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Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - UPSC MCQ


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50 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2

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Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 1

Which of the following options correctly describes the descending order (highest to lowest) of the currencies prevalent during the Delhi Sultanat?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 1
  • lltutmish (1210-36) is credited for standardizing the coinage of the Delhi Sultanate. The currency system established by him in its essentials survived the Delhi Sultanate. He introduced gold and silver tankas and a copper jital that was reckoned at 1/48th of tanka in North India and 1/50th in the Deccan after the conquest of Devagiri. 
  • 'A firm ratio of 1:10 between gold and silver appears to have been established. For studying the currency system we not only have the testimony of the chronicles but also the physical evidence available in the form of surviving coins (this is called numismatic evidence).
  • The Sultanate mints generally uttered coins in three metals: gold, silver and billon (copper mixed with a very small quantity of silver).
  • The main coins were tanka and jital but some smaller currencies were also in circulation. Barani mentions dangs and dirams in use at the capital Delhi.
  • The equation between these currencies in the north has been worked out as 1 silver tanka = 48 jital = 192 dangs = 480 dirams. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

  1. Mahavira did not allow women to be the propagators of Jainism.
  2. Jainism was not visible in southern India until the 1st century AD.
  3. The use of the Prakrit language helped in the emergence of the Marathi language.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 2
  • Numerous religious sects emerged in the middle Gangetic basin in the sixth century B.C. which held a critical view of post-Vedic life and society. Of all these, Buddhism and Jainism were the most potent religious reform movements.
  • Vadrhaman Mahavira was born in 540 B.C. in a Kshatriya clan connected with Magadha. At the age of 30, he left his home in search of truth and attained 'kaivalya' at the age of 42 and conquested misery and happiness. Because of this conquest, he is known as Mahavira or the great hero or 'jina' and his followers are known as Jainas.
  • In order to spread Jainism, Mahavira organized an order of his followers that admitted both men and women. It is said that his followers counted 14000. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Jainism spread to Kalinga in the fourth century BC and in the second century BC it also seems to have reached Tamil Nadu. In the first century BC it enjoyed the patronage of King Kharvaela of Kalinga. In later centuries, Jainism spread to Malwa, Gujarat and Rajasthan. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The early Jainas discarded Sanskrit and adopted the Prakrit language of the common people to preach its ideas. Many regional languages were developed out of Prakrit, particularly Sauraseni out of which grew the Marathi Language. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 3

Consider the following statements about the UNESCO list of endangered languages:

  1. Only five Indian languages are included in the list.
  2. In the last 50 years, no Indian language has been declared extinct.
  3. Shompen and Onge are included in the list of endangered languages in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 3
  • According to UNESCO, any language spoken by less than 10,000 people is potentially endangered. Since 1971, the Census of India has stopped counting languages spoken by less than 10,000 people.
  • According to the Bhasa Research and Publication Centre, Vadodara, and Adivasi Academy, Gujarat, in the last 50 years, we have lost over 250 languages including Bo language in Andaman and the Majhi language in Sikkim. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Most of these dying languages are from the indigenous tribal groups spread across the country. A few of them would be the languages spoken by the nomadic people in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana, including Wadari, Kolhati, Golla, Gisari.
  • In 2018, a report by UNESCO stated that 42 languages in India were heading towards extinction
    • The languages or dialects that were considered endangered, include 11 from Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Great Andamanese, Jarawa, Lamongse, Luro, Muot, Onge, Pu, Sanenyo, Sentilese, Shompen and Takahanyilang), seven from Manipur (Aimol, Aka, Koiren, Lamgang, Langrong, Purum and Tarao) and four from Himachal Pradesh (Baghati, Handuri, Pangvali and Sirmaudi), etc. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 4

In the context of financial sector, the term "takeout financing" means:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 4
  • Recent context: National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) plans to roll out take-out financing to help commercial banks overcome asset-liability mismatches in infrastructure financing.
  • Takeout financing, also known as permanent financing or long-term financing, is a form of funding used in the real estate industry. It refers to the process of securing a long-term loan or a mortgage to replace a short-term loan that was used to finance the development.
    • A takeout loan is a method of financing whereby a loan that is procured later is used to replace the initial loan.
    • More specifically, a takeout loan, or takeout financing, is long-term financing that the lender promises to provide at a particular date or when particular criteria for completion of a project are met.
  • Takeout loans are commonly used in property development. A developer might secure a short-term loan to scrap an existing structure and pay a crew to build a new one. Once the new structure is in place or a significant portion of it is finished, the developer might secure longer term financing to pay off the original loan.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 5

With reference to the amara-nayakas of the Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements:

  1. It was a political innovation and its features were derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.
  2. They were military commanders who collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons and traders in the area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 5
  • Imperial Capital-Vijayanagara
  • The rayas and the nayakas
    • Among those who exercised power in the Vijayanagara Empire were military chiefs who usually controlled forts and had armed supporters. 
    • These chiefs often moved from one area to another, and in many cases were accompanied by peasants looking for fertile land on which to settle.
    • These chiefs were known as nayakas and they usually spoke Telugu or Kannada.
    • The amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that many features of this system were derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya. They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons, and traders in the area. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants.
    • These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their control. Some of the revenue was also used for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works.
    • The amara-nayakas sent tribute to the king annually and personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to express their loyalty.
    • However, during the course of the seventeenth century, many of these nayakas established independent kingdoms. This hastened the collapse of the central imperial structure.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 6

In the context of tea farming in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Assam is the major tea producing state in India followed by West Bengal and Tamil Nadu.
  2. The Tea Board of India is headquartered at Digboi, Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 6
  • India is the second-largest producer of tea globally.
  • Assam is the major tea producing state in India followed by West Bengal and Tamil Nadu. Almost 52% of the entire tea produced in India comes from the state of Assam with 652.9 million kilograms. Lakhimpur, Kamrup, Goalpara, Sivasagar, Cachar, Nagaon and Derang districts of the state are major producers of tea. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Tea Board of India is a state agency of the Government of India, established to promote the cultivation, processing, and domestic trade as well as export of tea from India.
    • The Board's Head Office is situated in Kolkata and there are two Zonal offices-one each in North Eastern Region at Jorhat in Assam and in Southern Region at Coonoor in Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry overlooking the Tea Board of India. As an apex body, it looks after the overall development of the tea industry.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

  1. Nigaar khana was a painting workshop set up by Humayun.
  2. The Princes of the House of Timur is a famous painting containing the portraits of successive members of the Mughal dynasty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 7
  • Mughal paintings used the style of miniature paintings that developed in the northern Indian subcontinent in the sixteenth century and continued till the mid–nineteenth century. It was responsible for the amalgamation of indigenous themes and styles along with Persian and later European themes and styles.
  • It was during Humayun's exile in Shah Tahmasp’s court that he witnessed the magnificent artistic tradition of miniature paintings and manuscripts. With the assistance of Shah Tahmasp, Humayun established his court in Kabul in 1545. Humayun’s rule began a period of intense patronage for the art of painting and calligraphy.
    • He founded the Nigaar Khana (painting workshop), which was also a part of his library. Not much is known about the size and composition of Humayun’s workshop in India. However, it is known that he started the project of illustration of Hamza Nama that was continued by his son and successor Akbar. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The Princes of the House of Timur (1545–50), is an extraordinary Mughal painting from the early period, probably by Safavid artist, Abd us Samad, is a masterpiece in itself by its size and complex structure and display of historical portraits. It has portraits that were painted over the original to register the portraits of successive members of the Mughal dynasty. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 8

With reference to ancient India, the terms 'Dharmasthiya' and 'kantakasodhana' are related to:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 8
  • Under the Mauryan state, justice was administered through courts, which were established in all the major towns.
  • Two types of courts are mentioned in the texts.
    • The 'dharmasthiya' courts mostly dealt with civil law relating to marriage, inheritance and other aspects of civil life. The courts were presided over by three judges well-versed in sacred laws and three amatyas (secretaries).
    • Kantakasodhana courts shall deal with measures to suppress disturbance to peace (kantakasodhanam kuryuh). According to the artha-shastra, these courts took cognizance of violations of the law by officials in the discharge of their official duties. Thus if traders used false weights or sold adulterated goods, or charged excessive prices, the Kantakasodhana courts intervened to punish the culprits.
    • Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
  • The main purpose of these courts was to clear the society of anti-social elements and various types of crimes, and it functioned more like the modern police and relied on a network of spies for information about such antisocial activities. Punishments for crimes were usually quite severe. The overall objective of the judicial system, as it evolved, was to extend government control over most aspects of ordinary life.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 9

In the context of the health sector, consider the following statements regarding aspartame:

  1. It is an artificial sweetener.
  2. Its sweetness is less compared to sugar.
  3. It is declared as possibly carcinogenic by the World Health Organization.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 9
  • Recent context : The WHO recently declared aspartame as ‘possibly carcinogenic’. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Aspartame is an artificial sweetener has been in use since the early 1980s. It is used in many foods and beverages because it is much sweeter than sugar, so much less of it can be used to give the same level of sweetness. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The use of aspartame, often known by the brand name Equal, in food and beverage products has long been scrutinized. World Health Organization declared that aspartame could possibly cause cancer and encouraged people who consume a significant number of beverages with aspartame to switch to water or other unsweetened drinks.
  • Most food and beverage companies use aspartame partly because aspartame is less expensive than other alternatives and is 200 times as sweet as sugar. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 10

Consider the following passage:
It is dubbed to be India's first private hill station. It is located in Mulshi Valley in the Western Ghats. It was developed by Hindustan Construction Company which had envisaged the hill station as a Europeanstyle city. The Varsagaon dam on Mutha river is close to this hill station.
Which of the following places is being described in the passage given above?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 10
  • Recent context : National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has cleared the sale of India’s first private hill station, Lavasa to Darwin Platform Infrastructure.
  • Lavasa is located in the Mulshi valley in Western Ghats, near Pune. It was developed by Hindustan Construction Company which had envisaged the hill station as a European-style city.
  • Varasgaon is a dam on the Mutha River that supplies water to city of Pune, Maharashtra, India. It is also called Veer Baaji Pasalkar Dam. this dam is situated close to Lavasa.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 11

Consider the following pairs:
Ancient scholars/ personalities : Fields associated with

  1. Charaka : Medicine
  2. Aryabhatta : Mathematics
  3. Banabhatta : Literature
  4. Varahamihira : Surgery

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 11

Ancient India has been blessed with scholars who have provided record-breaking works that are relevant even today. In this regard, many scholars have developed excellence in their own niche fields. Scholars from such various fields include:

  • Charaka: He was an ancient Indian physician and scholar. He is well known as the editor of the medical treatise Charaka Samhita, which contains details about diseases, cures, medicines, and more. Charak is thus also known as the father of Ayurveda. Charaka studied the anatomy of the human body and various organs. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Sushruta: He authored the Sushruta Samhita, a treatise on medicine and a foundational text of Ayurveda. Sushruta is also known as the father of surgery. He pioneered various operations and techniques in the field. For Sushruta, the concept of shalya tantra (surgical science) was allencompassing. Examples of some of his groundbreaking operations include rhinoplasty, lithotomy, etc.
  • Aryabhatta: He is the earliest Indian mathematician whose work and history are available to modern scholars. He flourished under the Gupta dynasty, where he composed at least two works, Aryabhatiya (c. 499) and the now-lost Aryabhatasiddhanta. Aryabhatiya was written in verse couplets and deals with mathematics and astronomy. Following an introduction that contains astronomical tables, the work is divided into three sections: Ganita (“Mathematics”), Kala-kriya (“Time Calculations”), and Gola (“Sphere”). He is also known to have worked with π, right-angled triangles (similar to the Pythagorean theorem), algebraic topics, and various other modern concepts. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Bāṇabhaṭṭa: He was a 7th-century Sanskrit prose writer and poet from India. He was the Asthana Kavi in the court of the emperor Harsha, who reigned c. 606–647 CE in north India. His compositions include Harshacharitra and others. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • Varāhamihira: He was an astrologer-astronomer who lived in Ujjain, in present-day Madhya Pradesh, India. He authored the Pancha-siddhantika (“Five Treatises”), a compendium of Greek, Egyptian, Roman, and Indian astronomy. He wrote many treatises on shakuna (“augury”) as well as the Brihaj-jataka (“Great Birth”) and the Laghu-jataka (“Short Birth”). Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 12

Consider the following statements with respect to tool-making in the prehistoric period:

  1. Tools of the Paleolithic period were rough and heavy.
  2. Tools of the Mesolithic period were called microliths as they very small in size.
  3. Neolithic period yielded various types of bone objects such as needles and scrapers.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 12
  • On the basis of the different types of tools and techniques, the stages of human development in the prehistoric period are described as the Palaeolithic or Old Stone Age, the Mesolithic or Middle Stone Age, and the Neolithic or New Stone Age.
  • Tools of the Palaeolithic Period: The main tools of the lower Palaeolithic phase were handaxes, cleavers and choppers. These are called chopping tools. These were rough and heavy and were made by chipping the sides of the stones. Gradually, sharper and less heavy tools came to be made. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Tools of the Mesolithic Period: The microliths used during the Mesolithic period were very small in size varying in lengths from 1 to 8 centimeters and were largely made out of chipped or flaked pieces. Some of these tools have geometric forms such as triangles, lunates and trapezes. Their tools could be tied or fixed in other objects to form an arrow or a spear. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Tools of the Neolithic Period: The Neolithic tools consist of the ground tools having smooth surfaces, and well-rounded and symmetrical shapes. The grinding made the tools sharper, polished and more effective than those in the earlier period. The ground stone tools of the Neolithic period included different types of axes called ‘celt’. Besides the stone tools, the sites of this period have also yielded various types of bone objects such as needles, scrapers, borers, arrowheads, pendants, bangles and earrings. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 13

With reference to the cave paintings of Ajanta, consider the following statements:

  1. The illustrations of the Jataka stories are in greater detail and have no use of ornamental designs.
  2. The murals of Ajanta bear a secular rather than a religious message.
  3. There are no paintings depicting Buddha's life after he had reached enlightenment.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 13
  • The murals of Ajanta are among the greatest surviving paintings of any ancient civilization. The subject matter of these paintings is almost exclusively Buddhist, except for decorative patterns on the ceilings and the pillars.
  • The themes of the murals of the Ajanta Caves range from religious to secular like decorative designs that include a variety of animals, trees and flowers; portraits of various Buddhas and Bodhisattvas; and narrative scenes portraying Jatka stories. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • There are flying apsaras in the cave No. X belonging to the late 6th century A.D. The rich ornamentation which was the characteristic of the period is beautifully portrayed in her turban decked with pearls and flowers. The backward movement of the necklace suggests the flight of the apsara which is painted in a masterly way. The later paintings at Ajanta by far the larger part of what survives were done between the mid-6th and 7th century A.D. They also illustrate the Jataka stories with greater details and ornamental designs. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The representation of one of the memorable events of Buddha’s life after enlightenment which ranks among the best of the paintings at Ajanta, is in cave No.XVII. This represents Buddha’s visit to the door of Yashodhara’s abode in the city of Kapilavastu while she herself has come out with her son Rahula to meet the Great King. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 14

Arrange the following Mahajanapadas from east to west:

  1. Mastya
  2. Vatsa
  3. Anga
  4. Magadh

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 14
  • The sixth century BC was both a period of socio-economic and religious development and new political developments. In the later Vedic period, people started agriculture, which made them settle down at a particular place. These permanent settlements led to the foundation of janapadas or territorial states under the control of the king.
  • In the sixth century BC, the main area of political activity gradually shifted from Western UP to Eastern UP and Bihar. This region was not only fertile on account of better rainfall and river systems but was also closer to iron production centers. The use of better iron tools and weapons enabled some territorial states to become very large and they came to be called Mahajanapadas. Most of them were situated north of Vindhyas, between Bihar in the east to the northwest frontier of the subcontinent.
    • Anga-It is situated in present-day Bihar and West Bengal.
    • Magadh- It was located in present-day Bihar close to Anga, divided by river Champa.
    • Vatsa- It is situated at the confluence of river Ganga and Yamuna, modern Allahabad.
    • Matsya- It is situated around present-day Jaipur, Alwar and Bharatpur area of Rajasthan.
  • The below-given map shows the extent of Mahajanapadas:

  • Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 15

The term Majorana zero modes recently seen in the news is a:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 15
  • Recent context: In a paper published recently, researchers at Microsoft announced that they had figured out a way to create an elusive kind of particle that could potentially revolutionize quantum computing.
  • The claim pertains to particles called Majorana zero modes, whose unique properties could help build quantum computers that are much less fragile than they are today, making them computationally superior.
  • All sub-atomic particles have four quantum numbers associated with them. No two particles in the same system can have the same four quantum numbers. The numbers are together like each particle’s ID.
  • The characteristic feature of fermions is that one of these numbers, called the quantum spin, has only half -integer values, like 1/2, 3/2, 5/2, etc. This is why any particle, even something as large as an entire atom, can be a fermion: its total quantum spin needs to have a half-integer value.
    • This is also why two particles that are bound to each other in some way can be a fermion: again, their total quantum spin needs to have a half-integer value.
    • Most of the rules that apply to single fermions also apply to these pairs or bound states. When these bound states are their own antiparticles – i.e. if they meet, they annihilate each other – they are Majorana fermions.
    • Physicists call such bound states Majorana zero modes.
  • One reason they’re of so much interest is that Majorana zero modes can be used to realise the more powerful topological quantum-computing. In fact, historically, the search for Majorana zero modes and advances in topological quantum computing have often overlapped.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 16

Consider the following statements about the upcoming Ram temple at Ayodhya:

  1. It has been built in Nagara-style of temple architecture.
  2. Its superstructure has been carved out of Rajasthani Pink marble stones.
  3. The chief architect of this temple is Mr. Chandrakant Sompura.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 16
  • The grand temple at Rama Janmabhoomi in Ayodhya will be inaugurated soon.
  • The beautiful temple has been built following the Nagara style of temple architecture. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The superstructure of the temple will be carved out of Rajasthan Bansi Paharpur stone. These are rare pink marble stones, world-renowned for their beauty and strength. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The chief architect of the temple is Mr. Chandrakant Sompura. His father, Prabhakar Sompura, was the architect of the Somnath Temple in Gujarat. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 17

Consider the following statements about a personality from medieval India:

  1. He was a merchant from Persia.
  2. He was a military genius and conquered Konkan and Goa.
  3. He made endowments to build a college at Bidar
  4. He was persecuted and sentenced to death in 1481 by Muhammad Shah III.

Which of the following personalities has been described in the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 17
  • The Bahmani kingdom (1347-1526) reached its peak under the guidance of Mahmud Gawan (1411 -1481). He was a Persian merchant. He came to India at the age of forty-two and joined the services of the Bahmani kingdom. Slowly he became the Prime Minister due to his personal qualities.
  • He made endowments to build a college at Bidar which was built in the Persian style of architecture. He was also a military genius. He waged successful wars against Vijayanagar, Orissa, and the sea pirates on the Arabian Sea. His conquests include Konkan, Goa, and Krishna-Godavari delta. Thus he expanded the Bahmani Empire through his conquests.
  • His administrative reforms were also important. They were aimed to increase the control of the Sultan over the nobles and provinces. Royal officers were appointed in each province for this purpose.
  • Most of the forts were under the control of these officers. Allowances were reduced for the nobles who shirked their responsibility. This was disliked by the nobles. So, the Deccani nobles organized a plot against Gawan. They induced the Sultan to punish him with the death sentence.
  • So, he was persecuted and sentenced to death in 1481 by Muhammad Shah III. After the execution of Gawan, the Bahmani kingdom began to decline.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 18

With reference to the Kalamkari painting, consider the following statements:

  1. Sri-Kalahasti, Andhra Pradesh is the best known centre of Kalamkari art.
  2. In Tamil Nadu, the Karuppur kalamkari paintings have recently received the geographical indication (GI) tag.
  3. The Masulipatnam kalamkari was widely influenced by Persian motifs and designs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 18
  • The literal meaning of Kalamkari is a painting done by kalam (pen). These paintings are made in Andhra Pradesh. It is hand painted as well as block printing with vegetable dyes applied on cloth. Vegetable dyes are used for colour in the Kalam Kari work.
  • A small place Sri-Kalahasti is the best known centre of Kalamkari art. This work is also found at Masaulipatnam in Andhra Pradesh. This art is mainly related to decorating temple interiors with painted cloth panels, which was developed in the fifteenth century under the patronage of Vijaynagar rulers. This art was started on garments, bed covers and curtains. The artists use a bamboo or date palm stick pointed at one end with a bundle of fine hair attached to the other end to serve as brush or pen. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Owing to Muslim rulers in Golconda, the Masulipatnam kalamkari was widely influenced by Persian motifs and designs. The outlines and main features are done using hand carved blocks. The finer details are later done using the pen. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • GI is a tag used on products with a specific geographical origin, and ones that possess a reputation due to that origin. While the owner of the GI tag has ‘exclusive rights’ over the product, and can even sue someone for trying to duplicate it
  • In Tamil Nadu, the Karuppur kalamkari paintings have recently received the geographical indication (GI) tags. The paintings are intricately made on a cotton cloth using pens or brushes made out of bamboo tree and coconut tree stems. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 19

Who among the following kings was called by the Greeks as “Amitrochates or Amitraghata” meaning slayer of enemies?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 19
  • Bindusara (298 – 273 B.C.) was called by the Greeks as “ Amitrochates (in Greek) or Amitraghata (in Sanskrit)” meaning slayer of enemies. He is said to have conquered the Deccan up to Mysore.
  • Taranatha, the Tibetan monk states that Bindusara conquered 16 states comprising ‘the land between the two seas’. The Sangam Tamil literature also confirms the Mauryan invasion of the far south. Therefore, it can be said that the Mauryan Empire under Bindusara extended up to Mysore.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 20

The Harappan civilization period is called the age of the first urbanization in India. Which of the following is called the period of 'second urbanization'?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 20
  • Agricultural surplus, the growth of crafts and trade, and the growing population led to the emergence of towns in the Gangetic plains known as Mahajanapadas. This is called the second urbanisation in Indian history after the first urbanisation evident in the Harappan Civilization. After the decline of the Harappan Towns urban centres now emerge again after a gap of more than a thousand years. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
  • However, this time towns developed in the middle Ganga basin and not in the Indus Plain. It is said that more than sixty towns and cities such as Pataliputra, Rajagriha, Sravasti, Varanasi, Vaishali, Champa, Kaushambi and Ujjaini developed between 600 and 300 BC. These cities became centres of craft production and trade and were inhabited by a large number of artisans and merchants. The goods produced by artisans like textiles, silk, jewellery, pottery etc, were carried by merchants to other towns.
  • Different types of towns came into being:
    • Political and administrative centres such as Rajgriha, Shravasti, Kaushambi and Champa
    • Centres of trade and commerce such as Ujjain and Taxila
    • Holy centres such as Vaishali.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 21

With reference to the Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements :

  1. The Sangama dynasty was the first dynasty of the empire.
  2. Krishnadeva Raya, a prominent ruler of the empire, belonged to this dynasty.
  3. In 1565, Krishnadeva Raya's forces were routed by the combined armies of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, and Golconda in the battle at Rakshasi-Tangadi.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 21
  • An Imperial Capital-Vijayanagara
    • The first dynasty, known as the Sangama dynasty, exercised control till 1485. 
    • They were supplanted by the Saluvas, military commanders, who remained in power till 1503 when they were replaced by the Tuluvas. Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
    • His rule was characterized by expansion and consolidation. This was the time when the land between the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers (the Raichur doab) was acquired (1512), the rulers of Orissa were subdued (1514) and severe defeats were inflicted on the Sultan of Bijapur(1520).
    • He composed a work on statecraft in Telugu known as the Amuktamalyada.
    • He also founded a suburban township near Vijayanagara called Nagalapuram after his mother.
    • The strain began to show within the imperial structure following Krishnadeva Raya’s death in 1529. His successors were troubled by rebellious nayakas or military chiefs.
    • By 1542 control at the center had shifted to another ruling lineage, that of the Aravidu, which remained in power till the end of the seventeenth century.
    • In 1565 Rama Raya, the chief minister of Vijayanagara, led the army into battle at Rakshasi -Tangadi (also known as Talikota), where his forces were routed by the combined armies of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, and Golconda. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF):

  1. UIDF will focus on metro cities with a population of a million or more.
  2. Eligible loan amount under the scheme would be based on the size and location of the project.
  3. Heritage conservation is one of the eligible projects under the scheme.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 22
  • Recent context : National Housing Bank (NHB) has operationalized the ₹10,000-crore Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF) announced in this year’s Budget for creation of urban infrastructure in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
    • Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UID) will be funded through Priority Sector Lending Shortfall and to be used by Public Agencies to create urban infrastructure in Tier 2 & Tier 3 cities.
  • The initial corpus for this fund — managed by NHB— is ₹10,000 crore. UIDF has been launched to supplement efforts of the State governments by providing stable and predictable source of finance for creation of urban infrastructure in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
  • As many as 459 tier-2 cities with population of 50,000 to less than a lakh and 580 tier-3 cities with population of one lakh to less than a million as per 2011 census are being covered under UDIF as of now.
    • Thus, UDIF would focus on mid-sized cities with the potential to develop them into regional economic hubs, while keeping the metropolitan and metro cities outside its scope. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Interest rate on UIDF loans has been kept at bank rate minus 1.5 percent i.e., 5.25 percent at present.
    • The loan (principal) will be repayable in five equal annual instalments within seven years from the date of withdrawal, including a moratorium period of two years while interest will be payable on quarterly basis.
  • The eligible loan amount for financing under UDIF will be based on the size of project and geographical location of the project. Hence statement. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Eligible Projects
    • Water Supply & Sanitation
    • Solid Waste Management
    • Construction of roads (excluding maintenance works), Over bridges, grade separators, underpasses
    • Comprehensive Area Development Projects
    • Local Area Plan for de-congestion
    • Heritage Conservation
    • Town Planning Schemes for greenfield development
    • Parks with open Gym not involving major construction work, etc.
  • Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Finance Department of States/ UTs have been designated as the nodal department for implementation of the fund while NHB is operationalising the fund through their regional offices spread across the country.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 23

The ‘Masahat system’ during the Medieval period is best associated with

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 23
  • The ‘Masahat system’ during the Delhi Sultanate rule was the procedure of measurement of land revenue. It was part of agrarian reforms introduced by Alauddin Khilji (r. 1296–1316). He introduced the system of land revenue based on the actual measurement of land.
  • The magnitude of the state demand was set at half the produce of the land. The land was to be measured (masahat), and the land revenue was fixed on the yield of each unit of the area. The term used was wafa-i biswa (wafa = yield; biswa = 1/20th of a bigha). it was levied separately on the holding of each individual cultivator.
  • The intermediaries and the peasants alike were to pay the same standard of the demand (50%) without any distinction, be they intermediaries or 'ordinary peasants' (balahar). Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 24

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 24
  • Rajput Kingdoms in North India (10th—12th centuries);
  • The middle of the 10th century saw the decay of two of the most powerful Rajput states which had dominated north and central India during the two preceding centuries.
  • These were the Gurjar-Pratihar Empire with its capital at Kannauj with Banaras second capital., and the Rashtrakuta Empire with its capital at Manyakhet. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • The Gujarat-Pratihar empire extended from the foothills of the Himalayas to Ujjain in the south, and from Gujarat in the west to Mongyr in the east. It contended with the Rashtrakutas for the mastery of Gujarat and Malwa, and with the Pala rulers of Bengal for the mastery of Bihar and modern east U.P. 
  • In the north-west, its rule extended to Thaneshwar. It declined rapidly during the second half of the 10th century, remaining confined largely to modern U.P.
  • In the meantime, a number of kingdoms rose up, the most prominent among them being the Chandels of Kalinjar and Mahoba, the Chauhans of Sakambhari in Rajasthan, the Paramars of Malwa, and the Chalukyas of Gujarat. Hence pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 25

Which of the following is not correct regarding the Chalcolithic period?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 25
  • The important non-Harappan chalcolithic cultures lay mainly in western India and Deccan. These include Banas culture (2600BC–1900 BC) in south-east Rajasthan, with Ahar near Udaipur and Gilund as its key sites; Kayatha culture (2100BC–2000 BC) with Kayatha in Chambal as its chief site in Madhya Pradesh; Malwa Culture (1700BC–1400BC) with Navdatoli in Western Madhya Pradesh as an important site, and Jorwe culture (1400BC– 700BC) with Inamgaon and Chandoli near Pune in Maharashtra as its chief centers.
  • The non-Harappan Chalcolithic cultures though flourished in different regions they were marked by basic uniformity in various aspects such as their mud structures, farming and hunting activities, use of wheelmade pottery, etc. The pottery of these chalcolithic cultures included ochre-colored pottery (OCP), and black-and-red ware (BRW) and has been found in the shape of various kinds of bowls, basins, spouted jars with concave necks, dishes on stands, etc.
  • To this culture belonged a large number of very small-sized stone tools known as microliths. Also, people knew the art of spinning and weaving because spindle whorls have been discovered in Malwa.
  • The non-Harappan chalcolithic communities founded the first villages in India and cultivated far more cereals than is known in the case of neolithic communities. Despite this, the rate of infant mortality was very high. This general weakness of these communities is evident from the burial of a large number of children in western Maharashtra. Hence, option (c ) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 26

In the context of Babur's victory at Panipat, consider the following statements:

  1. Babur's army at Panipat was numerically superior to Ibrahim Lodi's forces.
  2. Babur's use of field cannon and matchlockmen was pivotal in his victory at Panipat.
  3. Despite his victory at Panipat, Babur encountered Afghan and Rajput resistance.
  4. The Panipat battle shattered Lodi's power and extended Babur's rule to Delhi and Agra.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 26
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Ibrahim Lodi met Babur at Panipat with a force estimated at 100,000 men and 1000 elephants. Babur had crossed the Indus with a force of 12,000, but this had been swelled by his army in India, and the large number of Hindustani nobles and soldiers who joined Babur in the Punjab. Even then, Babur's army was numerically inferior.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Babur's effective use of field cannon and matchlockmen ensured the success of his much smaller force. Like several other rulers in India, the Lodi Sultan had failed to integrate firearms into his military machine and thus proved unable to meet the Mughal challenge. Ibrahim Lodi perished on the battlefield.
  • Statement 3 correct: While the significance of the battle of Panipat cannot be underrated, it did not automatically ensure Babur's mastery of Hindustan. The Afghans remained entrenched in several parts of India, principally the east, and continued to offer stiff resistance. In addition, Babur also had to overpower the Rajputs who had been the main challengers of the Afghans till his advent on the Indian scene. Further south, was the Vijayanagar empire, the mightiest in India at the time. It is, however, indisputable that the victory at Panipat made Babur a serious contender for power in India.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The battle of Panipat is regarded as one of the decisive battles of Indian history. It broke the back of Lodi's power and brought under Babur's control the entire area up to Delhi and Agra. The treasures stored up by Ibrahim Lodi at Agra relieved Babur from his financial difficulties.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 27

‘Amogha-III’ recently mentioned in the news refers to which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 27

Amogha-III is a third-generation fire-andforget Anti-Tank Guided Missile designed and developed by the in-house R&D Division of Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL). This indigenous missile has been developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
Range: 200 – 2500 m.
Features of Amogha-III:

  • Attack mode: Top/direct attack.
  • Man-portable.
  • Tandem warhead with penetration in excess of 650 mm beyond Explosive Reactive Armor (ERA).
  • Dual Mode Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) Seeker.
  • Aerodynamic and Thrust Vector Control.
  • Smokeless, Signature-free Propulsion System.
  • Soft launch.

Value Addition:

  1. India’s indigenous anti-tank guided missile (ATGM): Nag
  2. Indigenously developed helicopterlaunched Anti-Tank Guided Missile: ‘HELINA’
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 28

Which battle dealt a significant blow to the dream of a united Rajasthan extending to Agra?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 28

The Battle of Khanwa in 1527 marked a significant turning point in the struggle for dominance in northern India. Rana Sanga, a powerful Rajput ruler, aimed to thwart Babur's growing influence in the region, but the battle ended in a decisive victory for Babur. Sanga was defeated, and his subsequent attempt to renew the conflict ended with his assassination. With Rana Sanga's demise, the dream of a united Rajasthan extending up to Agra suffered a significant setback, securing Babur's position in the Delhi-Agra region and leading to further Mughal expansion in the area.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 29

A person goes to a shop to buy some jewellery. He sees 22K916, 18K750, 14K585 etc, written on various pieces of jewellery there. These codes directly indicate which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 29
  • Hallmarking is the accurate determination and official recording of the proportionate content of precious metal in precious metal articles. Hallmarks are thus official marks used in many countries as a guarantee of purity or fineness of precious metal articles. The principal objective of the Hallmarking Scheme is to protect the public against adulteration and to obligate manufacturers to maintain legal standards of fineness. In India, at present, two precious metals, namely gold and silver, have been brought under the purview of Hallmarking.
  • BIS Hallmarking Scheme: It has been aligned with International criteria on hallmarking. As per this scheme, registration is granted to the jewellers by BIS under the Hallmarking Scheme. The BIS certified jewellers can get their jewellery hallmarked from any of the BIS recognized Assaying and Hallmarking Centres.

With the introduction of six-digit alphanumeric code from 1 July 2021, the four marks have now been replaced by three marks for gold jewellery/ artefacts as given below:

In this, 22K916 means that it is a 22 carat gold and the piece of jewellery has 91.6 percent gold.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 30

During the reign of which one of the following rulers did Mahmud Ghazni invade Gujarat and ravage the temple of Somnath?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 30
  • The Chalukyas or Solankis ruled over Gujarat for over three and a half centuries. During the reign of Bhima I (1022-1064), Mahmud Ghazni invaded Gujarat and ravaged the temple of Somnath.
  • The Modhera is known for the Sun temple situated on the bank of the Pushpavati river. The temple was built after 1026-27 CE during the reign of Bhima I.
  • Somnath: Somnath, also called Patan-Somnath or Somnath-Patanan, ancient ruined city, in southwestern Gujarat state. It is the site of the temple of Shiva as Somanatha (“Lord of the Soma,” a sacred intoxicating drink, and, by extension, “Lord of the Moon”). The temple was sacked by the Turkic Muslim invader Maḥmūd of Ghazni in 1024–25 CE.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 31

Consider the following:

  1. Art of writing
  2. System of tax collection
  3. Presence of social classes
  4. Priestly functions

How many of the above can be considered as the features of a civilisation?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 31

A region is considered to be civilized if its people know writing, set up a system for collecting taxes, and maintaining order, form social classes and produce specialists for performing priestly, administrative, and production functions. Above all, a civilized society is able to produce enough to sustain not only the actual producers comprising artisans and peasants, but also consumers who are not engaged in production. A combination of these elements makes for civilization. Hence, all the options are correct.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 32

Consider the following pairs:
Rulers : Region/Dynasty

  1. Kharavela : Chedi
  2. Shashanka : Gauda
  3. Bhaskaravarman : Kamarupa
  4. Sama Haradeva : Samatata

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 32
  • Pair 1 is correct: Kalinga, or coastal Orissa south of the Mahanadi, rose to importance under Ashoka, though a strong state had been founded in that area in the first century BC. Its ruler, Kharavela, had advanced as far as Magadha. Mahameghabahan Kharavela, the third Chedi ruler of Kalinga, was the principal builder of 117 caves with art and architecture and Hathigumpha inscription in the twin hills, followed by his son Kudepsari and grandson Vaduka (Paduka). But the repetition of some inscriptions in Ganesh Gumpha of Udayagiri traces some incisions of the Bhauma Santikar I period (891 AD).
  • Pair 2 is correct: The Gupta governors, who seem to have become independent after about AD 550, occupied north Bengal; some part of it may also have been seized by the rulers of Kamarupa. Local vassal princes called Samanta maharajas had created their own administrative apparatus and built their military organization consisting of horses, elephants, foot soldiers, and boats to fight the local peasantry. By AD 600, the area came to be known as Gauda and functioned as an independent state ruled by Shashanka, Harsha’s adversary.
  • Pair 3 is correct: Kamarupa, coterminous with the Brahmaputra basin running from east to west, shot into prominence in the seventh century. The Kamarupa kings adopted the title varman, which was obtained not only in northern, central, and western India but also in Bengal, Orissa, Andhra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. In the seventh century Bhaskaravarman emerged as the head of a state which controlled a substantial part of the Brahmaputra basin and some areas beyond it. Buddhism also acquired a foothold, and the Chinese traveller Hsuan Tsang (Hieun Tsang) visited this state.
  • Pair 4 is correct: From about AD 525 onwards, the area developed a fairly organised state covering Samatata and a portion of Vanga which lay on the western boundary of Samatata. It was called the kingdom of Samatata or Vanga whose rulers, including Sama Haradeva, issued a substantial number of gold coins in the second half of the sixth century.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 33

Which of the following inscriptions commemorates the accomplishments of King Kharavela?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 33

After Ashoka, Kalinga (present-day Orissa) became prominent under the kings of Chedi dynasty. Unfortunately, we have no information about the kings of the dynasty except Kharavela. His achievements are recorded on an inscription known as the Hathigumpha inscription, situated in the Udayagiri hills near Bhubaneswar in Orissa. The inscription is so named because the image of an elephant is carved out of stone next to the boulder carrying the inscription. The inscription tells us that he was a follower of Jainism and had fought many successful battles against his neighbours. He probably lived in the first century BC.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 34

With reference to the revolts during the reign of Aurangzeb, consider the following pairs:
Revolt : Reason

  1. Rajput revolt : Problem of Succession
  2. Jat revolt : Religious discontent
  3. Maratha revolt : Question of local independence

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 34
  • Pair 1 is correct: The death of Jaswant Singh of Marwar brought about a succession issue. The Rajput queen Rani Hadi, wife of Raja Jaswant Singh, resented the move of Aurangzeb to install Indra Singh, a grandnephew of Jaswant Singh, a titular chief of the state. This led to a revolt with the help of Rathor Rajputs, but was effectively put down. The Rana of Mewar, Rana Raj Singh, resenting the interference of Aurangzeb in the affairs of Marwar rose in revolt, and he was supported by Prince Akbar, the rebellious son of Aurangzeb.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Jat revolt was more related to agrarian and economic issues rather than religious issue. Jats, who were predominantly agriculturists, rebelled against the Mughal administration due to oppressive taxation policies and the economic hardships they faced, including high land revenue demands and other agricultural burdens.
  • Pair 3 is correct: The Maratha revolt against Aurangzeb was primarily about asserting local independence and autonomy. The Marathas aimed to establish their own sovereignty and reduce Mughal control over their territories, marking a significant struggle for regional self-governance.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 35

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the ‘Miyawaki Method’?

  1. It involves planting trees far away from each other to avoid competition between them.
  2. It creates organic, dense and diverse forests in as little as 20-30 years.
  3. Miyawaki forests are helpful in rapidly building climate resilience in cities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 35
  • The Miyawaki method: It mimics the way a forest would recolonise itself if humans stepped away. Native species that would occur naturally in that area without humans, given the specific climate conditions, are planted. The Miyawaki method isn’t just unique because it restores native habitats using native trees; the afforestation principles are based on an understanding of how the local species would interact in a natural forest.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: This strategy involves planting trees (native species) as close together as possible in the same area. The planted saplings promote each other's growth and prevent sunlight from reaching the ground, which inhibits the growth of weeds.
  • Statement 2 is correct: This method of afforestation was developed by the Japanese botanist and plant ecology expert Professor Akira Miyawaki and draws inspiration from nature’s ecosystems to create organic, dense and diverse pioneer forests in as little as 20-30 years.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Miyawaki forests grow 10x faster, are 30 times denser and contain 100x more biodiversity. Since they’re quick to establish, maintenance-free after the first twoto-three years, and can be created on sites as small as 3 sq m, Miyawaki forests are viable solutions for cities looking to rapidly build climate resilience.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 36

Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Indian Space Policy 2023’:

  1. The policy will help to raise India's share of the world space economy to about 10%.
  2. The policy promotes the participation of Non-governmental entities in end-to-end space activities.
  3. NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) has been assigned a role of aggregator for both demand and supply of space assets/services on a commercial basis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 36

The Indian Space Policy 2023 has been issued:

  • to augment space capabilities.
  • to enable, encourage and develop a flourishing commercial presence in space.
  • to use space as a driver of technology development and derived benefits in allied areas.
  • to pursue international relations, and create an ecosystem for effective implementation of space applications among all stakeholders.

Statement 1 is correct: The policy intends to raise India's future percentage of the world space economy to 10%. The current share of India in the world space economy is 2%. 

Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India unleashed reforms in the space domain in 2020, opening the doors for enhanced participation of Non-governmental entities (NGEs) in carrying out end-to-end activities in the space domain and with an aim to provide them a level playing field. Subsequent to these reforms, the Government seeks to provide regulatory certainty to space activities by various stakeholders in order to create a thriving space ecosystem.
Statement 3 is correct: The reforms have authorized the public sector company NSIL to act as the exclusive publicsector aggregator for both demand and supply of space assets/services on a commercial basis, including imaging, communication transponders, launch services etc. In its role as a demand aggregator, NSIL will acquire satellites, launch vehicles, and other assets developed by ISRO or the private industry. In its role as a supply aggregator, NSIL will commercialize assets and services like transponder capacity, imaging services, launch capacity etc. on ISRO-developed satellites and launch vehicles.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 37

With reference to the ‘Later Chalukyas’, consider the following statements:

  1. They are also known as the Chalukyas of Kalyani.
  2. Taila II was a famous ruler of this dynasty. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 37
  • Statement 1 is correct: ‘Later Chalukyas’ are also known as the Chalukyas of Kalyani, though Kalyani became their capital only around the middle of the eleventh century. They trace their descent from Badami Chalukyas. The Chalukyas were a maritime power and they set up their kingdom in western Deccan with the capital at Vatapi (modern Badami in Karnataka).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The fortunes of the family were established by Taila II who seems to have been a subordinate of the Rashtrakutas. Taila II, who claimed to be the direct descendent of the Chalukyas of Badami, was governing the area of Melpati in 957 CE. It is found that later in 965 CE, The Rashtrakuta monarch Krishna III conferred Tardavadi 1000 on Tailaparasa (Taila II). The inscription from Muttagi, in Bijapur district, of 965 CE, describes him as SamadhigataPanchamahashabda, Mahasamantadhipati, Ahvamalla Satyasraya Kulatikala
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 38

With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term 'Dhenkli ' refers to which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 38

In medieval India to supplement rainwater, the cultivators resorted to artificial Irrigation, principally wells and tanks. Water was lifted from wells in various ways with the wooden scoop (dhenkli), the leather bucket, and more rarely, the Persian wheel. Dhenkli is a wooden hand-operated device used for lifting water from a well, a river, a cistern or a canal. It has been referred to with different names, such as shaduf (shadoof) in Egypt, zirigum in Sumer, dhenkli in India, kilonion or kelonion in Hellas, and daliya in Iraq.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 39

Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Framework for acceptance of Green Deposits of Regulated Entities’ released by the Reserve Bank of India:

  1. It is applicable to all scheduled commercial banks and deposit-taking non-banking financial company.
  2. The proceeds from the investment of green deposits can be used for projects for the generation of nuclear power.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 39

With an attempt to mobilize funds towards green activities/projects, the Reserve Bank of India (“RBI”) recently introduced the ‘Framework for Acceptance of Green Deposits’ (“Framework”).

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Framework comes into force from 1 June 2023 and is applicable to:
    • All the scheduled commercial banks (including small finance banks but excluding regional rural banks, local area banks and payments banks)
    • All deposit-taking non-banking financial companies including housing finance companies registered with the RBI.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Till the finalisation of the official Indian green taxonomy, the Regulated Entities are required to allocate proceeds from the green deposits in the following sectors:
    • Renewable Energy
    • Clean transportation
    • Climate change adaptations etc.

Some ineligible projects are:

  • projects for generation of nuclear power;
  • direct waste incineration projects/activities;
  • industries in relation to alcohol, weapons, tobacco, gaming or palm oil; 
  • projects for renewable energy generation from biomass using feedstock originating from protected areas etc.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 40

With reference to the ‘Virasaivism’, consider the following statements:

  1. It was a socio-religious movement led by Adi Shankara.
  2. It denounced the compartmentalization of the society into castes and sub-castes.
  3. It did not feature any women saints or poetesses.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 40
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Virasaivism was a socio-religious movement which was revolutionary in nature. It was a mass movement seeking to bring about radical changes and to reconstruct the society on the basis of certain new human values. During the time of Kalachuris of Kalyani, the Virashaiva or Lingayat movement (a subtradition within Shaivism) emerged in order to simplify religion. It was founded by Basavanna – a minister at the court of the Kalachuri king Bijjala.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Basavanna and his companions denounced the compartmentalization of the society into castes and sub-castes and its various connotations, including untouchability and threw open the portals of the treasures of wisdom to all the people by their vachana writings and preachings in the regional language and brought into actual practice what they taught.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It was joined by many women saints as well as poetesses.
    Chennabasava (the nephew of Basava), Akka Mahadevi, Allama Prabhu, Renukacharya, Darukacharya, Nilambike etc., were some of the popular saints who belonged to this movement.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 41

Who among the following rulers was titled as ‘Vengipuravareshvara’?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 41

The ruler of Chalukya of Kalyani, Someshvara I (1044-1068 CE), the eldest son of Jayasimha II was crowned king in 1044 CE. Someshvara I was able to reassert the Chalukya suzerainty over Vengi. An inscription of 1047 CE claims that he subdued Vengi and Kalinga. His son Bhuvanaikamalla Someshvara II is styled as Vengipuravareshvara in several records dating from 1049-1054 CE. The Chalukya ruler of Vengi continued to be the vassal of the Chalukyas of Kalyani till the end of his reign.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 42

‘These paintings are distinguished by their exquisite sophistication and distinct facial type exemplified by arched eyebrows, lotus petal shaped eyes slightly tinged with pink, having drooping eyelids, a sharp slender nose and thin lips.’
Which one of the following schools of paintings is best described by the above passage?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 42
  • The Kishangarh school of paintings formed a distinctive school within the Rajasthani style of Indian painting in the 18th century. The Kishangarh paintings are distinguished by their exquisite sophistication and distinct facial type exemplified by arched eyebrows, lotus petal shaped eyes slightly tinged with pink, having drooping eyelids, a sharp slender nose and thin lips. Nihal Chand was a celebrated painter of this school of art and he composed paintings on the theme of the devotional and amorous relations between Radha and Krishna.
  • The paintings on the theme of Radha and Krishna were largely due to the inspiration of Raja Savant Singh. Raja Savant Singh was a poet who wrote under the name of Nagari Das. One of the famous paintings of the Kishangarh School of Painting is Bani Thani.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 43

In the context of Tansen, consider the following statements:

  1. Tansen was a follower of the Kubrawiya Order.
  2. He was one of the navratnas in the court of Aurangzeb.
  3. He is credited with introducing Miyan ki Malhar in Hindustani classical music.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 43

Tansen composed several Dhrupads, the subject matter of which ranged from praise of deities to technical terms of music. Tansen wrote several Dhrupads in praise of Ramchandra Vaghela and emperor Akbar. Among the four Banis of Dhrupad prevalent during that time – Khandar, Nauhar, Dagar and Govarhar, Tansen is believed to have initiated the Govarhar Bani.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Tansen was also a follower of the Shattari Silsilah order (not Kubwariya order). Shattari Silsilah was established by Sheikh Sirajuddin Abdullah Shattar and became popular in Malwa, Jaunpur and Bengal.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Akbar had “Nine Navaratnas” or nine jewels in his court. They included Abul Fazl, Faizi, Tansen, Birbal, Raja Todar Mal, Raja Man Singh, Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana, Fakir Aziao-Din and Mullah Do Piyaza. It is believed that Tansen invoked rain upon singing Raga Malhar and lighted lamps upon singing Raga Deepak.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Tansen is regarded as an important exponent of Hindustani classical music. He is credited with introducing ragas such as the Miyan ki Malhar, Miyan ki Todi and darbari in Hindustani classical music. Some Ragas that have the prefix ‘Miyan’ before their names are associated with Tansen, e.g, Miyan ki Sarang, Miyan Malhar, Miyan ki Todi etc.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 44

With reference to the ‘Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is responsible for the approval and Conduct of Clinical Trials of drugs in India.
  2. It works under the aegis of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 44
  • Statement 1 is correct: Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, CDSCO is responsible for approval of Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country and coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations by providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act. Further, CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for granting licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine and Sera.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for the regulation of drugs & cosmetics. It envisages uniform implementation of the provisions of the Act and rules made there to ensure the safety, rights and well being of the patients by regulating the drugs and cosmetics.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 45

The ‘World Energy Transitions Outlook Report’ is published by which one of the following organizations?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 45

The World Energy Transitions Outlook report is published by the International Renewable Energy Agency. This first volume of the 2023 Outlook provides an overview of progress by tracking implementation and gaps across all energy sectors, and identifies priority areas and actions based on available technologies that must be realized by 2030 to achieve net zero emissions by mid-century.
The report also provides three key pillars that can form the foundations for action to realign the global energy transition with climate objectives:

  • Building the necessary infrastructure and investing at scale to accommodate new production locations, trade patterns and demand centres
  • Advancing a policy and regulatory architecture that can facilitate targeted investments and improve socioeconomic and environmental outcomes
  • Strategic realignment of institutional capacities to help ensure that skills and capabilities match an energy system that integrates a high share of renewables.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 46

‘He believed in the Saguna form of worship. He was a prominent saint of Varkari Panth from Maharashtra. He was influenced by Sufi mysticism and Vedanta philosophy. He wrote a commentary on the Bhagavata Purana named Eknathi Bhagavata.’ Which one of the following persons is best described by the paragraph given above?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 46

Eknath was a great Marathi saint, scholar and religious poet of Varakari Sampradaya founded by Jnanadev. He was influenced by Sufi mysticism and Vedanta philosophy. He was a renowned gurubhakta and he wrote under the name of “Eka-janardana”. His major work was Eknath Bhagavata, a Marathi commentary on the 11th skanda of the Bhagavata Purana. He believed in the Saguna form of worship. He undertook the translation of several Sanskrit texts into Marathi and played a crucial role in reviving the integrity of the renowned Marathi literary masterpiece, the Jnaneshvari by the poet-saint Jnaneshvar.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 47

In the era of Iltutmish's reign, the terms "tanka" and "jital" refer to which one among the following?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 47

Iltutmish (1210-1235 CE) gave a definite shape to the coinage of Delhi sultanate, combining Islamic tradition with local Indian tradition. He issued coins in gold, silver, billon and copper. It was during his time the gold and silver coins of about 11 g were called ‘tanka’ while copper coins weighing about 3.5 gm, were called ‘jital’.

Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 48

With reference to Medieval Literature, consider the following statements:

  1. Abdul Hamid Lahori authored a historical narrative known as Padshahnama.
  2. Babur wrote his autobiography in Persian.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 48
  • The Medieval period saw the emergence of Persian as the mode of communication and writing of the Delhi Sultanate and Mughal courts. The language of Hindi also developed from the ancient apabhramsa language during this period. In the Delhi Sultanate, multiple texts were written in Persian. Many of them were concerned with creating histories for the rulers. Amir Khusrau and Amir Hasan Dehlavi were notable Persian poets of Medieval India.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Padshahnama was written by Abdul Hamid Lahori. It is about Shah Jahan. It contains valuable insights into the art, architecture, and events of Shah Jahan's time. The Padshahnama is lavishly illustrated. This book is a good example of the skills that Persian craftsmen possessed in the art of manuscript illustration.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Babur wrote his autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Baburi or ‘Baburnama’ in Turkish (not Persian). His grandson Akbar got the book translated into Persian. This book provides information about the Mughal conquest of India.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 49

‘This festival is observed in the memory of the martyrdom of Hussain ibn Ali, the grandson of the Prophet. In India, people take out processions called Tazia and undertake activities that replicate the pains taken by Hussain.’ Which one of the following festivals is best described by the above passage?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 49
  • The festival of Muharram is a sad one, as it is associated with the death of Hussain, son of Ali. The festival falls in the first month of the Islamic calendar that is called Muharram. The tenth day of the month of Muharram, is known as the Yaum-al-ashura, which is observed as the day of mourning by the Shia Muslims all over the world.
  • The festival of Muharram falls in the first month of the Islamic calendar that is called Muharram. This festival is observed in the memory of the martyrdom of Hussain Ibn Ali, the grandson of the Prophet. In India, people take out processions called Tazia and undertake activities such as beating themselves with chains, rods etc. to replicate the pains taken by Hussain. Although the majority of Muslims in India are Sunni, the presence of Shia’s is made known on Muharram when they reenact the gruesome death of Ali.
Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 50

Consider the following statements with respect to the New Development Bank:

  1. It is established by the BRICS countries.
  2. It has an initial authorised capital of USD 100 Million.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Ancient History and Medieval- 2 - Question 50
  • Statement 1 is correct: The New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development bank established by Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa (BRICS) with the purpose of mobilising resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging markets and developing countries (EMDCs).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: NDB has an initial authorised capital of USD 100 Billion, which is divided into one million shares that have a par value of one hundred thousand dollars each. NDB’s founding members made an initial subscription of five hundred thousand shares totalling USD 50 billion. The initial subscribed capital was equally distributed amongst the founding members. Membership of the Bank is open to members of the United Nations.
    Working hand in hand with the member countries and stakeholders, NDB leverage capital for development purposes to accelerate economic growth, as well as to achieve environmental and social sustainability to improve the lives of people in our member countries.
    NDB strives to act as a catalyst in bridging the gap between the availability of financial resources and the growing needs of its founding members and EMDCs.
    Sustainability is at the core of NDB’s mandate. NDB seek to ensure that all projects financed by the Bank are implemented in a sustainable way and their ESG impacts are assessed, minimised and mitigated during project implementation.
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