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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 below.
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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 1

Which among the following statements can be the correct reason(s) to conclude that the authority of the Constitution is higher than that of the Parliament?

  1. The Constitution was framed before the Parliament.

  2. The Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament.

  3. Parliament derives its power from the Constitution.

Choose the correct code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not necessary that since the Constitution was framed before the Parliament then it will command more authority than Parliament.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Only Parliament has power to amend the Constitution as per the provisions of Art 368.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Parliament derives its power from the Constitution.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 2

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Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 2
Option (a) is the correct answer.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 3

Consider the following:

  1. Buddha accepted the concept of rebirth but rejected the concept of Soul.

  2. Jain philosophy accepts the concept of Soul.

  3. According to Buddha, the way to achieve salvation is through following the four Noble Truths.

  4. According to Mahavira, the way to achieve salvation is through knowledge.

Which of the above statement/s is/are true?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 3
According to Buddha, the way to achieve salvation is through following the Middle Path. Mahavira stated that the way to achieve salvation goes through penances.

According to the Jaina philosophy the soul exists as every being. Buddhist Philosophy does not believe in the concept of soul.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 4

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 4

Swadeshi movement was not exclusively a political movement but also had a significant cultural aspect. The movement aimed at reviving Indian industries and promoting Indian goods and products. It also emphasized the promotion of Indian culture and the use of Indian languages. The movement encouraged the use of swadeshi (indigenous) goods and boycotting of British goods as a means of economic protest against British rule.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 5

Which of the following are features of Bank Run?

  1. Customers fear that banks will run out of reserves and therefore withdraw their deposit.

  2. Banks are at the risk of defaulting.

  3. The Central Bank of the country acts as lender of last resort.

Choose the correct Code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 5
All of the above.A bank run is a situation in which a large number of customers of a bank withdraw their deposits at the same time, usually because they fear that the bank is at risk of defaulting or running out of reserves. This can occur when there is a lack of confidence in the stability of the bank or the overall financial system.

During a bank run, banks are at risk of defaulting on their obligations, as they may not have enough reserves to meet the demand for withdrawals. In such cases, the central bank of the country may act as a lender of last resort, providing financial support to the banks to help them meet their obligations and stabilise the financial system. Therefore, all of the statements (1, 2, and 3) are features of a bank run.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 6

‘Bilateral Netting’ exercise appearing in news recently is related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 6
A process of consolidating all swap agreements between two parties into one single, or master, agreement. Bilateral netting is a process of consolidating all swap agreements between two parties into one single, or master, agreement.

This involves netting the positive and negative exposures of the parties under the various swap agreements and reducing the overall credit risk between them. Bilateral netting can be used to reduce the collateral required to be posted by the parties, as well as to reduce the operational and administrative costs associated with managing multiple swap agreements.

Bilateral netting is commonly used in the financial sector, particularly in the context of over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives such as interest rate swaps, currency swaps, and credit default swaps. It has been in the news recently due to the increasing use of bilateral netting in the context of central clearing of OTC derivatives, as well as the potential impact of regulatory changes on the use of bilateral netting.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 7

Which of the following is not possibly associated with the occurrence of El Nino Phenomena?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 7
El Niño is the warm phase of the El Niño–Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and is associated with a band of warm ocean water that develops in the central and east-central equatorial Pacific, including the area off the Pacific coast of South America. Option a is correct. El Niño is accompanied by warmer waters in the Eastern Pacific ocean and comparatively cooler waters in western Pacific.

This results in high air pressure in the western Pacific and low air pressure in the eastern Pacific. Option b is correct. During El Nino, severe droughts occur in Australia, Indonesia, India and southern Africa. High air pressure in the western Pacific is the cause behind Australian droughts in El Nino conditions. Option c is correct. Increased concentration of Carbon Dioxide in the atmosphere has caused global warming and impending climate change.

IPCC in its multiple reports has found increased frequency and intensity of El Nino phenomena caused by Global warming. Option d is incorrect. The warmer waters during El Nino, have a devastating effect on marine life existing off the coast of Peru and Ecuador. Fish catches off the coast of South America are lower than in the normal year as the upwelling stops, reducing the supply of fresh nutrients to marine life.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. As per Article 20 of Constitution, a person or an entity cannot be punished retrospectively in any civil and criminal cases.

  2. As per Article 22 of the Constitution, a person arrested under preventive detention cannot be detained for more than two months unless there is a threat to internal security of any state.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 8
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 20 provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person. It provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of act. A person cannot be punished for ex-post-facto laws. An ex-post- facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively. However, this protection is only made for criminal offences. This does not apply for any offence done under civil domain for ex: taxation laws.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The 44th Amendment of the Constitution amended the provisions of Article 22. Article 22 after amendment provides that a person arrested under preventive detention cannot be detained for more than two months unless there is a threat to internal security of any state. The Original Constitution provided a time period of three months in place of two months. Presently, the provision of the Original Constitution is under effect and not that of the 44th Amendment.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 9

Consider the following statements about the Zero Based Budgeting (ZBB) method:

  1. It starts with the budget from the last financial year.

  2. Every activity needs to be justified.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 9
Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is a method of budgeting in which all activities and expenses are evaluated and justified from scratch, rather than building on the previous year's budget. This means that all activities and expenses must be re-evaluated and justified, regardless of whether they were funded in the previous year's budget or not.

ZBB starts with a "zero base" and requires that every activity and expense be justified in terms of its contribution to the organisation's goals and objectives. This means that every activity needs to be justified, regardless of whether it has been funded in the past or not. Therefore, statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 10

‘Bab-el-Mandeb’ connects which of the following water bodies?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 10
Bab-el-Mandeb is a strait that connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden. It is located between the eastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula and the western coast of the Horn of Africa. The strait is an important shipping route and is used by vessels travelling between the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian Ocean.

The Red Sea is a body of water located between the Arabian Peninsula and northeastern Africa. It is connected to the Gulf of Aden through the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. The Gulf of Aden is a body of water located to the southwest of the Arabian Peninsula, between the Arabian Sea and the Red Sea. It is connected to the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Oman. The Malaya Peninsula is a peninsula located in Southeast Asia and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

The Sumatran Island is an island located in Indonesia and is also not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. The Persian Gulf is a body of water located in Western Asia, between the Arabian Peninsula and Iran, and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

The Gulf of Oman is a body of water located to the east of the Arabian Peninsula and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. The Java Sea is a body of water located in Southeast Asia and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait. The Indian Ocean is a vast body of water located to the south of the Arabian Peninsula and is not connected to the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 11

Consider the following statements.

  1. The RBI Act provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every four years.

  2. The Monetary Policy Framework aims at setting the repo rate based on an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation.

  3. Repo rate changes transmit through the money market to the entire financial system, which in turn, influences aggregate demand.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 11
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government notified in the Official Gazette 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.

On March 31, 2021, the Central Government retained the inflation target and the tolerance band for the next 5-year period – April 1, 2021 to March 31, 2026. The amended RBI Act explicitly provides the legislative mandate to the Reserve Bank to operate the monetary policy framework of the country. The Monetary Policy Framework aims at setting the policy (repo) rate based on an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation; and modulation of liquidity conditions to anchor money market rates at or around the repo rate.

Repo rate changes transmit through the money market to the entire financial system, which, in turn, influences aggregate demand – a key determinant of inflation and growth.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Green jobs.

  1. Jobs involving renewable energy, conservation of resources, and ensuring energy efficient means are categorised as ‘Green jobs’.

  2. They are aimed at reducing the negative environmental impact of economic sectors and furthering the process of creating a low-carbon economy.

  3. Skill Council for Green Jobs, a not-for-profit, industry-led initiative aims to help manufacturers and service providers in India’s ‘green business’ sector to realise the potential of green jobs.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 12

Explanation ‘Green jobs’ refer to a class of jobs that directly have a positive impact on the planet, and contribute to the overall environmental welfare. Jobs involving renewable energy, conservation of resources, ensuring energy efficient means are categorised under the same. In all, they’re aimed at reducing the negative environmental impact of economic sectors and furthering the process of creating a low-carbon economy. The Skill Council for Green Jobs was launched by the Union government on October 1, 2015.

Aligned to the National Skill Development Missions, it was set up to be a not-for-profit, independent, industry-led initiative. Promoted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) and the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), the council aims to help manufacturers and other service providers in India’s ‘green business’ sector to implement industry-led, collaborative skills push the country on the path to truly realising the real potential and significance of ‘green jobs’.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

  1. The change in perception and overwhelming support to join NATO came about following the Russian invasion of Ukraine.

  2. Admission of Finland to NATO would strengthen NATO’s position in the Black Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 13
  • The country, so far, has stayed away from joining such alliances as it always wanted to maintain cordial relations with its Neighbour Russia.
  • For a long time, the idea of not joining NATO or getting too close to the West was a matter of survival for the Finns.
  • However, the change in perception and overwhelming support to join NATO came about following the Russian invasion of Ukraine.
  • NATO membership would strengthen the country’s security and defence system.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 14

With reference to Fortification of rice, consider the following statements:

  1. Fortification is the addition of key vitamins and minerals to staple foods such as rice, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content.

  2. Rice can only be fortified with micronutrients.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 14

Fortification is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as iron, iodine, zinc, Vitamin A & D to staple foods such as rice, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content. Hence, statement 1 is correct. These nutrients may or may not have been originally present in the food before processing.

According to the Food Ministry, fortification of rice is a cost-effective and complementary strategy to increase vitamin and mineral content in diets. According to FSSAI norms, 1 kg fortified rice will contain iron (28 mg-42.5 mg), folic acid (75-125 microgram) and Vitamin B-12 (0.75-1.25 microgram).

In addition, rice may also be fortified with micronutrients, singly or in combination, with zinc, Vitamin A, Vitamin B1, Vitamin B2, Vitamin B3 and Vitamin B6. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 15

Recently, Cyclone Karim developed in the Indian Ocean Region. Its name was suggested by which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 15
Recent satellite images have Captured Twin Cyclones in the Indian Ocean region, one in the northern hemisphere and one in the southern hemisphere, named cyclone Asani and cyclone Karim respectively. Karim is classified as a category II hurricane, with a wind speed of 112 kilometres per hour (kmph).

Asani remains a Severe Cyclonic Storm over the Bay of Bengal, with wind speeds of 100-110 kmph gusting to 120 kmph. Both were formed in the Indian Ocean region and originated in the same longitude and are now drifting apart. Cyclone Karim has created a path in the open seas west of Australia. The name Karim was given by the South African country Seychelles. The name Cyclone Asani was suggested by Sri Lanka. Hence, option D is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 16

Which of the following sites is a man-made and managed wetland, included in the list of Ramsar sites and also placed on Montreux Record?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 16
Keoladeo National Park, also known as Bharatpur National Park, is a man-made and managed wetland located in the Indian state of Rajasthan. It was created as a hunting reserve by the Maharaja of Bharatpur in the late 19th century, but it was later declared a national park in 1982. Keoladeo National Park is an important bird sanctuary and is home to a wide variety of bird species, including many migratory birds.

It was designated as a Ramsar site in 1981, which is an international designation for wetlands of international importance, and it was placed on the Montreux Record in 1990. The Montreux Record is a list of wetlands that are at risk due to human activities, and it is maintained by the Ramsar Convention. Harike Wetland, Bhoj Wetland, and Renuka Lake are not man-made and managed wetlands and are not included in the list of Ramsar sites or placed on the Montreux Record.

Harike Wetland is a natural wetland located in the Indian state of Punjab, Bhoj Wetland is a natural wetland located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh, and Renuka Lake is a natural lake located in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 17

What can be the impact of Biomagnification on the ecosystem?

  1. Desertification in the semi-arid regions can occur.

  2. Degradation of the coral reefs can take place.

  3. Distorted reproduction cycles among aquatic animals can occur.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 17
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Biomagnification has no role in the desertification process. Desertification is mainly caused due to overgrazing. Other factors that cause desertification include urbanisation, climate change, overdrafting of groundwater, deforestation, natural disasters and tillage practices in agriculture that place soils more vulnerable to wind.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The coral reefs are destroyed by biomagnification of cyanide, which is used in leaching gold and in fishing. The reefs provide for spawning, feeding, and dwelling grounds for numerous sea creatures. When destroyed, the survival of aquatic creatures is highly compromised.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Biomagnification can also lead to the accumulation of various toxic chemicals and elements in the vital organs of the various aquatic creatures affecting their reproduction and development. For instance, seabird eggs are laid with thinner shells than normal, and can result in the birds crushing their eggs instead of incubating them. Selenium and heavy metals such as mercury also affect the reproduction of aquatic creatures such as fish as it destroys their reproductive organs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 18

Which of the following statements best explains the natural rate of unemployment?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 18
Sum of Frictional unemployment and Structural unemployment. The natural rate of unemployment is the level of unemployment that is consistent with a stable, healthy economy. It is also known as the equilibrium unemployment rate or the long-run unemployment rate. The natural rate of unemployment is determined by the structural and frictional factors in the economy and is independent of the business cycle.

Frictional unemployment is unemployment that arises from the normal process of workers and employers searching for the best match between their skills and job opportunities. It includes unemployment that results from people transitioning between jobs, such as recent graduates looking for their first job or workers who are changing careers.

Structural unemployment is unemployment that arises from a mismatch between the skills and characteristics of the workers and the needs and demands of the job market. It can be caused by technological change, globalisation, or other structural changes in the economy. Therefore, the natural rate of unemployment is the sum of frictional unemployment and structural unemployment. It does not include cyclical unemployment, which is unemployment that arises from the ups and downs of the business cycle, or seasonal unemployment, which is unemployment that arises from the seasonal nature of certain industries.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 19

Which of the following foreign travellers visited the Vijayanagar Empire during the rule of Krishna Dev Rai?

  1. Ibn Battuta

  2. Abdur Razzak

  3. Domingo Paes

  4. Barbosa

Choose the correct code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 19
The foreign travellers who visited India during the reign of Krishnadeva Raya were Domingo Pass, Started Barbosa and Fernao Nuniz. They all were Portuguese travellers. They provided a detailed account of Vijayanagara Empire particularly in the reign of Krishnadeva Raya.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 20

Which of the following is the main objective of ‘Dastak Campaign’

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 20
Dastak Campaign is a public health campaign launched by the Government of India in 2019 to tackle the problem of Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) and Japanese Encephalitis (JE) disease in the country. These diseases are caused by viral infections that affect the brain and can cause severe illness and death, particularly in children.

The main objective of the Dastak Campaign is to eradicate AES and JE disease in India by strengthening the prevention, diagnosis, and management of these diseases. The campaign focuses on improving awareness about the causes and prevention of AES and JE, strengthening surveillance and laboratory systems, and improving the quality of care for affected individuals.

Dastak Campaign is not related to promoting toilet use and freedom from open defecation, promoting the use of sanitary pads in adolescent girls in Odisha, or creating awareness about the misuse of single-use plastics. These are separate issues that are addressed by different public health campaigns in India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

  1. 5Gi is basically a Made in India 5G standard created through a collaboration between IISc Bengaluru and IIT Chennai.

  2. 5G high-band spectrum has been tested to be as fast as 20 gigabits per second.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 21
India’s own 5G standard had been made in the form of 5Gi which would play a big role in bringing 5G technology to the villages of the country. 5Gi is basically a Made in India 5G standard created through a collaboration between IIT Hyderabad and Madras (Chennai). Hence statement 1 is not correct.

5G is the 5th generation mobile network. It is a new global wireless standard after 4G networks. It enables a new kind of network that is designed to connect virtually everyone and everything together including machines, objects, and devices. Internet speeds in the high-band spectrum of 5G have been tested to be as high as 20 gigabits per second. Hence statement 2 is correct. The maximum internet data speed recorded in 4G is 1 Gbps.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 22

With reference to Stockholm convention and Minamata convention, which of the are the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Both Stockholm convention and Minamata convention were a result of the Rio Earth Summit, 1992.

  2. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to both Stockholm convention and Minamata convention.

  3. Stockholm convention aims to reduce the Persistent Organic Pollutants (PoPs) while Minamata convention aims to reduce mercury emissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 22
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty, signed in 2001 and effective from May 2004. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty, signed in 2013 and entered into force on 16 August, 2017.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to five conventions: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Stockholm Convention aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants whereas Minamata Convention was designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 23

Which among the following best explains the formation of wave cyclones?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 23
Wave cyclones, also known as mid-latitude cyclones or extratropical cyclones, are large, low-pressure systems that form over the middle latitudes (between 30° and 60° North and South of the equator). They are characterised by the formation of fronts between different air masses, which are defined as large, horizontal bands of air with distinct temperature and humidity characteristics.

Wave cyclones form when a cold air mass pushes beneath a warm air mass, creating a front. The interaction between the two air masses can cause the development of thunderstorms and other types of weather, such as rain, snow, or sleet. Wave cyclones can also generate strong winds and large waves in the oceans.

Very high Sea Surface Temperatures, the formation of Polar Stratospheric clouds, and the creation of thunderstorms due to sudden air up draught are not directly related to the formation of wave cyclones.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 24

With reference to the Temple Entry movements in South India in the 20th century, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

  1. By a resolution in 1924, the Kakinada Congress committee formed the Untouchability Abolition Committee to support the Vaikom Satyagraha.

  2. K. Kelappan led the ten-month long protests during the Guruvayur Satyagraha in 1931.

  3. The movements failed to achieve anything concrete due to British repression also supported by the Native state’s rulers.

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is correct: The demand for temple entry was first started in Vaikom, Kerala. This Vaikom Satyagraha gave inspiration to Tamils to fight against Caste Hindus. In South India Nadars were among the first people to fight for temple entry.

  • Statement 2 is correct: K Kelappan was the lead figure of congress in Kerala and popularly called Kerala Gandhi. He fought against untouchability and caste-based discrimination.

    He was also the leader of the Guruvayur Satyagraha in 1932

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The movement got support from many nationalist leaders including Gandhi and agitation against untouchability spread in other states of South India also.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 25

With reference to Colistin, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is the last-resort antibiotic used to treat highly drug-resistant bacterial infections in humans.

  2. It has been used in veterinary medicine for the prevention and treatment of bacterial infections.

  3. Its use in livestock has been permitted only for food-producing animals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 25

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Colistin is a last-resort antibiotic used to treat highly drug-resistant bacterial infections in humans. This statement is correct because colistin is considered a last line of defense against certain multidrug-resistant bacterial infections, particularly those caused by Gram-negative bacteria.

Colistin has been used in veterinary medicine for the prevention and treatment of bacterial infections. This statement is also correct because colistin has been used in both human and veterinary medicine to treat various bacterial infections. In veterinary medicine, it has been used for the prevention and treatment of infections in animals, particularly livestock.

The statement "Its use in livestock has been permitted only for food-producing animals" is incorrect. While colistin has been used in food-producing animals, its use is not limited to them. It can also be used in non-food-producing animals to treat bacterial infections. However, due to concerns about antibiotic resistance, some countries have restricted or banned the use of colistin in animal feed and veterinary medicine.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 26

With reference to 'Black-necked crane', a bird found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is found only in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in India.

  2. It is classified as critically endangered in the IUCN red list.

  3. Its breeding is mainly threatened by the damage to the eggs and chicks, caused by feral dogs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 26
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Black-necked cranes are found in the states of Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim as well as the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It is classified as vulnerable in the IUCN red list.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The major threat to the successful breeding of black-necked cranes is the damage to the eggs and chicks, caused by feral dogs. These dogs are owned both by armed forces as well as by the local nomads. Another threat to the bird is the loss of habitat. The human pressure on the wetlands, the primary habitat of cranes, has increased tremendously over the last decade. The increased grazing pressure on the limited pastures near the wetlands is also leading to the degradation of the wetland habitat.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 27

When the Reserve bank of India reduces the Repo Rate by 75 basis points then, which of the following is likely to happen?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 27
The Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks in the event of a shortfall in their reserve requirements. When the RBI reduces the Repo Rate, it becomes cheaper for commercial banks to borrow money from the RBI. This can lead to a decline in the interest rates on loans offered by commercial banks to their customers. A reduction in the Repo Rate may not necessarily result in a drastic drop in the prevalent inflation rate.

Inflation is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising, and it is measured as an annual percentage increase. The Repo Rate is one of the tools used by the RBI to control inflation, but it is not the only factor that affects inflation. A reduction in the Repo Rate may not lower the reserve to be kept with the RBI by banks. The reserve requirement is the percentage of deposits that commercial banks are required to hold in reserve with the RBI. It is set by the RBI and is not directly affected by changes in the Repo Rate.

A reduction in the Repo Rate may not necessarily result in an increase in the cost of borrowing. The cost of borrowing is the interest rate charged by lenders on loans. As mentioned earlier, a reduction in the Repo Rate may lead to a decline in the interest rates on loans offered by commercial banks, which could result in a lower cost of borrowing for customers. Therefore, the correct answer is b) a decline in the interest rates on loans offered.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 28

Consider the following statements with reference to the Home Rule Movement:

  1. The 1915 Bombay Congress session rejected the proposal of Annie Besant to start the movement.

  2. V K Krishna Menon was associated with the formation of India League in 1928 which was inspired by Annie Besant’s Home rule leagues.

  3. The 1917 August Declaration changed the course of the movement.

Which of the above given statements is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The congress neither rejected nor approved the proposal of Anni Besant to start the movement

  • Statement 2 is correct: The India league was based in Britain. Its objective was to achieve full independence and self-government for India. VK Krishna Menon was an important figure in it. It evolved from the Commonwealth of India League (1922) which was inspired by the Home Rule League. VK Menon after becoming joint secretary radicalised the organisation and started demanding complete independence. The organisation opened up its branches in other cities of Britain like Liverpool, Manchester, Newcastle, Southampton and Wolverhampton. The league sought to raise consciousness among British people of the injustice of British rule in India.

  • Statement 3 is correct: After Tilak left for England the movement was left leaderless. Annie Besant was satisfied by the promise of the reforms proposed by the 1917 August Declaration. After the Montagu declaration the League agreed to put a halt on their movement and all the moderate members gave up their membership of the league. The league believed in the promises of the British government that it would gradually reform the administration. The rise of Gandhi and his Satyagraha also provided for the dissolution of the league.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 29

With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. The President may specify the first list of Scheduled Tribes in relation to a state.

  2. The President is not required to consult the Governor of the state before specifying such a list.

  3. Any subsequent amendment to such a list of Scheduled Tribes can be only done by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 29
  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 342 of the Constitution provides the Supreme Court the power to President to provide the list of tribal communities to be listed under Scheduled Tribes of the Constitution.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The President in consultation with the Governor prepares the initial list of tribes to be listed under Scheduled Tribes. (Article 342 (1).

  • Statement 3 is correct: Parliament is empowered to make amendments to the list only through law. Only Parliament has the power to amend. (Article 342 (2).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 30

The ‘Portfolio system of governance’ in British India was introduced by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 30
Option (b) is the correct answer. The Indian Council Act 1861 made changes in the Governor General’s council for executive and legislative purposes. The Act was introduced by Lord Canning. It empowered the Governor General to delegate special tasks to individuals of the Executive council. Each member had their own portfolio and dealt with it.

This was the first instance of a portfolio system in India. The act also provided for the establishment of new Legislative Councils for Bengal, NWFP and Punjab. Before the 1861 act, the Executive council had little or no representation of the people and there was demand for representation. Therefore, a fifth finance member was added, and provision was made for addition of 6 to 12 members to the Executive council.

The 1858 Act made Governor General the Viceroy. Now onwards India was to be governed by and in the name of the crown through secretary of state and council of 15 members. Indian Council Act 1892 enlarged the Legislative council of Governor General.

A principle of representation was introduced along with elements of indirect election. The Indian Council Act 1909 or Morley Minto reforms provided first time entry of an Indian in the Executive Council of the Governor General. It also introduced a separate electorate for the Muslims.

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