UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - UPSC MCQ

It catered to all castes and provided the destitute women with education, and medical and welfare services. It was Dev Samaj (Dev Dharma) which was founded in 1887 at Lahore by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri. Dev Samaj is a religious and social reform society which emphasised on the eternity of the soul, the supremacy of the guru, and the need for good action. So, both statements are not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests. They are spread over regions which receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. Based on the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.

So, statement 1 is not correct. Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests are found on the western slopes of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22 0C. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by a tall variety of trees.

In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. As such these forests appear green all the year-round. The species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony, etc. The semi-evergreen forests are found in the less rainy parts of these regions. Such forests have a mixture of evergreen and moist deciduous trees. The under growing climbers provide an evergreen character to these forests. Main species are white cedar, hollock and kail. So, statement 2 is correct

The Indian Association was the most important of pre-Congress associations and aimed to “promote by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of the people.”

It set out to—

(i) create a strong public opinion on political questions, and

(ii) unify Indian people in a common political programme. It protested against the reduction of the age limit in 1877 for candidates of the Indian Civil Service examination.

The Association demanded simultaneous holding of civil service examinations in England and India and Indianisation of higher administrative posts. It led a campaign against the Repressive Arms Act and the Vernacular Press Act.

The right to property as a legal right (as distinct from the Fundamental Rights) has the following implications:

a) It can be regulated i.e., curtailed, abridged or modified without a constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.

b) It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action. So, statement 1 is not correct.

c) In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move the Supreme Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement. He can move the High Court under Article 226. So, statement 2 is not correct.

d) No guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of the private property by the State. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

• Researchers have found that a species of brittle stars, which are relatives of starfish can see, even though it does not have eyes.

• The red brittle star (Ophiocoma wendtii), which lives in the coral reefs of the Caribbean Sea, becomes only the second creature, after a sea urchin species, known to have this ability.

What facilitates vision?

• In sea urchins and brittle stars, researchers suspect that extra ocular vision is facilitated by the photoreceptor cells found on their bodies.

• Another peculiar feature of the red brittle star is its signature colour change. While the creature is deep red during the day, it changes its colour to beige at night.

• The researchers think that there may be a link between their extra ocular vision and colour changing abilities since the responses they saw in the creatures tested during the day, disappeared in those that were tested at night.

• Infant Mortality Rate is the number of deaths of children under 1 year of age per one thousand live births.

• In recent years, India’s IMR has declined by 15.4%. Enrich Your Learning: Infant mortality rate (IMR):

• Infant Mortality Rate or IMR is the number of deaths of children under 1 year of age per one thousand live births.

• 99% of deaths of infants take place in developing nations.

• Among these, 86% are caused due to premature births, infections, delivery complications, birth injuries and perinatal asphyxia.

• The infant mortality rate (IMR) in India currently stands at 33 per 1,000 live births.

• Between 2014 and 2017, India’s IMR has declined by 15.4%. Reasons:

• The major causes of infant mortality are sudden infant death syndrome, malformations, accidents, maternal complications during the pregnancy and unintentional injuries and availability of basic medical resources.

• Other factors include lack of education in the mother, malnutrition (more than half of Indian women are anaemic), age of the mother at the time of birth, spacing, and whether the child is born at home or in a facility. Statistics:

• According to UNICEF, the infant and under- five mortality rates are highest among mothers under age 20.

• The rates are lowest among children born to mothers between the ages of 20-24, remain low up to 25-34, and increase again after that age.

• Children born to mothers with at least 8 years of schooling have lesser chances of dying in the neonatal period and post-neonatal period, as compared to the illiterate mothers.

• ATT does not place restrictions on the types or quantities of arms that may be bought, sold, or possessed by states.

• India has not signed the treaty. Enrich Your Learning: Arms Trade Treaty (ATT):

• The Arms Trade Treaty was approved by vote at the 67th UN General Assembly in 2013, came into effect in 2014 and 104 countries have ratified it so far.

Objective:

• The Treaty seeks to regulate the international trade in conventional arms (from small arms to battle tanks, combat aircraft and warships).

• It is an attempt to regulate the international trade of conventional weapons for the purpose of contributing to international and regional peace; reducing human suffering; and promoting co- operation, transparency, and responsible action by and among states.

Conditions:

• It requires member countries to keep records of international transfers of weapons and to prohibit cross-border shipments that can be used in human rights violations or attacks on civilians.

• The treaty establishes common standards for the international trade of conventional weapons and seeks to reduce the illicit arms trade.

• ATT does not place restrictions on the types or quantities of arms that may be bought, sold, or possessed by states.

• Further, it does not impact a state’s domestic gun control laws or other firearm ownership policies.

Status Quo:

• India has not signed the treaty.

• The US has quit the treaty recently in April 2019.

Enrich Your Learning: Article 368 of the Indian constitution provides for two types of amendments:

• by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states.

• Special Majority: Majority of the provisions are needed to be amended by a special majority of the Parliament, which means- a majority (more than 50%) of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting.

By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States:

• The provisions of the Constitution related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

• It does not matter if one or some or all the remaining states take no action on the bill, the moment half of the states give their consent, the amendment gets way ahead.

• However, there is no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.

The following provisions can be amended in this way:

• Election of the President and its manner.

• Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.

• Supreme Court and high courts.

• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.

• Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.

• Representation of states in Parliament.

• Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

• A non-member may be appointed as a minister, but he/she will have to get elected to either house within six months.

• The ministers take the oath of secrecy before entering their office administered by the President. Enrich Your Learning: The features or principles of parliamentary government in India are:

1. Nominal and Real Executives:

• The President is the nominal executive while the Prime Minister is the real executive.

• The President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government.

• Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.

• The advice so tendered is binding on the President.

2. Majority Party Rule:

• The party with majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government.

• The leader of the party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.

• Other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the PM.

• When no single party gets the majority, then the President invites a coalition of parties to form the government.

3. Collective Responsibility:

• In general, the ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75).

• The principle of collective responsibility means that Lok Sabha can remove the council of ministers headed by the PM from the office by passing a vote of no confidence.

4. Political Homogeneity:

• The members of the council of ministers generally belong to the same political party, and hence share the same political ideology.

• In the case of a coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus.

5. Double Membership:

• A person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament i.e. the ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.

• A minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months’ ceases to be a minister.

• It means a non-member may be appointed as a minister, but he/she will have to get elected to either house within six months.

6. Leadership of the Prime Minister:

• The PM is the leader of the council of ministers, leader of the Parliament and leader of the party in power.

7. Dissolution of the Lower House:

• Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister.

• The executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system.

8. Secrecy:

• The ministers take the oath of secrecy before entering their office information, about their proceedings, policies and decisions, administered by the President.

Hence, statement 1 is correct. He is regarded as the outstanding creative artist of modern India and hailed by W.B Yeats, Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali poet, novelist, and painter, who was highly influential in introducing Indian culture to the west. He was a good friend of Mahatma Gandhi and is said to have given him the title of Mahatma.

Hence, statement 2 is correct. He had always stressed that unity in diversity is the only possible way for India’s national integration. He had spoken at the World Parliament for Religions in the years 1929 and 1937.

Contributions: He is said to have composed over 2000 songs and his songs and music are called ‘Rabindra Sangeet’ with its own distinct lyrical and fluid style. He is responsible for modernising Bengali prose and poetry. His notable works include Gitanjali, Ghare-Baire, Gora, Manasi, Balaka, Sonar Tori, He is also remembered for his song ‘Ekla Chalo Re’.

Hence, statement 3 is correct. He published his first poems aged 16 under the pen name ‘Bhanusimha’. He not only gave the national anthems for two countries, India and Bangladesh, but also inspired a Ceylonese student of his, to pen and compose the national anthem of Sri Lanka.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The CDRI Secretariat is based in New Delhi, India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Carbon dioxide measured at the Mauna Loa Atmospheric Baseline Observatory, Hawaii, run by the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), peaked for 2022 at 421 parts per million in May.

Three out of every four river monitoring stations in India posted alarming levels of heavy toxic metals such as lead, iron, nickel, cadmium, arsenic, chromium and copper. State of Environment Report 2022 from the environmental NGO, the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE). The report is an annual compendium of environment-development data and is derived from public sources.

India has 764 river quality monitoring stations across 28 states. Of these, the Central Water Commission tested water samples from 688 stations for heavy metals between August 2018 and December 2020. Of the 588 water quality stations monitored for pollution, total coliform and biochemical oxygen demand were high in 239 and 88 stations across 21 States - an indicator of poor wastewater treatment from industry, agriculture and domestic households.

The Chilika Lake, Asia’s largest brackish water lagoon, has 176 fishing cats, according to a census conducted by Chilika Development Authority (CDA) in collaboration with The Fishing Cat Project (TFCP). This is the world’s first population estimation of the fishing cat, which has been conducted outside the protected area network.

A total of 150 camera traps were deployed in two phases with each fixed in the field for 30 days. Spatially Explicit Capture Recapture (SECR) method was used to analyse the data. Spatially explicit capture–recapture (SECR or SCR) is used to estimate the density of an animal population from capture–recapture data collected using an array of 'detectors'.

So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct. These soils are normally heavy and black in colour. At many places, they are alkaline also. It occurs widely in the northern part of Bihar, the southern part of Uttarakhand and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha and Tamil Nadu. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is b.

• They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.

• They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of time and requirements of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition vary from time to time. So, statement 1 is not correct.

• They are of two types - Standing and Ad-hoc. The former is permanent while the latter is temporary. The Ad-hoc Committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed.

• Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-Cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership. They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers. So, statement 2 is not correct.

• They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers, particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also act as their Chairman. But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a Committee, he invariably presides over it. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

The Reserve Deposit Ratio: Banks hold a part of the money people keep in their bank deposits as reserve money and loan out the rest to various investment projects. Reserve money consists of two things – vault cash in banks and deposits of commercial banks with RBI. Banks use this reserve to meet the demand for cash by account holders.

Reserve Deposit Ratio (RDR) is the proportion of the total deposits commercial banks keep as reserves. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c. The Committee soon established contacts with Indian revolutionaries, including Bagha Jatin. They visited armament and explosives factories to identify war material and met with Indian prisoners- of-war held in Germany to recruit them to the nationalist cause. Lala Har Dayal, who had fled to Germany after his arrest in the United States, was convinced to lend his support to the Committee's cause. They established contacts with the Ghadarite Movement in the United States. The Indian revolutionaries in Europe sent missions to Baghdad, Persia, Turkey and Kabul to work among Indian troops and the Indian prisoners of war (POWs) and to incite anti-British feelings among the people of these countries. It created an Indo-German-Turkish mission to the Indo-Iranian border to encourage the tribes to strike against British interests.

Although the Amir of Afghanistan did not commit to the group, they found support amongst Amir's immediate and close political and religious advisory group. In 1916, the Berlin Committee established the Provisional Government of India in Kabul. Its formation infers the seriousness of intention and purpose of the revolutionaries. The government had Raja Mahendra Pratap as President, Barkatullah as Prime Minister, Ubaid al Sindhi as the Minister for India, Maulavi Bashir as War Minister and Champakaran Pillai as Foreign Minister. It tried to gain support from the Russian Empire, Republican China, and Japan. Galib Pasha joined them in proclaiming jihad against Britain.

In 1918, Pratap met the Russian leader Leon Trotsky in Petrograd before meeting the Kaiser in Berlin; he urged both to mobilise against British India. Under pressure from the British, the Afghans withdrew their cooperation and the mission closed down. The Committee was formally disbanded in late 1918, with most of the members shifting their attention to nascent Soviet Russia. Between 1917 and 1920, most of the members became active Communists.

• The Neolithic period saw the emergence of polished stone tools.

• The pottery emerged in the Neolithic Phase. Handmade pottery is found in the early stage. Black burnished ware, grey ware and mat – impressed ware are found.

Enrich Your Learning: Characteristics of Neolithic age:

• The Neolithic Age in the Indian subcontinent began around the sixth millennium B.C.

• The Neolithic settlers were the earliest farming communities. They broke the ground with stone hoes and digging sticks at the end of which ring stones weighing one to half a kilogram were fixed.

• Some of the important crops, including rice, wheat and barley, came to be cultivated in the subcontinent.

• A few villages appeared in this part of the world. It appears that the people were now on the threshold of civilization.

• People of this age used tools and implements of polished stone. They used stone axes particularly, which have been found in large numbers in a good part of the hilly tracts of the country.

• The Neolithic people are mainly found in three important places i.e. north – western, North –eastern and southern.

• The pottery first appears in this phase. Handmade pottery is found in the early stage. Later the Neolithic people used footweels to turn up pots. Their pottery included black burnished ware,grey ware and mat – impressed ware.

North – western

• Tools – Rectangular axes with curved cutting edge.

• The Kashmiri Neolithic Culture was distinguished by its dwelling pits, the range of ceramics, the variety of stone and bone tools with the complete absence of the microliths.

• The neolithic people in Burzahom lived there on a lake-side in pits and probably had a hunting and fishing economy.

• They seem to have been acquainted with agriculture.

• The people of Gufkral (literally the cave of the potter), a neolithic site 41 km south- west of Srinagar, practised both agriculture and domestication of animals.

• The neolithic people in Kashmir used not only polished tools of stone, but what is more interesting, they used numerous tools and weapons made up of bone.

• The people of Burzahom used coarse grey pottery.

• It is interesting that the Burzahom domestic dogs were buried with their masters in their graves.

Southern

• The second group of neolithic people lived in south India, south of the Godavari river. They usually settled on the tops of granite hills or on plateaus near the river banks.

• They used stone, axes and also some kind of stone blades.

• Fire-baked earthen figurines suggest that they kept a large number of cattle. They possessed cattle, sheep and goats.

• They used to rub stone querns, which shows that they were acquainted with the art of producing cereals.

• Some of the important Neolithic sites or those with Neolithic layers that have been excavated include Maski, Brahmagiri, Hallur, Kodekal, Sanganakallu T. Narsipur, Piklihal and Takkalakota in Karnataka and Palyampalli in Tamil Nadu.

  Utnur is an important Neolithic site in Andhra Pradesh.

• The Neolithic phase in south India seems to have covered the period from about 2000 B.C. to about 1000 B.C.

• The Neolithic settlers in Piklihal were cattle-herders. They domesticated cattle, sheep, goats, etc.

• They set up seasonal camps surrounded by Cowpens made with posts and stakes. In these enclosures they accumulated dung. Then the entire camping ground was put to fire and cleared for camping in the next session.

• Both ash mounds and habitation sites have been found in Piklihal.

The Harappan Culture Agriculture

• Sindh was a fertile part of the country. The Indus region possessed more natural vegetation which attracted more rainfall.

• It supplied timber fuel for baking bricks on a large scale and also for construction.

• In course of time, natural vegetation was destroyed by the extension of agriculture, large-scale grazing and supply of fuel.

• A far more important reason for the fertility of the area seems to have been the annual inundation in the Indus river.

• Walls made of burnt bricks raised for protection show that floods took place annually.

• The Indus earned far more alluvial silt than the Nile in Egypt and deposited it on the flood plains. The Indus people sowed seeds in the floodplains in November, when the flood water receded and reaped their harvests of wheat and barley in April, before the advent of the next flood.

• No hoe or ploughshare has been discovered, but the furrows discovered in the pre-Harappan phase at Kalibangan show that the fields were ploughed in Rajasthan in the Harappan period. The Harappans probably used the wooden ploughshare.

• No information on whether the plough was drawn by men or oxen.

• Stone sickles may have been used for harvesting the crops.

• Gabarbands or nalas enclosed by dams for storing water were a feature in parts of Balochistan and Afghanistan, but channel or canal irrigation seems to have been absent.

• The Indus people produced wheat, barley, rai, peas, etc. They produced two types of wheat and barley.

• In addition to this, they produced sesamum and mustard.

• The people of Lothal used rice whose remains have been found.

• Foodgrains were stored in huge granaries in both Mohenjodaro and Harappa and possibly in Kalibangan.

• Probably, cereals were received as taxes from peasants and stored in granaries for the payment of wages as well as for use during emergencies.

• The Indus people were the people to produce cotton. Because cotton was first produced in this area the Greeks called it sindon, which is derived from Sindh.

• Losar Festival is one of the major festivals of the Monpa tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.

• Losar is celebrated to observe the arrival of the New Year. (it marks the Tibetan New Year.)

• The festival is exactly organised in the Tawang District.

• Tribes like Monpa, Sherdukpens, Memba, Khamba and Nah following the Mahayana sect of Buddhism celebrate this festival with all pomp.

Lohri Festival:

• Lohri is a Punjabi folk festival celebrated every year on 13th of January.

• It is a festival of worshipping the fire.

• It is celebrated chiefly by Sikhs and Hindus from the Punjab region of India. It is also celebrated in several parts of Northern India as well.

• Lohri is celebrated to mark the end of peak winter and is usually associated with the harvest of the ‘rabi’ crops.

• Kathputli dance is one of the ancient folk art forms of Rajasthan.

• No village fair and no religious festival in Rajasthan is complete without the dance of Kathputlis.

• In this dance, the puppeteer uses ballads to narrate the stories. These stories or tales of romance and chivalry are told with movements of string puppets.

• The term 'Kathputli' is derived from Rajasthani language. 'Kath' means wood and 'Putli' means a doll.

• It is believed that around 1500 years ago, the Bhat community of Rajasthan started the use of Kathputli as string marionette art.

• The world’s highest smog tower is operational in the city of Xi’an, China (100 metres).

• The smog tower in Delhi is a collaboration between the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay, IIT-Delhi and the University of Minnesota, USA, in association with The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). Enrich Your Learning: Smog tower: Recently a smog tower or a prototype air purifier was inaugurated at Lajpat Nagar, Delhi.

What is a smog tower?

• Smog towers are structures designed to work as large-scale air purifiers. They are usually fitted with multiple layers of air filters, which clean the air of pollutants as it passes through them.

• The 20-metre (65 feet) high smog tower will trap particulate matter of all sizes suspended in the air. Large-scale air filters shall draw in the air through fans installed at the top before passing it through the filters and then releasing clean air.

• The filters installed in the tower will use carbon nanofibers as a major component and will be fitted along its peripheries, to facilitate reduction of particulate matter.

• The smog tower installed at Lajpat Nagar is capable of treating 6,00,000 cubic metres of air per day and can collect more than 75 % of particulate matter (PM) 2.5 and 10.

• The project is a collaboration between the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay, IIT-Delhi and the University of Minnesota, USA, in association with The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

Smog Tower in China:

• China, which has been battling air pollution for years, has two smog towers — in its capital Beijing and in the northern city of Xi’an.

• The Xi’an tower is dubbed the world’s largest and has reportedly brought down PM 2.5 by 19% in an area of around 6 sq. km in its vicinity.

• The 100-metre (328 feet) high tower has produced 10 million cubic metres of clean air every day since its launch, and on severely polluted days, is able to bring down smog close to moderate levels.

• The smog tower in Beijing has been able to compress the carbon waste generated during purification to produce gemstones used in ornaments.

Hence, statement 1 is correct. Funds under MPLADS are non-lapsable i.e. in case of non-release of funds in a particular year it is carried forward to the next year.

Hence, statement 2 is correct. For the MPLAD Scheme, the guidelines focus on the creation of durable community assets like roads, school buildings etc. Recommendations for non-durable assets can be made only under limited circumstances.

Hence, statement 3 is not correct. For example, in 2020, the government allowed use of MPLAD funds for the purchase of personal protection equipment, coronavirus testing kits etc.

Standard Model of Elementary Particle is a theoretical construct in physics that describes particles of matter and their interaction. It describes the elementary particles of the world as being connected by mathematical symmetry, just as two objects are connected by bilateral (left-right) symmetry.

According to this model there are a finite number of fundamental particles which are represented by the characteristic “eigen” states of these groups. The particles predicted by the model, such as the Z boson, have been seen in experiments. The last to be discovered, in 2012, was the Higgs boson which gives mass to the heavy particles.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Standard Model is believed to be Incomplete because it gives a unified picture of only three of the four fundamental forces of nature — electromagnetic, weak nuclear, strong nuclear and gravitational interactions — it totally omits gravity.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

So, in the grand plan of unifying all forces so that a single equation would describe all the interactions of matter, the standard model was found to be lacking. Also, it does not include a description of dark matter particles. So far these have been detected only through their gravitational pull on surrounding matter.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It is a concept to use low flow tap and fixtures. It will provide low-flow, sanitary-ware at scale, and thereby reduce water consumption at the source considerably. It is estimated to save approximately 40% of water.

This will in turn result in water saving and energy saving due to less water and energy will be required for pumping, transporting, and purification. This initiative will also be accepted quickly in the country and will lead to a renewed focus on water conservation efforts. Hence, statement 2 is correct

Crop comes up well between 29-33 degree C max. and 22-24 degree C min. temperatures and with bright sunlight for at least 5 hrs. per day. Humidity of more than 80% is required to come up well. Best-suited soils are moist, well-drained, deep, loamy alluvial soils, rich in organic matter with good water permeability. At least one-metre depth of soil is required. Avoid highly alkaline, highly saline, waterlogged and coastal sandy soils.

The Union government recently said that it plans to develop a framework to curb fake reviews of products on ecommerce websites after studying the “best practices available globally”. Due to fake and misleading reviews, the right to be informed, which is a consumer right under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is violated.”

In India, fake reviews pose a threat to the consumer rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act states that the consumers have a right to be “informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods, products or services”. The Consumer Protection Act,2019 comes into force from today i.e. 20th July 2020. Under this act every e-commerce entity is required to provide information relating to return, refund, exchange, warranty and guarantee, delivery and shipment, modes of payment, grievance redressal mechanism, payment methods, security of payment methods, charge-back options, etc. including country of origin which are necessary for enabling the consumer to make an informed decision at the pre-purchase stage on its platform.