UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 3 - UPSC MCQ

An electoral bond is an interest-free banking instrument whereby a citizen or a business entity in India is eligible to purchase (either through cheque or digital payments) the bond from specific branches of the State Bank of India for 10 days each in months of January, April, July, and October. As per the business rules unveiled by the government in 2018, EB can be purchased by a person, who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India. Further, a person being an individual can buy electoral bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Only political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 that have secured not less than 1 percent of votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State are eligible to receive such donations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Other highlights of EB are that the bonds will be valid for 15 days only and shall not carry the donor's name, although the payee will have to fulfil KYC (Know Your Customer) norms at the bank. What is important here is no report is required to be submitted by receiving parties in case of donations received via electoral bonds. In other words, neither donors nor political parties are legally bound to reveal the details of donations. Thus, opacity is ingrained with this new instrument for political funding.
• Electoral bonds are available in the denomination of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lac, Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore. Almost 99 percent of donations received by political parties between March 2018 and January 24, 2019, were as electoral bonds of Rs 10 lakh and Rs one crore, a right to information (RTI) application revealed in November 2019. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The correct order from North to South is Daulat Beg Oldi, Galwan Valley, Hot Spring and Pangong Tso. Hence, option C is correct.

Mission Innovation (MI) is a global initiative of 24 countries and the European Commission (on behalf of the European Union) working to reinvigorate and accelerate global clean energy innovation with the objective to make clean energy widely affordable. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Mission Innovation was announced on November 30, 2015 due to pioneering efforts by India, France and USA, as world leaders came together in Paris to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The mission's objective is to accelerate the pace of clean energy innovation (research and development) to achieve performance breakthroughs and cost reductions to provide widely affordable and reliable clean energy solutions that will revolutionise energy systems throughout the world over the next two decades. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Its goals are:

• A substantial boost in public-sector investment in clean energy R&D at the national level of MI members.
• Increased private sector engagement and investment in energy innovation, particularly in key Innovation Challenges.
• Many new or strengthened voluntary cross-border networks and partnerships on energy innovation, greater engagement from innovators, and accelerated progress in addressing specific Innovation Challenges.
• Greater awareness amongst MI members and the wider clean energy community of the transformational potential of energy innovation, the progress being made, and the remaining critical clean energy innovation gaps and opportunities.

Carrying capacity

• It is the maximum sustainable population of a species the environment can sustain for an indefinite period of time given available resources. This is the point where the population theoretically cannot grow any larger and it is not growing any larger. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• For functional purposes, carrying capacity will typically be an upper limit, but certain circumstances can temporarily take a population above this (though the population will decrease sharply thereafter).
• Carrying capacity is determined and affected by a number of variables.
• The total geographic space available to a species determines the population number (biotic), but so does the amount of energy (abiotic) available for that species to consume. Interactions with other species, including humans, will also affect carrying capacity. The biotic factors refer to the living components of an ecosystem, and the abiotic factors refer to the non-living, chemical and physical components of the ecosystem. Therefore, both the abiotic and biotic resources affect the survival and reproduction process. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The carrying capacity for any given area is not fixed.
• It can be altered by improved technology, but mostly it is changed for the worse by pressures which accompany a population increase.
• As the environment is degraded, carrying capacity actually shrinks, leaving the environment no longer able to support even the number of people who could formerly have lived in the area on a sustainable basis. No population can live beyond the environment's carrying capacity for very long.
• Carrying capacity can be increased by the amount of food available, the local extinction of a competitor, an increase in species fertility, a decrease in predation, an increase in the amount of habitat available for use, and adaptations to the environment, such as resistance to disease or adaptations that serve to decrease the amount of energy spent on obtaining food.
• Carrying capacity can be decreased by disease, an increase in predation, hunting or harvesting by humans, a decrease in available habitat such as habitat destruction by humans, parasites, competition with another species for a resource, or changes in the weather that make the species less suited to the environment.

Federation is a system of national and local governments, combined under joint sovereignty or pooled sovereignty with both national as well as federal units having sovereign spheres assigned to them by the Constitution. In Cooperative federalism, the Centre and the States share a horizontal relationship, where they “cooperate” in the broader public interest. It is an essential tool to enable the States’ participation in the formulation and implementation of national policies.

The Union and the States are constitutionally obliged to cooperate on the matters specified in Schedule VII of the Constitution. So, statement 1 is not correct. In Competitive federalism, the relationship between the Central and the State governments is vertical and between the State governments is horizontal.

This idea of Competitive federalism gained significance in India post-1990s economic reforms. In Competitive federalism, the States need to compete among themselves and also with the Centre for benefits. The States compete with each other to attract funds and investments, which facilitates efficiency in administration and enhances developmental activities. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

In the 1946 provincial elections, Congress formed its ministries in Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Central Provinces, Madras, NWFP, Orissa and United Provinces. The Muslim League formed its ministries in Bengal and Sind. A coalition consisting of the Congress, Unionist Party and the Akalis was formed in Punjab. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• The Muslim league performed better compared to the elections of 1937. It gained 86.6% of the Muslim votes and got a majority in Bengal and Sindh. Compared to the 1937 elections, the League clearly established itself as the dominant party among Muslims. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Currency appreciation is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency. Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including the government policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles. A Rupee appreciation takes place when its value increases in relation to other currencies, say US Dollar. For instance, there would be an appreciation in the Rupee if the dollar/rupee exchange rate moves from ₹70/$ to ₹65/$. Importers in India would be benefitted as they would have to pay less in Rupee terms for the same amount of (say dollar) imports in case of Rupee appreciation.

So, statement 1 is correct. Exporters in India would stand to lose as they would receive less in Rupee terms for the same amount of (say dollar) exports in case of Rupee appreciation.

So, statement 2 is not correct. In the case of Rupee appreciation, entities in India borrowing under the ECB route would have their borrowing costs reduced as they would have to pay less in Rupee terms. They would benefit from the Rupee appreciation. So, statement 3 is correct. Exporters to India would gain in case of the Rupee appreciation.

For instance, a person exporting Rs. 10,000 worth of goods to India from, say, the US would receive more in terms of the US dollar if the Rupee appreciates from Rs. 70/$ to Rs. 65/$. So, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

To hedge means to safeguard, and in the context of investing, it means to protect against risks. Hedge funds are alternative investments using pooled funds that employ different strategies to earn active return, or alpha, for their investors. Hedge funds may be aggressively managed or make use of derivatives and leverage in both domestic and international markets with the goal of generating high returns.

• The Features & Benefits of Hedge Funds: Hedge fund industry in India got a green flag in 2012 when the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) allowed alternative investment funds (AIF).
• They have the following features: High Net-Worth Investors: Only qualified or accredited investors can invest in hedge funds. They are mainly high net worth individuals (HNIs), banks, insurance companies, endowments, and pension funds. The minimum ticket size for investors investing in these funds is Rs 1 crore. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Diverse Portfolio: Hedge funds have a comprehensive portfolio of investments ranging from currencies, derivatives, stocks, real estates, equities, and bonds. Yes, they necessarily cover all the asset classes only limited by the mandate.
• Higher Fees: They work on the concept of both expense ratio and management fee. Globally, it is ‘Two and Twenty’, meaning there is a 2% fixed fee and 20% of profits. As for hedge funds in India, the management fee can be well below 2% to below 1%. And the profit-sharing varies between 10% to 15% generally.
• Higher Risks: Hedge funds investment strategy can expose funds to huge losses. The Lock-in period generally for investment is relatively long. Leverage used by these funds can turn investments into a significant loss.
• Taxation: The Category III AIF (hedge funds) is still not given pass-through status on tax. This implies that income from these funds is taxable at the investment fund level. Hence, the tax obligation will not pass through to the unit-holders. This is a disadvantage for this industry as they are not on a level playing ground with other mutual funds.
• Regulations: It is not required that hedge funds be registered with the securities markets regulator and have no reporting requirements including regular disclosure of Net Asset Values (NAV). i.e. they are unregistered private investment partnerships or funds. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Mutual funds are registered with securities markets regulator and are subject to the provisions of the relevant regulations such as offer/issue of units/securities, disclosure and reporting requirement, valuation for the purpose of computation of NAV, conflict of interest issue and limit leverage. Hedge funds are not required to be registered and therefore, are not subject to similar regulatory provisions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

When we recently mapped these Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs), we discovered that they are staggeringly diverse, ranging from woodland savannas, shrublands and grasslands, to rocky outcrops, ravines and dunes. ONEs also have a remarkable assemblage of animal species, many of which, such as the black buck and the critically endangered great Indian bustard, occur only in the Indian subcontinent. India’s ONEs continue to be misunderstood, misrepresented, and destroyed. Successive governments have carried forward a colonial legacy of terming ONEs as ‘wastelands’ and sought to make them ‘productive’; they have tried to ‘develop’ them, thereby incentivising their erasure. Unlike with forests, there are no conservation laws that protect against diversion of biodiversity-rich ONEs.

Statement 1 is correct: Though a member of the House, the Speaker does not vote in the House except on those rare occasions when there is a tie at the end of a decision. This is known as the casting vote of the Speaker. It is provided under Article 100 in The Constitution

• However, if at any sitting of the House a resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, he is not to preside at that sitting. But, he can vote at all on such resolutions or on any other matter during such proceedings as being a member of the Lok Sabha.
• Statement 2 is correct: Till date, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has not been called upon to exercise this unique casting vote.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Under the Constitution, the Chairman exercises only a casting vote in the case of equality of votes. However, if at any sitting of the House a resolution for the removal of the Chairman from his office is under consideration, he is not to preside at that sitting. He cannot also vote at all on such a resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings as he is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.

A unicorn is any privately owned firm with a market capitalization of more than USD 1 billion. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It denotes new entities dedicated to offering creative solutions and new business models, among other things. Recently, the number of unicorns in India reached the 100-mark.

One unicorn means a startup of at least Rs 7,500 crore turnover. The total valuation of these unicorns is USD 330 billion, that is over Rs 25 lakh crore. The average annual growth rate of Indian unicorns is more than that of the U.S., the U.K. and many other countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Glasgow Climate Pact, an agreement signed during the 2021 United Nations Climate Change Conference (CoP26), recognised the need to consider further actions to reduce non-carbon dioxide greenhouse gas emissions, including methane, by 2030.

Hence, statement 1 is correct. The US and the European Union launched the Global Methane Pledge at COP26 in Glasgow. More than 100 countries have committed to cutting methane emissions by 30% by 2030. India has not signed up for the Global Methane Pledge. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

GST composition scheme is a tax-paying mechanism offered to small businesses. When compared to normal GST filing, the composite scheme offers two main benefits: reduced paperwork and compliance, and lower tax liability.

• Businesses registered under composition schemes are required to pay GST at 1% to 6% depending on the type of business activity conducted by the business entity.
• Under the scheme, tax filing gets easier as one needs to file just one quarterly return and one annual return.
• At present, the GST composition scheme limit is 1.5 crores i.e. businesses/individuals with an annual turnover of up to Rs. 1.5 crore can opt for registration under the GST composition scheme.
• The limit for the GST composition scheme for the North Eastern States and hill states is lower than 1.5 crores which is decided by the GST Council.
• Under the provisions of the GST Act, a range of businesses in the manufacturing and services sectors are allowed to register under the composition scheme.
• However, the GST composition scheme is not applicable to the following persons/entities: Non-resident taxable person or a casual taxable person of Businesses/persons supplying goods through an e-commerce portal operator that collects tax at source on businesses/persons engaged in inter-state supply of goods o manufacturer of tobacco products, tobacco substitutes and pan masala o Businesses/persons who have purchased goods from an unregistered supplier
• 1.6 million taxpayers (17 percent of the total) are registered under the composition scheme, the current threshold for which is fixed at Rs. 1.5 crore.
• They pay a small tax (1 percent, 2 percent or 5 percent) on their turnover and are not eligible for input tax credits. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.
• This set up minimises their administrative burden, but also makes it difficult for them to sell to larger firms, which would not be able to secure input tax credits on such purchases. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• For this reason, about 1.9 million (24 percent of total regular filers) of the registrants sized between the GST threshold of Rs 20 lakhs and the composition limit4 who could have opted for the composition scheme chose not to do so and instead decided to file under the regular GST. Put differently, more than 54.3 per cent (1.9/(1.9+1.6)) of those eligible to register under the composition scheme, chose instead to be regular filers.

The workers under Communist and radical nationalist influence participated in a large number of strikes and demonstrations all over the country between 1922 and 1929. There were various strikes and also numerous workers’ meetings organised on May Day, Lenin Day, the anniversary of the Russian Revolution, and so on.

• The Government, nervous of the growing militancy and political involvement of the working class, and especially at the coming together of the nationalist and the Left trends, launched a two-pronged attack on the labour movement. On one hand, it enacted repressive laws like the Public Safety Bill, 1928 and Trade Disputes Act 1929 and arrested in one swoop virtually the entire radical leadership of the labour movement and launched the Meerut Conspiracy Case in 1929 against them. On the other hand, it attempted concessions like the appointment of the First Royal Commission on Labour in 1929. Hence, options 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
• The labour movement suffered a major setback partially due to this Government offensive and partially due to a shift in the stance of the Communist-led wing of the movement. From about the end of 1928, the Communists reversed their policy of aligning themselves with and working within the mainstream of the national movement. This led to the isolation of the Communists from the national movement and greatly reduced their hold over even the working class. Further, the Communists got isolated within the AITUC and were thrown out in the split of 1931.
• The Official Secrets Act, 1923 was meant for ensuring secrecy and confidentiality in governance, mostly on national security and espionage issues. It was not related to the labour movement. Hence, option 1 is not correct.

The Gini index or Gini coefficient is a statistical measure of distribution developed by the Italian statistician Corrado Gini in 1912. It is often used as a gauge of economic inequality, measuring income distribution or, less commonly, wealth distribution among a population. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1 representing perfect inequality. A country in which every resident has the same income would have an income Gini coefficient of 0. A country in which one resident earned all the income, while everyone else earned nothing, would have an income Gini coefficient of 1. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Gini index is often represented graphically through the Lorenz curve, which shows income (or wealth) distribution by plotting the population percentile by income on the horizontal axis and cumulative income on the vertical axis.
• In 2016, the International Monetary Fund in its regional economic outlook for Asia and Pacific said that India’s Gini coefficient rose to 0.51 in 2013 from 0.45 in 1990.

• Articles 25 to 28 of the constitution provide for the Right to freedom of religion, in terms of
• Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
• Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
• Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27).
• Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28).
• Cultural and educational rights: The Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions is provided under Article 30, a part of Cultural and educational rights under Part III of the constitution.
• Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is provided under Article 15 of the constitution, a part of Right to Equality under Part III of the constitution.

Recommendations of Different Committees: Many committees had proposed bringing down the government stake in public banks below 51%: The Narasimham Committee proposed to bring down the government stack in public sector banks below 33%.

Hence statement 1 is not correct. The P J Nayak Committee suggested that to bring down the government stack in public sector banks below 50%. An RBI Working Group recently suggested the entry of business houses into the banking sector. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Kol Uprising: The Kols were one of the tribes inhabiting the Chhotanagpur area and Singhbhum areas. They lived in complete autonomy under their traditional chiefs but this changed when the British came. Along with the British, came the moneylenders and the merchants. These outsiders were called "suds" by kols.

• The Kols then lost their lands to farmers from outside due to acts of the then raja of Chotanagpur, who for the greed of high rents, evicted tribes from their traditional landholdings. They were also made to pay huge amounts of money in taxes. This led to many becoming bonded labourers.
• The British judicial policies also caused resentment among the Kols.
• There was an insurrection in 1831-32 which saw the Kols organise themselves and revolt against the British and the moneylenders.
• The main form of rebellion was plunder and arson. The properties of outsiders were aimed but not their lives.
• This armed resistance went on for two years after which it was brutally suppressed by the British with their superior weaponry. The Kol Rebellion was so intense that troops had to be called in from Kolkata and Banaras to crush it.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Fundamental Rights available only to citizens and not to foreigners

• Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
• Protection of six rights regarding freedom of:
  • speech and expression,
  • assembly,
  • association,
  • movement,
  • residence, and
  • profession (Article 19).
• Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
• Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29).
• Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).

Fundamental Rights available to both citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens):

• Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22).The second part of Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
• The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed.
• The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
  • Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
• Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20).
• Right to elementary education (Article 21A). Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23). Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc., (Article 24). Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
• Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27). Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28).
• Thus, only two of his Fundamental rights are violated i.e when he is arrested under preventive detention and not allowed to make a representation and when he is prevented from carrying out his religious practice. Hence, he can file a maximum two such writ petitions against these violations.

Core Investment Company (CIC) is a non-banking financial company carrying on the business of acquisition of shares and securities and which (a) holds not less than 90 percent of its net assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies and (b) its investments in the equity shares in group companies constitutes not less than 60 percent of its net assets as on the date of the last audited balance sheet. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Reserve Bank of India is entrusted with the responsibility of regulating and supervising the Non- Banking Financial Companies by virtue of powers vested by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Over the last few years, RBI has carved out some specialised NBFCs like Core Investment Companies (CICs), NBFC- Infrastructure Finance Companies (IFCs) etc.
• Core Investment Companies (CICs) are companies holding shares, bonds and debentures and are categorised as NBFCs by the RBI. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• CICs having asset size of 100 crore or above are categorised as Systemically Important Core Investment Companies (CICs-ND-SI) and are required to obtain Certificate of Registration from the Reserve Bank.
• Recently, with an objective to strengthen core investment companies (CIC), a working group formed by the Reserve Bank of India recommended measures such as including periodical inspection of the companies and formation of board-level committees.

Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has devised a Drone-Based Vaccine Delivery Model, i-drone. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Telangana and North-East states have been approved to use this drone technology for delivering vaccines in remote areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct. It has been designed to facilitate vaccine delivery to tough and hard-to-reach terrains of India. It will help in overcoming the gaps in current vaccine delivery mechanisms and can be used in delivering important life-saving medicines, collecting blood samples etc. This technology can also be used in critical situations. It can be a game changer in addressing the challenges in health care delivery, particularly health supplies in difficult areas.

• Rabindranath Tagore is one of the literary giants of modern India. He was internationally acknowledged as a literary genius and awarded the Nobel prize in 1913 for his poetic collection ‘Gitanjali’. Along with being an accomplished literary genius, Rabindranath Tagore was an outstanding scholar, thinker, and intellectual.
• His intellectual or philosophical development was impacted by Upanishads, Vaishnavism, Brahmo Samaj, Bhagavad Gita, ModernWestern thought and Literature, Christianity, and the liberal and humanist philosophy of Brahmo Samaj etc. Upanishads were instrumental in moulding Tagore's philosophy and especially his humanist values.
• Tagore's Philosophical discourses in ‘Santiniketan’, ‘Sadhana’, ‘The Religion of Man’,‘Man’, ‘Manusher Dharma’, and ‘Sanchyar’ were profoundly impacted by the teachings of the Upanishads. Tagore admitted in his various writings that Upanishads have been the fundamental source of his inspiration. He was mainly inspired by the Upanishadic doctrine that in the beginning ‘There was one Brahman, who wanted to be many and so created this world’ (Tai tri Upanishads, p. 2-6). Hence option (d) is correct.
• He urged the masses to avoid victimology and instead seek self-help and education, and he saw the presence of the British administration as a "political symptom of our social disease". He maintained that, even for those at the extremes of poverty, "there can be no question of blind revolution"; preferable to it was a "steady and purposeful education". He was educationally a revolutionary and strongly believed that there should be a system of education suited to India.
• It should be the system in which the cultures of east and the west should unite and where there should be a platform for understanding each other. In the words of G. Ramchandran, Gurudev never accepted that the object of education was simply the accumulation of knowledge. Hence option (c) is correct.
• Rabindranath Tagore was not a member of the Indian National Congress, thus he never presided over any session. But he firmly held political views. He was categorically clear about the real political work that remained undone in the country.
• He believed that all our energies must be directed to alleviate poverty, to inculcate amity amongst communities and all manner of people and to foster values of freedom and self- reliance, ‘atmashakti’. Swaraj for him was not just political freedom but freedom from hunger, disease, servitude, and ignorance. Hence option (b) is correct.
• The INC Madras Session of 1898 was presided over by Ananda Mohan Bose. Hence option (a) is not correct.

Unlike nomadic herding, commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive. Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on permanent ranches. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcels, which are fenced to regulate the grazing. When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are moved to another parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.

• This is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goats and horses. Products such as meat, wool, hides and skin are processed and packed scientifically and exported to different world markets. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Rearing of animals in ranching is organised on a scientific basis. The main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care of the animals.
• New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and the United States of America are important countries where commercial livestock rearing is practised. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Statement 1 is not correct: Parliamentary Privileges are a set of rights mainly from the members of both the Houses of Parliament. Apart from this, these rights are also given to those individuals who speak and participate in any committee of the Parliament, which includes the Attorney General of India and the Union Ministers.
• Statement 2 is correct: The freedom of speech available to the members on the floor of the House is different from that available to the citizens under Article 19(2). A law made under this article providing for reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech of the citizens would not circumscribe the freedom of speech of the members within the walls of the House. Members enjoy complete protection even if the words uttered by them in the House are malicious and false to their knowledge. Courts have no jurisdiction to take action against a member for his speech made in the House even if it amounts to contempt of the court.
• Statement 3 is correct: If any individual or authority violates or disregards any of the privileges, powers and immunities of the House or members or committees thereof, he may be punished for “breach of privilege” or “contempt of the House”. The House has exclusive power to determine as to what constitutes breach of privilege and contempt and punish for such breach. The penal jurisdiction of the House in this regard covers its members as well as strangers and every act of violation of privileges, whether committed in the immediate presence of the House or outside of it.
• A person found guilty of breach of privilege or contempt of the House may be punished either by imprisonment or by admonition (warning) or reprimand. Two other punishments may also be awarded to the members for contempt, namely, ‘suspension’ and ‘expulsion’ from the House.
• Statement 4 is not correct: The Speaker or Chairman is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the respective House, its Committees and members. It depends solely on the Speaker or Chairman to refer any question of privilege to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report.

The history of India‘s maritime trade goes back to centuries ago. India has been one of the most important points of sea trade in the entire South Asian region since the beginning of maritime trade.

• Long before the development of the Silk Road, the ships belonging to Indian traders travelled thousands of miles crossing the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea to find their markets in West Asia, East Asia, Southeast Asia, and East Africa. Similarly, merchants from these regions, especially Arabians and Chinese frequently visited the Indian Subcontinent, trading silk, spices, porcelain, ivory, and even slaves.
• The chief ports of ancient India were on the West Coast—Bharucha, Supara, not far from modern Bombay, and Patala, on the Indus delta.
• Bhrigu Kaccha: Almost 2000 years ago, Bhrigu Kaccha (Bharuch) was a prominent port in the Indian subcontinent region. Located at the mouth of the river Narmada, Bharukaccha was also known as Barygaza to the merchants from around the world. Bharuch had established trade relations with Arabs, Greeks, and Romans, Africans, Chinese and Egyptians. Bharuch was a terminus for a number of land-sea trade routes and goods were trans-shipped there to send abroad utilising the monsoon winds. The imports into Barygaza were wine, copper, tin, lead, coral, topaz, cloth, gold and silver coins. Exports from the town included plants from the Himalayas, ivory, agate, carnelian, cotton, silk and perfumes. Special gifts were brought by merchants for the king. These included vessels of silver, singing boys, beautiful women, fine wines and fine cloth.
• Supara: Supara near Mumbai was a prosperous port of the west coast of India since the beginning of the first millennium B.C. Known under the names of Shutparak, and Sopara and identified with Ophir of Solomon’s times by some scholars, this port centre, an outlet to the trade of Deccan, has a rich inscriptional reference. Sopara has been an important port that is known to be connected with the Arabian sea, by an estuary or creek which is known as the Sopara creek even now.
• Patala: Patala is an ancient port city at the mouth of the Indus River. The historians of Alexander the Great state that the Indus parted into two branches at the city of Patala before reaching the sea. Alexander the Great built a harbour at Patala. Ships used to sail to the Persian Gulf and Arabia from Patala. Also, pepper brought from the south was also exported from here.
• Other important ports include: Arikamedu Port: Arikamedu, located in today‘s Puducherry, a union territory of India, is known as the port of Podouke in historical documents. With mentions in the Periplus Maris Erythraei and Tamil poems of the Sangam period, Arikamedu is believed to be an active trading port of the region with the Roman Empire as early as the second century BC. Many believe that Arikamedu was a Chola port dedicated to bead making and it was the only port city in the region to have ties with Romans.

Muziris Port: Muziris, the ancient port city located in today‘s Indian state of Kerala, was one of the most important trading ports in the world almost 2,000 years ago. Existing in the first century BC, the Muziris port had played a significant role in connecting the region with the Persians, the Phoenicians, the Assyrians, the Greeks, the Egyptians, and the Roman Empire. While spices, particularly black pepper, were the key item exported from the Muziris port, other commodities shipped include semi- precious stones, diamonds, ivory, and pearls, among others.

Articles 86 and 87 of the Constitution deal with the Address by the President. Article 86 confers a right on the President to address either the House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose require the attendance of members. However, since the commencement of the Constitution, the President has not so far addressed a House or Housestogether under this provision.

• Article 87 deals with Special Address by the President and provides that the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons. Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Article 87(1) originally required the President to address both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of every session. The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, amended this provision.
• No other business is transacted till the President has addressed both Houses of Parliament assembled together. Hence, option (b) is correct.
• As article 87 makes it clear, the Address is to be to both Houses of Parliament assembled together. In other words, it means that if at the time of commencement of the first session of the year, the Lok Sabha has been dissolved and the Rajya Sabha has to meet, then the Rajya Sabha can have its session without the President’s Address. During the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in 1977 and 1991, the Rajya Sabha had its sessions on 1 February 1977 and 3 June 1991, respectively without the President’s Address. Hence, option (c) is correct.
• In the case of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha, the President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together after the members of the Lok Sabha have made and subscribed the oath or affirmation and the Speaker has been elected by the Lok Sabha. The President addressed both Houses of Parliament assembled together twice in the years 1957, 1962, 1989, 1991, 1996 and in 2009 when general elections also took place after the first session of the year had been held.
• The President reads the Address in Hindi or English. The other version of the Address in English or Hindi, as the case may be, is generally read out by the Vice-President.
• When members of the two Houses of Parliament assembled together to hear the President’s Address, it does not constitute a sitting of the Rajya Sabha or the Lok Sabha since a sitting of the Rajya Sabha is duly constituted when it is presided over by the Chairman or Speaker or a member competent to preside over a sitting of the Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha and under the Constitution or the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha. It is also not a joint sitting of the two Houses since it has to be presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence by such person as may be determined by the Rules of Procedure made under clause (3) of article 118 of the Constitution. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
• The discussion on the Address takes place a few days after it is delivered and in the intervening period, other business is transacted.

Ajanta Caves, among the first to be put on the world heritage sites in India, include paintings and sculptures which are said to be the finest examples of Indian art. They are representative of Buddhist religious art with figures of the Buddha and depictions of the Jataka tales. The Caves are about 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments which date from the 2nd century BCE to about 480 or 650 CE.

• On 28 April 1819, John Smith, the Madras Presidency officer, accidentally discovered the entrance to Cave No. 10 deep within the tangled undergrowth while hunting a tiger, which led to the discovery of the showpiece Ajanta caves.

The Kosi is a trans-boundary river which flows through Tibet, Nepal and India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It has its source in Tibet that includes the world's highest upland, it then drains a large part of Nepal before emerging onto the Gangetic plains. Its three major tributaries, the Sun Kosi, Arun and Tamur meet at one point just upstream of a 10 km gorge cut through the Himalayan foothills.

The river crosses into northern Bihar, India where it branches into distributaries before joining the Ganges near Kursela in Katihar district. The Kosi carries the maximum amount of silt and sand after the Brahmaputra in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It is also known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” as the annual floods affect about 21,000 sq. km. of fertile agricultural lands thereby disturbing the rural economy. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

A bay and a gulf are almost similar except that a bay is smaller than a gulf. A bay connects to a larger water body such as an ocean or a lake. It is partly surrounded or demarcated by land and has a wide mouth which accesses the water body. Bays can be formed in various ways. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Large bays were created as a result of plate tectonics. As the Pangaea supercontinent broke along the indented fault line, the continents moved apart leading to the formation of the largest bays in the world. The largest bay in the world is the Bay of Bengal. Glacial and river erosion are also responsible for the formation of a bay.
• A gulf is a large bay. It is the portion of the sea that penetrates into land or a deep inlet to the sea that is partly surrounded by land. Just like a bay, gulfs are formed as a result of plate tectonics. As the Pangaea supercontinent broke along the curved fault line, continents separated leading to the formation of large bays known as gulfs. The Gulf of Mexico formed about 300 years ago through plate tectonics. It originated in Lake Triassic as a result of rifting in the Pangaea. Gulfs are important for commerce and tourism while agricultural activities may be practised nearby.
• An isthmus is a narrow strip of land that connects two larger landmasses and separates two bodies of water. Isthmus has been a strategic location for centuries. They are natural sites for ports and canals linking terrestrial and aquatic trade routes. Isthmuses are also key sites for communications and cultural exchange, as well as military outposts. The Isthmus of Panama in Panama links the continents of North and South America, and separates the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
• A strait is a narrow body of water that connects two larger bodies of water. It may be formed by a fracture in an isthmus. A strait can also be formed by a body of water overflowing land that has subsided or has been eroded. The Bosporus, which links the Black Sea and the Aegean Sea, was formed this way. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Monotremes are one of the three main groups of living mammals, along with placentals (Eutheria) and marsupials (Metatheria). The monotremes are typified by structural differences in their brains, jaws, digestive tract, reproductive tract, and other body parts compared to the more common mammalian types. In addition, they lay eggs rather than live young, but like all mammals, the female monotremes nurse their young with milk. There are only five living monotreme species: the duck-billed platypus and four species of echidna (also known as spiny anteaters). All of them are found only in Australia and New Guinea. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Draco is a genus of agamid lizards that are also known as flying lizards, flying dragons or gliding lizards. These lizards are capable of gliding flight; their ribs and their connecting membrane may be extended to create "wings" (patagia), the hindlimbs are flattened and wing-like in cross-section, and a flap on the neck (the gular flag) serves as a horizontal stabiliser and are sometimes used in warning to others. Much like aircraft wings are built of struts with a membrane stretched across, these flying dragons have elongated ribs that support a flap of skin, called the patagia. This allows them to glide an average of 8m as they jump between trees. Their slender tails act as rudders for steering. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The bluehead wrasse is a fish that lives in small social groups in coral reefs in the Caribbean. Only the male has a blue head – signalling his social dominance over a harem of yellow-striped females. If this male is removed from the group, something extraordinary happens: the largest female in the group changes sex to become male.

Her behaviour changes within minutes. Within ten days, her ovaries transform into sperm-producing testes. Within 21 days she appears completely male. Clownfish, wrasses, moray eels, gobies and other fish species are known to change sex, including reproductive functions. A school of clownfish is always built into a hierarchy with a female fish at the top. When she dies, the most dominant male changes sex and takes her place. Hence, statement 3 is correct.