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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 1

How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam dances?

  1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatnatyam.

  2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatnatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 1
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Kuchipudi is unique among the Indian classical dance styles. It uses fast rhythmic footwork and sculpturesque body movements. Stylised mime, using hand gestures and subtle facial expression, is combined with more realistic acting, occasionally including dialogues spoken by the dancers. Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest forms of classical dance that originated in Tamil Nadu. Bharatnatyam dance is known to be ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many roles in a single performance. In this dance, dancers do not speak dialogues.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The "Tarangam" is a unique feature of Kuchipudi. In this, a dancer dances on the edge of a brass plate, matching to the rhythm of music. Sometimes, dancers also balance a pot of water on the head. Tarangam is not a feature of Bharatanatyam.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 2

With reference to practice of ‘Buta Kola’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a ritual dance performance in which local spirits or deities are worshipped.

  2. It is performed by both men and women.

  3. It is generally performed in paddy fields after the winter crops have been harvested.

  4. Some of the Buta Kola rituals involve walking on a bed of hot coal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 2
Answer c is the correct answer.
  • Buta kola is a very popular art practised in Tulu Nādu region of Karnataka. The face is painted, wrapped in a Siri made of coconut feathers, and danced invoking the deity. The Divine Dancer gives justice to human beings and resolves disputes through the Word of God.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Bhootaradhana or Deity/spirit worship is very popular in Tulunadu region of coastal Karnataka. A ritual called nema or kola or Bhootakola is performed for ghosts/spirits/gods. Conducting Bhootakola/kola/nema has its own rules. The face is painted, wrapped in a Siri made of coconut feathers, and danced invoking the deity. The Divine Dancer gives justice to human beings and resolves disputes through the Word of God. Deity worship is the fundamental religious belief of the Tulu race.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Buta Kola is not performed by women. It is performed by male who is feared and respected in the community and is believed to give answers to people’s problems on behalf of the god.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Yakshagana involves dancing to the beat of drums in open space usually in the village paddy fields after the winter crop has been harvested. On the other hand, Buta kola is not performed specifically in paddy fields nor after winter harvest.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Some of the Bhootada Kola rituals involve walking on a bed of hot coal. Drums and music give company to the dancing and pooja rituals. By praying together during Bhootada Kola, the community seeks God’s blessing, prosperity and riddance of various problems of the community.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 3

With reference to the SVAMITVA scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a collaborative effort of the Ministry of Rural Development and State Revenue Departments.

  2. It’s main aim is to provide pucca houses to all eligible families.

  3. It is fully financed by the Central Government.

  4. It is being implemented in the aspirational districts exclusively.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 3
Option b is the correct answer.
  • SVAMITVA (Survey of villages and mapping with improvised technology in village areas) scheme is a new initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. It aims to provide rural people with the right to document their residential properties so that they can use their property for economic purposes.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The SVAMITVA scheme is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, the state Revenue Departments, Survey of India and the state Panchayati Raj Departments. The Ministry of Rural Development is not involved in this scheme. Hence this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The main aim of the SVAMITVA scheme is to provide clear proof of ownership of property and land record cards to the owners of lands as well as all house owners in rural inhabited areas. The government scheme focussed on providing pucca houses to all rural families is PM Awas Yojana (Grameen), not the SVAMITVA yojana. Hence this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The SVAMITVA scheme is a Central Sector scheme. This means that all the expenses incurred in the implementation of this scheme are borne exclusively, 100% by the Central government. Hence this statement is correct. Remember that any scheme specified as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme generally has a component which is financed by the state government of respective states.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The SVAMITVA scheme is being implemented in all the 600+ districts, throughout the country, not exclusively in the Aspirational districts. Hence this statement is incorrect. The scheme will cover about 6.62 lakh villages in the country.

  • Knowledge Base:

1) The survey of land parcels will be done using Drone technology.

2) Some other subsidiary goals of the scheme:

a. To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.

b. Creation of accurate land records for rural planning.

c. Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer.

d. Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.

e. To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 4

“It is one of the classical dances of India from the South Indian region. It was patronised by the Vijayanagar and Golconda rulers. It was mostly performed in the village temples by groups of travelling actors. The dance recitals are often based on stories from Bhagavata Purana. Some elements of this dance form are the Tarangam and the Jal Chitra Nrityam.”

Which of the following options best matches the description given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 4
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Option a is incorrect: Mohiniattam is a classical dance of Kerala and was patronised by the ruling dynasty of erstwhile kingdom of Travancore, not Vijayanagar or Golconda. The Lasya aspect of the dance is dominant and hence it is performed mainly by female performers not male performers. Hence this option is not correct.

  • Option b is incorrect: Sattriya is a classical dance form from the state of Assam in the north east and not South India. Hence this option is not correct.

  • Option c is incorrect: Odissi is a classical dance from the state of Odisha. It was patronised by Jain king Kharavela, not the Vijayanagara rulers. Hence this option is not correct.

  • Option d is correct: Kuchipudi is a south Indian classical dance form that emerged in the Andhra region (in the Kuchipudi village in Krishna district), where it was first patronised by the Vijayanagara rulers, and later by those in Golconda. With the advent of Vaishnavism during the Bhakti movement of 16th century CE, this art form began to be practised almost exclusively by male Brahmins who were called Bhagvathalus. The dance recitals are often based on stories from Bhagavata Purana, but often have secular themes, especially Sringar Ras. Hence this option is correct.

  • Knowledge Base:

  • Other features of Kuchipudi:

1) Both Tandav and Lasya components have equal dominance in this dance form.

2) The dance may also take the role of the singer, thus making it a dance-drama performance.

3) The recital is accompanied by Carnatic music - Violin and Mridangam being the chief instruments.

4) Some important solo elements:

a. Manduka Shabdam: story of a frog.

b. Taranagam: dancer performs with their feet on edge of a brass plate while balancing a pot of water or a set of diyas on head.

c. Jala Chitra Nrityam: Dancer draws pictures on the floor with his/ her toes while dancing.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 5

Recently, ‘Gamosa’ got Geographical Indication tag. Regarding ‘Gamosa’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a handwoven cotton piece of cloth traditionally offered to elders as a mark of respect.

  2. It is traditionally manufactured by the indigenous people of Raigadh district of Maharashtra.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 5
Option a is the correct answer.
  • India having a diverse culture is home to various arts and crafts mastered by many generations over the years. Recently, Gamosa of Assam, Tandur Redgram of Telangana, RaktseyKarpo Apricot of Ladakh, Alibag White Onion of Maharashtra etc. have been given the coveted GI Tags.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Gamosa, a handwoven rectangular cotton piece of cloth with red borders and different designs and motifs, is traditionally offered to elders and guests as a mark of respect and honour by Assamese. Gamosa is a symbol of cultural identity of Assam.

  • Statements 2 is incorrect: The Gamosa or Gamusa is Body wipes or Towel, an article of significance for the indigenous people of Assam, India (not from Maharashtra).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 6

With reference to the musical instrument named Cymbals, consider the following statements:

  1. It belongs to the Solid type of musical instruments.

  2. It is widely used in the Sattriya dance.

  3. Its origin can be traced back to the Indus valley civilisation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 6
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Cymbal, is a solid type musical instrument made of metal and cloth. Cymbals are generally used in pairs; it consists of thin round plates. The most popular examples of Cymbals are Manjira, Jaltarang, Kanchtarang, Jhanj, Khartal, etc.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Drum, Cymbals (Manjira) and Flute are major musical instruments of Sattriya dance. Sattriya dance in its modern form was introduced by the Vaishnava saint Shankaradeva in the 15th century A.D in Assam. It is a devotional dance and narrates mythological stories of Lord Vishnu.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Manjira is a small brass cymbal that is generally used in temples. Archaeological excavations have dated Manjira to be as old as the Harappan civilisation. The function of these instruments is to keep rhythm and time with the song that is being sung.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 7

In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today.

Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 7
Option a is the correct answer.

Tribhanga is a ‘triple-bend position’ where the body bends in one direction at the knees, the other direction at the hips and then the other again at the shoulders and neck. Along with ‘chowk’, it is one of the basic postures of Indian classical dance ‘Odissi’.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 8

With reference to the development of substyles of Hindustani classical music, consider the following statements:

  1. Sufism played a major role in the development and spread of Ghazal.

  2. Compositions of Thumri are usually romantic or devotional in nature.

  3. Tappa is originated from the folk songs of camel riders of Punjab.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 8
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Ghazal as a poetic form originated in Persia in the tenth century. Later Ghazal developed as a sub style of Hindustani classical music, which was influenced by Sufism. Sufi mystics (a person who believes attaining insights into mysteries transcending ordinary human knowledge) played a major role in spreading Ghazal music in India and South Asia during the 12th century.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Thumri a sub style of Hindustani classical music was adopted by the Bhakti saints to connect with gods. Compositions of Thumri are either romantic or devotional in nature and the main theme being the girl’s love for Krishna. It was usually sung in a female voice. The thumri is very lyrical in its structure and presentation. Thumri is a love song and hence the textual beauty is very important. This is closely coordinated with the musical rendition. And keeping in mind its mood a thumri is usually set to ragas like Khamaj, Kaphi, Bhairavi and so on and the musical grammar is not strictly adhered to.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Tappa, a substyle of Hindustani classical music originated from the folk songs of the camel riders of Punjab known as 'dhapa', which was transformed into the Hindi Tappa. It gained legitimacy and popularity under the Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 9

Which of the following theatre forms of India have been included in UNESCO'S representative list of intangible cultural heritage of humanity?

  1. Koodiyattam

  2. Karyala

  3. Mudiyettu

  4. Ramman

  5. Bhand Pather

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 9
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Option 1 is correct: Koodiyattam is a traditional performing art form from the Indian state of Kerala. It combines elements of ancient Sanskrit theatre with Koothu, an ancient performing art from the Sangam era. Kutiyattam (Koodiyattam), which dates back around 2000 years, has been designated by UNESCO as a 'Masterpiece of Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity'.

  • Option 2 is incorrect: Karyala is popular in districts of Himachal, Karyala is an impromptu folk theatre that does not need any stage. It is mostly performed during Diwali and is usually performed by a person for the deity. This theatre is a fusion of drama, versification, music, and dance. It is not included in UNESCO'S representative list of intangible cultural heritage of humanity.

  • Option 3 is correct: Mudiyettu is a traditional ritual theatre and folk-dance drama from Kerala based on the mythological tale of a battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika. It is a community ritual in which the entire village participates. It depicts the mythological storey of the Goddess Kali and the demon Darika in battle. It was included in the UNESCO'S List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2010.

  • Option 4 is correct: Ramman is an Indian religious event and ritual theatre that takes place in the Garhwal area. It is a Hindu community celebration held in the Saloor Dungra hamlet in the Painkhanda Valley in Uttarakhand's Chamoli district. It was included in UNESCO'S List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2009.

  • Option 5 is incorrect: Bhand Pather (Kashmir) is an age-old folk theatre having its origins in Kashmir. It is commonly held in open spaces and performed along with musical instruments like the surnai, nagada, and dhol. It is not included in UNESCO'S representative list of intangible cultural heritage of humanity.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 10

Sanskrit theatres/plays?

  1. Vidushaka is the one who questions the prevailing social norms through satire.

  2. Sutradhar is primarily responsible for costumes and makeup of the artists and the actors.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 10
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Theatre in India began as a narrative art form, which encompassed a concoction of music, dance and acting. Recitation, dance and music were integral parts of theatre. Characters in Sanskrit plays were important. They were broadly classified into three kinds which are Nayaka (Hero or the Protagonist), Nayika (Heroine) and the Vidusaka (Clown).

  • Statement 1 is correct: Vidusaka (Clown), the comic character plays a vital role in the plays. He is the noble and good-hearted, often a friend of hero. He questions the prevailing social norms through satire. The vidushaka is one who challenges social norms. He provides comic relief while simultaneously prodding us to actually think.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In Indian theatre, Sutradhar is the narrator who narrates the play and sings verses. The Sutradhar, is the stage manager and director, who enters the stage with his assistants. The time and place of the play was announced by the Sutradhar. He also gave a brief introduction of the playwright. For example, in Mahabharata, the Sutradhar of the story is Lord Krishna.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 11

With reference to the India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF), consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to support development of bankable Public Private Partnership (PPP) infra projects.

  2. It is created in the Department of Financial Services.

  3. It has an initial corpus of 100 crores.

  4. It will provide an upfront payment of 30% of project cost to the private partner in the PPP project.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 11
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF) is a scheme designed to promote infrastructure development through Public Private Partnership (PPP).

  • Statement 1 is correct: The IIPDF scheme will try to promote infra projects by aiding the process of project report creation for finding various bankable and credit worthy PPP infra projects. Hence this statement is correct. In order to improve the success rate, as well as reduce overhead costs in PPP projects many activities such as feasibility study, consultancy on technical aspects, etc need to be undertaken that are time and money consuming. So, this fund will cover such costs to select PPP projects on which the government must focus and invest.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The IIPDF has been placed under the Department of Economic Affairs (not Financial Services) of the Union Ministry of Finance. Hence this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The IIPDF has been designed as a revolving fund, with an initial corpus of Rs 100 Crore. Hence this statement is correct. The initial corpus will be provided out of the budget for the Union Ministry of Finance. Thereafter it would be supplemented, should it become necessary, through budgetary support by the Ministry of Finance from time to time. As the IIPDF matures, funding from the multilateral and bilateral agencies could become available. Other interested agency(ies), as approved by DEA, including the bilateral agencies, will be permitted to join the IIPDF. Agents with conflict of interest will not be allowed to contribute to the fund.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The IIPDF will be providing costs for initial project report development work subject to certain maximum limits to the Sponsoring Authorities within the Central and State governments. This fund shall not be providing any financial assistance to the concessionaire (private partner) in the PPP. Hence this statement is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 12

“Sweet Revolution” is related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 12
  • Beekeeping is an agro-based activity which is being undertaken by farmers/ landless labourers in rural area as a part of the Integrated Farming System. Beekeeping has been useful in pollination of crops, thereby, increasing income of the farmers/beekeepers by way of increasing crop yield and providing honey and other high value beehive products, viz.; bee wax, bee pollen, propolis, royal jelly, bee venom, etc. Diversified agro climatic conditions of India provide great potential and opportunities for beekeeping/honey production and export of honey. India‟s export of honey has increased by about 110 per cent between 2013-14 to 2019-20.

  • National Beekeeping & Honey Mission (NBHM) aims for the overall promotion and development of scientific beekeeping in the country to achieve the goal of „Sweet Revolution‟ which is being implemented through National Bee Board (NBB).

So, Option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 13

Why India is called as “Pharmacy of the World”?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 13
  • Indian Pharmaceutical industry ranks third in the world in pharmaceutical production by volume. During 2020-21, total pharma export US$ 24.4 Bn against the total pharma import of US$7.0Bn, thereby generating trade surplus of US$17.5 Bn. India is the largest supplier of generic medicines with a 20 percent share in the global supply. So, Option (a) is not correct.

  • Medical Research is dominated by United States followed by United Kingdom and Germany. So, Option (b) is not correct.

  • Computer software and hardware sector attract the highest FDI in India. So, Option (c) is not correct.

  • Economic Survey 2021-22 pointed out that, Although price competitiveness and good quality have enabled homegrown medicine producers to be dominant players in the world market, thereby making the country the 'Pharmacy of the World, India is significantly dependent on the import of bulk drugs that are used in the formulation of medicines. So, Option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the development of Shramana traditions in India:

  1. The first council of Jain monks and the fourth council of Buddhist monks happened simultaneously.

  2. While Buddhism divided into Mahayana and Hinayana Schools after its fourth council, Jainism divided into Shvetambaras and Digambaras after its first council.

  3. The first council of Jain monks and the third Council of Buddhist monks happened during the Mauryan rule in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 14
  • The first council of Jain monks was held in 300 BC and the fourth council of Buddhist monks was held in 72 AD. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

    • In fourth Buddhist council held in 72 AD at Kundalvana, Kasmir under the patronage of King Kanishka, there was a split in Buddhism and two sects Hinayana and Mahayana Buddhism were born.

  • In first council of Jain monks differences arose between them which led to the division of Shvetambaras and Digambaras sects. So, Statement 2 is correct.

    • First council of Jain monks held in 300 BC at Patliputra under the patronage of Mauryan King Chandragupta Maurya.

  • Third council of Buddhist monks held in 250 BC at Patliputra, under the patronage of Mauryan King Ashoka. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 15

If the lower court refuses to give a copy of the charge sheet and statements of witnesses to the accused which of the following article of the constitution is violated?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 15
Article 21 guarantees the Right to Fair Trial and Investigation. An accused is entitled to a fair investigation. Fair investigation and fair trial are concomitant to preservation of fundamental right of an accused under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. ThusIf the lower court refuses to give a copy of the charge sheet and statements of witnesses to the accused, it violates Article 21 of the Indian constitution. So, Option (c) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 16

Consider the following statements about the recognition of Indian Art and Culture:

  1. Shantinatha Charita is the only Jain literature to be registered under the UNESCO Memories of the World Programme.

  2. Buddhist Chanting of Ladakh is the only practice of Buddhism to be registered under the UNESCO List of Intangible Cultural Heritage.

  3. The Sri Harminder Sahib is the only monument of Sikhism to be recognized under UNESCO Cultural Heritage Sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 16
  • Shantinathacharita is a text in Sanskrit written in Devanagari script. It describes the life and times of Shantinatha, the sixteenth Jain Tirthankara. This work was composed and written in the late fourteenth century 1396 C.E. (1453 Vikram Samvat). This unique manuscript contains as many as 10 images of scenes from the life of Shantinatha in the style of Jain paintings from Gujarat. It is an example of the finest expression in the art of miniature paintings in manuscripts. The ink used in the manuscript is gum lampblack and white paint made from mineral silver. The text was submitted for inclusion in the Memory of the World Register of UNESCO in 2012 by India. It was approved by UNESCO in 2013 and it is the only Jain literature to be registered under UNESCO Memories of the World Programme. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Kutiyattam, Ramlila, Ramman, Chhau Dance, Kalbelia songs and dance, Mudiyettu, Buddist chanting, Sankirtana, Traditional brass and copper craft of making utensils, Yoga and Kumbh Mela are UNESCO List of Intangible cultural heritage in India. The holy Buddhist chanting from the trans-Himalayan region of Ladakh is the only practice of Buddhism that was inscribed on the UNESCO‟s list in 2012. In every monastery and village in the region, Buddhist priests or lamas recite the teachings and philosophy of Lord Buddha in the form of hymns. The monks wear sacred masks and use special hand gestures, or mudras, that symbolize Lord Buddha. They use instruments such as drums, cymbals and trumpets to add a musical rhythm to the chanting. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Sri Harminder Sahib or Golden Temple in Amritsar, Punjab was initiated in 1585 and completed by Arjan Dev in 1604. The site has been nominated to be recognized under UNESCO Cultural Heritage Sites but its application is pending on the tentative list of UNESCO. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 17

A philosophical school of Buddhism teaches the Idea of Shunyata (sometimes called as Sunyavada), that the dharmas are empty and do not exist per se. This school was founded by Nagarjuna in the 2nd century CE and its important thinkers include Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, Bhavaviveka, Chandrakirti, and Shantideva.

Which of the following schools of Buddhism has been described above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 17
Madhyamaka is an important school in Mahayana Buddhism. The founder of this school was Nagarjuna in the 2nd century AD who developed the doctrine sunyavada which means that all is void. The name of the school is a reference to the claim made of Buddhism in general that it is a middle path (madhyamapratipad) that avoids the two extremes of eternalism – the doctrine that all things exist because of an eternal essence – and annihilationism – the doctrine that things have essences while they exist but that these essences are annihilated just when the things themselves go out of existence. Important thinkers of this include Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, Bhavaviveka, Chandrakirti, Shantideva, Jnanagarbha and Santaraksita. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 18

Consider the following statements.

  1. He was born during the regime of the Vijayanagara Empire.

  2. He was a Haridasa saint and philosopher.

  3. He is known for his keertanas and ugabhoga, compositions in the Kannada language for Carnatic music.

Which one of the following personalities is described by the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 18
  • Basaveshwara, colloquially known as Basavanna, was a 12th-century CE Indian statesman, philosopher, poet, social reformer, and Lingayat saint in the Shiva-focussed bhakti movement, and a Hindu Shaivite social reformer during the reign of the Kalyani/Chalukyas dynasty. So, option (a) is not correct.

  • Kanaka Dasa (1509 – 1609)was a Haridasa saint and philosopher, popularly called DaasashreshtaKanakadasa who lived during the Vijayanagara Empire. He was a renowned composer of Carnatic music, poet, reformer, and musician. He is known for his keertanas and ugabhoga and his compositions in the Kannada language for Carnatic music. Like other Haridasas, he used simple Kannada language and native metrical forms for his compositions. So, option (b) is correct.

  • Alluri Sitarama Raju (4 July 1897 – 7 May 1924), was an Indian revolutionary who waged an armed campaign against British colonial rule in India. Born in present-day Andhra, he became involved in anti-British activities in response to the 1882 Madras Forest Act, which effectively restricted the free movement of Adivasis (tribal communities) in their forest habitats and prevented them from practicing a traditional form of agriculture known as podu. So, option (c) is not correct.

  • TallapakaAnnamacharya (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503), also popularly known as Annamayya, was a 15th-century Hindu saint (not a Haridas saint) and the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the Venkateshwara, a form of Vishnu. The musical form of the keertana songs that he composed, which are still popular among Carnatic musicconcert artists, has strongly influenced the structure of Carnatic music compositions. So, option (d) is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding a kind of painting.

  1. They are produced by village women using vegetable colours with a few earthen colours and finished in black lines on cow dung treated paper.

  2. These pictures tell tales, especially about Sita‟s exile, and Ram-Laxman‟s Forest life.

  3. Tulsi, the holy plant, also is to be found in these paintings.

Which one of the following paintings is described by the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 19
  • Mithila painting also known as Madhubani folk art is the traditional art of the Mithila region of Bihar. They are produced by village women using vegetable colors with few earthen colors and finished in black lines on cow dung treated paper.

  • These pictures tell tales especially about Sita‟s exile, Ram-Laxman‟s forest life, or depict the images of Lakshmi, Ganesha, Hanuman and others from Hindu mythology. Apart from these women also paint celestial subjects like sun and moon.

  • Tulsi, the holy plant also is to be found in these paintings. They also show court scenes, weddings, and social happenings. Drawings in Madhubani pictures are very conceptual.

So, option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 20

With reference to Hybrid immunity, consider the following statements:

  1. It is gained only if an individual gets a natural infection after a COVID-19 vaccine.

  2. It provides better immunity as compared to the immunity gained after the vaccination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 20
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Hybrid immunity is defined as the immune protection in individuals who have had one or more doses of a COVID-19 vaccine and experienced at least one SARS-CoV-2 infection ‘before or after’ the initiation of vaccination.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Getting a natural infection before or after the vaccination provides better protection than vaccines alone because it prepares the body against the entire virus, rather than just the spike protein.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 21

In the Indian context, consider the following statements:

  1. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of the People and not to the Council of States.

  2. The House of the People has special powers with respect to the State List compared to the Council of States.

  3. President is not bound to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.

  4. A minimum of 5 Judges should sit for purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 21
  • According to Article 75, The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • According to Article 249, Rajya Sabha has special powers to authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State list. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the president to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:

(a) On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise.

(b) On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanador other similar instruments.

  • In the first case, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the president. But, in the second case, the Supreme Court „must‟ tender its opinion to the president. In both the cases, the opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the president. So, Statement 3 is correct.

  • The Constitutional cases or references made by the President under Article 143 are decided by a Supreme Court Bench consisting of at least five judges. So, Statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 22

Which of the following is/are feature(s) of the Indian Judiciary?

  1. High courts have jurisdiction over cases arising under the law enacted by Parliament as well as State Legislature.

  2. The writ-jurisdiction of the High Courts cannot be invoked to control the administrative process.

  3. The tenure of the Supreme Court Judges is independent of the will of the executive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 22
  • Article 226 empowers the High courts to have jurisdiction over the law enacted by Parliament as well as State Legislature. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • There are five types of Writs- Habeas Corpus, Certorari, Prohibition Mandamus and Quo Warranto Article 32 (SC) and 226 (HC) of the constitution of India has designed for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for a judicial review of administrative actions, in the form of writs. It is a constitutional remedy available to a person to bring his complaint or grievance against any administrative action to the notice of the court. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. However, it makes the following three provisions in this regard:

    • He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.

    • He can resign his office by writing to the president.

    • He can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the

    • Parliament. Hence will of the executive to remove Judges is exercised through this option. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 23

A privilege motion is a notice by any member of either House of a state legislature or Parliament against

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 23
The privilege motion is moved by a member when he feels that a minister orany member has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. So, Option (c) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 24

With reference to the Indian Constitution, the subject „local government‟ is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 24
The subject “Local Government‟ is mentioned in the State List. So, the State Government can make laws on Local Government within the state. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 25

Consider the following Statements:

  1. The Constitution of India has not prescribed a fixed tenure for the post of Prime Minister.

  2. The National Crisis Management Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 25
  • The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is a committee set up by the Government of India in the wake of a natural calamity for effective coordination and implementation of relief measures and operations. It isheaded by the Cabinet Secretary. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 26

With reference to the provision related to „language‟ under the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. The state legislature has the liberty to adopt more than one language as the official language of the state.

  2. The authoritative text of all bills introduced in Parliament shall be in Hindi.

  3. The Union Government has the duty to promote the spread of the Hindi language.

  4. The language used in proceedings of the High Court can be determined by State Legislature.

  5. All the proceedings of the Supreme Court of India shall be in English.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 26
  • The Constitution has declared the official language(s) of the state or Hindi or English, to be the languages for transacting business in the state legislature. The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • The Constitution has declared Hindi and English to be the languages for transacting business in the Parliament. So the authoritative text of all bills introduced in Parliament shall be in Hindi as well as in English. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • According to Article 351, It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India. So, Statement 3 is correct.

  • The governor of a state, with the previous consent of the president, can authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state, in the proceedings in the high court of the state, but not with respect to the judgements, decrees and orders passed by it. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

  • Similarly, a state legislature can prescribe the use of any language (other than English) with respect to bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations or bye-laws, but a translation of the same in the English language is to be published.

  • The constitutional provisions dealing with the language of the courts and legislation are as follows: Until Parliament provides otherwise, the following are to be in the English language only:

(a) All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every high court.

(b) The authoritative texts of all bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations and byelaws at the Central and state level. So, Statement 5 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 27

When a resolution for the impeachment of the President of India is introduced in either house of the Parliament, then it has to be passed by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 27
After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the House where it was initiated, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office from the date on which the resolution is so passed. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 28

Which one of the following statements is not correct about the National Emergency?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 28
  • If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues forsix months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state legislative assembly (five years) by one year each time (for any length of time) during a national emergency, subject to a maximum period of six months after the Emergency has ceased to operate. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • The President must revoke a proclamation of Emergency if the Lok Sabha (House of People) passes a resolution disapproving its continuation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. It is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only. So, Statement 3 is correct.

  • The President, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister. So, Statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 29

With reference to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

  1. A person will be issued a Certificate of Identity as a „transgender‟ by the District Magistrate based on the recommendations of a District Screening Committee.

  2. The government must take steps to provide health facilities to transgender persons for sex reassignment surgeries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 29
  • The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 was introduced by the Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment, allows self-perception of gender identity. But it mandates that each person would have to be recognised as “transgender‟ on the basis of a certificate of identity issued by a district magistrate.

  • This Bill rejected the recommendation from the 2016 Standing Committee to have a screening committee to issue a certificate by the District magistrate for identifying as „Transgender‟. So Statement 1 is not correct.

  • According to the Act, the appropriate Government shall take the following measures in relation to transgender persons, namely, To set up separate human immunodeficiency virus Sero-surveillance Centres to conduct Sero-surveillance for such persons in accordance with the guidelines issued by the National AIDS Control Organisation in this behalf To provide for medical care facility including sex reassignment surgery and hormonal therapy. So Statement 2 is correct.

    • Before and after sex reassignment surgery and hormonal therapy counselling

    • Bring out a Health Manual related to sex reassignment surgery in accordance with the World Profession Association for Transgender Health guidelines

    • Review of medical curriculum and research for doctors to address their specific health issues

    • To facilitate access to transgender persons in hospitals and other healthcare institutions and centres

    • Provision for coverage of medical expenses by a comprehensive insurance scheme for Sex

    • Reassignment Surgery, hormonal therapy, laser therapy or any other health issues of transgender persons.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 30

In which year National Commission for Minorities was established?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 18 - Question 30
Officially, there are 6 minorities in India viz. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Jains. The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. The commission is made up of a Chairperson, a Vice Chairperson and five members. Unlike other bodies like NCSC and NCST, NCM has no constitutional backing or status.
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