UPSC Prelims Past Year 2021: Paper 1 (GS) - UPSC MCQ

Water is capable of dissolving a variety of different substances, which is why it is such a good solvent. And, water is called the "universal solvent" because it dissolves more substances than any other liquid. This is important to every living thing on earth. It means that wherever water goes, either through the ground or through our bodies, it takes along valuable chemicals, minerals, and nutrients.

It is water's chemical composition and physical attributes that make it such an excellent solvent. Water molecules have a polar arrangement of the oxygen and hydrogen atoms—one side (hydrogen) has a positive electrical charge and the other side (oxygen) had a negative charge. This allows the water molecule to become attracted to many other different types of molecules. Water can become so heavily attracted to a different molecule, like salt (NaCl), that it can disrupt the attractive forces that hold the sodium and chloride in the salt molecule together and, thus, dissolve it.

LED Chips are mounted on a circuit board, so depending on the configuration, usually 180 degrees. This is typically an advantage because light is usually desired over a target area (rather than all 360 degrees around the bulb). So, statement 1 is correct.

Sodium lamps lifespan is around 14,000 hours. LEDs last longer than any light source commercially available on the market. LEDs are typically 40,000 - 60,000 Hours. So, statement 2 is not correct.

High-pressure sodium lamps (HPS) emit a broader spectrum of light than the low-pressure lamps, but they still have poorer color rendering than other types of lamps. Low-pressure sodium (LPS) lamps only give monochromatic yellow light and so inhibit color vision at night. LPS lamps in particular are monochromatic which means that the objects illuminated by them appear shadowy black rather than the color you would see during daylight. HPS lamps are better but are still surpassed by virtually every other light on the market. LEDs can be designed to generate the entire spectrum of visible light colors without having to use the traditional color filters required by traditional lighting solutions. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) is a protein on the surface of many cell types. It is an enzyme that generates small proteins – by cutting up the larger protein angiotensinogen – that then go on to regulate functions in the cell.

Using the spike-like protein on its surface, the SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2. Hence, ACE2 acts as a cellular doorway that is a receptor for the virus that causes COVID-19. The spike protein of SARS-CoV- 2 can adopt at least 10 structural states in order to cling onto angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) receptor cells in humans.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical produced in large quantities for use primarily in the production of polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resins. Polycarbonate plastics have many applications including use in some food and drink packaging, e.g., water and infant bottles, compact discs, impact-resistant safety equipment, and medical devices.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Triclosan is a lipophilic compound with antimicrobial properties. It is an ingredient added to many consumer products intended to reduce or prevent bacterial contamination. It is added to some antibacterial soaps and body washes, toothpastes, and some cosmetics. It also can be found in clothing, kitchenware, furniture, and toys.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

A light-year is the distance a beam of light travels in a vacuum in one year. The reasons for measuring astronomical distances in light years are familiar units like kilometers and miles are absurdly small for describing the vastness of the cosmos and the speed of light is both finite and constant with a value of approximately 2.998 x 10⁸ m/s.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Parliamentary sovereignty means that parliament is superior to the executive and judicial branches of government, and can therefore enact or repeal any law it chooses. It is a cornerstone of the UK constitutional system. Parliament of India is neither sovereign nor supreme. The authority and jurisdiction of Parliament are limited by the Powers of the other organs, the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States, fundamental rights (Article 32), Judicial review and an independent judiciary. Parliament cannot alter the basic features of the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.

Matters related to the constitutionality of an amendment act can be referred by the SC to its constitutional bench. However it is not mandatory for the SC to refer the matter to constitution bench. In case of amendment of an ordinary act in many cases the matters related to its constitutionality are dealt by divisional benches. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

In 1949, the Gopalaswami Ayyangar Committee while recommending restructuring of the Central Secretariat, suggested that a Department should be identifi ed with a Secretary’s charge and a Ministry should be identified with a Minister’s charge. So, statement 1 is correct.

In 1954, on the recommendation of Paul H. Appleby report, an Organisation and Methods (O&M) Division was set up in the Cabinet Secretariat. In 1964, the O&M Division was transferred to the Ministry of Home Affairs, under the newly created Department of Administrative Reforms. In 1970, on the basis of the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission, the Department of Personnel was set up in the Cabinet Secretariat. Since Cabinet secretariat falls under the Prime Minister, it is safe to say the DoPT was placed under PM’s Charge. So, statement 2 is correct.

In August 2017,a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) Vs Union of India unanimously held that Indians have a constitutionally protected fundamental right to privacy that is an intrinsic part of life and liberty under Article 21.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

As per Section 33(7) of the RPA, one candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (more constituencies were allowed until 1996 when the RPA was amended to set the cap at two constituencies). So, statement 1 is not correct.

In 1991, Haryana deputy chief minister Devi Lal contested three Lok Sabha seats — Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur — as well as the Ghirai assembly seat. He lost them all. So, statement 2 is correct.

The costs of the by-elections in such cases are born by the Election Commission Of India. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Here is depends on grazing intensity and not the burrowing animals or termites. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Bush fires are common in Savannah because of alternate wet and dry season which can modify the forest.
Grazing intensity is a major reason for type of Savannah, so Grazing herbivores do contribute in keeping a check on forest. So, statement 2 is correct.
It has seasonal rainfall based on which it is divided into wet, dry or thornbush. So, the statement 3 is correct.
Soil properties influence the type of Savannah and its vegetation but don’t contribute in checking it once formed. So, statement 5 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Water in groundwater is 0.62% while in lakes and rivers it is 0.008 (Salt lakes)+0.009(freshwater lakes) + 0.0001(rivers)=0.0171. So, the statement 1 is not correct.
Water in polar ice caps and glaciers is 2% while in groundwater it is 0.62%. So, the statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

• It can be evergreen or semi-deciduous. Because of which is is extensively eing grown in semiarid regions in India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• It is native to Africa or Indian-sub continent and grown in South-east Asia and Africa as well. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. So, the statement 3 is correct.
• India is one of the largest exporters of both Tamarind and Seed of Moringa. So, Statement 4 is correct.
• Seeds of Moringa and Tamarind can be used for biofuel production. So, statement 5 is
  correct.

​Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Black soil is formed sue to weathering or basalt rock or volcanic rocks. While other rocks don’t have the properties found in black soil.

They are genetically modified and involve use of genetic engineering to mimic the actual virus for which the vaccine is being produced. So, statement 1 is correct.
Viruses and not bacteria are used as vectors to produce the vaccine and hence this statement is wrong. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

The mitochondrial replacement therapy can be done either before or after in vitro fertilization. Two mitochondrial replacement techniques have been developed, maternal spindle transfer and pronuclear transfer. In maternal spindle transfer, the chromosome spindle apparatus of the carrier mother is removed from her unfertilized oocyte and inserted into the donor mother’s unfertilized and enucleated oocyte that contains normal mtDNA. The hybrid oocyte is then fertilized in vitro by the father’s sperm and implanted into the carrier mother by standard in vitro fertilization (IVF) procedures. In pronuclear transfer, both carrier mother’s and donor mother’s oocytes are first fertilized in vitro. The carrier mother’s pronucleus is inserted into the donor mother’s enucleated oocyte containing normal mtDNA, and the embryo is implanted into the carrier mother by IVF. The mitochondrial replacement approach is generic; instead of targeting a specific mutation, MRTs replace nearly all mitochondria and their resident mtDNA and so could be applied to any inherited mtDNA disease. So, statement 1 is correct.

In most people, primary mitochondrial disease is a genetic condition that can be inherited (passed from parents to their children) in several ways. Under normal circumstances, a child inherits genes in pairs -- one gene from the mother and one from the father. A child with a mitochondrial disease does NOT receive a normal pair of genes from the parents. The gene has mutated – meaning it has become defective (changed). Learning the way a mitochondrial disease has been inherited helps predict the chance of passing on the disease(s) to future children. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Bollgard I and Bollgard II are technologies to produce genetically modified crop plants
for example BT cotton. So, other can be easily eliminated.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

• The larger hole will lead to increase in the steam going out leading to greater reduction in temperature. So, statement 1 is correct.
• As the temperature increases of the flame the temperature inside will also increase. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Weight of the lid has nothing to do with the temperature inside the pressure cooker. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

• Some bacteria can be grown in artificial medium but some cannot. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Fungi can be grown in artificial medium. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Unlike bacteria and fungi, viruses need living host to grow. So, statement 3 is not correct.

​Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

It is actually the opposite the statement given. Adenoviruses have double stranded DNA genomes while Retroviruses have single stranded DNA genomes. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Common cold can sometimes be caused by adenoviruses while AIDS is caused by retrovirus. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

The right to the city is a new paradigm that provides an alternative framework to rethink cities and urbanization. It envisions the effective fulfilment of all internationally agreed human rights, sustainable development objectives as expressed through the Sustainable Development Goals, and the commitments of the Habitat Agenda. Local governments and their local, national and global association, civil society organizations, and specific United Nations organizations (UNHCR - Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees, OHCHR - the Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights, and UN-Habitat) should be the ones in charge for monitoring the implementation of the New Urban Agenda. So, statement 1 is correct.

The right to city also means “the right of people to a safe and healthy habitat, and to adequate and decent housing regardless of their social and economic status” and “to fully enjoy the city and its public spaces on the basis of the principles of sustainability, social justice, respect for different urban cultures, and a balance between the urban and the rural. Exercising the right to the city is [further] based on the democratic management of the city, on the social and environmental function of property and of the city, and on the full exercise of citizenship. So, statement 2 is correct.

The right to the city envisions a socially and spatially just distribution and planning of material resources, ensuring good living conditions across the human settlement continuum. These resources, accessible in both formal and informal sectors and areas, are defined by acceptable quality standards, and include: public space and the urban commons; investments in basic infrastructures and services (e.g. water, electricity, waste, and sanitation); appropriate, accessible and affordable transportation options; appropriate and dignified housing and settlements; equitable livelihoods, opportunities, and decent jobs, including solidarity and circular economy initiatives; education; healthcare; and investments in the preservation of ecosystems and biodiversity, and in climate change protection. This pillar envisions all inhabitants, particularly women, as caretakers and as protagonists in the delivery and enjoyment of these resources for a full life. In this respect, it also requires recognition and specific measures targeting marginalized groups (e.g. young people, migrants and refugees, informal workers, and the differently abled). So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Judicial Custody is the custody of court. It is mentioned in section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). Remand order is issued by the Judicial Magistrate and on the basis of remand order the accused is lodged to Judicial Custody. To release the accused from custody, a warrant of release is necessary.

Police Custody is different from Judicial custody, where the Police can seek for 15 Day, for the purpose of interrogation and investigation, where the accused is in police custody/lockup.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Parole cannot be demanded as a right by the convict. It is given by the court in recognition of good behavior of a convict. After the first appeal after conviction, which when dismissed, allows for a convict to apply for parole under the prevalent rules. Every state has its own parole rules. Emergency parole was given to convicts, undergoing sentence upto 7 years, due to Covid- 19 pandemic to decongest prisons in 2020.
Parole is under the Jail Rules which are covered under the state list and can be granted to Indian Citizens.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

Administrative discretion is against equality and it becomes the cause of arbitrariness, discrimination and unjust action. In Jayantilal Kalidas Mehta vs The State of Maharashtra 1970 case, some sections were contended that gave unguided, uncontrolled and arbitrary powers to the collector, which were violating Article 14 of the constitution.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Features/characteristics of Indian Federalism (1) Clear division of powers between the Centre and the states,
(2) Independent Judiciary,
(3) Bicameral Legislature,
(4) Dual government polity,
(5) Supremacy of constitution.
Response (b) is vague as it doesn’t make it clear whether it refers to upper house or lower house of the parliament.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

As used in political science, the word state means a community or society politically organized under one independent government within a definite territory and subject to no outside control. The essential attributes of a state are:
1. Defined territory
2. Population
3. Organized government
4. Sovereignty and independence

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Under Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Kerala High court recently (May 2021) comprising of a bench of Chief Justice Mr.S.Manikumar & Justice Shaji P.Chaly remarked that being A Court Of Record, High Court Can Review Its Own Judgments Under Article 226 Of the Constitution. (Pottakalathil Ramakrishnan v. Thahsildar, Tirur and Others ).

Order 47 Rule 1 read with 114 CPC, high court has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

A single citizenship means that all Indians irrespective of their State of Domicile are the Citizens of India. In India, A person born in Punjab or kerala can only be a citizen of India and not a citizen of the State of their domicile like in the USA. So, statement 1 is correct.

In India a citizen whether by birth, registration, naturalization or descent can become President. In USA only natural-born citizen of the United States can become President. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The person who obtains Indian citizenship by birth, by domicile and by incorporation of territory can never be deprived of their citizenship. Only person who have got the citizenship by naturalisation and registration can be deprived of it under following circumstances:

1) obtained the citizenship by fraud
2) shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India
3) unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war
4) within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country for two years and
5) has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Separation of Power between legislative, executive and judiciary maintains checks and balances in the system. It establishes limited government. Thus it is the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy.