UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 18 - UPSC MCQ

• Recent Context: Russia is looking forward to India concluding a new Free Trade Agreement with the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU).
• About Eurasian Economic Union: The Eurasian Economic Union is an international organization for regional economic integration that came into existence on 1st January 2015.
• The EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital, and labor within its borders.
• It pursues, coordinates, & harmonizes the policies in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union.
• The member states of the Eurasian Economic Union are:
  (i) The Republic of Armenia,
  (ii) The Republic of Belarus,
  (iii) The Republic of Kazakhstan,
  (iv) The Kyrgyz Republic, and
  (v) The Russian Federation
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Surya Sen had participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement and had become a teacher in the national school in Chittagong. He was imprisoned from 1926 to 1928 for revolutionary activity and afterwards continued working in the Congress. He was the secretary of the Chittagong District Congress Committee. He used to say “Humanism is a special virtue of a revolutionary.” He was a lover of poetry and an admirer of Tagore and Qazi Nazrul Islam.
• Surya Sen decided to organise an armed rebellion along with his associates—Anant Singh, Ganesh Ghosh and Lokenath Baul—to show that it was possible to challenge the armed might of the mighty British Empire. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• They had planned to occupy two main armouries in Chittagong to seize and supply arms to the revolutionaries to destroy telephone and telegraph lines and to dislocate the railway link of Chittagong with the rest of Bengal.
• The raid was conducted in April 1930 and involved 65 activists under the banner of Indian Republican Army—Chittagong Branch. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The raid was quite successful; Sen hoisted the national flag, took salute and proclaimed a provisional revolutionary government.
• Later, they dispersed into neighbouring villages and raided government targets. Surya Sen was arrested in February 1933 and hanged in January 1934, but the Chittagong raid fired the imagination of the revolutionary-minded youth and recruits poured into the revolutionary groups in a steady stream.

• The Project Monitoring Group (PMG) is an institutional mechanism for the expedited resolution of issues and regulatory bottlenecks in projects with investments upward Rs. 500 Crores in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Currently, PMG is situated at Invest India, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was set up as a special cell in the Cabinet Secretariat, Government of India in 2013 and was subsequently brought under the administrative control of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) in 2015.
• The relocation was enabled in order to create a one-stop facilitation destination for investors at all stages of the investment process, including issue resolution. The PMG seeks to enlist the unresolved project issues in respect of all mid and large-sized Public, Private and ‘Public-Private Partnership’ (PPP) Projects
• DPIIT is mandated as the nodal body for the review of public and private projects facing challenges and facilitates their resolution through PMG. The issues taken up by PMG are both at Union and State- Level.
• Related information: Invest India:
  (i) Invest India is the official Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India and acts as the first point of reference for investors in India.
  (ii) It is set up as a non-profit venture under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industries.

• Ramanuja, born in Tamil Nadu in the eleventh century, was deeply influenced by the Alvars. Ramanuja tried to assimilate bhakti to the tradition of the Vedas. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
• He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita or qualified oneness in that the soul, even when united with the Supreme God, remained distinct.
• According to him the best means of attaining salvation was through intense devotion to Vishnu. Vishnu in His grace helps the devotee to attain the bliss of union with Him. He argued that in order to attain salvation, the grace of God was more important than knowledge about Him.
• Ramanuja emphasized that the path of prapatti or total reliance on, or surrender to God was open to all, including the Shudras and the Dalits. Thus, Ramanuja tried to build a bridge between the popular movement based on bhakti, and the upper caste movement based on the Vedas.
• Ramanuja established the Emar Math (Embar Mutt) in Puri and suggested King Choda Ganga Deva to build a big temple for the deity of Puri-Jagannath, who had been in worship there for several years. Ramanuja’s influence on the temple is seen in the practice of giving rice as prasada to devotees.

• Schedules are lists in the Constitution of India that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activities and policy of the Government.
• Second Schedule contains the provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges etc. of the following:
  (i) The President of India o The Governors of States
  (ii) The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  (iii) The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
  (iv) The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
  (v) The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
  (vi) The Judges of the Supreme Court
  (vii) The Judges of the High Courts
  (viii) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• The provisions in the Second Schedule can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.

• Recent Context: The 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the Convention on the conservation of migratory species of wild animals (CMS), an environmental treaty under the aegis of United Nations Environment Programme, was hosted by India during 15th to 22nd February, 2020 at Gandhinagar. As a
• host, India has been designated the President for the next three years. Ten new species were added to CMS Appendices at COP13. Seven species were added to Appendix I: the Asian Elephant, Jaguar, Great Indian Bustard, Bengal Florican, Little Bustard, Antipodean Albatross and the Oceanic White-tip Shark.
• The Government of India is Signatory to the Convention on Conservation of Migratory wild Animals (CMS) since 1983. India has signed non-legally binding MOU with CMS on the conservation and management of Siberian Cranes (1998), Marine Turtles (2007), Dugongs (2008) and Raptors (2016). like Dugong, under the Conservation and Recovery Action Plan.
• The theme of CMS COP13 in India is, “Migratory species connect the planet and we welcome them home. “The CMS COP 13 logo is inspired by ‘Kolam’, a traditional artform from southern I ndia. In the logo of CMS COP-13, Kolam art form is used to depict key migratory species in India like Amur falcon, humpback whale and marine turtles.
• The mascot for CMS COP13, “Gibi - The Great Indian Bustard” is a critically endangered species which has been accorded the highest protection status under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• Related Information on CMS:
• CMS has two Appendices. These appendices list migratory species to which the Convention applies.
  (i) Appendix I comprises migratory species that have been assessed as being in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of their range.
  (ii) Appendix II covers migratory species that have an unfavourable conservation status and that require international agreements for their conservation and management, as well as those that have a conservation status which would significantly benefit from the international cooperation that could be achieved by an international agreement.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Recent context: Astronomers of Spain- Institute of Astrophysics of the Canary Islands (IAC) has discovered an exo-planet WASP-76b where it rains iron. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• The conditions of the exo-planet were discovered by Echelle Spectrograph for Rocky Exo-planets and Stable Spectroscopic Observations (ESPRESSO).
• The high-resolution instrument is installed on the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope (VLT) in Chile.
• Exoplanet WASP-76b: Exoplanet WASP-76b is located 360 million light-years away, toward the constellation Pisces. It has days when its temperatures exceed 2,400 degrees Celsius (4,352 degrees Fahrenheit). The temperature is hot enough to evaporate metals. At nights, the strong winds, cool down the iron vapor so that it condenses into drops of Iron. The planet always keeps the same face towards its star as it rotates around it.

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Farakka Barrage is built across the River Ganges in the state of West Bengal. Farakka Barrage is 2.2 km long and carries a rail-cum-road bridge across the river to establishes direct road and rail communication links to the North-Eastern States. Canals from the Farakka Barrage provides a route for the Inland National Waterways 1, from Allahabad to Haldia using the Ganges, Bhagirathi, and Hooghly river system.
• Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Prakasam Barrage is located in the Vijayawada in the Krishna District of Andhra Pradesh. Prakasam Barrage is built across the River Krishna connecting Guntur and Krishna districts via a 1.2km long river road bridge. Prakasham Barrage also serves the three major canals run through the entire city and become a tourist attraction of Vijayawada.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Dowleswaram Barrage is built across the River Godavari near Rajahmundry in the Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. Dowleswaram Barrage is the last stretch of Godavari River before it empties into the Bay of Bengal. The 3.4Km long Barrage is located 8km from Rajamundry city where the Godavari divided into two streams.
• Other Barrages:
  (i) The Jobra Barrage is built across the River Mahanadi near Cuttack in the Indian state of Orissa. Jobra Barrage also known as Mahanadi Barrage carries a 2.0 km long road bridge connecting Cuttack and Jagatpur. The barrage is situated near to the longest river bridge of Orissa and one of the longest in India, the Mahanadi road bridge.
  (ii) The Asan Barrage is located in the famous Doon Valley of Dehradun District near the border of Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh. Asan Barrage built across at the confluence of River Asan and Eastern Yamuna Canal near Dakpathar.
  (iii) The Kota Barrage is built across the River Chambal at Kota City in Rajasthan,
  (iv) The Dakpathar Barrage is built across the River Yamuna near to Dakpathar in Uttarakhand state,
  (v) Talwara Barrage is built across the Beas River with big 52 Gates. It is known for world-famous Pong Dam, Goddess Chintapumi Temple, and Maharana Pratap Sagar lake.

• The latest generation of Wi-Fi, known as Wi-Fi 6, brings with it some significant performance improvements that aim to address limitations in older generations. Wi-Fi 6 is also known as "high- efficiency wireless”. Technically, Wi-Fi 6 has a single-user data rate that is 37% faster than 802.11ac, but what’s more significant is that the updated specification offer four times the throughput per user in crowded environments, as well as better power efficiency which should translate to a boost in device battery life.
• To achieve those improvements, Wi-Fi 6 implements a variety of changes including several multi-user technologies which have been borrowed from the cellular industry - namely MU-MIMO and

OFDMA - techniques that greatly improve capacity and performance by enabling more simultaneous  connections and a more thorough use of spectrum. It will ultimately aid in laying a foundation for the number of nodes expected on upcoming smart infrastructure (e.g. Internet of Things devices). .Hence both the statements are correct.

Unemployment data in India is primarily collected by agencies such as the National Statistical Office (NSO) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI). The government has last year decided to merge the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) with the Central Statistics Office (CSO) leading to the formation of an overarching body - National Statistical Office (NSO). Employment-Unemployment Survey (EUS): Employment-Unemployment Survey by erstwhile NSSO is a comprehensive household survey providing labour force statistics in India. It was first conducted in 1955 and since 1972-73, is conducted every five years. It is the prime source of statistical indicators and estimates of various parameters of the labour force and activity participation of the population. The main problem with this survey is its very low frequency and the time lag between the collection and availability of results. Now, Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour & Employment releases the Employment & Unemployment Survey. The survey has been conducted in all the States/UTs by covering all the districts.
Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS): Considering the importance of the availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, National Statistical Office (NSO) launched Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) on April 2017. The objective of PLFS is primarily two-fold, one to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the Current Weekly Status (CWS) and to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both usual status and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
Employment Exchange: Employment Exchange refers to an office of the central or state government, which collects and furnishes information on the prospective employers, available vacancies and job seekers, thereby facilitating job seekers to find a suitable job and for the industry to find the suitable manpower. Directorate General of Employment and Training (DGET), Ministry of Labour, operates a National Employment Service (NES) which is entrusted with the matters of Employment Exchanges. As part of their administrative functioning, Employment Exchanges collect data on various aspects of employment and unemployment. Data on job seekers registered with the Employment Exchanges have been analyzed to evaluate the incidence of unemployment in the country.
Population Census: The census provides information on size, distribution and socio-economic, demographic and other characteristics of the country's population. Data on main, marginal and non­workers is collected in Census. According to Census 2011 numbers of the 116 million Indians who were either seeking or available for work, 32 million were illiterate and 84 million literate. Among literates, unemployment rates were higher among the better qualified. The ‘unemployed’ included those who were not currently working but were seeking or available for work, as well as those in marginal employment —
meaning that they worked for fewer than six months in the year preceding the Census — who were seeking or available for work. Overall, India’s unemployment rate grew from 6.8 p.c. in 2001 to 9.6 p.c. in 2011, based on official Census data. The main problem with this survey is its very low frequency since census data comes every 10 years.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Recent Context: In order to make regulatory regime for Nidhi Companies more effective and also to accomplish the objectives of transparency & investor friendliness in corporate environment of the country, the Central Government has recently amended the provisions related to NIDHI under the Companies Act and the Rules (effective from 15.08.2019). The amended provisions of the Companies Act (Section 406) and Nidhi rules (as amended w.e.f. 15.08.2019) require that the Nidhi companies have to apply to the Central government for updation of their status/ declaration as Nidhi Company in Form NDH-4.
• Nidhi companies: Under Nidhi Rules, 2014, Nidhi is a company which has been incorporated as a Nidhi with the object of cultivating the habit of thrift and saving amongst its members, receiving deposits from, and lending to, its members only, for their mutual benefit. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Nidhi Company is a class of Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has powers to issue directives for them related to their deposit acceptance activities.
• Their core business is borrowing and lending money between their members.
• They are regulated by Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• They have to comply with two set of norms, one of Public limited company as per Companies Act, 2013 and another is for Nidhi rules, 2014.
• They are registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In the Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court held that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. But, in Menaka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan case and ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just.
• The court held that the Tight to life’ as embodied in Article 21 is not merely confined to animal existence or survival but it includes within its ambit the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which go to make a man’s life meaningful, complete and worth living.
• Under the Constitution, the freedom of movement has two dimensions, viz, internal (right to move inside the country) and external (right to move out of the country and right to come back to the country). Article 19 protects only the first dimension. The second dimension is dealt by Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Article 359 authorises the president to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359. Under the Act, during the National Emergency, the President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. So the right to life remains enforceable even during emergency. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Kuno-Palpur is situated in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh. This protected region has a core area of 345 sq km and an outer buffer area of 890 sq km. Together, they constitute the wildlife division, created in the year 2002 to provide an alternative home to the endangered Asiatic Lion. The undulating terrain of the Vindhya Range in which the reserve is situated is actually a river valley, created by the River Kuno, which divides the sanctuary from north to south.
  (i) Three sites, namely Darrah Wildlife Sanctuary, Jawahar Sagar Sanctuary, and Sitamata Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan and Kuno-Palpur Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh were identified for lion introduction. Out of these four, Kuno-Palpur Sanctuary was found to be the most suitable site on account of its area, shape and vegetation by the Wildlife Institute of India.
  (ii) The sanctuary is made up of thick deciduous forest, interspersed with meadows, and comprises species of trees such as kardhai, gurjan, khair and kahua. Herbivores such as nilgai, sambar, spotted deer, blackbuck and chinkara, which move in herds, are easily spotted here; while the carnivores, including panthers, jackals, foxes, hyenas, and bears, can be a little more elusive. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Bori Wildlife Sanctuary, established in 1977 is located on the foothills of the Satpura range in Madhya Pradesh. Along with Satpura National Park and Pachmarhi Sanctuary, makes up the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
• Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary established in the year 1975, it spreads across a total expanse of 1197 square kilometres in the heart of Madhya Pradesh and is shared by four districts, namely Sagar, Damoh, Narsinghpur and Raisen. The sanctuary’s flora and fauna are sustained by the two rivers basins, Narmada and Ganga. The sanctuary is thriving in wildlife and is home to exotic canine species including the Indian Wolf, Striped Hyena and Bengal Fox.
• National Chambal Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Vindhayan ranges is famous for the rare Gangetic dolphin. The sanctuary was founded in 1979 and is part of a large area co-administered by Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. Apart from the Gangetic dolphin, the other inhabitants of the sanctuary include Magar (crocodile) and gharial (alligator), chinkara, sambar, nilgai, wolf and wild boar. It is the last bastion for some of the country’s most endangered wildlife like the Gharial, Muggar, Turtles, Otter and the fresh water Dolphin, the Chambal region also boasts of a wide variety of aquatic and terrestrial bird. Chambal was chosen as one of the main areas for reintroduction the species back into the wild. The Government of India launched a Crocodile Breeding and Management Project in partnership with the UNDP/FAO, in 1975. The presence of Gharial prompted the government to establish a protected area to secure the future of the species. Thus the National Chambal Sanctuary (NCS) was established covering nearly 610km across the three states.

• Trade and commerce expanded in India during the Mughal rule in the seventeenth century. The Indian trading classes were large in numbers, spread out all over thecountry, well organized and highly professional. Some specialized in long-distance, inter-regional trade, and some in local, retail trade. The former were called seths, bohra or modi, while the latter was called beoparis or banik.
• The banjaras used to move over long distances, sometimes with thousands of oxen carrying food grains, pulses, ghee, salt, etc. The more expensive goods, such as textiles, silks, etc., were laden on camels and mules, or in carts. But it was cheaper to move bulk goods through the rivers on boats. Boat traffic on waterways and coastal trade along the seashore was more highly developed than now. The trade-in foodstuffs and a wide range of textile products were the most important components of inter-regional trade. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Merchants in India were not without influence in political quarters where their own interests were concerned. Thus, each community of merchants had its leader who could intercede with the local officials on their behalf. We do have instances of strikes (hartal) by merchants in Ahmedabad and elsewhere to stress their points of view. We have also noted the involvement of members of the Mughal royal family, and prominent nobles, such as Mir Jumla, in trade. Thus, the Mughal ruling class was not unconcerned with business and protection of the commercial interests of the country and the trading classes, though it was not as actively involved in pushing its business interests as some European states such as Britain, France and Holland were.
• The political stability achieved by the Mughal empire helped create vibrant networks of overland trade from China to the Mediterranean Sea. Voyages of discovery and the opening up of the New World resulted in a massive expansion of Asia’s (particularly India’s) trade with Europe. This resulted in a greater geographical diversity of India’s overseas trade as well as an expansion in the commodity composition of this trade. An expanding trade brought in huge amounts of silver bullion into Asia to pay for goods procured from India, and a large part of that bullion gravitated towards India. This was good for India as it did not have natural resources of silver. As a result, the period between the sixteenth and eighteenth centuries was also marked by remarkable stability in the availability of metal currency, particularly the silver rupya in India. This facilitated an unprecedented expansion of minting of coins and the circulation of money in the economy as well as the ability of the Mughal state to extract taxes and revenue in cash. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• At the end of the 18th century, the East India Company consolidated its position in most parts of India, and its activities were closely watched and debated in England. A series of reports were submitted to the British Parliament on the administration and activities of the East India Company, among these one such report was the Fifth Report (from the Select Committee of the House of Commons on the East India Company, released on 28th July 1812).
• This report presented the voice of great opposition from other traders in England and demanded revocation of the Royal Charter that granted a monopoly to the East India Company of having trade with India and China.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Recent context: Apollo 13 (50th anniversary) was supposed to make a more challenging landing near the Fra Mauro.
• About Fra Mauro: The Fra Mauro formation (or Fra Mauro Highlands) is a formation on the near side of Earth’s Moon that served as the landing site for the American Apollo 14 mission in 1971. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  (i) It is named after the 80-kilometer-diameter crater Fra Mauro, located within it. The formation, as well as Fra Mauro crater, take their names from a 15th-century Italian monk and mapmaker of the same name.
  (ii) Apollo 13 was originally scheduled to land in the Fra Mauro highlands, but was unable due to an in­flight technical failure.
  (iii) Fra Mauro is thought to have been formed from ejecta, or debris, from the impact which formed Mare Imbrium.
  (iv) Conducting experiments at the Fra Mauro formation would have provided greater insights about the Moon and the Earth’s early geological history.
• About Apollo 13 Mission:
  (i) Apollo 13 was the seventh crewed mission in the Apollo space program and the third meant to land on the Moon.
  (ii) The craft was launched from Kennedy Space Center on April 11, 1970, aboard the Saturn V SA- 508 rocket. But the lunar landing was aborted after an oxygen tank in the service module (SM) failed two days into the mission.
  (iii) The crew instead looped around the Moon, and returned safely to Earth on April 17. While Apollo 13 did not land on the lunar surface, it was able to return photographs that it took when it looped around the Moon.

• Pulakesin II, the son of Kirtivarman, was one of the greatest rulers of the Chalukya dynasty. He ruled for almost 34 years. In this long reign, he consolidated his authority in Maharashtra and conquered large parts of the Deccan. His greatest achievement was his victory in the defensive war against Harshavardhana.
• In 620 A.D. Harshavardhana invaded the Chalukya kingdom in the Deccan, which was then ruled by Pulakesin II. But the Chalukyas’ resistance proved tough for Harshavardhana and he was defeated. Hence both the statements are correct.
• Pulakesin II was defeated and killed by the Pallava king Narasimhavarman in 642 A.D. His son Vikramaditya, who was also as great a ruler as his father, succeeded him. He renewed the struggle against his southern enemies. He recovered the former glory of the Chalukyas to a great extent.

• The South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) set up in 2001, brings together Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives (not a neighbouring country), Myanmar, Nepal, and Sri Lanka in a project-based partnership that aims to promote regional prosperity, improve economic opportunities, and build a better quality of life for the people of the subregion. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• SASEC countries share a common vision of boosting intraregional trade and cooperation in South Asia, while also developing connectivity and trade with Southeast Asia through Myanmar, to the People’s Republic of China, and the global market.
• SASEC members gather regularly to discuss and address shared interests, creating support and ownership for the program at the policy level as well as practical collaboration at the technical working level. Over a decade of successful cooperation has built confidence and mutual trust through various discussion platforms that decide on coordinated actions for the benefit of all.
• In 2016, the SASEC countries approved the SASEC Operational Plan 2016-2025, a 10-year strategic roadmap, which introduced Economic Corridor Development as a fourth sectoral area of focus, to promote synergies and linkages between economic corridors across SASEC countries.
• ADB serves as the SASEC Secretariat. As of September 2019, SASEC countries have implemented 55 regional projects worth over $12.5 billion in the energy, economic corridor development, transport, trade facilitation, and information and communications technology sectors. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Recently the Environment Minister virtually launched piloting of the National Transit Pass System. The National Pass System enhances seamless movement of forest produce. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• It is an online system for issuing transit permits for timber, bamboo and other forest produce. NTPS will bring ease of business and expedite the issuance of transit permits for timber, bamboo and other minor forest produce without physically going to forest offices. Through mobile application, e-pass will be issued for the transit of forest produce. The pilot project will be functional in Madhya Pradesh and Telangana for now.
• People can apply for Passes from their mobile phones as well as receive e passes in their mobile phones This will enhance the seamless movement of forest produce.

• The various committees and commissions which have examined our electoral system, election machinery as well as election process are
• Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998):
  (i) Only Election Commission recognized political parties should be given the state support in terms of printing material and facilities; electronic media time; vehicles and fuel etc.
  (ii) Complete account of the election expenditure should be filled by the parties to the ECI.
  (iii) Political parties should compulsorily submit their annual accounts to the income tax department
• Dinesh Goswami Committee
  (i) Time limit for bye-elections,
  (ii) Increase in deposits from independents.
  (iii) The committee also called for amendment of the anti-defection law to restrict disqualification.
• Tarkunde Committee (1975):
  (i) The election commission should be a three member body,
  (ii) The minimum age of voting should be 18 years.
  (iii) The TV and radio should be placed under the control of autonomous statutory corporation,
  (iv) A voter’s council should be formed in as many constituencies as possible which can help in free and fair election.
• Also various reports of Law Commission, National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution proposed several electoral reforms.
• Both Abhijit Sen Committee and Narasimhan Committee are related to reforms in financial sector.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Tamil has a literary tradition that goes back to the period of the Sangams (c. 300 BC - c. 300 CE). The most well-known surviving works from this period are the Tolkappiyam (a book of grammar attributed to Tolkappiyar), Ettu Togai (Eight Anthologies), Pattu Pattu (Ten Idylls), epics like Silappadikaram and Manimekalai (authored by Ilango Adigal and Sattanar respectively), Thiru Kural (a Tamil treatise par excellence by Thiruvalluvar) and Perungadai (another work of epic proportion by Kongu Velir).
• This period was succeeded by the age of devotional poetry of both the Shaiva and the Vaishnava variety in Tamil literature. These works are referred to as the Thevaram and the Nalayira Divya Prebandham respectively. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: Sweat comes out of three types of glands distributed across all over our skin, secreting water and substances that help keep our body at the optimum temperature of 37 degrees C (or 98.4 degrees F). It is 99% water containing sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium and chloride ions, ammonium ions, urea, lactic acid, glucose and other minor components. Our brain has temperature-sensitive nerve cells (neurons) which control the sweat glands in releasing the fluid depending on the temperature and physical and metabolic activity of the body. Sweat is thus our body’s thermo-regulator.
• Statement 2 is correct: An analysis of the sweat fluid in a patient and how it compares with that of a ‘normal’ individual will thus be of diagnostic value (just as much as other body fluids do). For example, in the illness called cystic fibrosis, the ratio of the sodium to chloride ions in the sweat is different from that of a normal individual. Likewise, the amount of glucose in the sweat of a diabetic is higher than normal. But the problem is the amount of sweat available from the skin. Recently, e-skin patches have been developed for real-time measurements of some chosen component in the sweat
• Statement 3 is correct: In humans, sweat is hypoosmotic relative to plasma (i.e. less concentrated). Sweat is found at moderately acidic to neutral pH levels, typically between 4.5 and 7.0.

• Recent context: Prime Ministers of India and Nepal have jointly inaugurated the Motihari- Amlekhganj petroleum product pipeline, the first of its kind in South Asia.
• About the Pipeline:
  (i) The 69 km-long pipeline from Motihari in Bihar to Amlekhganj in Nepal is the first-ever cross­border petroleum product pipeline in the South Asia region. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Significance of the pipeline: As of now, tankers carry petroleum products from India to Nepal as part of an arrangement which is in place since 1973. Every year, the pipeline will carry two million metric tonne of clean petroleum products at an affordable price to Nepal. It will help to enhance the energy security of the region and substantially cut down on transit costs.

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Ammonium nitrate is a chemical compound with the chemical formula NH4N03. It is a white crystalline solid consisting of ions of ammonium and nitrate. It is highly soluble in water and hygroscopic as a solid, although it does not form hydrates. It is predominantly used in agriculture as a high-nitrogen fertilizer.
• Its other major use is as a component of explosive mixtures used in mining, quarrying, and civil construction. Mining companies led by Coal India Ltd are the biggest consumers of ammonium nitrate, the chemical compound in India. Ammonium nitrate is imported in bulk and in large quantities through Central government-run Visakhapatnam Port Trust by some 15 explosive manufacturers located in the eastern states including the mineral belts of Orissa and Bihar. The chemical is used to manufacture explosives that are in turn sold to miners who use it for blasting during mining operations.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Miners source explosives from manufacturers holding permits from Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO), to import the chemical. PESO is a regulatory agency attached to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industries, to administer Explosives Act 1884, Petroleum Act 1934, Inflammable Substances Act 1952, Ammonium Nitrate Rules 2012 and Environment Protection Act 1986, among others, for controlling import, export, transport, storage and usage of explosive materials, flammable materials, pressure vessels, cryogenic vessels, design and installation of all necessary and relevant infrastructure. The Central government has tightened the import, storage, transport and manufacture of explosives using the chemical by notifying the Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012.

• Snow leopard (Panthera uncial) is large cat native to mountain ranges of Central and South Asia- including the Himalayas, and Russia’s remote Altai mountains. The snow leopard inhabits the higher Himalayan and trans-Himalayan landscape in the five states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh. This area contributes to about 5% of the global snow leopard range.
• Snow leopards are categorized as ‘Vulnerable’ by IUCN and in the Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972. They are listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) and the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS). The IUCN in 2017 has down-listed the snow leopard on the Red List of Threatened Species from ‘Endangered’ to ‘Vulnerable’. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• India’s first Snow Leopard Conservation Centre will be opened in Uttarkashi fores t division in Uttarakhand. The conservation centre will be built by the Uttarakhand forest department along with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) as part of its six-year-long project, SECURE Himalayas. The project aims at securing livelihoods, conservation, sustainable use and restoration of high range Himalayan ecosystems. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Superconductivity refers to complete disappearance of electrical resistance in various solids when they are cooled below a characteristic temperature. This temperature, called the transition temperature, varies for different materials but generally is below 20 K (-253 °C). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The superconducting material shows some extraordinary properties which make them very important for modern technology.
  (i) In Superconducting state, the superconducting material shows the zero electric resistance (infinite conductivity).
  (ii) A Superconductor, when it is cooled below the critical temperature Tc), expel the magnetic field and doesn’t allow the magnetic field to penetrate inside it. This phenomenon in superconductors is called Meissner effect.
• Superconductors are used in the following applications:
  (i) Maglev (magnetic levitation) trains: These work because a superconductor repels a magnetic field so a magnet will float above a superconductor - this virtually eliminates the friction between the train and the track. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  (ii) Superconductors are used in Large hadron collider or particle accelerator, to make extremely powerful electromagnets to accelerate charged particles very fast (to near the speed of light),
  (iii) SQUIDs (Superconducting QUantum Interference Devices) are used to detect even the weakest magnetic field. They are used in mine detection equipment to help in the removal of land mines.

• Time Capsule is a container of any size or shape, which accommodates documents, photos and artefacts typical of the current era and is buried underground, for future generations to unearth. The time capsule requires special engineering so that the contents don’t decay, even if pulled out after a century. Material such as aluminium and stainless steel are used for the encasing, and documents are often reproduced on acid-free paper. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• While the term “time capsule” was coined in the 20th century, among the earliest examples of one dates back to 1777, found by historians inside the statue of Jesus Christ in a church in Spain during restoration work in December 2017. Are there any time capsules in India?
• There have been a number of prominent examples. One time capsule, outside the Red Fort and placed underground in 1972 by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, was dug out by the subsequent government. Other time capsules are at a school in Mumbai, IIT-Kanpur, Lovely Professional University in Jalandhar, and Mahatma Mandir in Gandhinagar.

• Gandhi travelled incessantly during 1929 preparing people for direct political action - telling the youth to prepare for the fiery ordeal, helping to organise constructive work in villages and redressing specific grievances.
• The Working Committee of the Congress in 1929 appointed the following persons with power to co­opt, to constitute the Foreign Cloth Boycott Committee:
  (i) Mahatma Gandhi (Chairman),
  (ii) Motilal Nehru
  (iii) Madan Mohan Malaviya
  (iv) Moulana Abul Kalam Azad
  (v) M.A. Ansari
  (vi) Jawaharlal Nehru
• The Committee was required to formulate a plan to bring about boycott of foreign cloth by advocating and stimulating production and adoption of handspun and handwoven Khaddar. Gandhi initiated the campaign in March 1929 in Calcutta and was arrested. This was followed by bonfires of foreign cloth all over the country.

• Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) was set up under the provision of Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act (TRAI) to adjudicate disputes and dispose of appeals with a view to protect the interests of service providers and consumers of the telecom sector and to promote and ensure orderly growth of the telecom sector. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Composition and Qualification of Members: The Tribunal consists of a Chairperson and two Members appointed by the Central Government. The Chairperson should be or should have been a Judge of the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High Court. A Member should have held the post of Secretary to the Government of India or any equivalent post in the Central Government or the State Government for a period of not less than two years or a person who is well versed in the field of technology, telecommunication, industry, commerce or administration. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Powers and Jurisdiction:
  (i) The Tribunal exercises jurisdiction over Telecom, Broadcasting, IT and Airport tariff matters under the TRAI Act, 1997 (as amended), the Information Technology Act, 2008 and the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008.
  (ii) The Tribunal exercises original as well as appellate jurisdiction in regard to Telecom, Broadcasting, and Airport tariff matters. In regard toCyber matters the Tribunal exercises only the appellate jurisdiction. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• In respect of Telecom, Broadcasting, and Airport tariff matters, the Tribunal’s orders can be appealed to the Supreme Court but only on substantial questions of law. However, no appeal lies against an interlocutory order or against any decision or order made by the Tribunal with the consent of the parties. In regard to Cyber matters, the Tribunal’s order can be appealed before the High Court.

• Koli is performed in Maharashtra. Since the dance is performed by fishermen, it involves elements of fishing and sea. Both men and women are involved in this interesting dance form which is a treat to watch. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Dumhal, the age-old dance, is still kept alive by the Rauf tribe of Jammu & Kashmir and is performed by men who wear long and colorful robes, accompanied by tall conical caps. The performers place a banner into the ground at a fixed location, and the dance is performed around this banner. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Wangala or Wangla is the most popular festival among the Garos tribe residing mainly in (Meghalaya as well as in Nagaland and Assam). This is celebrated after harvest to thank Misi Saljong, the 4Sun God’ and Mini-ma Kiri Rokime, the ‘Goddess of Grains’. This festival is usually celebrated in the month of October or November accompanied by customary rituals, merry making, and dancing for seven consecutive days and nights or till food and drinks last. Dressed in the best of their traditional attires and ornaments, both the young and old males and females in the Garo villages heartily take part in this festival. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.