UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 8 - UPSC MCQ

Option c is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: For a typical coal-fired power station, flue-gas desulfurization may remove more than 90% of the SO2 in the flue gases.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Various types of FGD technologies such as wet-type FGD (which use limestone, ammonia and sea water as raw material), semidry type FGD and dry sorbent injection (DSI) FGD are available. Wet type FGD technology, using limestone as raw material, is prominent world-wide mainly on account of lower capital and operating expenditure.

• Statement 3 is correct: Wet scrubbers can also remove mercury and are especially effective for oxidized mercury. Dry flue gas desulfurization scrubbers, when combined with a baghouse (a dust-collector system that uses fabric filter tubes or other tools), can remove as much of 90 percent of mercury.

• Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such provision for the GST compensation waiver. However, there have been other recommendations to promote FGD technology in TPPs (Thermal power plants) in India.

• Option a and b are incorrect: Kumaon and Nilgiri hills show annular drainage pattern. In such a pattern, the radial streams develop subsequent tributaries which try to follow a circular drainage around the summit.
• Option c is incorrect: Sahyadari hills show dendritic drainage pattern. River Krishna originates from these hills.
• Option d is correct: When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’. Rivers like Narmada, Son and Mahanadi originating from Amarkantak range flow in different directions and are good examples of radial pattern. This pattern is also found in the Girnar Hills of Gujarat and Mikir Hills of Assam.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: WMO is an intergovernmental organization with a membership of 193 Member States and Territories. It originated from the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), the roots of which were planted at the 1873 Vienna International Meteorological Congress. Established by the ratification of the WMO Convention on 23 March 1950, WMO became the specialized agency of the United Nations for meteorology. The Secretariat, headquartered in Geneva, is headed by the Secretary-General. Its supreme body is the World Meteorological Congress.

• Statement 2 is correct: World Meteorological Congress assembles delegates of Members once every four years:

  • to determine general policies for the fulfilment of the purposes of the Organization

  • to consider membership of the Organization

  • to determine the General, Technical, Financial and Staff Regulations

  • to establish and coordinate the activities of constituent bodies of the Organization

  • to approve long-term plans and budget for the following financial period

  • to elect the President and Vice-Presidents of the Organization and members of the Executive Council

  • to appoint the Secretary-General

• Statement 3 is correct: WMO said while desert locusts have been here since biblical times, recent intense outbreaks can be linked to anthropogenic climate change and the increased frequency of extreme weather events.

• Statement 1 is correct: An Organic Photovoltaic (OPV) cell is a type of solar cell where the absorbing layer is based on organic semiconductors (OSC) – typically either polymers or small molecules.

• Statement 2 is correct: Manufacturing cost is cheaper than the inorganic Photovoltaic Cells due to large availability of raw material. Soluble organic molecules enable roll-to-roll processing techniques and allow for low-cost manufacturing. The wide abundance of building-block materials reduces supply and price constraints.

• Statement 3 is correct: The main disadvantages associated with organic photovoltaic cells are low efficiency, low stability and low strength. This is in comparison to inorganic photovoltaic cells such as silicon solar cells.

• Nagarahole TR in Karnataka is a home to 45 tribal settlements locally known as "Haadis" having 1703 families with a population of 6579 nos.

• These are indigenous Dravidian adivasi (Tribals) belonging to Jenukuruba, Bettakuruba, Yerava, Paniya and soliga communities. They are part of the large group of descendants of pallavas who were inhabiting the then vast forest tract which is now known as "Nilgiri Biosphere".

• Amrabad tiger reserve- endangered species of Mouse deer was re-introduced here for the first time in a country. Pakhui tiger reserve- Three large cats - the tiger, leopard and clouded leopard, share space with two canids – the wild dog and Asiatic jackal in this tiger reserve.

Proof of Stake:

• Cryptocurrencies that use proof of stake include Cardano, Binance Coin, and Solana.

• Proof of stake is a consensus mechanism used in cryptocurrencies that do not use mining but rather rely on staking to secure the network.

• Investors holding a certain amount of the cryptocurrency are allowed to stake their holdings to secure the network and get rewarded with new units of the cryptocurrency.

• The principle behind proof of stake is that if stakeholders are holding a significant amount of a cryptocurrency, they won't do anything to harm the network.

• They are therefore trusted to own a validator node, which validates transactions on behalf of the network.

• Proof of stake was created as an alternative to proof of work, which due to its energy demands, is expensive.

• Validator nodes, on the other hand, can be as simple as a personal computer, which does not require more power than any other computer.

• Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) referred a case to a 5-judge bench to give meaningful chances to those on Death Row.

• Statement 1 is correct: Capital punishment, also called the death penalty, is the execution of an offender sentenced to death after conviction by a court of law of a criminal offence. In India it has been limited to the rarest of rare cases.

• Statement 2 is correct: Section 121 (taking up arms against the state) and Section 302 (murder).

Criteria used by Finance Commission for financial devolution:

• The Finance Commission uses certain criteria when deciding the devolution to states. For example, the income distance criterion has been used by the 14th and 15th Finance Commissions. Under this criterion, states with lower per capita income would be given a higher share to maintain equity among states. So, statement (1) is correct.

• The 15th Finance Commission has introduced the demographic Performance criterion. The Demographic Performance criterion is to reward efforts is made by states in controlling their population. This criterion has been computed by using the reciprocal of the total fertility ratio of each state, scaled by 1971 population data. This has been done to assuage the fears of southern States. States with a lower fertility ratio will be scored higher on this criterion and will get a higher share of devolution. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by an amendment to the Constitution. So: statement (4) is correct.

It contains the following four provisions:

• The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings to enforce the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed.

• The Supreme Court shall have the power to issue directions or orders or writs to enforce any of the fundamental rights. The writs issued may include habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto.

• Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds. However, this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any other court here does not include high courts because Article 226 has already conferred these powers on the high courts. So, statement (3) is not correct.

• The right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by the Constitution. Thus the Constitution provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court to enforce the fundamental rights during a national emergency (Article 359). So, statement (2) is not correct.

Thus, it is clear that the Supreme Court has been constituted as the defender and guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens. It has been vested with the 'original' and 'wide' powers for that purpose. It is original because an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by appeal. Also, it is wide because its power is not restricted to issuing of orders or directions but also writs of all kinds. So, statement (1) is correct.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha:

• 'r Introduction and passage of ordinary bills.

• Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills. So, option (a) is not correct.

• Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

• Election and impeachment of the President. So, option (b) is not correct.

• Election and removal of the Vice-President.

• Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general.

• Approval of ordinances issued by the President. So, option (c) is not correct.

• Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.

In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of the Lok Sabha:

• A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.

• The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses.

• Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).

• A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha. So, option (d) is correct.

• The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the Council of Ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Therefore, the answer is (c).

These laws largely focus on the following personal areas of the people:

• Marriage and divorce

• Custody and Guardianship

• Adoption and Maintenance

• Succession and Inheritance

'Hindu Personal Law' is codified in tour Acts:

• the Hindu Marriage Act,

• the Hindu Succession Act,

• the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, and

• the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act.

The term 'Hindu' also includes Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists for the purpose of these laws. So, statement (1) is correct.

Muslim personal law is not codified per se and is based on their religious texts. So, statement (3) is not correct.

In the Northeast, there are more than 200 tribes with their own varied customary laws. The Constitution protects local customs in Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram. Even reformed Hindu law, despite codification, protects customary practices. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

• The Dharamshala Declaration:

  • It includes a long-term revenue goal of $1 trillion by 2047, when the country turns 100.

• The Centre unveiled an ambitious plan for the tourism sector in the National Conference.

  • Recovery of tourism to the pre-pandemic level by 2024,

  • $250 billion contribution to the GDP by 2030, and

  • India will be a world leader in tourism by 2047.

• Tourism Clubs:

  • The Union Tourism and Culture Minister called on states to start work on “a war footing” by establishing tourism clubs.

    • The proposal is to work on making Yuva Tourism clubs at district and mandal levels.

• A live attenuated vaccine is a vaccine created by reducing the virulence (severity or harmfulness) of a pathogen, but still keeping it viable (or "live"). Live vaccines are used against: Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Rotavirus, Smallpox, Polio, Tuberculosis, Cholera among others. (Thus Option 2, 3,4 and 5 are correct).

• Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine, which has been prepared on a tried and tested platform of dead viruses. This vaccine is developed with Whole-Virion Inactivated Vero Cell-derived technology. They contain inactivated viruses, which cannot infect a person but still can teach the immune system to prepare a defense mechanism against the active virus. (Option 1 is incorrect).

Knowledge Base: Different types of Vaccines

• Inactivated Vaccine: Vaccines of this type are created by inactivating a pathogen, typically using heat or chemicals such as formaldehyde or formalin. This destroys the pathogen’s ability to replicate, but keeps it “intact” so that the immune system can still recognize it.

• Attenuated Vaccine: Attenuated vaccines can be made in several different ways. Some of the most common methods involve passing the disease-causing virus through a series of cell cultures or animal embryos (typically chick embryos). When the resulting vaccine virus is given to a human, it will be unable to replicate enough to cause illness, but will still provoke an immune response that can protect against future infection.

• Conjugate Vaccine: Conjugate vaccines are somewhat similar to recombinant vaccines that is they are made using a combination of two different components. Conjugate vaccines, however, are made using pieces from the coats of bacteria. These coats are chemically linked to a carrier protein, and the combination is used as a vaccine. The piece of bacteria can't cause illness, but when combined with carrier protein, it can generate immunity against future infection.

• mRNA Vaccine: An mRNA vaccine (or RNA vaccine) is a novel type of vaccine which is composed of the nucleic acid RNA, packaged within a vector such as lipid nanoparticles.

• Statement 1 is correct: Permafrost is a ground that remains completely frozen at 0 degrees Celsius or below for at least two years. It is defined solely based on temperature and duration.

• Statement 2 is correct: Beneath its surface, permafrost contains large quantities of organic leftover from thousands of years prior — dead remains of plants, animals, and microorganisms that got frozen before they could rot. It also holds a massive trove of pathogens.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: These grounds are known to be below 22 per cent of the land surface on Earth, mostly in polar zones and regions with high mountains. They are spread across 55 per cent of the landmass in Russia and Canada, 85 per cent in the US state of Alaska, and possibly the entirety of Antarctica. At lower latitudes, permafrost is found at high altitude locations such as the Alps and the Tibetan plateau. Thus, in Northern Hemisphere, Permafrost is not confined to higher latitudes only.

• Statement 4 is correct: When permafrost thaws, microbes start decomposing this carbon matter, releasing greenhouse gases like methane and carbon dioxide. Researchers have estimated that for every 1-degree Celsius rise in average temperature, permafrost regions could release greenhouse gases to the tune of 4-6 years of emissions from coal, oil, and natural gas — becoming a major factor of climate change in themselves.

• Option a is correct: Initially the aim of the Forward Bloc was to rally all the leftwing sections within the Congress. It aimed to develop an alternative leadership inside the Congress. It was one of the many leftwing party formed during the freedom movement with socialist aims. On 20–22 June 1940, the Forward Bloc held its first All India Conference in Nagpur. The conference declared the Forward Bloc to be a socialist political party. The conference passed a resolution titled 'All Power to the Indian People', urging militant action for struggle against British colonial rule.

• Option b is incorrect: The Forward Bloc was formed on May 3, 1939 by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in Makur Unnao, Uttar Pradesh, after he had resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress on 29 April. It was formed after he was outmaneuvered by Gandhi at the Tripuri session of Congress (1939). The Haripura session of Congress had taken place in 1938 and was presided over by Bose.

• Option c is incorrect: Initially, it was formed as a faction within the Congress as it wanted to change the Congress from within. All the members of Forward Bloc had membership of Congress as well.

• Option d is incorrect: Unlike the Communist party of India, which supported war effort due to Communist Russia’s support to war, the Forward Bloc was more aligned with the nationalist and Congress agenda. It considered independence of India from British rule, the most important issue. So, its members participated fully in the Quit India movement.

• Knowledge Base: Bose became the president of the Forward Bloc and S.S. Cavesheer its vice-president. Bose began publishing a newspaper titled Forward Bloc.

• Option 1, 2 and 4 are correct: White Blood Cells, also called leukocytes, are an important part of the immune system. These cells help fight infections by attacking bacteria, viruses, and germs that invade the body. They are colourless due to lack of haemoglobin. White blood cells originate in the bone marrow but circulate throughout the bloodstream.

• There are five major types of white blood cells:

  • neutrophils

  • lymphocytes

  • eosinophils

  • monocytes

  • basophils

• Option 3 is incorrect: Erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBC) are the most abundant of all the cells in blood. RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the adults.

• Option a is incorrect: A civil court has the power of summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath. It can also require the discovery and production of any document.

• Option b is incorrect: A civil court can requisite any public record or copy thereof from any court or office. It also has the power of receiving evidence on affidavits.

• Option c is incorrect: A civil court can issue summons for the examination of witnesses and documents for matters under its consideration.

• Option d is correct: The Supreme Court has held that civil courts could not decide disputes between managements and employees, and, that they should be settled under the Industrial Disputes Act. Industrial Tribunal, Labour courts have been established under the Industrial Disputes act, 1947. These bodies exercise original jurisdiction in adjudication of industrial disputes. The act has been replaced by Industrial Relations Code 2020.

• Statement 1 is not correct: India is the world’s second-largest consumer and number one importer of vegetable oil. As urbanisation increases in developing countries, dietary habits and traditional meal patterns are expected to shift towards processed foods that have a high content of vegetable oil. Vegetable oil consumption in India is, therefore, expected to remain high due to high population growth and consequent urbanisation.

• Statement 2 is correct: As per the OECD-FAO Agricultural Outlook 2021-2030, India is projected to maintain a high per capita vegetable oil consumption growth of 2.6 percent per annum reaching 14 kg/capita by 2030 necessitating a high import growth of 3.4 percent per annum.

The four citizen-centric areas for reforms identified by the Department of Expenditure were:

• Implementation of One Nation One Ration Card System,

• Ease of doing business reform,

• Urban Local body/ utility reforms and

• Power Sector reforms.

So, all options are correct. Reforms in ULBs and the urban utility reforms aim to strengthen ULBs in the States and enable them to provide better public health and sanitation services to citizens. Economically rejuvenated ULBs will also be able to create good civic infrastructure.

The set of reforms stipulated by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance to achieve these objectives are:

• The State will notify:

• Floor rates of property tax in ULBs which are in consonance with the prevailing circle rates (i.e., guideline rates for property transactions) and;

• Floor rates of user charges regarding the provision of water supply, drainage, and sewerage reflect current costs/past inflation.

The State will put in place a periodic increase in floor rates of property tax/ user charges in line with price increases. Six states till now have undertaken these reforms successfully. These are Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Madhya Pradesh, Manipur, Rajasthan.

• The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28th January 1950. It succeeded the Federal Court of India, established under the Government of India Act of 1935. However, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is greater than that of its predecessor. This is because; the Supreme Court has replaced the British Privy Council as the highest court of appeal. Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of the Supreme Court.

• The Parliament is also authorized to regulate them. The Supreme Court can, with the approval of the President, make rules for generally regulating the practice and procedure of the court. The Constitutional cases or references made by the President under Article 143 are decided by a Bench consisting of at least five judges. All other cases are decided by single judges and division benches. The judgments are delivered by the open court. So, statement (1) is not correct.

• The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. But, it also authorizes the chief justice of India to appoint other places or places as the seat of the Supreme Court. He can decide in this regard only with the approval of the President. This provision is only optional and not compulsory. This means that no court can give any direction either to the President or the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as a Supreme Court seat. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

• the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;

• the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and

• the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

Thus, the nominated members of both Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President. Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved Assembly are not held before the presidential election. So, only option (d) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

• World Food Program was founded in 1961 by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), with its headquarters in Rome, Italy. So, statement (1) is correct.

• World Food Program is a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG), a coalition of UN agencies and organizations to fulfil the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). So, statement (2) is correct.

• The Nobel peace prize of 2020 is awarded to the World Food Program. So, statement (3) is not correct.

  • It is funded entirely by voluntary donations as it does not have its sources of funding.

  • Share the meal is an initiative of the World Food Program.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

• India, Japan and Australia have launched the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI). In international trade, supply chain resilience is an approach that helps a country diversify its supply risk across a group of supplying nations instead of being dependent on just one or a few. So, statement (1) is correct, while statement (3) is not correct.

• SCRI, initially proposed by Japan, aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience to eventually attain strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth in the region. So, statement (2) is correct.

• It emphasizes upon:

  • Sharing best practices on supply chain resilience;

  • Holding events to provide opportunities for stakeholders to explore the possibility of diversification of their supply chains;

  • It also includes a commitment by three nations towards measures to support enhanced utilization of digital technology and supporting trade and investment diversification.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

• Statement 1 is not correct: Recently, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) inaugurated the 2022 State of the Education Report (SOER) for India: Artificial Intelligence in Education - Here, There and Everywhere. The SOER is an annual flagship report.

• Statement 2 is not correct: This report is the fourth edition and is an annually flagship report. The fourth edition provides an introduction to Artificial Intelligence (AI) to clarify a subject that would have experienced various misconceptions. It is also added with challenges and opportunities in the Indian Education Sector that AI can address. The third edition of the State of Education Report 2021 focused on the theme of teachers, teaching and teacher education.

• Option a is incorrect: The Sultan headed the judiciary and was the final court of appeal in both civil and criminal matters. Next to Sultan was the qazi-ul mumalik (or qazi-ul quzzat), the chief judge of the Sultanate.

• Option b is incorrect: Criminal law was based on regulations framed for the purpose by the rulers. Criminal law was not based on Sharia.

• Option c is incorrect: The Hindus, in cases of civil matters, were governed by their own personal laws. It was dispensed by the panchayats in the villages and by the leaders of the various castes in the cities. Muslims were governed by Islamic laws in civil matters.

• Option d is correct: The chief qazi headed the legal system and heard appeals from the lower courts.

• Knowledge Base: Often, the offices of the sadr-us sudur and qazi-ul mumalik were held by the same person. Qazis were appointed in various parts of the empire, particularly in those places where there was a sizeable Muslim population. The qazis dispensed civil law based on the Muslim law (sharia).

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Panamik is situated close to Siachen glacier, which is famous for its curative hot springs. The spring water contains high amount of sulphur and it is believed best for curing rheumatism and other ailments. It is located in close proximity to Nubra valley in Ladakh.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Kheer ganga is located at Akhara Bazar, Kullu, Himachal Pradesh which is an important site for hot spring.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched: Gaurikund is considered the most sacred hot spring and is a major attraction for several pilgrimages located in Uttarakhand. Like any other hot spring, the hot water which comes deep from the earth core carries away lot of minerals mainly sulfur.

• Knowledge Base:

  • Manikaran Sahib, Himachal

  • Tattapani, Chhattisgarh

  • Yumthang, Sikkim

  • Reshi, Sikkim

• Statement 1 is correct: Mauryan rule lasted only about 50 years after the death of Asoka. His empire was likely fragmented among multiple successors (many sons and grandsons) like Kunala, Samprati, Dasaratha, Salishuka, Brihadaratha, etc. all within the span of about half a century. This shows they were probably incapable and weak and could not maintain a strong central control over a vast consolidated empire like Asoka and his predecessors. Fragmentation of the empire and weak rulers made it easy for local chieftains to reassert their independence causing decline of the empire.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Mauryan bureaucracy was top heavy and very vast. It was structured such that it needed a strong ruler making good appointments and keeping the officials in check so that there was no corruption or inefficiency causing popular resentment. However, after Asoka, corruption inevitably set in once weak rulers were in power at the centre. The complex system of spies collapsed under the later Mauryan rulers, so there was no check on corruption and inefficiency.

• Statement 3 is correct: Huge expenditure on army and payment of bureaucracy created financial crisis for the Mauryan empire. In the last years of the empire, they had to melt the images made of gold to meet the expenses of the empire. Thus, financial crisis was also amongst the reason for collapse of Mauryan empire.

• Knowledge Base: Other causes:

  • Dissatisfaction with oppressive rule - rebellions in Taxila, Ujjain etc.

  • New knowledge in the outlying area - learn the science of iron metallurgy for weapons and agriculture strengthened local kingdoms.

  • Neglect of north west frontier and invasion of Scythians, etc. due to Great Wall of China blocking their eastward expansion, leaving India as their only option.

  • Internal revolts - empire divided among successors, e.g., between Dasaratha and Kunal.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Lakdawala committee suggested that state specific poverty lines. It also suggested that poverty lines should be constructed and updated using the Consumer Price Index of Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) in urban areas and Consumer Price Index of Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL) in rural areas.

• Statement 2 is correct: Tendulkar committee recommended four major changes:

  • a shift away from calorie consumption-based poverty estimation;

  • a uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across rural and urban India;

  • a change in the price adjustment procedure to correct spatial and temporal issues with price adjustment; and

  • incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Rangarajan committee estimates poverty:

  • Food expenses

  • Non-food expenses

  • Behaviourally determined levels of other non-food expenses. Thus, poverty is not just based on expenditure on nutrition only.

• Statement 4 is correct: Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).

  It tracks deprivation across three dimensions and 10 indicators:

  • health (child mortality, nutrition),

  • education (years of schooling, enrolment), and

  • living standards (water, sanitation, electricity, cooking fuel, floor, assets).