UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 22 - UPSC MCQ

The Mahajanapadas were a set of sixteen kingdoms that existed in ancient India. It all began when the tribes (janas) of the late Vedic period decided to form their own territorial communities, which eventually gave rise to new and permanent areas of settlements called ‘states’ or ‘janapadas.’ In the sixth century BC, present-day Bihar and eastern Uttar Pradesh became centers of political activities as the region was not only fertile but also closer to the iron production centers. Iron production played a crucial role in expanding the territorial states of the region. These expansions helped some of these ‘janapadas’ turn into large states or ‘mahajanapadas.’ Most of these ‘mahajanapadas’ were monarchical in nature, while some of them were democratic states. Many prominent ancient Buddhist texts make frequent references to the ‘16 great kingdoms’ (mahajanapadas) that flourished between the sixth and the fourth centuries BCE. These 16 kingdoms included kingdoms like Anga, Gandhara, Kuru, and Panchala, which are mentioned in the great Indian epic ‘Mahabharata.’
Pair 1 is correctly matched. Avanti was an ancient Indian Mahajanapada (Great Realm), roughly corresponded to the present day Malwa (Madhya Pradesh) region. According to the Buddhist text, Anguttara Nikaya, Avanti was one of the solasa mahajanapadas (sixteen great realms) of the 6th century BCE. The janapada was divided into two parts by the Vindhyas, the northern part had its capital at Ujjaini and the southern part had its centre at Mahishmati. 
Pair 2 is correctly matched. Anga was an ancient Indian kingdom that flourished on the eastern Indian subcontinent and one of the sixteen mahajanapadas ("large state"). It lay to the east of its neighbour and rival, Magadha, and was separated from it by the river Champa. It was located in present day Bihar and Jharkhand. 
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Assaka (Pali) or Asmaka, was a region of ancient India (700–300 BCE) around and between the river Godavari. It included areas in present-day Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Maharashtra. 

In order to settle down permanently, simple land-grabbing process was started by the tribes, which eventually turned into well-planned communities. These communities gave rise to states or ‘janapadas’ and tribal identity became a major factor in defining the territory of a particular state. Gradually, some of these states began to expand and hence came to be known as the ‘mahajanapadas.’ Since expansion involved annexing of neighboring states, certain ‘mahajanapadas’ started conquering other ‘janapadas’ in order to extend their kingdoms as per the kingdom’s prosperity and wealth. 
Early stages of settlement of the tribes happened before the time of the Buddha. Hence, historical references of these ‘mahajanapadas’ can be found in ancient Buddhist texts. Many such texts talk about ‘16 great kingdoms’ that flourished between the sixth and the fourth centuries BCE. The period between the sixth and fourth centuries BCE is considered extremely important in early Indian history as it witnessed the emergence of massive Indian cities, which were built after the fall of the Indus Valley Civilization. These massive Indian cities were home to the 16 great kingdoms described in the ancient texts. In the modern era, the term ‘mahajanapadas’ is often used to refer to the 16 great kingdoms, which are mentioned below. 

Recently, the Government had returned the advice of the Collegium regarding the appointment of two new Judges. However, the Collegium has asserted that the Government cannot reject the suggestions provided by the Collegium.
At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-one Judges (One Chief Justice and thirty other Judges). Hence statement (1) is correct.
Originally the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight. The Parliament has increased the number of other Judges progressively from 7 to 30. It is the Parliament which can increase the number of Judges in the Supreme Court and not the President.
Hence statement (2) is not correct.
This is done by the Parliament through a simple majority and is not considered as an amendment to the Constitution under Article 368. So, statement (3) is not correct.
Hence, the correct option is (a).

The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) formerly known as Department of Explosives is the nodal Organization to look after safety requirements in manufacture, storage, transport and use of explosives and petroleum. The Organization is headed by Chief Controller of Explosives with its headquarter located at Nagpur (Maharashtra). This Organisation comes under Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. Hence statement 1 is not correct. • With an overall objective of ensuring safety and security of public and property from fire and explosion, the Organisation as a statutory authority is entrusted with the administration of Explosives Act, 1884, Petroleum Act, 1934; Inflammable Substances Act, 1952 and the following Rules framed under these acts. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its responsibilities include:

• Scrutiny and approval of site, layout and construction plans for Explosives manufacturing factories, Explosives storage premises, Fireworks manufacturing factories, Fireworks storehouses and shops, Gas Cylinder filling plants, CNG filling stations, Gas Cylinders/ Valves/ Regulators, Petroleum storage installations, Petroleum storage sheds etc.
• Scrutiny of Petroleum Refineries, Petrochemical Units, Calcium Carbide Factories and Acetylene Gas generating Plants for grant of approval thereof.
• Scrutiny and approval of proposals of design, construction and laying of Petroleum Pipelines.
• Licensing of the premises/units/vehicles mentioned as above.
• Regular inspection of the units mentioned above.
• Hence statement 2 is correct.

Last year the Supreme Court of India mandated the use of green crackers for Deepavali, prescribing specific norms for the manufacture. SC tasks the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (Neeri) with facilitating their development. The final product is subject to the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organization‘s (PESO‘s) approval.

Explanation:

• Option (d) is correct: U.K. Sinha committee has been set up by RBI to review the current framework for the MSME sector.

Supplementary notes:
Expert Committee on Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)

• The Reserve Bank has set up an eightmember expert committee under the leadership of the former chairman of SEBI, UK Sinha to review the current framework for the MSME sector.
• The committee has suggested long-term solutions for the economic and financial sustainability of the micro, small and medium enterprise.

Key Recommendations of the Committee 

• The Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006 may be reimagined as a comprehensive and holistic MSME Code having a provision for sunset on the plethora of complex laws scattered all over the legislative framework.
• Change in the definition of MSMEs from current investment-based to turnoverbased definition, as it would be more transparent, progressive, easier to implement. It will also remove the bias towards manufacturing enterprises in the existing definition.
• Strengthening the procurement mechanism by promotion of the Government e-Market (GEM) Portal and improving its payment system. 
• State Financial Corporations (SFC) is set up to promote Small Scale Industries and they can be given more operational freedom by the State legislations.
• Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)- should be corporatized with a focus on promotional work.
• Due to the lack of sophistication on the part of MSMEs, Insolvency code/ delegated legislation should provide for out-of-court assistance to MSMEs such as mediation, financial education, or the appointment of a trustee.
• The performance of Clusters needs to be improved by bringing synergy and coordination within a large number of support schemes.
• Involving local intermediaries such as business membership organizations in developing linkages with other stakeholders such as training, educational and research institutions.
• Market Support for MSMEs can be enhanced by developing networks of development service providers that can provide customized solutions to MSMEs that are struggling with the capability and resource constraints.
• Improving access to technology through a technology Mission for converging the efforts for the technology up-gradation of the MSMEs. Apart from it, more Industry-specific Technology Centres can be opened.
• Set up a National Council for MSMEs under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister, in order to facilitate coherent policy outlook and unity of monitoring.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Iranian scribes brought into India Kharosthi script which used to be written from right to left. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Punch-marked coins were already in use in India. Iranian coins are found in north western frontiers but they were not responsible for introduction of such coins for the first time.
Vedic and Persian religions (both Aryan) mingled in Gandhar, where stood the Indian city called Taxila by the Greek. By the age of Darius (6th century BC), the most refined of its cult had evolved into what was later known as Zoroastrianism – a dualist religion accounting for the problem of evil in terms of struggle of a good with an evil god. To this day, there are close similarities in the Persian festival of Nowruz (Iranian New Year) also celebrated by Parsis in India and Holi as both are centred towards fire.
It is believed that the Greek philosopher Pythagoras may have obtained his doctrine of metempsychosis (transmigration, or passage of the soul from one body to another) from India, mediated by Achaemenian (6th-4th century BC) Persia (although similar ideas were known in Egypt and were also present in Greece before the time of Pythagoras). The Pythagorean doctrine of a cyclic universe may also be derived from India.
In the 6th century, sandalwood, magenta, shells, corals, pearls, gold and silver were traded. Several Indian translators are believed to have been present in the Sasanian royal courts. Bam, in south-east Iran, was a major commercial and trading town on the famous Spice Road, a major tributary of the Silk Road that connected trade routes from India through Iran to Central Asia and China.

Special 301 Report is released by the United States Trade Representative (USTR). Section 301 of the US Trade Act 1974 provides for the identification of those countries whose policies result in the denial of adequate and effective intellectual property rights (IPR) protection to the US-based companies.
There are three categories under the Special 301 Report. These are Priority Foreign Countries, Priority Watch List and Watch List. In its latest report, India has been placed on the Priority Watch List for its alleged weak enforcement of intellectual property (IP) regulations. Hence, the correct option is (b).

• One of the most significant feature of the INA campaign was its wide geographical reach. The cities of Delhi, Bombay, Calcutta and Madras and the towns of U.P. and Punjab were the nerve centres of the agitation. But the agitation also got spread to places as distant as Coorg, Baluchistan and Assam. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• This agitation saw participation of diverse social groups and political parties. The spread of pro-INA sentiment happened to social groups hitherto outside the nationalist pale. The Director of the Intelligence Bureau conceded:  There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest, and, profuse sympathies were forthcoming from the remotest villages from all men irrespective of caste, colour and creed.‘
• The Muslim League, the Communist Party of India, the Unionist Party, the Akalis, the Justice Party, the Abrars in Rawalpindi, the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh, the Hindu Mahasabha and the Sikh League supported the INA cause in varying degrees. Even the Viceroy noted that  all parties have taken the same line, though Congress are more vociferous than the others.‘
• There was complete absence of the communal clashes during these agitations and remarkable unity was seen. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The most notable feature of the INA agitation was the effect it had on the raditional bulwarks of the Raj. Significant sections of Government employees, loyalist sections and even men of the armed forces expressed pro-INA sentiment.

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: NASA has planned a Dragon Fly Mission to Titan, the largest moon of Saturn planet.
Supplementary notes:
Dragon fly mission

• NASA has planned a Dragon Fly Mission to Titan, the largest moon of Saturn planet.
• It will be the first time that NASA will fly a multi-rotor vehicle for science on another planet, powered by nuclear-power.

Cassini Mission

• Cassini Mission was launched to study Saturn and its system of rings and moons.
• It is collaboration among NASA, ESA and the Italian space agency.
• It was the first spacecraft to orbit Saturn.

Raavana-1  
Sri Lanka’s first satellite ‘Raavana-1’, designed and developed by two local engineers, was successfully launched into orbit this week from the International Space Station (ISS) along with two other BIRDS 3 satellites from Japan and Nepal.

• It is a Cue satellite (type of Nano satellite), deployed using the Japanese Aerospace and Exploration owned Kibo experiment module.        

Statement 1 is incorrect: Temple premises in Nagara style generally does not have elaborate walls and gateways. In contrast, Dravida style has elaborate walls and gateways around temple premises. 
Statement 2 is correct: Images of river goddess Ganga and Yamuna were placed outside the garbhagriha. 
Statement 3 is correct: In Nagara style, Temple premises do not have water tank or reservoir inside the temple premises. Whereas in Dravida style, water tanks or reservoirs are present in the temple premises. 
About Nagara style of Temple Architecture:

• Nagara is the style of temple architecture which became popular in Northern India.
• It is common here to build an entire temple on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
• Unlike in south India, it doesn’t usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
• Earliest temples had only one shikhara (tower), but in the later periods multiple shikharas came.
• The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower. 

Artemis is the name given to NASA’s Mission to put people back on the Moon. In Greek mythology, the Goddess Artemis is the twin sister of Apollo, after whom the original Moon landing missions were named. Artemis is the abbreviation for Acceleration, Recollection, Turbulence and Electrodynamics of Moon’s interaction with Sun. It consists of a spacecraft to measure the impact of the Sun’s radiation over the Moon’s rocky surface when there is no magnetic field to protect it. After a successful Artemis Mission, NASA will be able to establish a sustainable human presence on the Moon by 2028. This would provide new opportunities in deep space exploration. It is also a stop-over for the mission to Mars. Hence, the correct option is (b).

• It was first in South Africa in 1913 that Gandhiji for first the involved women in public demonstrations. In India, it was during the Rowlatt Satyagraha of India that Gandhiji for the first time invited women to participate in the Indian National Movement. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• When the Non- Cooperation Movement started in 1921, he initially prescribed just a limited role for women.
• The floodgates to the national movement for women got really opened with the Civil Disobedience Movement. Gandhiji even this time did not want to include women in his original core group of volunteers in the Dandi March. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Explanation:

• Option (a) is correct: The strategy of “Detect – Treat – Prevent – Build” (DTPB) has been adopted for the elimination of Tuberculosis.

Supplementary notes:
National strategic plan (NSP)
1. The NSP for TB elimination 2017–25 is a framework to guide the activities of all stakeholders including the national and state governments, development partners, civil society organizations, international agencies, research institutions, private sector, and many others whose work is relevant to TB elimination in India.
2. The requirements for moving towards TB elimination have been integrated into the four strategic pillars of “Detect – Treat – Prevent – Build” (DTPB).

• Detect: Find all Drug Sensitive TB and Drug Resistant TB cases with an emphasis on reaching TB patients seeking care from private providers and undiagnosed TB in high-risk populations.
• Treat: Initiate and sustain all patients on appropriate anti-TB treatment wherever they seek care, with patient friendly systems and social support.
• Prevent the emergence of TB in susceptible populations.
• Build and strengthen enabling policies, empowered institutions, additional human resources with enhanced capacities, and provide adequate financial resources.

The University Grants Commission (UGC) has approved a new initiative – Scheme for Trans-disciplinary Research for India’s Developing Economy (STRIDE). The scheme aims to support socially relevant, local need-based, nationally important and globally significant research projects.
The major objectives of STRIDE are: a) to identify young talent, strengthen research culture, build capacity, promote innovation and support trans-disciplinary research and b) to fund multi institutional network highimpact research projects in humanities and human sciences. The STRIDE has 3 components: a) identify the motivated young talents and provide research capacity building in diverse disciplines, b) enhance problem solving skills with the help of social innovation and action research and c) fund high impact research projects. An advisory committee has been set up by the UGC under the chairmanship of Bhushan Patwardhan, ViceChairman, to oversee the entire scheme.

Pandit Ishwarchand Vidyasagar (1820-91) received the title of Vidyasagar, which means Ocean of Learning at the age of 21. He studied Sanskrit grammar, literature, Vedanta philosophy, logic, Astronomy, Hindu laws and also English literature and philosophy. He was appointed as the Principal of Calcutta’s Sanskrit college. His contribution to Bengali literature is very significant. He was not only an educationist but also a social reformer. The focus of his reforms was women. He spent his life for the cause of women empowerment, their education, to end the practice of child marriage and to initiate widow remarriage. So statement (1) is correct. 
Raja Rammohan Roy (1772-1833) founded Brahmo Samaj in 1828. So, statement (2) is not correct.
He reconstructed the Bengali alphabet and simplified Bengali typography into an alphabet of twelve vowels and forty consonants. He did so by eliminating the Sanskrit phonemes and a few punctuation marks while adding new letters to reflect contemporary pronunciation. So, statement (3) is correct.
Hence, the correct option is (c).

• Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was one of the most important leaders of India who played a major role as a politician and social reformer. He inspired the Dalit Buddhist movement and campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables (Dalits), while also supporting the rights of women and labour. He was independent India's first law and justice minister, the architect of the Constitution of India, and a founding father of the Republic of India.
• While he was an ardent patriot, on one hand, he was the saviour of the oppressed, women and poor on the other. He fought for them throughout his life. In 1923, he set up the 'Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha (Outcastes Welfare Association), which was devoted to spreading education and culture amongst the downtrodden, improving the economic status and raising matters concerning their problems in the proper forums to focus attention on them and finding solutions to the same. Hence option (c) is correct.
• Dr. Ambedkar attended all the three Round Table Conferences in London and each time, forcefully projected his views in the interest of the 'untouchable'. He exhorted the downtrodden sections to raise their living standards and to acquire as much political power as possible. He was of the view that there was no future for untouchables in the Hindu religion and they should change their religion if need be. Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Dr. Ambedkar was appointed as a member of the Governor General's Executive Council as Labour member. As a member, he advocated the problems of labour regarding management and representation of the downtrodden in the legislature, government posts, and technical education. He held the post till 1946. Hence, option (d) is correct.
• One of the major problems of Indian agriculture was (even today) low productivity of land with small landholding as one of the primary reasons. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar was in favour of consolidation of land holdings but according to him it should be state-owned. He pointed out that land is only one factor of production, in order to increase the farm productivity other factors like capital and labour should be rightly mix with the land. In his paper on ―Small Holdings in India and their Remedies (1918)‖, he suggested state owned cooperative farming and industrialisation as the remedial measures.
• While Mahatma Gandhi believed in panchayats' immense potential for democratic decentralization and for devolving power to the people, B.R. Ambedkar argued against panchayats. He was apprehensive about the continuation of caste Hindus hegemony. He wasn't against the concept of democratic decentralization or the concept of giving power to the people but he opined that villages in India were caste-ridden and had little prospects of success as institutions of self-government. Hence, option (b) is not correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: India will become 4th country after Russia, USA and China to launch human spaceflight mission.
Statement 2 is incorrect: ISRO and Russian federal space agency (ROSCOSMOS) have signed a memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for a short visit to International Space Station as a training mission.
Supplementary Notes:
Gaganyaan Mission

• Gaganyaan Mission will demonstrate Indian Human Spaceflight capability to low earth orbit for a mission duration ranging from one orbital period to a maximum of seven days.
• GSLV Mk-lll will be used to carry the orbital module which will have necessary provisions for sustaining a 3-member crew for the duration of the mission.
• ISRO has demonstrated a number of technologies that are required for this programme like Space Capsule Recovery Experiment (SRE-2007), Crew module Atmospheric Reentry Experiment (CARE2014) and Pad Abort Test (2018).
• The programme will make India the fourth nation in the world to launch a Human Spaceflight Mission. So far, only the USA, Russia and China have launched human spaceflight missions.
• Two unmanned flights and one manned flight will be undertaken as part of Gaganyaan Programme.
• ISRO and Russian federal space agency (ROSCOSMOS) have signed a memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to work together for India’s 1st manned space mission.
• ROSCOSMOS has also offered ride to Indian astronaut short visit to International Space Station on board Soyuz spacecraft for short training mission.
• Recently, a Gaganyaan National Advisory Council has been created with members from different institutions and industries like Secretaries of Department of Space, Department of Science and Technology, Department of Defense Research and Development, Department of Scientific and Industrial Research, Principal Scientific Advisor to PM, Senior Officials from Armed Forces, Indian Coast Guard etc. 

Statement 1 is correct: The castes proliferated into numerous sub-castes as a result of two factors. A large number of foreigners had been assimilated into Indian society, and each group of foreigners was considered a kind of caste. 
Statement 2 is correct: As the foreigners largely came as conquerors, they were given the status of kshatriya in society. The Hunas, who came to India towards the close of the fifth century, eventually came to be recognized as one of the thirty-six clans of the Rajput’s. Even now some Rajput’s bear the title Hun. The other reason for the increase in the number of castes was the absorption of many tribal people into Brahmanical society through the process of land grants. The tribal chiefs were assigned a respectable origin, but most of their ordinary kinsmen were assigned a low origin, and every tribe became a kind of caste in its new incarnation. This process continued in some ways up to the present. 

The main difference in standards between the existing BS-IV and the new BS-VI fuel norms is the presence of sulphur. BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels, which is equivalent to an 80% reduction of sulphur from 50 ppm to 10 ppm. Hence statement (1) is correct
The harmful NOx emissions from diesel cars and petrol cars can be brought down by nearly 70% and 25% respectively. Hence statement (2) is correct.
The Particulate matter like PM 2.5 and PM 10 are the most harmful components of air pollution, and BS-VI will reduce their emissions in diesel cars by a whopping 80%. So, statement (3) is correct.
Hence, the correct option is (d).

• The Non-Cooperation movement was launched formally on 1 August 1920, after the expiry of the notice that Gandhiji had given to the Viceroy in his letter of 22 June.
• A special session of the Congress was convened at Calcutta on 4-9 September 1920, where Gandhi's resolution on non-cooperation programme was approved. The movement, Gandhi assured, would bring swaraj within one year. If that did not happen or if government resorted to repression, then a civil disobedience campaign was to be launched, involving non-payment of taxes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The programme was then endorsed at the regular session of the Congress at Nagpur in December 1920. The resolution accepted all parts of the non-cooperation programme but it was to be implemented in stages, as directed by the All India Congress Committee. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Ration cardAadhar linkage is a must to access the scheme. 
Supplementary notes:
One Nation, One Ration Card

• A Ration Card is a document issued under an order or authority of the State Government, as per the Public Distribution System, for the purchase of essential commodities from Fair Price Shops (FPS).
• The scheme will allow inter-state portability of ration cards and thus, food security benefits will be available across the country from 1st July 2020.
• Intra-State access to the Public Distribution System (PDS) under the Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IMPDS) is already in practice in a few states like Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, etc.
• One Nation, One Ration Card enables the beneficiaries who are taking food grains under the Public Distribution System (PDS) to access the same benefits if they happen to migrate from one part of the country to the other, in a seamless manner. This means poor migrant workers will be able to buy subsidized rice and wheat from any ration shop in the country.
• It also aims to remove fake ration card holders through an integrated online system.
• It will also control the rising food subsidy bill by preventing leakages.
• Ration card-Aadhar linkage is a must to access the scheme.
• A person will only be eligible for the subsidies supported by the center such as those under the National Food Security Act, 2013.
• To ensure that one member of a family after shifting to another place does not buy the entire family quota in one go, a maximum limit of buying 50% of the quota will be fixed.

Bhasa was an important poet in the early phase of the Gupta period and wrote thirteen plays. He wrote in Sanskrit, but his dramas also contain a substantial amount of Prakrit. He was the author of a drama called Daridra Charudatta, which was later refashioned as Mrichchhakatika or the Little Clay Cart.
Bhasa is one of the earliest and most celebrated Indian playwrights in Sanskrit, predating Kalidasa. The plays of Bhāsa had been lost for centuries, until the manuscripts were rediscovered in the early 20th century. He was known only from the mentions in other works like the text Kavyamimamsa on poetics written during 880–920 AD. In the Kavyamimamsa, Rajashekhara attributes the play Swapnavasavadattam to Bhāsa.

The Global Assessment Report was recently launched by the UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR). It is published biennially by the UNDRR. UNDRR was established in 1999 as a part of the United Nations Secretariat. It undertakes various initiatives not only for disaster risk reduction but also to increase cooperation among member countries. It also provides necessary guidance and support to various countries in the implementation of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction.
Hence the correct option is (b).

• In October 2018, the Supreme Court allowed bursting of low-emission crackers relaxing the 'complete ban' issued in 2017. Such 'green' crackers were researched and developed by scientists at CSIR-NEERI as per the court's directions.
• The green crackers developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) include flower pots, pencils, sparkles, and chakkar. No doubt that green crackers are environment -friendly and are developed to reduce air pollution that causes health hazards.
• 'Green' crackers have a small shell size compared to traditional crackers. They are produced using less harmful raw materials and have additives that reduce emissions by suppressing dust. Green crackers release water vapour and don't allow the dust particles to rise. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Green crackers do not contain banned chemicals such as lithium, arsenic, barium, strontium and lead, which are present in the traditional crackers. Salts of Barium impart colour to traditional crackers. Green crackers will thus not produce colourful sparks like the traditional crackers. They are called Safe Water Releaser (SWAS), Safe Thermite Cracker (STAR) and Safe Minimal Aluminium (SAFAL) crackers. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Green crackers also produce less smoke and less sound, unlike the traditional crackers. They are designed to have 30% less particulate matter pollution. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Option (b) is correct: Jeevamrutha is a mixture of fresh desi cow dung and aged desi cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil. It is used in Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF).
Supplementary notes:
Zero Budget Natural Farming

• Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF) is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices.
• It was originally promoted by Maharashtrian agriculturist and Padma Shri recipient Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation.
• It promotes the application of jeevamrutha — a mixture of fresh desi cow dung and aged desi cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil — on farmland.
• It is a fermented microbial culture that adds nutrients to the soil, and acts as a catalytic agent to promote the activity of microorganisms and earthworms in the soil.
• It also promotes soil aeration, minimal watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching and discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.
• A similar mixture, called bijamrita, is used to treat seeds, while concoctions using neem leaves and pulp, tobacco and green chillis are prepared for insect and pest management.

By the seventh century Pataliputra fell on bad days and Kanauj came to the fore. How did this happen? Pataliputra owed its power and importance to trade and commerce, and the widespread use of money. Tolls could be collected from the traders who came to the city from the east, west, north, and south across four rivers. However, once trade declined, money became scarce, and officers and soldiers were paid through land grants, the city lost its importance. Power shifted to military camps (skandhavaras), and places of strategic importance which dominated long stretches of land. To this class belonged Kanauj. Situated in Farrukhabad district of UP, it shot into political prominence from the second half of the sixth century onwards. 

Participatory Guarantee Systems (PGS) are locally focused quality assurance systems. They certify producers based on active participation of stakeholders and are built on a foundation of trust, social networks and knowledge exchange. They represent an alternative to third party certification, especially adapted to local markets and short supply chains. Participatory Guarantee Systems are also referred to as "participatory certification". PGS includes participation of all the stakeholders. Thousands of organic producers and consumers are verified through PGS initiatives. Therefore, statement (c) is not correct. 
The PGS Organic India Council was set up in 2006. It was registered as a society in Goa as Participatory Guarantee Systems Organic Council (PGSOC) in 2011. Many of the states have incorporated promotion of PGS for certification of organic produce in their state-level agriculture policies. At the national level, the National Centre of Organic Farming (NCOF) under the Ministry of Agriculture began to operate the PGS-India as a voluntary organic guarantee programme with the PGS-National Advisory Committee as the apex decision making body.
Hence, the answer option is (c).
Why do we need PGS? Aren’t thirdparty certification systems enough?
Third-party programs are doing an excellent job at what they were designed for and have vastly increased the global market and awareness of organic products. PGS offer a complementary, low-cost, locally-based system of quality assurance, with a heavy emphasis on social control and knowledge building. PGS, as a complementary method to third-party certification, is essential to the continued growth of the organic movement, especially if we want to include More impoverished smallholder farmers who have the most to benefit from organic.

• The War Conference was held to seek Indian participation in the war efforts. The conference was convened in 1917 when the war had entered a critical phase. Germany had inflicted crushing defeats on both the British and French troops in France. Russia‘s war effort had broken down and the Russian Revolution was threatening its Czarist Government. At that moment, Indian support became crucial for the British Empire. Overall around 1.3 million Indian troops had served in World War 1.
• The Conferences existed concurrently with the Imperial War Cabinet, which was a British body for wartime coordination. It had representatives from all British colonies like Canada, India etc. It recognised the contributions of colonies to war efforts.
• Statement 1 is correct: It was convened in Delhi under Lord Chelmsford who was the Viceroy then.
• Statement 2 is correct: It was held to persuade national leaders to help the government in war purposes. It mainly included recruiting soldiers for participating in the war.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Gandhiji attended the conference and accepted to give his services. He later started an active recruiting campaign in Kaira (Kheda) District. Gandhiji believed that only the absolutely unconditional and whole-hearted co-operation with the government on the part of educated India will bring Swaraj.

Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: It discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.
Supplementary notes:
Zero Budget Natural Farming

• Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF) is a method of chemical-free agriculture based on traditional Indian practices.
• It was originally promoted by Maharashtrian agriculturist and Padma Shri recipient Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation.
• It promotes the application of jeevamrutha — a mixture of fresh desi cow dung and aged desi cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil — on farmland.
• This is a fermented microbial culture that adds nutrients to the soil, and acts as a catalytic agent to promote the activity of microorganisms and earthworms in the soil.
• It also promotes soil aeration, minimal watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching and discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing.
• A similar mixture, called bijamrita, is used to treat seeds, while concoctions using neem leaves and pulp, tobacco and green chillis are prepared for insect and pest management.

Statement 1 is correct: Chandragupta II adopted the title of Vikramaditya, which had been first used by an Ujjain ruler in 58–57 BC as a mark of victory over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India. This Ujjain ruler is traditionally called Shakari or the enemy of the Shakas. Vikrama samvat or era was started in 58– 57 BC by Shakari. However, Chandragupta II proved to be a greater Shakari and Vikramaditya. Statement 2 is correct: The court of Chandragupta II at Ujjain was adorned by numerous scholars including Kalidasa and Amarasimha.  
Statement 3 is correct: It was during Chandragupta’s reign that the Chinese pilgrim Fa-hsien (AD 399–414) visited India and wrote an elaborate account of the life of its people. 

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Project will interlink the two major rivers, Godavari and Penna to solve drinking water and irrigation problems in south coastal Andhra. Recently, National Green Tribunal has stayed the project due to lack of environmental clearance.
Statement 2 is correct: The Penna (also known as Pennar, Penner, Penneru) is a river of southern India. The Penna rises in Nandi Hills in Chikballapur district of Karnataka State and runs north and east through the States of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh to empty into the Bay of Bengal.
Statement 3 is correct: The Godavari is India's second-longest river after the Ganga.
Its source is in Triambakeshwar, Maharashtra. It flows in the States of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
Hence, the correct option is (b).