a just legal system.
• Public parks and recreational facilities: Parks, playgrounds, and other recreational spaces are public goods that promote physical fitness, leisure activities, and community engagement. These spaces provide a platform for individuals to interact, relax, and engage in various outdoor activities.
• Environmental conservation: This includes the conservation of forests, wildlife sanctuaries, and national parks, as well as efforts to mitigate pollution, promote sustainable practices, and ensure clean air and water resources.
• Public broadcasting: Publicly-funded radio and television stations, such as All India Radio and Doordarshan, provide information, entertainment, and educational programs to the general public. These platforms contribute to the dissemination of news, culture, and diverse perspectives.
• Disaster management: It involves the establishment of disaster response teams, early warning systems, and the provision of relief and rehabilitation measures in the aftermath of natural disasters.
• Social welfare programs: Examples include food subsidies, public distribution systems, healthcare schemes, and social security programs.
• National defense: It includes the maintenance of armed forces, border security, and defense infrastructure to protect the nation from external threats and maintain sovereignty.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The income effect describes how an increase in income can change the quantity of goods that consumers will demand. For normal goods, as income raises so does the demand for them (and vice-versa).
• Statement 2 is correct: The substitution effect is the decrease in sales for a product that can be attributed to consumers switching to cheaper alternatives when its price rises.

Demand and Supply

• This is reflected in microeconomics via an upward shift in the downward-sloping demand curve.
• This effect, however, can vary depending on the availability of substitutes and the good’s elasticity of demand.
• For inferior goods, the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leads consumers to purchase more of a good, and less of substitute goods, when the price rises.

Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court 

• The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.
• Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

• The establishment of the Mauryan dynasty by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 B.C. signifies a significant turning point in the early history of India. Among the most crucial literary sources from this period are the Arthasastra authored by Kautilya The Arthashastra, a comprehensive treatise on statecraft, offers advice to rulers on the governance of their realms and the fulfilment of their responsibilities. The Indica written by the Greek ambassador Megasthenes. It provides an account of ancient India, as observed by Megasthenes during his embassy to the court of Chandragupta Maurya. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• In addition to these works, the Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa, two historical texts originating from Ceylon, along with the play Mudrarakshasa by Visakhadatta, serve as valuable sources of information on the historical and cultural context of ancient India during the Mauryan period. Hence, Option 2 and 4 are correct.
• The works of Kalidasa who lived during the Gupta period comprise poems and dramas. The famous among them are Abhijananashakuntalam, Ritusamhara and Meghadutam. Hence, Option 3 is incorrect.