UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 5 - UPSC MCQ

Malai Mahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. Recently a final proposal was made before NTCA to notify the sanctuary as a tiger reserve. Once notified, the Chamarajanagar district will have a rare distinction in the country of harbouring three tiger reserves. It already has Bandipur and Biligiri Ranganatha Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve within its territorial limits. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Recently, Kawal Tiger Reserve is increasingly getting threatened by growing human encroachment rampant poaching and habitat loss. Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in Adilabad district, Telangana. Government of India declared Kawal wildlife sanctuary as Tiger Reserve in 2012. It is the oldest sanctuary in the northern Telangana region. It is well known for its abundant flora and fauna. This sanctuary is a catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

• India imports critical defence technologies from Israel.

• There are regular exchanges between the armed forces.

• There is cooperation on security issues, including a Joint Working Group on CounterTerrorism.

• Indian armed forces use Israeli Phalcon AWACS (Airborne Warning And Control Systems),

Heron drones to Barak anti-missile defence systems. Hence, option 1, 2 and 4 is correct.

INS Chakra: A submarine of the Russian Akula-2 Class, INS Chakra was commissioned into the Indian Navy on April 4, 2012 and was based in Visakhapatnam. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.

India is also in talks with Russia to lease two nuclear-ballistic submarines, Chakra 3 and Chakra 4, the first of which is expected to be delivered by 2025.

Calcification tends to occur in a semi-arid and arid area, where evapotranspiration exceeds rainfall. Seasonal percolation of water down through the profile takes soluble salts down to the lower horizons but isn’t sufficient to totally leach them out of the profile. This is augmented by some upward capillary movement of groundwater bringing with it more salts. This leads to the deposition of calcium carbonate (or in some cases gypsum) in the lower soil horizons. The calcium carbonate may precipitate throughout the soil as fine powdery crystals, or it may form discrete concretions and nodules. So, option (b) is correct.

Salinization is a process that functions in a similar way to calcification. It differs from calcification in that the salt deposits occur at or very near the soil surface. Salinization also takes place in much drier climates.

Salinization occurs in arid areas where rainfall is insufficient to leach soluble salts from the soil, whilst evapotranspiration causes the capillary movement of groundwaters containing soluble salts, up through the profile. This leads to increased salinity in the upper soil horizons and can lead to the formation of a salt crust. So, option (c) is not correct.

Saline soils are toxic to many plants; hence salinization has implications for agricultural sustainability.

Increasing soil salinity, for example, is thought to have been an increasing problem in Mesopotamian agriculture. So, statement (a) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Sabha in particular. However, there is no parliamentary supremacy in India. There is only constitutional supremacy. Thus statement 1 is not correct.

The parliamentary control over government and administration in India is more theoretical than practical. In reality, the control is not as effective as it ought to be. The Parliament has less time and expertise to control the administration which has grown in volume as well as complexity. Parliament’s financial control is also hindered by the technical nature of the Demands for Grants. Parliamentary Committees have access to expert opinion, more time to deliberate and shown a prominent role in exercising effective check over the Executive. So, statement 2 is correct.

The Parliament serves as the highest deliberative body in the country. It discusses various issues of national and international significance. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Plant-based meats are made from plants and are free from cholesterol and antibiotic, but they taste and feel like meat. Cultivated meat is produced by taking a small sample of animal cells and replicating them outside of the animal; the resulting product is real meat, but without the antibiotics, E. coli, almonella, or animal waste. They are made to mimic properties found within natural meats and are considered to be meat substitutes. Compared to meat products, plant-based meats— for the most part — offer consumers a more sustainable and environmentally friendly line up of meat alternatives. These foods represent an enormous opportunity to solve the problems of rampant malnutrition, low farmer

incomes, antibiotic dependency, and inhumane factory farming of animals.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

The Golden Crescent overlaps three nations, Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan, whose mountainous peripheries define the crescent. Whereas, the Golden Triangle is the area where the borders of Thailand, Laos and Myanmar meet at the confluence of the Ruak and Mekong rivers.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

• The Pacific Island Countries are a cluster of 14 states which are located largely in the tropical zone of the Pacific Ocean between Asia, Australia and the Americas.

• They include Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Republic of Marshall Islands, Federated States of Micronesia (FSM), Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu.

• The islands are divided on the basis of physical and human geography into three distinct parts Micronesia, Melanesia and Polynesia.

• The islands are very small in land area, and are spread wide across the vast equatorial swathe of the Pacific Ocean.

• The Network is also supported by Australia, a developed country partner that has continuously provided support to the network.

Li-ion battery elements including iron, copper, nickel and cobalt are considered safe for incinerators and landfills. These metals can be recycled, but mining generally remains cheaper than recycling. So, statement 1 is correct.

Lithium-ion batteries are used in the Indian Electric vehicles sector and have already been introduced into the market. Electric cars, 2-wheelers and 3-wheelers are already available in the Indian market.

So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

It can only be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. His decision in this regard cannot be questioned in any court of law or in either House of the Parliament or even by the President. When a Money Bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendation and presented to the President for assent, the Speaker endorses it as a Money Bill. So, option (a) is correct.

It can be introduced only by a minister, as s/he is a part of the treasury bench that needs financial resources at its disposition to implement executive actions. So, option (b) is correct.

It cannot be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha should return the Bill with or without recommendations, which may be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha. It can be detained by the Rajya Sabha for a maximum period of 14 days only. So, option (c) is correct.

It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President. So, option (d) is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

Panipat’s surrounding region had a flat ground which was suitable for cavalry movement—the main mode of warfare at the time. After the construction of the Grand Trunk Road by Sher Shah Suri (1540-45), Panipat was on this route. It became easier for conquerors to find their way there. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The duration of monsoon rainfall in the region is short in comparison to other areas making it easier to fight. The artisans/smiths of these regions were experts in making warfare-related materials and hence it became easier for forces of both parties to replenish their war materials. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting. It is clear that the Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House of Parliament. So, statement 1 is not correct.

The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two Houses. The joint sitting is governed by the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha and not of Rajya Sabha. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Statement 1 is correct: The Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) are areas in India notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), GoI around Protected Areas, National Park and Wildlife sanctuaries.

Purpose:

• To create some kind of "shock absorbers" to the protected areas by regulating and managing the activities around such areas.

• Therefore, these areas act as a buffer for protected areas and reduce developmental pressures around a wildlife sanctuary or national park.

• They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.

Statement 2 is not correct: Prohibited activities:

• Activities like industries which cause pollution Commercial mining, saw mills, establishment of major hydroelectric projects (HEP), commercial use of wood, Tourism, discharge of effluents or any solid waste or production of hazardous substances are all prohibited.

Regulated activities:

• Activities like felling of trees, establishment of hotels and resorts, commercial use of natural water, erection of electrical cables, drastic change of agriculture system, e.g. adoption of heavy technology, pesticides etc., widening of roads.

Permitted activities:

• Activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, use of renewable energy sources, adoption of green technology for all activities are permitted.

Recently scientists are deploying mussels across the oceans in the fight against water pollution. They act as 'super-filters', taking in phytoplankton for nourishment along with microplastics, pesticides and other pollutants. As they pump and filter the water through their gills in order to feed and breathe, mussels store almost everything else that passes through. They are a super-filter in the marine world, filtering up to 25 litres of water per day. So, statement 1 is correct.

Like canaries in a coal mine, mussels are widely used as bio-indicators to monitor the health of aquatic environments in both freshwater and marine environments. They are particularly useful since they are distributed worldwide and are sessile. These characteristics ensure that they are representative of the environment where they are sampled or placed. Their population status or structure, physiology, behaviour or the level of contamination with elements or compounds can indicate the status of the ecosystem. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Characteristics of Tropical Rainforest:

• The equatorial rainforest supports the greatest biodiversity (number and types of living organisms in an area) on Earth. This is the result of abundant moisture and sunlight.

• Average daily temperatures are around 28^oC with a low diurnal (variation in temperature that occurs from the highs and lows during the day) temperature range. Temperatures rarely fall below 22^oC and cloud cover restricts temperatures to 32^oC during the day (as the result of cloud cover caused by high levels of evapotranspiration).

• Rainfall levels are high throughout the year as the result of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ). Convectional rainfall results in annual rainfall levels of around 2000mm. Storms typically occur during the late afternoon as the result of intense heating during the day.

• Both high levels of rainfall and temperatures contribute to a year-round growing season. High levels of evapotranspiration create an incredibly humid environment.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the “Magna Carta of English Education in India”, this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India. It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at the bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. So, statement 1 is correct.

It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses, thus repudiating the ‘downward filtration theory’, at least on paper. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

It means education was provided to a small portion of people and through them, it was conveyed to masses. It was stated in the Macaulay Minutes.

Fortification is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as Iron, Iodine, Zinc, Vitamins A & D to staple foods such as rice, wheat, oil, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content. These nutrients may or may not have been originally present in the food before processing or may have been lost during processing.

• In India, Food Fortification is regulated by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India and also assigns the food fortification logo (+F). Under the logo, it is also mandatory to write the tag line "Sampoorna Poshan Swastha Jeevan". Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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  As per the Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations, 2018, as of now only milk, edible oil, wheat flour, salt and rice are the only approved fortified commodities in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

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  As per the STATE FOOD FORTIFICATION INDEX (developed by FSSAI), Uttar Pradesh ranks first, based on the various parameters set for food fortification with a score of 9/20. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Government of India Act 1935: This was the longest act passed by British Parliament

• provided for the establishment of a Federation of India to be made up of provinces of British India and some or all of the Princely states

• Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of dyarchy at the centre.

• Abolition of Indian Council and introduction of an advisory body in its place.

• Provision for an All India Federation with British Indian territories and princely states.

• Elaborate safeguards and protective instruments for minorities.

• The supremacy of the British Parliament.

• Increase in size of legislatures, an extension of the franchise, division of subjects into three lists and retention of the communal electorate.

• Separation of Burma from India

• Joint sittings of both Chambers in certain cases. Hence option (b) is correct.

• Introduced provincial autonomy and the ministers of the provincial governments were to be responsible to the provincial legislature.

Government of India Act 1919

• Dyarchy, a system of double government was introduced for the provinces of British India. It marked the first introduction of the democratic principle into the executive branch of the British administration of India. Thus, for the first time, responsible government was seen at the provincial level.

• The size of the provincial legislative assemblies was increased. Now about 70% of the members were elected.

• The communal representation was extended and Sikhs, Europeans, and Anglo Indians were included.

  Hence option(c) is not correct.

• Some women could also vote. In 1921, Bombay (now Mumbai) and Madras (now Chennai) became the first provinces to give the limited vote to women. Hence option (a) is correct.

• This act made the central legislature bicameral.

• The communal representation was extended and Sikhs, Europeans, and Anglo Indians were included.

Indian Council Act of 1892

• It increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central and provincial legislative councils but maintained the official majority in them.

• It gave the legislature, the power of discussing the budget for the first time and addressing questions to the executive. Hence option (d) is correct.

• The act made a limited and indirect provision for the use of election in filling up some of the nonofficial seats both in the Central and provincial legislative councils. The word “election” was, however, not used in the act.

Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley Minto reforms)

• The act enlarged the size of the legislative council both Central and Provincial.

• It introduced separate and discriminatory electorate.

• The act empowered the members to discuss the budget and move resolutions before it was approved finally.

• They were given rights to ask supplementary questions and move resolutions

Ornamental fishes of India are contributing about 1% of the total ornamental fish trade. These fishes are exported to the tune of 69.26 tons, having the value of Rupees 566.66 crores in 2014 – 15. On average, an annual growth rate of about 11 percent has been recorded during the period 1995 to 2014.

• India has great potentials in Ornamental fish production due to the presence of rich biodiversity of species, favorable climatic conditions, and availability of cheap labor.

• Inland and marine waters in India possess a rich diversity of ornamental fish, with over 195 indigenous varieties reported from North-East Region and the Western Ghats, and nearly 400 species from marine ecosystems. Among the 195 reported fish species from the North-East Region, 155 species are of ornamental value. The region also exhibits exceptional biodiversity and a high degree of endemism with respect to freshwater ornamental fishes.Prominent among them are Loaches, Eels, Barbs, Catfish, and Goby. On the other hand, the Western Ghats of India is one of the 'Biodiversity Hotspot’ Areas of the world. Among the total freshwater fishes reported from the Western Ghats, 40 are of the ornamental value of which 37 species are endemic to the Western Ghats. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Indian ornamental fish trade mostly deals with freshwater fish (90%) of which 98% are cultured and 2% are captured from wild. The remaining 10% are marine fishes of which 98% are captured and 2% culture. Majority of the Ornamental Fish Breeders in India breed exotic fishes and very few breed indigenous, marine and brackish water fish.

• Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal mainly practice ornamental fish farming in India. The availability of a vast number of native species has contributed significantly to the development of the ornamental fish industry in the country.

• North-eastern states, West Bengal, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu are blessed with potential indigenous species.

• About 90% of native species (85% are from northeast India) are collected and reared to meet export demand. Presently, nearly about 100 native species are reared as aquarium fish.

• 90% of India exports go from Kolkata followed by 8% from Mumbai and 2% from Chennai. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The final authority for adopting rules for regulating its procedure rests with each House, but a perusal of the rules of the Indian Parliament would indicate that the Presiding Officers in the two Houses are given vast powers by the rules. It is the Speaker who decides the admissibility of a Question; it is she who decides the forms in which amendments may be moved to the Motion of Thanks to the President's Address. With regard to moving amendments to a Bill, the permission of the Chair is required. If a Bill is pending before the House, it is the Speaker who decides whether she should allow amendments to be moved to various clauses of the Bill or not. As regards regulating discussions in the House, it is the Speaker who decides as to when a member shall speak and how long she shall speak. It is left to her to ask a member to discontinue her speech or even decide that what a particular member said may not go on record as part of the proceedings. All in all, she is the final interpreter of Rules in Lok Sabha.

• There shall be a Committee on Rules to consider matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and to recommend any amendments or additions to these rules that may be deemed necessary. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The Committee on Rules shall be nominated by the Speaker and shall consist of fifteen members including the Chairperson of the Committee. The Speaker shall be the ex-officio Chairperson of the Committee.

• The recommendations of the Committee shall be laid on the table and within a period of seven days, beginning with the day on which they are so laid, any member may give notice of any amendment to such recommendations.

• Any notice given by a member of any amendment to the recommendations of the Committee shall stand referred to the Committee who shall consider it and make such changes in their recommendations as the Committee may consider fit. The final report of the Committee after taking into consideration the amendments suggested by the members shall be laid on the Table. Thereafter, on the House agreeing to the report on a motion made by a member of the Committee, the amendments to the rules as approved by the House, shall be promulgated by the Speaker in the Bulletin.

  Thus, amendments to the rules are approved by respective the House only. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• If notice of such amendment has not been given within seven days, the recommendations of the Committee shall be deemed to have been approved by the House and on the expiry of the said period the Speaker shall promulgate in the Bulletin the amendments to the rules as recommended by the Committee. Therefore, the promulgation of the amendments to the rules as recommended by the Committee is done by Speaker only.

Option B is correct: eLISA aims to measure gravitational waves in the frequency range from 0.1mHz to about 100 mHz. Indian teams have worked on the theoretical aspects of eLISA in the theoretical aspects of measurement of cosmological parameters; using eLISA to set constraints on the dark energy equation of state; developing techniques for time delay interferometry, and so on.

Concept of Equality:

• Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides that “the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India". There is a prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Hence statement 1 is correct. The said Article is clearly in two parts: while it commands the State not to deny to any person ‘equality before the law’, it also commands the State not to deny the ‘equal protection of the laws’. Equality before law prohibits discrimination. It is a negative concept but negative equality. The concept of ‘equal protection of the laws’ requires the State to give special treatment to persons in different situations in order to establish equality amongst all. It is positive in character.

• The Concept of Equality in India also embodies "Positive Equality" and never "Negative Equality". It means when any authority is shown to have committed any irregularity or illegality in favor of one individual or group of individuals, others cannot claim the same irregularity or illegality on the grounds of denial of the same. Article 14 of the Constitution of India embodies the concept of positive equality alone and not negative equality, that is to say, it cannot be relied upon to perpetuate illegality or irregularity. The jurisdiction of a higher court cannot be invoked on the basis of a wrong order passed by a lower forum. Supreme Court in its various judgments has stated this concept. Benefits extended to some persons if illegal, cannot be claimed by the others on the ground that they have been denied the same if they do not deserve them in the first place. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• "Equality before the law" means that among equals the law should be equal and should be equally administered, that like should be treated alike. The right to sue and be sued, to prosecute and be prosecuted for the same kind of action should be the same for all the citizens of full age and understanding without distinction of race, religion, wealth, social status or political influence.

• The concept of "equality before law" and "equal protection of law" provides the following features:

  The first concept has the following features

  • the absence of any special privileges in favor of any person

  • the equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary courts

  • no person is above the law

  • The second concept has the following features:

  • the equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in privileges conferred and liabilities imposed

  • a similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • the like should be treated alike without any discrimination.

• Option (b) is correct: Seigniorage is the difference between the value of money and the cost to produce it

  • in other words, it's the economic cost of producing a currency within a given economy or country. If the seigniorage is positive, then the government will make an economic profit; a negative seigniorage will result in an economic loss.

  • Option (a) refers to financial inclusion which is the delivery of financial services at affordable costs to sections of disadvantaged and low-income segments of society.

  • Option (c) refers to the Gross Domestic Product which is the total value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period.

• Option (d) refers to Sterilization which are the actions taken by a country's central bank to counter the effects on the money supply caused by a balance of payments surplus or deficit.

President Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated Sant Kabir Academy and Research Centre at Sant Kabir Nagar in Uttar Pradesh. Option a is correct:

• He was a 15th-century Indian mystic, social reformer, poet and saint who had a significant role among the people in India.

  • He was one of the most influential saints

• The life of Kabir is an epitome of human virtue and his teachings are still relevant even after 650 years today.

• He is an ideal example of communal solidarity.

• He believed that God resides within us and took the charge of social emancipation and led his family life as a saint.

Writings/Works:

• Kabir Das' writings had a great influence on the Bhakti movement and includes titles like Kabir Granthawali, Anurag Sagar, Bijak, and Sakhi Granth,Panch Vani

[Raghuvamsa is literary created by Kalidasa]

• Rutherford designed alpha scattering experiment to know how the electrons are arranged within an atom. After the experiment, he concluded that:

  • Most of the space inside the atom is empty as most of the alpha-particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected.

  • Very few particles were deflected from their path, indicating that the positive charge of the atom occupies very small space.

  • A very small fraction of alpha-particle were deflected by 180 degree, indicating all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a small volume within the atom.

• On the basis of the observations, Rutherford put forward the nuclear model of an atom, which has following features:

  • There is a positively charged centre in an atom called Nucleus. Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.

  • The electrons revolve around the nucleus in well-defined orbits.

  • The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom

High nitrogen steels (HNS) are a new class of high alloy martensitic, austenitic or duplex grades with up to 0.9 mass% of N in solid solution. They are applied e.g. to stainless tools and bearings, in chemical engineering and for high strength non-magnetic components.

• High Nitrogen Steel (HNS) possesses excellent mechanical and ballistic properties. It is an ideal material for armour applications and due to its low cost can be used for civilian applications as well as for export also. Hence, statement 1 is correct and 3 is not correct.

• Defence Metallurgical Research Laboratory has developed nickel-free high nitrogen steel by refining the thermo‐mechanical processing to get better mechanical properties. The ballistic performance tests carried out against small arms projectiles have established that the steel is suitable for use as armour material for futuristic protective applications

Salient Features:

• HNS provides improved ballistic (especially against small arms ammunition) and blast protection than the existing Rolled Homogeneous Armour (RHA) material with reduced thickness

• Good corrosion resistance

• Austenitic stainless steel, non‐magnetic.

• Performance improvement: 30% to 35% compared to RHA steel against soft projectiles.

• Performance improvement: 5% to 15% compared to RHA steel against armour piercing (AP) projectiles.

• Equivalent performance in comparison to RHA steel against long rod anti‐tank projectiles.

• Low cost – about half that of currently produced RHA steels. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Stainless steel maker Jindal Stainless (Hisar) Ltd. has entered into an agreement with Defence Research & Development Organisation under which the government agency will transfer technology to manufacture high nitrogen steel for the defence sector to the company.

• Statement 1 is not correct: According to Section 102 of the Representation of the People Act, if there is equality of votes and if one additional vote would entitle either of them to win, and if no decision has been made by the Returning Officer under the provisions of the Act, then the High Court decides by a lot. It is called lottery in elections.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The candidate who wins the lottery wins the election. In 2017, for instance, in the election to ward number 220 of the Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation, Shiv Sena's Surendra Bagalkar and the BJP's Atul Shah got the same number of votes. The result was decided by the lottery, and Mr. Shah won.

Report on International Religious Freedom

• It is the annual report on international religious freedom by the US State Department. Hence statement 3 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

• The report gives its own perspective on the status and violations of religious freedom across the globe and has separate chapters on each of the countries. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• In its recent report on religious freedom alleged India by highlighting issues of concern.

• India rejected the criticisms saying the observations are based on "motivated inputs and biased views

• Statement 1 is correct: Attorney General (AG)shall hold office for a term of three years from the date on which he enters upon his office. A person who has held or who holds office as an Attorney General shall, on the expiration of his term of office, be eligible for re-appointment to that office for a further term not exceeding three years.

• A Law Officer shall hold office for a term of three years from the date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that –

  (a) where the post of Additional Solicitor-General for India has been created for a period of less than three years, the person appointed to such post shall hold office for the period for which such post has been created;

  (b) the appointment of a Law Officer may, at any time during his term of office, be terminated by three months’ notice in writing by either side.

  A person who has held or who holds office as a Law Officer shall, on the expiration of his term of office, be eligible for re-appointment to that office for a further term not exceeding three years. Provided that he shall make himself available for duties whenever required by the Government of India.

• Statement 2 is not correct: AG is not a government servant and is not debarred from private legal practice. Thus, there is no such prohibition provided he shall not:

  • hold briefs in any court for any party except the Government of India or the Government of a State or any University, Government School or College, local authority, Public Service Commission, Port Trust, Port Commissioners, Government aided or Government managed hospitals, a Government company as defined in Section 617 of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), any Corporation owned or controlled by the State, any body or institution in which the Government has a preponderating interest;

  • advice any party against the Government of India or a Public Sector Undertaking, or in cases in which he is likely to be called upon to advise, or appear for, the Government of India or a Public SectorUndertaking;

  • defend an accused person in a criminal prosecution, without the permission of the Government of India;

  • accept appointment to any office in any company or corporation without the permission of the Government of India;

  • advise any Ministry or Department of Government of India or any statutory organization or any Public Sector Undertaking unless the proposal or a reference in this regard is received through the Ministry of Law and Justice, Department of Legal Affairs.

• Statement 3 is not correct: It shall be the duty of an Attorney General:

  • to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time, be referred or assigned to him by the Government of India;

  • to appear, whenever required, in the Supreme Court or in any High Court on behalf of the Government of India in cases (including suits, writ petitions, appeal, and other proceedings) in which the Government of India is concerned as a party or is otherwise interested;

  • to represent the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution; and

  • to discharge such other functions as are conferred on him by or under the Constitution or any other law for the time being in force;

• Where Attorney General appears or does other work on behalf of the bodies of the Union of India such as the Election Commission, the Union Public Service Commission, etc. he shall only be entitled to fees on the scales as same as for the above functions.

Martial Law: The most important feature of Martial Law is the military acting independent of civilian authority and control. When a geographical area is put under Martial Law, the military is called out and the military commander is under no legal obligation to take his orders from the civilian authority of the area. The military commander might be required to cooperate with the civilian authorities in the area, but he is allowed to make his own decisions. To that extent, the military acting independent of any civilian supervision clearly distinguishes an area under Martial Law from the military merely acting as an aid to civilian authority (where the military acts under the supervision and command of the civilian authority).

• It is not described in Indian Constitution. Civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rule and regulations framed outside the ordinary law, implying suspension of ordinary law and the government by military tribunals. It is imposed under the extraordinary circumstances like war, invasion, insurrection, rebellion, riot or any violent resistance to law to repel force by force for maintaining or restoring order in the society. Abnormal powers including imposing restrictions and regulations on the rights of the civilians, can punish the civilians and even condemn them to death. The Supreme Court held that the declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus.

• The difference with respect to National Emergency:

  • Martial law affects only Fundamental Rights, while national Emergency is broader in scope affecting Centre-State Relationship, Fundamental Rights, Legislative Powers, Revenue Distribution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Military law suspends ordinary law, while courts and government continue in National Emergency. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

• Martial law imposed to restore the breakdown of law and order due to any reason, while National Emergency can be imposed only on three grounds (Article 352) i.e. War, External aggregation or Armed rebellion. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

• Martial law is always imposed only in some area of the country but National Emergency can be in some area or the entire country.

• Article 34: Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of Part III, Parliament may by law indemnify any person in the service of the Union or of a State or any other person in respect of any act done by him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area within the territory of India where martial law was in force or validate any sentence passed, punishment inflicted, forfeiture ordered or other act done under martial law in such area.

Some of the earliest works in Tamil, known as Sangam literature, were composed around 2300 years ago. These texts were called Sangam because they were supposed to have been composed and compiled in assemblies (known as sangams) of poets that were held in the city of Madurai.

• Early Tamil literature (the Sangam texts) mentions different categories of people living in the villages of south India. Large landowners were known as Vellalar, ordinary ploughmen were known as uzhavar and landless labourers, including slaves, were known as kadaisiyar and adimai. It is likely that these differences were based on differential access to land, labour and some of the new technologies. Hence, only pair 2 is correctly matched.

• In the northern part of the country, the village headman was known as the grama bhojaka. Usually, men from the same family held the position for generations. The grama bhojaka was often the largest landowner. Apart from the gramabhojaka, there were other independent farmers, known as grihapatis, most of whom were smaller landowners. And then there were men and women such as the dasa karmakara, who did not own land and had to earn a living working on the fields owned by others.