UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 9 - UPSC MCQ

• Depository is a place where financial securities are held in dematerialised (DEMAT) i.e. in electronic form. It is responsible for maintenance of ownership records and the facilitation of trading in dematerialized securities. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A Depository Participant (DP) is described as an Agent (law) of the depository. They are the intermediaries between the depository and the investors. The relationship between the DPs and the depository is governed by an agreement made between the two under the Depositories Act, 1996.
• A depository eliminates the risk associated with holding physical securities. Earlier, the buyer would have to keep checking if the shares have been transferred safely to his account, and ensure that theft, damage or loss has not happened. After the depository system came about, such risks have been greatly reduced since the shares are held in and transferred in an electronic manner. They also reduce the paperwork involved in trading and fasten the transfer of shares. In 1998, DEMAT or electronic trading was made compulsory for institutional investors, which led to a spike in the overall trading volumes in the Indian market.
• At present, there are only two depositories in India. The Depository Act of 1996 paved the way for the establishment of the two depositories in India, namely National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) which is promoted by the National Stock Exchange, Industrial Development Bank of India and Unit Trust of India among others. The other depository is the Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) which is promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange Bombay Stock Exchange, State Bank of India, Bank of India among others. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India is responsible for the registration, regulation, and inspection of the depository. A depository participant is also answerable to the SEBI. It can be operational only after registration with SEBI post recommendation by NSDL or CDSL. Hence statement2 is correct.

• Recent Context: Parliament passed the Constitution (126th Amendment) Bill, extending reservation for SC/STs but doing away with the provision for the nomination of Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha and some state Assemblies. It was passed as the Constitution (104th Amendment) Act, 2020.
• The term Anglo-Indian first appeared in the Government of India Act, 1935. In the present context, Article 366(2) of the Constitution Of India states: “An Anglo-Indian means a person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established there for temporary purposes only…” Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The number of people who identified themselves as Anglo-Indian was 296, according to the 2011 Census. The All India Anglo-Indian Association, on the other hand, has objected to Law Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad’s claim that the community has just 296 members.
• Provision for nomination of two Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha was made under Article 331 of the Constitution. It says: “Notwithstanding anything in Article 81, the President may, if he is of opinion that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the House of the people, nominate not more than two members of that community to the House of the People.” Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Article 333 deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian community in Legislative Assemblies. It says: “Notwithstanding anything in Article 170, the Governor of a State may, if he is of opinion that the Anglo-Indian community needs representation in the Legislative Assembly of the State and is not adequately represented therein, nominate one member of that community to the Assembly.”
• Currently, some Assemblies have one Anglo-Indian member each: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand and West Bengal. The 104th Amendment does away with this as well. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• According to the 10th Schedule of the Constitution, Anglo-Indian members of Lok Sabha and state Assemblies can take the membership of any party within six months of their nomination. But, once they do so, they are bound by their party whip. The Anglo-Indian members enjoy the same powers as others, but they cannot vote in the Presidential election because they are nominated by the President.

• The special characteristics that enable plants and animals to be successful in a particular environment are called adaptations.
• Epiphytes are plants that live on the surface of other plants, especially the trunk and branches. They grow on trees to take advantage of the sunlight in the canopy. Most are orchids, bromeliads, ferns, and Philodendron relatives. Tiny plants called epiphytes, mostly mosses, liverworts and lichens, live on the surface of leaves.
• The leaves of many rainforest plants have drip tips for these enable raindrops to run off quickly. Plants need to shed water to avoid the growth of fungus and bacteria in the warm, wet tropical rainforest.
• Many large trees have massive ridges near the base that can rise 30 feet high before blending into the trunk. Buttress roots provide extra stability, especially since roots of tropical rainforest trees are not typically as deep as those of trees in temperate zones. Prop and stilt roots help give support and are characteristic of tropical palms growing in shallow, wet soils. Although the tree grows fairly slowly, the sea bove-ground roots can grow 28 inches a month.
• In drier, temperate deciduous forests a thick bark helps to limit moisture evaporation from the tree's trunk. Since this is not a concern in the high humidity of tropical rainforests, most trees have thin, smooth bark. The smoothness of the bark may also make it difficult for other plants to grow on their surface.
• Hence all the options are correct.

• The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
(i) An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
(ii) The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
(iii) The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than50 percent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
(iv) Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
(v) If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
(vi) After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
(vii) The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
(viii) After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
• The amendment to the following provisions requires a special majority of the Parliament and also the consent of half of the state legislatures:
(i) Election of the President and its manner.
(ii) The extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
(iii) Supreme Court and high courts.
(iv) Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
(v) Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
(vi) Representation of states in Parliament.
(vii) Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

• SCs & STs Identification: On the basis of the 1931 census that the British government had conducted, the Government of India 1935 Act was promulgated. The reservation for the “Depressed Classes” was incorporated into the act, which came into force in 1937. This “Depressed class” later came to known as the Scheduled Caste.
• Scheduled Tribe were the ‘tribes or communities’ who were isolated from the rest of the communities and wouldn’t abide by any religion. The British government in 1935 identified the 'Schedule of Tribes' which consisted of different types of indigenous tribal groups i.e. Denotified Tribes, Criminal Tribes, Forest Dwellers etc.
• By 1937 both the section were given positive affirmative action rights and political representation. After India got its independence, the Constitution continued affirmative action for the ‘depressed class’ which were now termed as 'Scheduled Caste' and 'Scheduled Tribe'.
• According to the Constitution of India, under Article 341(1) the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Article 341(2) provides that the Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) of Article 341 any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Accordingly, the President has notified the Scheduled Castes in the order called ‘Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950’ and the ‘Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes List (Modification) Order 1956’.
• Only proposals agreed by both the Registrar General of India and the National Commission for Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes are introduced as a Bill in Parliament. This procedure was adopted by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in 1999 and was amended in 2002. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The order was called the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950. The complete list of castes and tribes was made on the order of 1950 which had certain norms and criteria for inclusion of other communities later. However, the Scheduled tribe list was put in updation due to partition as it was very difficult to identify tribals as they were geographically isolated. Thus, the list of Scheduled tribe was completely updated by 1958 with 744 enlisted tribes.
• Part 3 of the Presidential Order of 1950 states that “no person who professes a religion different from the Hindu (the Sikh or the Buddhist) religion shall be deemed to be a member of a Scheduled Caste.”

• It is a situation where the banking institution denies credit to the borrowers who want funds and are willing to pay a higher interest rate is called a credit rationing. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• This situation arises because of market imperfection or market failure as in spite of a demand for funds at a current rate the lender is not either willing to loan more funds or increase the interest rates.
• Credit rationing is often applied in the situations where there is a shortage of institutional credit available for the business sector, the big and financially strong institutes try to capture a larger portion of the institutional credit. As a result of this, the priority sector often the weaker, but essential industries are deprived of necessary funds, mainly because the bank credit is given to the non-priority sectors.
• In order to control this situation, the central bank resorts to credit rationing measures.
• Typically, three measures are adopted:
(i) Imposing an upper limit on the credit available to the big firms or industries. Beyond this upper limit, any further sanction of the loan is denied.
(ii) Charging a higher and progressive interest rate on the loan amount after a certain limit.
(iii) Offering credit to the weaker sectors at lower internal rates.

• When in an economy aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply at full employment level, i.e. the production is more than the demand, the demand is said to be deficient demand and the gap is called deflationary gap. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Causes of the deflationary gap are:
(i) Fall in aggregate demand (AD) due to:✓ Fall in exports (global recession)✓ Fall in investment (due to a banking collapse and credit crunch)✓ Fall in consumer spending (e.g. higher interest rates, falling wages.). Hence options 1 and 2 are correct.
(ii) Economic growth well below the average trend rate of growth (AD increasing at a slower rate than productive capacity).
• Impact of deflationary gap:
(i) Rising Unemployment: We will get demand-deficient unemployment and possibly higher structural unemployment.
(ii) Low/negative rates of economic growth.
(iii) Negative impact on the government’s budget: With lower economic growth, the government will receive lower tax revenue and lower government spending.
(iv) Low rates of inflation/disinflation: Possibly deflation. With a deflationary gap, firms have excess capacity, this tends to put downward pressure on prices and wages.

• The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool of countries’ climate protection performance. Germanwatch, the New Climate Institute and the Climate Action Network publish the Index annually. CCPI assigns scores to countries on four parameters, namely “GHG Emissions” (assigned 40 per cent of the overall score), “Renewable Energy” (20 per cent), “Energy Use” (20 per cent), and “Climate Policy” (20 per cent).
• Ranked ninth, India broke into the top ten countries for the first time this year. The report rates the country’s 2030 mitigation targets as high on ambition, and praises its 2030 energy targets as one of the very few compatible with limiting global mean temperature rise to less than 2 degrees Celsius (°C).
• Germanwatch is a non-profit, non-governmental organization based in Bonn, Germany. It seeks to influence public policy on trade, the environment, and relations between countries in the industrialized north and underdeveloped south.
• The Climate Action Network (CAN) is a worldwide network of over 1300 Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) in more than 120 countries, working to promote government and individual action to limit human-induced climate change to ecologically sustainable levels.
• New Climate Institute supports research and implementation of action against climate change around the globe. Its flagship projects include the Climate Action Tracker and ACT2015. The Agreement for Climate Transformation (ACT 2015) was a WRI-led consortium that developed a proposal for the design of an international climate agreement to catalyze climate action and move the world onto a low-carbon and climate-resilient pathway.

• Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform the official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The writ of mandamus cannot be issued (a) against a private individual or body; (b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force; (c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory; (d) to enforce a contractual obligation; (e) against the president of India or the state governors; and (f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• Prohibition, literally, means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus, unlike mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. Hence option 1 is not correct.

• ‘Pathalgadi’ literally means carving a stone - it is an ancient tradition in the tribal communities of Jharkhand. Adivasis usually erected engraved stones to mark the birth or death of a person.
• The state government of Jharkhand tried to amend the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 and Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act, 1876 to facilitate easier land acquisition norms which however added to the problem for the tribal community. However, these amendments were withdrawn later on. These decisions gave rise to the Pathalgarhi incidents in the tribal belt demanding implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and provisions of the Panchayats (Extension of Scheduled Areas) Act(PESA), 1996.
• Pathalgadi, having its origin in a resistance movement by tribals during British rule, is a practice of raising huge stone plaques at village outskirts with warnings to outsiders not to enter and declaring the gram sabha, or village council, the only sovereign authority. Pathalgadi movement is associated with the Mundatribal community. They had started Pathalgadi by engraving these PESA provisions in all the villages of Jharkhand to increase awareness among the tribal people about their rights. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 also called the East India Company Act, 1784 was passed by the British Parliament to correct the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773.
• This act made a distinction between the commercial and political activities of the East India Company. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• For political matters, the Board of Control was created and for commercial affairs, the Court of Directors was appointed resulting in dual control of British possessions in India.
• The Court of Directors retained the power to appoint its principal servants in India like governor-general, governors, etc., but only with the approval of the crown. Hence statement 3 is correct
• The Governor-General’s council’s strength was reduced to three members. One of the three would be the Commander-in-Chief of the British Crown’s army in India.
• The Presidencies of Madras and Bombay became subordinate to the Bengal Presidency. In effect, Calcutta became the capital of the British possessions in India.
• For the first time, the term ‘British possessions in India’ was used.
• Drawbacks:
(i) The Governor-General had to serve two masters i.e. East India Company and the British Crown
(ii) There were no clear boundaries between the responsibilities of the Board of Control and the Court of Directors of the company. The Governor-General had to take on the spot decisions exercising his discretion.
(iii) Governor-general has no clear right to use the army, as commander-in-chief was a government appointee for the same purpose.
• An amending act of 1786 corrected these anomalies:
(i) It gave veto power to the governor-general of Bengal.
(ii) It also combined the offices of the governor-general of Bengal and Commander-in-chief. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Recent context: Northern European Enclosure Dam (NEED) enclosing all of the North Sea. The protection efforts that are required, if mitigation efforts fail to limit sea-level rise.
• The North Sea - a part of the Atlantic Ocean - is bordered by Norway and Denmark, Scotland and England, (and in the southeast) by the Frisian Islands and Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France.
• Above the Shetland Islands in the north, its waters merge with the Norwegian Sea.
• Waters flow east-to-west into the North Sea through the Skagerrak Strait, an outlet to the Atlantic Ocean from the Baltic Sea.
• Along the southern reaches of the North Sea, waters from the Atlantic Ocean flow through the English Channel and on into the North Sea through the Strait of Dover.
• The Kiel Canal in northern Germany is one of the world's busiest artificial waterways.

• The Prime Minister of India released the results of the fourth cycle of All India Tiger Estimation - 2018on the occasion of Global Tiger Day-2019 in June 2019.• India has achieved the target of doubling the tiger count four years ahead of the deadline of 2022. This is by far the biggest increase in Tiger count in terms of both numbers and percentage since the four-yearly census (and not quinquennial i.e. after every five years) using camera traps and the capture-mark-recapture method began in 2006. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The 2018 census is not focused on the counting of the tigers alone. Even in the census of 2014, the census had recorded the inaugural counting of the population of India’s leopard, which was 11,000 in numbers. Proceeding further with the same approach the 2018 census also estimated the number of various carnivores like leopards, ungulates and other animals of India’s forests.
• India’s five tiger landscapes are Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains, Central Indian Landscape and Eastern Ghats, the Western Ghats, North-East Hills and Brahmaputra Plains, and the Sundarbans.

Key highlights
• Around 40% of India’s estimated 2,226 tigers (2014 census) live outside the core areas of tiger habitats. These tigers are vulnerable to poaching and come into conflict with humans.
• Top Performers: Madhya Pradesh saw the highest number of tigers (526) followed by Karnataka (524) and Uttarakhand (442). Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Other Facts:
(i) There are 4 States (M.P., Karnataka, Uttarakhand & Maharashtra) with more than 300 Tigers.
(ii) Buxa, Dampa and Palamau Tiger Reserves do not have a single tiger now. Hence statement 3 is notcorrect.
(iii) No Tigers were found in Mizoram state.
(iv) Tiger Sanctuaries:✓ Madhya Pradesh's Pench Sanctuary and Kerala’s Periyar sanctuary emerged as the bestmanagedtiger reserves in the country.✓ Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu registered the “maximum improvement” since2014.✓ The Dampa and Rajaji reserves, in Mizoram and Uttarakhand respectively are at the bottom of the list in terms of Tiger count.✓ No tiger has been found in the Buxa (West Bengal), Palamau (Jharkhand)and Dampa (Mizoram) reserves.
• Importance of Fourth Tiger Census 2018:
(i) This 2018 tiger census uses more technology including a mobile app named “MSTrIPES” for the very first time to store information of the counting. Another primary focus of the tiger census 2018is to cover the northeast India that was not included in the previous census. For the very first time, three neighboring countries Bhutan, Nepal and Bangladesh are helping in counting the number of tigers all across India, especially in the region with mutual borders.

• Balshastri Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay; he attacked brahminical orthodoxy and tried to reform popular Hinduism.
• He started the newspaper Darpan in 1832. He is known as the father of Marathi journalism. In 1840, he started Digdarshan which published articles on scientific subjects as well as history.
• Jambhekar founded the Bombay Native General Library and started the Native Improvement Society of which an offshoot was the Students Literary and Scientific Library.
• He was the first professor of Hindi at the Elphinston College, besides being a director of the Colaba Observatory.

• Recent Context: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has pulled up 14 thermal power plants for not complying with a December 31, 2019 deadline to limit sulfur dioxide emissions. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF & CC) vide Notification dated 7.12.2015 has brought out new emission norms for thermal power stations. To meet the new emission norms, the installation of flue gas desulphurization (FGD) system has become essential in new as well as existing thermal power plants. NTPC also plans to install flue-gas desulphurization (FGD) units at all of its power stations. Central Electricity Authority, as an apex body in the power sector, has brought out a standard technical specification of the FGD system which can be used as a guiding document by the utilities for installation of the FGD system in their power plants.
• Flue gas (sometimes called exhaust gas or stack gas) is the gas that emanates from combustion plants and which contains the reaction products of fuel and combustion air and residual substances such as particulate matter (dust), sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides, and carbon monoxide. The composition of flue gas depends upon the composition and properties of the fuel being combusted. For example, flue gas produced by the combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal and crude oil can contain a significant amount of sulfur derivatives.
• FGD is a system that reduces the SOx in flue gas through chemical treatment and converting the captured SOx into a by-product such as a Gypsum or Calcium Sulphate or Sulphuric Acid depending upon the type of mechanism used. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A flue gas desulfurization technique known as SNOx , uses catalytic reactions to clean flue gases of nitrogen oxides (NOx) and particulates, as well as sulfur dioxide.
• The major types of large-scale, power plant FGD systems include spray towers, spray dryers and dry sorbent injection systems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• About Dry Sorbent Injection (DSI) system: It is a pollution control system for the reduction of Sox (SO2, SO3), HCl and heavy metals like mercury. It is a dry process in which a sorbent (a material used to absorb or adsorb liquids or gases) is injected into the coal-fired boiler where it interacts with various pollutants like SOx, HCl and the resultant dry waste is removed via either an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) or a fabric filter bag house.
(i) It offers various advantages in comparison to traditional acid gas scrubber technology such as: lower capital cost, wide range of favourable operation conditions, and much lesser time for completing installation and commissioning.
(ii) CPCB has asked coal-fired thermal plants to comply with the environmental norms by December 31,2019 and NTPC’s power plant in Dadri is the first in the India to opt for DSI System.

• Recently, a survey was conducted by Nutrition International in collaboration with the All India Institute of Medical Sciences and the Indian Coalition for the Control of Iodine Deficiency Disorders (ICCIDD).
• The survey tested the iodine content in samples of cooking salt from households to estimate the coverage of iodized salt.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The study shows that 76.3% of Indian households consumed adequately iodized salt, which is salt with at least 15 parts per million of iodine. The five worst performers were Tamil Nadu (61.9%), Andhra Pradesh (63.9%), Rajasthan (65.5%), Odisha (65.8%) and Jharkhand (68.8%).
• Gujarat produces 71% of salt in the country, followed by Rajasthan at 17% and Tamil Nadu at11%. The rest of the country accounts for a mere 1% of the salt produced. As per the survey, Jammu and Kashmir (now Union Territory) is at the top with respect to iodized salt consumption at the household level (99.80%). Followed by northeastern States that are doing very well with respect to iodised salt consumption at the household level.
• India made fortification of salt with iodine mandatory for direct human consumption in 1992. This was relaxed in 2000 and then reimposed in 2005. In 2011, the SC, too, mandated universal iodization for the control of iodine deficiencies.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Salt Organization is responsible for monitoring production, distribution and supply of salt. The organization is a nodal agency for monitoring production, distribution, and quality of iodised salt under the National Iodine deficiency control programme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The other functions of the organization include price surveillance, promotion of technological development, maintenance of standards and quality improvement of salt, planning, formulation and monitoring the execution of development and labor welfare schemes, custody and superintendence of departmental salt and other assets, promotion of exports, pre-shipment inspection and rehabilitation of salt works affected by the natural calamities.
• The Salt Commissioner’s organization with its headquarters at Jaipur is headed by the Salt Commissioner, who is assisted by two Assistant Salt Commissioners and other supporting staff. There are four regional offices functioning at Chennai, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, and Jaipur, besides field offices in all the salt producing states.

• The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. In other words, the district judge is also the sessions judge. When he deals with civil cases, he is known as the district judge and when he hears the criminal cases, he is called the sessions judge.
• The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Appeals against his orders and judgments lie to the High Court. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Carnatic music is a system of music associated with the southern part of the Indian subcontinent. Hindustani music is associated with North India and is deeply influenced by the Persian and Islamic music systems.
• Similarities between Hindustani and Carnatic music:
(i) Although there are stylistic differences, the basic elements of Swara, raga, and tala as the foundation of both Carnatic and Hindustani are the same.
(ii) Hindustani music originated in the Vedic period, while Carnatic music originated during the Bhakti movement. Thus both are having a great association with religion. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
(iii) Both the music evolved with Sanskrit language scripts in itself and through Vedic traditions.
• Key differences between the Hindustani and Carnatic systems are:
(i) Hindustani music is raga based while Carnatic is Kriti-based.
(ii) Hindustani music stresses pure notes versus the gamaka-based Carnatic ragas.
(iii) Raga essays (alapanas) are elaborated from note to note in Hindustani and from phrase to phrase in Carnatic.o Hindustani has a separate repertoire for instrumental and vocal while Carnatic instrumentalists till recently played the same Kriti-based compositions as the vocalists did.
(iv) The sarangi is a major accompaniment in Hindustani, while the violin reigns in Carnatic. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• While some classical dance is accompanied by Hindustani music, Other classical dances adopt a pure form of Carnatic music. For example, Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dance use pure Carnatic music for performance, while Kathak uses a pure form of Hindustani music. Hence it is wrong to say that a combination of Carnatic and Hindustani is used across all classical dance forms. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Ocean currents are large masses of surface water that circulate in regular patterns around the oceans. Those that flow from equatorial regions poleward have a higher surface temperature and are warm currents. Those that flow from polars regions equator ward have a lower temperature and are cold currents.
• The earth rotation deflects freely moving objects, including oceans currents to the right. In the northern hemisphere, this is a clockwise direction (e.g. The circulation of Gulf Stream Drift and canaries current).In the southern hemisphere, it is an anti-clock direction (e.g. The Brazilian current and the West Wind Drift). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Counter equatorial current:
(i) It is an eastward flowing current found in the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans. Hence statement2 is not correct.
(ii) It is found in between the North Equatorial and South Equatorial Currents at about 3-10 degrees northern latitudes.
(iii) This counter-current replaces the water removed from the eastern side of the ocean by the North Equatorial and South Equatorial Currents.
(iv) In the Indian Ocean, the current tends to reverse hemispheres seasonally due to the impact of reversing Asian monsoons.
(v) In the lower latitudes, the warm currents flow on the eastern shores and cold on the western shores. Hence statement 3 is correct.
(vi) The situation is reversed in the higher latitudes. The warm currents move along the western shores and the cold currents along the eastern shores.

• Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests. In modern society, these problems have been tackle increasingly by the use of chemicals – by use of insecticides and pesticides.
• These chemicals are toxic and extremely harmful, to human beings and animals alike, and have been polluting our environment (soil, groundwater), fruits, vegetables and crop plants.
• The beetle with red and black markings – the ladybird, and dragonflies are useful to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes, respectively. An example of microbial biocontrol agents that can be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillusthuringiensis (often written as Bt).
• A biological control being developed for use in the treatment of plant disease is the fungus Trichoderma. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems. They are effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens.
• Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. The majority of baculoviruses used as biological control agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedro virus. These viruses are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications. They have been shown to have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target insects. This is especially desirable when beneficial insects are being conserved to aid in overall integrated pest management (IPM) programme, or when an ecologically sensitive area is being treated.
• Hence all the options are correct.

Several religious groups that emerged during the period of the thirteenth to seventeenth-century criticised the ritual and other aspects of conventional religion and the social order, using simple, logical arguments. Among them were the Nath panthis, Siddhacharas and Yogis. All of them advocated renunciation of the world. So, statement 1 is correct.
To them, the path to salvation lay in meditation on the formless Ultimate Reality and the realisation of oneness with it. To achieve this, they advocated intense training of the mind and body through practices like yogasanas, breathing exercises and meditation. So, statement 2 is correct.
These groups became particularly popular among “low” castes. So, statement 3 is not correct. Bhakti saint-poets rejected all forms of ritualism, outward display of piety and social differences based on birth. Most of them even rejected the idea of renunciation and preferred to live with their families, earning their livelihood like any other person, while humbly serving fellow human beings in need. A new humanist idea emerged as they insisted that bhakti lay in sharing others’ pain. However, it was not the Nath panthis, Yogis and Siddhas who focussed on sharing pain. So, statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

The state legislature occupies a pre-eminent and central position in the political system of a state. Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the state legislature. Accordingly, states may have a bicameral or unicameral setting. Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system. At present (2019), only six states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. Hence there exists no uniformity in the organisation of state legislatures. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. According to Article 168 the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect by special majority. This Act of Parliament is not deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed as an ordinary piece of legislation (i.e., by simple majority). So, Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

India, as a country, is tagged with ‘serious’ level of hunger in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2019. Apart from poverty, one of the primary reasons for children being undernourished in the country is that often their mothers are undernourished, this is because of low women empowerment in India. The link between sanitation and under-nutrition is very strong. Districts with low levels of access to toilets have much higher rates of child undernourishment compared to districts with relatively high levels of access to toilets. Because of poor dietary habits and more intakes of carbohydrates, there is a prevalence of hidden hunger in India. So, all the options given are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Anabaena is a genus of filamentous cyanobacteria that exist as plankton. They are known for their nitrogen-fixing ability, and they form symbiotic relationships with certain plants, such as the mosquito fern. Anabena is capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions (inorganic compounds usable by plants). More than 90 per cent of all nitrogen fixation is affected by these organisms, which thus play an important role in the nitrogen cycle. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Nitrosomonas is a genus of Gram-negative, rod-shaped chemoautotrophic bacteria. This organism oxidizes ammonia into nitrite as a metabolic process. Nitrosomonas are useful in bioremediation. They are important in the nitrogen cycle by increasing the availability of nitrogen to plants while limiting carbon dioxide fixation. The genus is found in soil, freshwater, and on building surfaces. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Nitrobacter is a genus comprising rod-shaped, Gram-negative, and chemoautotrophic bacteria. Nitrobacter plays an important role in the nitrogen cycle by oxidizing nitrite into nitrate in soil and marine systems. Unlike plants, where electron transfer in photosynthesis provides the energy for carbon fixation, Nitrobacter uses energy from the oxidation of nitrite ions, NO2−, into nitrate ions, NO3−, to fulfil their energy needs. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. One of the most important temples is Pandrethan, built during the eighth and ninth centuries C.E. In keeping with the tradition of a water tank attached to the shrine, this temple is built on a plinth built in the middle of a tank. Although there was evidence of both Hindu and Buddhist followings in Kashmir, this temple is a Hindu one, possibly dedicated to Shiva. The architecture of this temple is in keeping with the age-old Kashmiri tradition of wooden buildings. Due to the snowy conditions in Kashmir, the roof is peaked and slants slowly outward. Therefore, the correct answer is (d)

As per Article 243D of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act: Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020) • Not less than one third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) shall be reserved for women. So, statement 1 is correct
• Seats shall be reserved out of the total seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, in every Panchayat in proportion to their population. So, statement 2 is not correct
• Not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for SC/ST’s shall be reserved for women belonging, to the SC/ST’s. So, statement 3 is correct.
• Offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats at the village or any other level shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes the Scheduled Tribes and women in such manner as the Legislature of a State may provide.
• The legislature of a State may make provision for reservation of seats in any Panchayat or offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at any level in favour of a backward class of citizens.
• Not less than one-third of the total number of offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women. So, statement 4 is correct Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Tax Buoyancy simply measures the actual or observed change in tax revenue relative to GDP. Therefore, Tax Buoyancy=Proportionate change in tax revenue/Proportionate change in GDP. So, statement 1 is not correct.
A tax is buoyant when revenues increase by more than, say, 1 % for a 1 % increase in GDP. Tax elasticity is the responsiveness of tax revenue to changes in the tax rate. For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 25 % to 22 % indicate tax elasticity. The direct tax to GDP ratio touched a 3-year low in FY20. The tax buoyancy fell to an 18-year low on account of corporation tax rate cuts and slowdown. The Budget assumes a tax buoyancy of 1.2 for 2020-21 compared to 0.5 (FY20 RE) and 0.8 (FY19) over the last two years. So, statement 2 is correct.
Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes. As the economy grows fast, the additional income generated may go to the rich group. A part of that they have to pay to the government in the form of taxes. So if the GDP growth rate registers high growth, say nine percent, direct income tax collection will accelerate. Generally, direct taxes are more sensitive to GDP growth rate. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Gene pool centres refers to areas on the Earth where important crop plants and domestic animals originated. They have an extraordinary range of the wild counterparts of cultivated plant species and useful tropical plants.
Major Gene Centres: 1) Mediterranean Gene Centre 2) South American Gene Centre 3) South West and Middle East 4) African Gene Centre 5) South American and Central American gene centre 6) Indian Gene centre i. Indus ii. South Asian: Includes Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Myanmar 7) Central Asian Gene centre 8) East Asia Gene centres Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020) Having recourse to genetic material is essential to adapt and improve agriculture in the face of threats, such as diseases or warming climate that can alter growing conditions. Thus, gene pool conservation is important for sustainable development.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Escherichia Coli is a bacterium that is commonly found in the gut of humans and other warm-blooded animals. While most strains are harmless, some species have been linked to intestinal disease as well as aggravating antibiotic resistance. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) is a bacterium that can cause severe food borne diseases. Escherichia Coli infection is usually transmitted through the consumption of contaminated water or food, such as undercooked meat products and raw milk. So, statement 2 is correct.
Due to the infection, common symptoms include abdominal cramps and diarrhoea, which may be bloody. Fever and vomiting may also occur. Most patients recover within 10 days, although in a few cases the disease may become life-threatening. Recently, the government has commissioned a Rs. 9.3 crore study to assess the microbial diversity along the entire length of river Ganga and to check antibiotic resistance in it. The research project aims to indicate the type of “contamination” (sewage and industrial) in the river and “threat to human health (antibiotic resistance surge)”, and to identify the sources of Escherichia coli. The project will be undertaken by scientists at the Motilal Nehru Institute of Technology, Allahabad; the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur; Sardar Patel Institute of Science & Technology, Gorakhpur, as well as start-up companies, Phixgen and Xcelris Labs. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).