UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 22 - UPSC MCQ

• Recent Context - The first Parliament session of 2021 began with President addressing members of both Houses of Parliament.
• President Address - The Constitution gives the President the power to address either House or a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
• Article 86(1) of the Constitution provides that the President may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose require the attendance of members. However, since the commencement of the Constitution, there has not been any occasion when the President has addressed either House or both Houses assembled together, under the provision of this article
• Article 87 provides two special occasions on which the President addresses a joint sitting. The first is to address the opening session of a new legislature after a general election. The second is to address the first sitting of Parliament each year. If at the time of commencement of the first session of the year, Lok Sabha is not in existence and has been dissolved, and Rajya Sabha has to meet, Rajya Sabha can have its session without the President's Address. It happened in 1977. In the case of the first session after each general election to Lok Sabha, the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together after the members have made and subscribed the oath or affirmation and the Speaker has been elected.
• In India, the practice of the President addressing Parliament can be traced back to the Government of India Act of 1919. This law gave the Governor-General the right of addressing the Legislative Assembly and the Council of State. The law did not have a provision for a joint address but the GovernorGeneral did address the Assembly and the Council together on multiple occasions.
• When the Constitution came into force, the President was required to address each session of Parliament. So, during the provisional Parliament in 1950, President Rajendra Prasad gave an address before every session. The First Amendment to the Constitution in 1951 changed this position and made the President’s address once a year.
• The address of the President follows a general structure in which it highlights the government’s accomplishments from the previous year and sets the broad governance agenda for the coming year. The government uses the President’s address to make policy and legislative announcements.
• The President’s Address in India is mirrored on the British system. In the United Kingdom, it is referred to as the Queen’s Speech and is part of the ceremony to mark the formal start of the parliamentary year. In the British system, the Queen’s speech written by the government. She reads it in person from the throne in the House of Lords. In the American system, the President has the option of simply sending his written speech to Congress instead of personally going to deliver it. 
  Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Consumer price Index - Industrial Workers (CPI- IW) is the oldest among the CPI indices as its dissemination started as early as 1946. The history of compilation and maintenance of the Consumer Price Index for Industrial workers owes its origin to the deteriorating economic condition of the workers post world war which resulted in a sharp increase in prices. 
• Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial workers measure a change over time in prices of a fixed basket of goods and services consumed by Industrial Workers. CPI-IW also includes selected services and is measured on the basis of retail prices. The target group is an average working-class family belonging to any of the seven sectors of the economy- factories, mines, plantation, motor transport, port, railways and electricity generation and distribution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Consumer Price Index for Industrial Worker (CPI-IW) with the base year 2016, is being compiled and maintained by Labour Bureau, an attached office of Ministry of Labour & Employment. The index has a time lag of one month and is released on the last working day of the month (monthly). Hence, statement 3 is not correct. 
• The CPI-IW is the single most important price statistics, which has financial implications. It is primarily used to regulate the dearness allowance of government employees and the workers in the industrial sectors. It is also used in fixation and revision of minimum wages in scheduled employments besides measuring the inflation in retail prices. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

1. Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s crust. Its widespread use has resulted in extensive environmental contamination, human exposure and significant public health problems in many parts of the world. 
   • It affects multiple body systems and is particularly harmful to young children. Human exposure is usually assessed through the measurement of lead in blood. Lead in bone is released into the blood during pregnancy and becomes a source of exposure to the developing fetus. 
2. Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) Drinking Water Specifications prescribed lead content in water not to exceed 50 parts per billion. The World Health Organisation limit for lead in drinking water is 5 ppb. 
3. Causes: 
   • A leading contributor to lead exposure is informal and sub-standard recycling of lead-acid batteries. 
   • As per the report, water is also another source of lead poisoning.
   • Folk remedies and cosmetics used by households that contained lead.
   • It is widely used in many lead-acid batteries, paints, stained glass, pigment, ceramics, cosmetics, ammunition, jewellery, e-waste, etc. 
   • Drinking water supplied through lead pipes and pipes joined through lead solder may contain lead. 
   • Lead is also entering the food chain through vegetables. The inorganic lead could be ingested and directly absorbed by the digestive tract through certain foods and water, as well as some folk and unbranded traditional medicines.
     Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

1. Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) U.S. trade preference programs such as the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) provide opportunities for many of the world’s poorest countries to use trade to grow their economies and climb out of poverty. GSP is the largest and oldest U.S. trade preference program. Established by the Trade Act of 1974, GSP promotes economic development by eliminating duties on thousands of products when imported from one of 119 designated beneficiary countries and territories. The GSP Guidebook provides basic information on the program. 
2. Strategic Trade Authorisation-1 (STA-1): 
   • STA allows for license exception with regards to exports from the US. This type of US government authorisation allows a certain item to be exported under defined conditions without a transaction-specific license, according to a report in Descartes Customs Info.
   • India is the 37th country to be designated the STA-1 status by the United States. India has become the third Asian country after Japan and South Korea to get the Strategic Trade Authorisation-1 (STA-1) status after the U.S. issued a federal notification to this effect, paving the way for high technology product sales to New Delhi, particularly in civil space and defence sectors. 
   • Traditionally, the U.S. has placed only those countries in the STA-1 list who are members of the four export control regimes: Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), Wassenaar Arrangement (WA), Australia Group (AG) and the NSG. 
   • By placing India in the STA-1 list, the United States has acknowledged that for all practical purposes India adheres to the export control regimes of the NSG.
     Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• After the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement, there was disintegration, among nationalist ranks. One section known as Swarajists led by C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru and Ajmal Khan wanted an end to the boycott of legislative councils. While the other school of thought led by C. Rajagopalachari, Vallabhbhai Patel, Rajendra Prasad and M.A. Ansari came to be known as the ‘No- changers’. The ‘Nochangers’ opposed council entry, advocated concentration on constructive work. 
• In December 1922, Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Congress Khilafat Swaraj Party with CR Das as its President and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries. The new party was to function as a group within the Congress. It accepted the Congress programme except in one respect - it would take part in Council elections.
  Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
• Swarajists won 42 seats out of 101 elected seats in the Central Legislative Assembly. With the cooperation of other Indian groups, they repeatedly outvoted the Government in the Central Assembly and in several of the Provincial Councils. In 1925, they succeeded in electing Vithalbhai Patel as the President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly.
  Hence statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct. 
• But they could not change the policies of authoritarian Government of India and found it necessary to walk out of the Central Assembly in March 1926. They failed to bring masses into active politics. Swarajists suffered a grievous blow in the death of Deshbandhu Das in 1925.

1. Organisms grow and reproduce through cell division. In eukaryotic cells, the production of new cells occurs as a result of mitosis and meiosis. These two nuclear division processes are similar but distinct. 
2. In Mitosis, the genetic material (DNA) in a cell is duplicated and divided equally between two cells. The dividing cell goes through an ordered series of events called the cell cycle. Somatic cells of the body replicate by mitosis. Examples of somatic cells include fat cells, blood cells, skin cells etc. 
3. Meiosis is the process by which gametes (sex cells) are generated in organisms that reproduce sexually. Gametes are produced in male and female gonads and contain one-half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. 
4. Key differences between Mitosis and Meiosis: 
   • Mitosis and meiosis are nuclear division processes that occur during cell division. 
   • Mitosis involves the division of body cells, while meiosis involves the division of sex cells. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
   • The division of a cell occurs once in mitosis but twice in meiosis. 
   • Two daughter cells are produced after mitosis and cytoplasmic division, while four daughter cells are produced after meiosis. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
   • Daughter cells resulting from mitosis are diploid, while those resulting from meiosis are haploid. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
   • Daughter cells that are the product of mitosis are genetically identical. Daughter cells produced after meiosis are genetically diverse. Tetrads formation occurs in meiosis but not mitosis

1. Any unwanted sound that causes annoyance, irritation and pain to the human ear is termed noise. It is measured in A-weighted decibels (dB (A)) that indicate the loudness of the sound. 
2. Noise level refers to the decibel levels of noise produced by any appliance or machine. In general, the human ear can tolerate noise levels up to 85 dB. Anything beyond that can affect their productivity and quality of life. 
3. The decibel levels of common sounds above 80 dB are considered ‘loud’, while the decibel levels of common sounds between 100-125 dB are termed ‘uncomfortable’. 
4. All machines operating in an area should produce noise within the acceptable level to maintain the wellbeing of people around. 
5. Both section 6 of the Environment Protection (Act), 1986 and the Air (Prevention And Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 consider 'noise' as a pollutant. Hence options 2 and 3 are correct. 
6. While the Water Prevention and Control of Pollution Act, 1974, does not consider noise as a pollutant. Hence option1 is not correct. 
7. Noise Regulation in India: 
   • Earlier, noise pollution and its sources were addressed under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. 
   • They are now, however, regulated separately under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000. 
   • Additionally, noise standards for motor vehicles, air-conditioners, refrigerators, diesel generators and certain types of construction equipment are prescribed under the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986. 
   • Noise emanating from industry is regulated by State Pollution Control Boards / Pollution Control Committees (SPCBs / PCCs) for states / Union territories under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981(Noise is included as an 'air pollutant' under Section 2(a)). Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Information Technology Agreement (ITA) is the first and most significant tariff liberalization arrangement negotiated in the WTO after its establishment in 1995. All the signatories are members of the World Trade Organization (WTO). Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• As per the rules of the ITA, all the signatories have to “eliminate and bind customs duties at zero for all products specified”. It led to the elimination of import duties on specified IT products. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• The ITA covers a large number of high technology products, including computers, telecommunication equipment, semiconductors, semiconductor manufacturing and testing equipment, software, scientific instruments, as well as most of the parts and accessories of these products. 
• India is a signatory to the Information Technology Agreement (ITA) (now also known as ITA-1), a plurilateral agreement of WTO signed in 1997. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Eravikulam National Park: 

• Eravikulam National Park is located in the Southern Western Ghats near Idukki, Kerala. 
• It was declared a Sanctuary in 1975 with the intention of protecting the indigenous population of Nilgiri Tahr and declared as a National Park in 1978. 
• Anamudi (2695 m), South India’s highest peak is situated in this park. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• This is also the land of “Neelakurinji”, a flower that blooms once in twelve years. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• Eravikulam National Park is home to the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• The Muthuvans are the indigenous people, who have traditionally been associated with the management of the park. Hence statement 4 is correct

• The value of gravity on the surface of the earth differs due to the uneven distribution of the mass of the material within the earth. These readings differ from expected values and such a difference is called gravity anomaly. 
• Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth. 
• The data from various earth observation satellites such as Seasat and Geosat have found that the shape of the ocean surface is warped by seafloor features: massive seamounts cause the surface to bulge over them because of gravitational attraction. Similarly, the ocean surface downwards occur over deep-sea trenches. 
• Using these satellite measurements of the ocean surface, the gravity field there was computed and a gravity map was prepared that shows a linear pattern of gravity anomalies that cut obliquely across the grain of the topography. These anomalies are most pronounced in the Pacific basin; they are apparently about 100 km (about 60 miles) across and some 1,000 km (about 600 miles) long aligned west-northwest—very close to the direction in which the Pacific Plate moves over the mantle below. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Tribal people in Chotanagpur area, which is in present day Jharkhand, practiced Khuntkatti system (joint holding by tribal lineages) till mid 19th century. Before the introduction of the British policies in the areas inhabited by Oraon and Munda, their traditional land and social systems had existed. Their land system was known as 'Khuntkatti system'. The tribals enjoyed customary rights over their land. The system was marked by the absence of the class of landlords. The tribals worked on their land and paid tributes to their chiefs. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct. 
• By 1874, the British replaced the traditional khuntkari system by the zamindari system. The introduction of zamindari system created the classes of zamindars (landlords) and ryots (tenants). The emergence of well-to-do farmers, merchants, moneylenders and dikus (non-tribals) led to indebtedness and beth-begari (forced labour) among the tribal people. 
• The Mundas held the dikus and the missionaries responsible for their miseries. Therefore, they developed feelings of hatred against the dikus. In 1899-1900, the Mundas rose under Birsa Munda's leadership which came to be known as the Ulgulan. The rebellion which began as a religious movement gathered political force to fight against introduction of feudal, zamindari tenures, and exploitation by money-lenders and forest contractors. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Vanchit Ikai Samooh aur Vargon ki Aarthik Sahayta (VISVAS) Yojana: This is an Interest subvention Scheme of Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment for financial empowerment of economically marginalized OBC/SC SHGs & Individuals. Under this scheme, interest subvention will be provided to Self Help Groups with 100% OBC members and OBC individuals who have taken loan for various income-generating activities from those Lending Institutions who have signed MoA with NBCFDC. Hence statement 1 and statement 3 are correct. 
• The scheme will benefit OBC/SC SHGs with loans/borrowings up to Rs.4.00 Lakh and OBC/SC individuals with loan/borrowing up to Rs.2.00 Lakh with a quick interest subvention benefit of 5% directly into the standard accounts of borrowing SHGs/beneficiaries. All OBC beneficiaries involved in Agricultural activities and getting coverage under the PM Kisan shall be eligible for coverage under Interest Subvention. To become eligible for an applicant’s annual family income should be less than Rs. 3.00 Lakh. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

1. Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the: 
   • Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law; 
   • Punishment or sentence is by a court-martial (military court); and Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
   • The sentence is a sentence of death. 
2. The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary; it is an executive power. But, the President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal. 
3. The Supreme Court examined the pardoning power of the President under different cases and laid down the following principles: 
   • The power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of the union cabinet. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• ‘Rakshita’: Institute of Nuclear Medicine and Allied Sciences (INMAS), Delhi based DRDO laboratory recently handed over Rakshita, a bike-based casualty transport emergency vehicle to Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
• The bike ambulance will help in overcoming the problems faced by Indian security forces and emergency healthcare providers. It will provide life-saving aid for the evacuation of injured patients from low-intensity conflict areas. This will be handy in the congested streets and remote locations, where access through ambulance is difficult and time-consuming. The bike can respond to a medical emergency need of patients faster than a four-wheeler due to its functionality and integrated emergency medical support system. 
• Rakshita is fitted with a customized reclining Casualty Evacuation Seat (CES), which can be fitted in and taken out as per requirement. Other major features are the head immobilizer, safety harness jacket, hand and foot straps for safety, adjustable footrest, physiological parameter measuring equipment with wireless monitoring capability and auto warning system for the driver. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

1. Lord Ripon (1880-84) was a staunch Liberal democrat with faith in self- government. He was appointed as the Viceroy of India in 1880. Ripon was instructed to reverse the Afghan policy of Lytton. As a result, peace was made with Afghanistan without affecting the British prestige. Hence only option 4 is not correct. 
2. Important measures taken by Lord Ripon: 
   • Introduction of Local Self-Government: Ripon helped the growth of local bodies like the Municipal Committees in towns and the local boards in taluks and villages. The local bodies were given executive powers with financial resources of their own. 
   • Educational reforms: To improve the system of Education in India, Ripon appointed a Commission in 1882 under the chairmanship of Sir William Hunter. The Commission recommended for the expansion and improvement of the elementary education of the masses. 
   • First Factory Act (1881): Lord Ripon introduced the Factory Act of 1881 to improve the service condition of the factory workers in India. The Act banned the appointment of children below the age of seven in factories. It reduced the working hours for children. 
   • Ilbert Bill Agitation: The Ilbert Bill was a legislative act introduced in 1883 during the tenure of Viceroy Ripon and written by Sir Ilbert. The act stipulated that Indian judges could try Europeans. The mere possibility that a European could be tried by an Indian, whom the Europeans regard as inferiors, was a point of much anger and resentment. So it was withdrawn but was reintroduced and enacted in 1884 in a severely compromised state. The passage of this bill opened the eyes of the Indians and deepened antagonism between the British and Indians. 
   • He was also responsible for the rendition of Mysore to its Hindu ruler. Moreover, he repealed the Vernacular Press Act and earned much popularity among Indians.
     Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Recently, Arunachal Pradesh has become the first state in the country to obtain Organic Certification for Kiwi under Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North East Region (MOVCD-NER). In Arunachal Pradesh, a domesticated variety of kiwi was introduced as a commercial fruit only in 2000. Today Arunachal Pradesh is the leading producer of Kiwi in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• Twenty years ago, the kiwis that grew wild in Arunachal Pradesh’s Ziro Valley barely caught anyone’s attention. However, in the last decade, farmers slowly recognised the commercial value of the fruit. Today, the kiwis of the region are the only certified organic fruit of their kind in the country. 
• Kiwi (Actinidia deliciosa) which is otherwise also known as Chinese gooseberry is an important fruit crop of temperate regions and is widely grown in the mid-hills of Himachal Pradesh, J & K, Sikkim, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Kiwis grow as vines, so require a number of supporting planting materials, such as fencing, iron posts etc. The Kiwi fruit vine grows well between 900 to 1600 m above mean sea level. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The certification: Organic certification was provided by the Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North East Region (MOCVD-NER), a scheme for the northeastern states by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare under the Central government. 
• An agricultural practice/product is considered organic when there are no chemical fertilisers or pesticides involved in its cultivation process. Such certifications in India can be obtained after a strict scientific assessment done by the regulatory body, Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Ananda Mohan Bose was an Indian politician, academician, social reformer, and lawyer during the British Raj. 
• After his schooling he left for England and enrolled himself as a student of Higher Mathematics at Christ Church College, Cambridge. In 1874, he became the first Indian Wrangler (a student who has completed the third year of the Mathematical Tripos with first-class honours) of the Cambridge University. 
• With Surendranath Bannerjee as his mentor and through his own organisational ability, Ananda Mohan Bose set up a number of pioneering institutions. The Calcutta Students Association was the earliest attempt made to organise students for constructive political work. The Indian Association was the first political organisation at an All India level to institute a vigorous constitutional agitation for rights and privileges of the Indian citizens. One of it's by products was the convening of the, first National Conference in 1883 which became a precursor of the Indian National Congress (1885). Bose was associated with the Congress since its inauguration and was elected President of its Madras Session in 1898. 
• The Sadharan Brahmo Samaj was formed in a public meeting of Brahmos held in Calcutta in May 1878. Anandamohan Bose was appointed the first President. Shib Chandra Deb the first Secretary and Umesh Chandra Dutta the Assistant Secretary. Later It not only became a church and a congregation but also an active centre for the spread of education and social uplift.
  Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• In the 1830s, William Adam, a Scottish missionary, toured the districts of Bengal and Bihar. He had been asked by the Company to report on the progress of education in vernacular schools. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. 
• Adam found that there were over 1 lakh pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar. These institutions were set up by wealthy people, or the local community. The system of education was flexible. There were no fixed fee, no printed books, no separate school buildings etc. Classes were often held under trees, or in the temples. Fee depended on the income of parents. Adam discovered that this flexible system was suited to local needs. For instance, classes were not held during harvest time where rural children often worked in the fields. Adam’s enquiries provide a fair picture of the indigenous system of education as it existed at the beginning of the 19th century.

• The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MoP&NG). The EBP seeks to achieve blending of Ethanol with Petrol with a view to reducing pollution, conserving foreign exchange and increasing value addition in the sugar industry enabling them to clear cane price arrears of farmers. 
• The Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) are to procure ethanol from domestic sources at remunerative prices fixed by the government. Under the EBP Programme, OMCs procure and blend up to 10% ethanol in petrol. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The government has set targets of 10% bioethanol blending of petrol by 2022 and to raise it to 20% by 2030 under the Ethanol Blended Programme (EBP). 
• The Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MoP&NG) vide its notification has extended the programme to the whole of India except Union Territories of Andaman Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Government has notified administered price of ethanol since 2014. For the first time during 2018, the differential price of ethanol-based on raw material utilized for ethanol production was announced by the Government. 
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved higher ethanol price derived from different sugarcane-based raw materials under the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme for the forthcoming sugar season 2020-21.
  Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The Goods and Services Tax was implemented in India on July 1, 2017. The government aimed to bring in an indirect tax regime with a theory of ‘One Nation, One Tax’. 
• The public listed companies in India contributed the highest amount of Goods and Services tax revenues for the government. These companies comprise a mere 0.62 percent of the overall taxpayer base, but they contributed 35.29 percent of the GST revenues, revealed the statistical report of GST Network after three years of GST. On the flip side, the proprietorships with the maximum 80.18 percent taxpayer base contributed 13.35 percent of the revenue. The contributions of PSU companies also remained significant as they comprised only 0.02 percent share in the taxpayer base but accounted for 9.12 percent of the total GST revenue. 
• The GST revenue in the country remained skewed as most of the revenues have been generated by businesses with an annual turnover above Rs 5 crore. These businesses comprising a taxpayer base of 7 percent contributed 80.7 percent to overall GST revenue. While 22 percent of the taxpayers recorded nil tax liability under GST, 28 percent of the taxpayers having an annual turnover of up to Rs 20 lakh accounted for 1-2 percent of the revenue.

1. Recently, India’s forex reserves have crossed an unprecedented mark — over half trillion USD — placing India only behind China and Japan in Asia. During the 10-month period between September 2019 and July 2020, the foreign exchange reserves have swelled by $100 billion. 
2. Reasons for the surge in Forex Reserves: 
   • FPI and FDI inflows: Rise in foreign exchange inflows through Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). Between April and December 2019, FPIs pumped in a net $15.1 billion, according to the RBI. Between September 2019 and March 2020 foreign direct investments stood at $23.88 billion 
   • Dip in crude oil prices: India’s oil import bill declined as the global spread of coronavirus led to a crash in the Brent crude oil prices. 
   • Import savings: Lockdown across countries in response to Covid-19 pandemic impacted global trade and has resulted in a sharp dip in import expenditure — electronics, gold and also crude oil prices among others. Exports also declined but the decline in imports is more than exports which resulted in import savings. 
   • Dip in gold imports: Gold which was a big import component for India witnessed a sharp decline in the quarter ended June 2020 following the high prices and the lockdown induced by the Covid-19 pandemic.
     Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

1. A fault is a fracture or zone of fractures between two blocks of rock. Faults allow the blocks to move relative to each other. This movement may occur rapidly, in the form of an earthquake - or may occur slowly, in the form of creep. Faults may range in length from a few millimetres to thousands of kilometres. Most faults produce repeated displacements over geologic time. 
2. During an earthquake, the rock on one side of the fault suddenly slips with respect to the other. The fault surface can be horizontal or vertical or some arbitrary angle in between. 
3. Some major faults in India: 
   • The Churachandpur Mao Fault is named after two places in Manipur and runs north-south into Myanmar along the border of Champhai. Mizoram is caught between two geological faults. These are the Churachandpur Mao Fault and the Mat Fault, which runs northwest-southeast across Mizoram, beneath river Mat near Serchhip and thus experiences frequent tremors. 
   • Malda Fault: It is the fracture in the rock observed in the Malda district of West Bengal. The fault runs several layers deep below the earth's surface and is formed during the upliftment of the Himalayas. It separates the Meghalaya Plateau from the Chota Nagpur Plateau. 
   • Bhima fault: found in the southern part of the river Bhima basin in Maharashtra. The Southern part of Bhima basin was displaced transversely towards west. The net slip of this fault on the northern part is about 35 km. Second-order shears are numerous in the area. Gravity and thrust faults are also observed in the region. Folds of plunging, non-plunging and superposed types are identified. The basin seems to be tilted towards the north at 5° or, possibly, the central part of the basin is sunken. 
   • The Allah Bund Fault scarp is an elongated steeply dipping south-facing scarp bordered on the south by the salt-encrusted surface of Rann of Kutch. On June 16, 1819, one of the biggest earthquakes hit the Indian sub-continent. The tremblor, which created a ridge 90 km long, 16km wide and 3-4 m high in Greater Rann - all in less than a minute - continues to intrigue geologists and earth scientists event today.
     Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a statutory body which was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008 in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terrorist attacks. 
• NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• NIA Act, 2008 empowers the NIA to investigate and prosecute offences within India and NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the agency to investigate offences committed outside India, subject to international treaties and domestic laws of other countries. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• NIA act empowers the NIA to take suo motu cognisance of terror activities in any part of India and register a case, to enter any state without permission from the state government, and to investigate. 
• The investigated cases by NIA are trailed under special courts whose judges are appointed by the Central government on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of the High Court with jurisdiction in that region. 
• The NIA can also make an application to the Chief Justice of the High Court for appointment of a Judge to preside over the Special Court. 
• NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019 widened the power of NIA : Originally The NIA can investigate and prosecute offences under The Atomic Energy Act, 1962, The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, and The Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982, among other entries. The amendment has allowed the NIA to investigate, in addition, cases related to (i) human trafficking, (ii) counterfeit currency or banknotes, (iii) manufacture or sale of prohibited arms, (iv) cyber-terrorism, and (v) offences under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• Recently, National Investigation Agency (NIA) was empowered to investigate offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act.

1. Traditional crystalline solar cells are typically made of silicon. An organic solar cell uses carbon-based materials and organic electronics instead of silicon as a semiconductor to produce electricity from the sun. In an organic solar cell, the photovoltaic process is the same, but carbon-based compounds are used instead of silicon as the semiconducting material. 
2. OPV cells are categorized into two classes: 
   • Small-molecule OPV cells, 
   • Polymer-based OPV cells 
3. Small-molecule OPV cells use molecules with broad absorption in the visible and near-infrared portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. Polymer-based OPV cells use long-chained molecular systems for the electron-donating material. Most organic photovoltaic cells are polymer solar cells. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
4. Comparison with Silicon-based Solar cells:
   • Silicon solar cells use crystalline silicon, while organic cells use carbon-based organic compounds applied in a thin layer to a synthetic backing. Because organic cells are made using an ink-based application and can exhibit transparentness, they usually result in a flexible solar panel that can be installed in more unique ways than traditional solar panels. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
   • Efficiency: A solar cell’s efficiency measures what percentage of incoming sunlight that hits the solar cell is converted to electricity. Crystalline silicon PV cells have laboratory energy conversion efficiencies over 25% for single-crystal cells and over 20% for multi-crystalline cells. Organic solar cells have exhibited efficiencies topping out near 11 per cent. OPVs still have a way to go before they can compete with silicon-based solar cells in terms of efficiency alone. Hence statement 2 is not correct.  Hence option (b) is the correct answer

• In any economy, a recessionary phase is the counterpart of an expansionary phase. When the GDP contracts from one quarter to another, the economy is said to be in a recessionary phase. 
• When a recessionary phase sustains for long enough, it is called a recession. In other words, when the GDP contracts for a long enough period, the economy is said to be in a recession. 
• Recession is defined as two or more consecutive quarters of negative economic growth, which is most commonly measured using the real gross domestic product (GDP). An economic recession is broad as a downturn in the GDP of a nation for at least two successive quarters, ie, 6 months. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• During the first quarter of 2020-21, the GDP of India declined by 23.9% and RBI predicts that India’s economy will contract by 8.6% in the second quarter (July, August, September) of the current financial year. 
• While this pace of contraction is considerably slower than the 23.9% decline in the real gross domestic product (GDP) during the first quarter (April, May, June), the contraction of Q2 is crucial because it implies India that has entered a “technical recession” in the first half of 2020-21— for the first time in its history. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Typically, recessions last for a few quarters. But if they continue for years, they are referred to as “depressions”. Depressions are drastic economic downturns in which real GDP falls by 10% or more. They are far more severe than recessions and their effects can be felt for years. Depressions are known to cause calamities in banking, trade, and manufacturing, as well as falling prices, extremely tight credit, low investment, rising bankruptcy, and high unemployment. 
• A slowdown, on the other hand, means that the pace of the GDP growth has decreased (but positive). It means the production and earnings of these economies are not growing at the same pace as, say, last year.

• Recent Context - Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare digitally addressed the Inter-Ministerial Conference by ‘Partners in Population and Development (PPD)’. 
• About Partners in Population and Development (PPD): It is an international Inter-Governmental Organization (IGO) grouping of 27 developing countries. Its vision is to promote South-South cooperation towards the attainment of the global population and reproductive health agenda for sustainable development through the governments, NGOs and private sector organizations. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Recent Context: There are certain places of the world is news such as 
• Norilsk (Russia): In June, Russian President Vladimir Putin declared a state of emergency after a spill of over 20,000 tonnes of massive diesel reservoir at a power plant near the city of Norilsk into a Siberian river. It is regarded as second-largest oil spill in modern Russian history in terms of volume. 
• Sinjar (Iraq): Turkey conducted “Operation Claw-Eagle,” hit suspected Kurdish rebels targets in several regions in Iraq’s north, including Sinjar. 
• Nantz (Iran): It is one of the main underground uranium enrichment site of Iran. It was in the news as On July an explosion and massive fire occurred at the nuclear centre which raised the question of security measures of nuclear sites.

1. Geographic Information System (GIS) is a computer system used for capturing, storing, checking and displaying data with regard to positions on the Earth’s surface. Rooted in geography, GIS integrates numerous types of data, analyses spatial locations and organises these layers of information into maps and 3D visualisations. The ubiquitous use of the geographic information system (GIS) across Multiple platforms and sectors makes it the new age fire that powers our systems, enables globalisation and is integrated with almost every New technology being used. 
2. In India, GIS is being used in variety of application such as 
   • Mapping all Central Government land parcels, including that of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). 
   • Rural Electrification System: Identify and map electrification status of villages under Grameen Vidyutikaran App (GARV). 
   • Mining Surveillance System: Curb illegal mining through automatic remote sensing detection. 
   • Industrial Information System (DIPP): GIS based master plan for industrial areas, zones, parks etc. 
   • Road Information System: Geo-mapping present status of lanes, impedances of national highways, state highways etc. 
   • GlS-enabled BHARAT MAPS to enhance governance and improve planning and monitoring in New India. 
   • For crop and agriculture insurance. 
   • To provide a facility to map assets/amenities and facilitate developmental planning under AMRUT scheme.
     Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

1. The Bronze Age Indus Valley Civilization or Harappan Civilization was the culmination of a long and sustained cultural evolution in the Indus Valley and surrounding areas. 
2. IVC site River bank 
   • Harappa: Ravi Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. 
   • Mohenjodaro: Indus 
   • Chanhudaro: Indus Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched. 
   • Lothal: Bhogava 
   • Kalibangan: Ghaggar Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. 
   • Banawali: Ghaggar 
3. Harappa is the first discovered site of this civilization excavated in 1921 by a team led by Daya Ram Sahni. It was a major urban centre during its mature phase surrounded by extensive walls. It is located in Punjab Province, Pakistan, on an old bank / bed of the River Ravi. 
4. Kalibangan (black bangles) is in Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan. It was located on the banks of now dried up Saraswati River. The oldest ploughed field, evidence of earliest recorded Earthquake (which might have ended this city itself), Fire-Altars, Charging bull, tiled floor, two kinds of burials (circular and rectangular graves), bones of camels etc. are important findings of Kalibangan. Further, this site was different from Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro in the following respects: The bricks in other sites were baked ones, while Kalibangan bricks are earthen ones. There was no drainage system in Kalibangan. Due to these, Kalibangan is not considered a well planned city as comparable to other important sites of Indus Valley. 
5. Chanhudaro is situated 130 kms south of Mohenjo-Daro in Sindh and is the only harappan city which does not have a fortified citadel. The Chanhu Daro has given evidence of factories of various figurines, seals, toys, bone implements so it has been interpreted that it was a settlement with lots of artisans and was an industrial town.

• Angutara Nikaya, a Buddhist scripture mentions 16 great kingdoms or Mahajanapadas at the beginning of the 6th century BCE in India. They emerged during the Vedic Age. 
• Bimbisara was the first king of Magadha to have standing army and contemporary to the Buddha. 
• He was the first who started matrimonial alliances to strengthen its position as a king after defeating Brahamadutta , the king of Anga. 
• He married to the Mahakosaladevi , the princess of Koshala and sister of the Kosala prince Prasanjit, Licchhavi princes Chellana and Khema ,princess of Madra clan of Punjab. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• Mahajanapada of Avanti with its capital at Ujjain under the king Chanda Pradyota Mahasena was a serious rival of Magadha. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. 
• But, both of them ultimately thought it is wise to become friends and Bimbisara even sent his physician Jivaka to cure Pradyota of Jaundice. 
• Vasudeva I was a Kushan emperor, last of the "Great Kushans." His name, Vasudeva, is that of the father of Krishna, the popular Hindu God, and he was the first Kushan king to be named after the Indian God. He converted to Hinduism during his reign. His name reinforces the notion that his center of power was in Mathura. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched