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Practice Test: Geography- 1 - UPSC MCQ


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50 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Practice Test: Geography- 1

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Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 1

Consider the following events with reference to the evolution of the Earth:

1. Initiation of photosynthesis.

2. Loss of the primordial atmosphere of the earth.

3. Degassing because of continuous volcanic eruptions.

4. Flooding of the atmosphere by oxygen.

5. Formation of the oceans

Which one of the following depicts the correct chronological order of the above events from past to present?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 1

There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere. The loss of the primordial atmosphere marks the first stage. The earth's hot interior in the second stage contributed to the atmosphere's evolution. Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis.

  • The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off as a result of the solar winds. This happened not only in the case of the Earth but also in all the terrestrial planets, which are supposed to have lost their primordial atmosphere through the impact of solar winds.
  • During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. The early atmosphere largely contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little free oxygen. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing. Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere.
  • As the earth cooled, the water vapour released started getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere dissolved in rainwater, and the temperature further decreased, causing more condensation and more rain. The rainwater falling onto the surface got collected in the depressions to give rise to oceans. The earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years from the formation of the earth.
  • Sometime around 3,800 million years ago, life began to evolve. However, around 2,500-3,000 million years before the present, the process of photosynthesis evolved. Life was confined to the oceans for a long time. Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis.
  • Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to flood the atmosphere.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 2

Consider the following statements about the Shield volcanoes:

1. These volcanoes are mostly made up of Basalt.

2. They always result in explosive eruptions.

3. Mount Fuji in Japan is an example of the Shield Volcano. 

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 2

Volcanoes are classified on the basis of the nature of eruption and the form developed at the surface. Shield Volcanoes:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes are not steep.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: They become explosive if water somehow gets into the vent; otherwise, they are characterised by low explosivity. The upcoming lava moves in the form of a fountain, throw out the cone at the top of the vent and develops into a cinder cone.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples of the shield volcano. Mount Fuji in Japan is an example of a Stratovolcano / composite cone type of volcano. Eruptions of this type of volcano vary between alternating layers of thick, highly viscous lavas and pyroclastic material. These eruptions are violent, due to high gas content. Escaping gases can get trapped in the highly viscous magma building up tremendous pressure in the volcano until finally an eruption occurs, blasting ash and other rocky-glassy debris miles into the air.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 3

Consider the following statements with reference to the lightweight payment system:

1. It will operate independently of existing payment systems like RTGS, NEFT, and UPI.

2. It will process transactions that are critical to ensure the stability of the economy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 3
  • Statement 1 is correct: The lightweight payment system (LPSS) will operate independently of existing payment systems like RTGS, NEFT, and UPI, and aims to provide a portable and resilient solution during natural calamities and wartime situations. Real-time gross settlement (RTGS), National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), and Unified Payments Interface (UPI) are dependent on complex wired networks backed by advanced IT infrastructure. "However, catastrophic events like natural calamities and war have the potential to render these payment systems temporarily unavailable by disrupting the underlying information and communication infrastructure. By conceptualising the LPSS, the central bank aims to ensure the availability of essential payment services and maintain economic stability in extreme and volatile situations.
  • Statement 2 is correct: This payment system would process transactions that are critical to ensure the stability of the economy, such as government and market-related transactions. The Reserve Bank of India said that this payment system can be operated from anywhere by a bare minimum staff in order to be prepared to face extreme situations such as natural calamities and war, and would be made active only on a need basis.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 4

Consider the following statements with reference to the World Press Freedom Index 2023:

1. The index was compiled by Reporters Without Borders.

2. Norway ranked first, and China ranked last in this edition of the index.

3. It also reflects the effects of fake content on press freedom.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 4
  • Statement 1 is correct: The 21st edition of the World Press Freedom Index, which is compiled annually by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), sheds light on major and often radical changes linked to political, social and technological upheavals. According to the Index, the environment for journalism is “bad” in seven out of ten countries, and satisfactory in only three out of ten.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Norway is ranked first for the seventh year running. The last three places are occupied solely by Asian countries: Vietnam (178th), which has almost completed its hunt of independent reporters and commentators; China (down 4 at 179th), the world’s biggest jailer of journalists and one of the biggest exporters of propaganda content; and, to no great surprise, North Korea (180th).
  • Statement 3 is correct: The 2023 Index spotlights the rapid effects that the digital ecosystem’s fake content industry has had on press freedom. In 118 countries (two-thirds of the 180 countries evaluated by the Index), most of the Index questionnaire’s respondents reported that political actors in their countries were often or systematically involved in massive disinformation or propaganda campaigns.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 5

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Deception Detection Tests (DDT)?

1. The drugs used in the Narco Analysis test guarantee that the subject will speak only the truth.

2. Heart rate and Blood Pressure are among the parameters used in the Polygraph test analysis.

3. Brain mapping is based on the finding that the brain generates a unique brainwave pattern when a person encounters a familiar stimulus.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 5
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Narco-analysis test involves the intravenous administration of a drug (such as sodium pentothal, scopolamine and sodium amytal) that causes the subject to enter into various stages of anaesthesia. In the hypnotic stage, the subject becomes less inhibited and is more likely to divulge information, which would usually not be revealed in the conscious state. The drugs used do not guarantee that the subject will speak only the truth. The main drawback of this technique is that some persons are able to retain their ability to deceive even in the hypnotic state.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Polygraph is also called a lie detector test, but this term is a misnomer. The theory behind polygraph tests is that a guilty subject is more likely to be concerned with lying about the relevant facts about the crime, which in turn produces a hyper-arousal state which is picked up by a person trained in reading polygraph results. Measurement of hyperarousal state is based on a number of parameters such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, skin conductance and electromyography.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The brain mapping test measures the changes in the electrical field potentials produced by the sum of the neuronal activity in the brain by means of electrodes placed on the surface of the skin covering the head and face. The changes directly related to specific perceptual or cognitive events are called event-related potentials. In simple words, it is based on the finding that the brain generates a unique brain-wave pattern when a person encounters a familiar stimulus. Commonly used method in India is called the Brain Electrical Activation Profile test, also known as the ‘P300 Waves test’.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 6

Consider the following countries:

1. United States

2. Canada

3. Germany

4. Japan

5. India

How many of the above are the members of the Group of Seven (G7) Countries?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 6

The Group of Seven (G7) serves as a forum to coordinate global policy, but experts are increasingly questioning the group’s relevance. The G7 is an informal grouping of advanced democracies that meets annually to coordinate global economic policy and address other transnational issues. The G7 is an informal bloc of industrialized democracies:

  • The United States
  • Canada
  • France
  • Germany
  • Italy
  • Japan
  • United Kingdom (UK)

Russia belonged to the forum from 1998 through 2014, when the bloc was known as the Group of Eight (G8), but it was suspended following its annexation of Ukraine’s Crimea region

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 7

Consider the following:

1. Trade

2. Supply Chains

3. Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure

4. Tax and Anti-Corruption

How many of the above are the pillars on which Indo Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) aims to focus on?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 7

In May 2022, the United States launched the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) with Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Fiji India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam. This framework will advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness, and competitiveness for our economies. Through this initiative, the IPEF partners aim to contribute to cooperation, stability, prosperity, development, and peace within the region. The 14 IPEF partners represent 40 percent of global GDP and 28 percent of global goods and services trade. The launch began discussions of future negotiations on the following pillars:

  • Trade
  • Supply Chains
  • Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure
  • Tax and Anti-Corruption.

The IPEF is designed to be flexible, meaning that IPEF partners are not required to join all four pillars.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 8

The ‘Business Ready (B-READY) project’ is an initiative of which one of the following organisations?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 8

The World Bank Group’s B-READY project is a benchmarking exercise aiming to provide a quantitative assessment of the business environment for private sector development. Its report will be published annually and cover most economies worldwide. The assessment will cover ten assessment topics following the typical life cycle of a firm from opening, operating (or expanding), and closing (or reorganising) a business.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 9

Which of the following statements are incorrect with reference to the International Organisation for Migration?

1. It promotes humane and orderly migration by providing services and advice to governments and migrants.

2. It was established in 1915 at the time of World War I. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 9

Statement 1 is correct: The International Organization for Migration (IOM) is the leading intergovernmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and non-governmental partners. With 175 member states, a further 8 states holding observer status and offices in 171 countries, IOM is dedicated to promoting humane and orderly migration for the benefit of all. It does so by providing services and advice to governments and migrants. IOM works in the four broad areas of migration management:

  • Migration and development
  • Facilitating migration
  • Regulating migration
  • Forced migration.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Established in 1951, IOM is the leading intergovernmental organization in the field of migration and works closely with governmental, intergovernmental and nongovernmental partners. Amy E. Pope of the United States of America has begun her five-year term as the eleventh Director General (DG) of the International Organization for Migration (IOM). She became the first woman to become Director General in IOM’s 72-year history.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 10

Consider the following statements with reference to Insurance products in India:

1. Bima Sugam is an online portal for all insurance-related queries, policy purchase, claim settlement and insurance advice.

2. Each Gram Panchayat would have a ‘Bima Vahak’ tasked to sell and service simple parametric bundled insurance products.

3. Bima Vistar will be a social safety net to target the untapped Geographies in the country.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 10
  • Statement 1 is correct: Bima Sugam portal is an online portal and a one-stop shop for all insurance related queries, policy purchase, claim settlement and insurance advice. It is envisioned as a trusted platform by the IRDAI. Web aggregators, brokers, insurance agents, bank agents, etc would act as facilitators on this platform for selling insurance policies. The portal would provide all such facilities to policyholders having an e-insurance account (E-IA).
  • Statement 2 is correct: Bima Vahak is another initiative by the IRDAI which would help reach the last mile. Each Gram Panchayat would have a 'Bima Vahak' who would be tasked to sell and service simple parametric bundled insurance. Bima Vahak intends to form a womencentric insurance distribution channel. The initiative is likely to foster greater trust and build awareness about insurance products in the rural areas of India.
  • Statement 3 is correct: A social safety net product called "Bima Vistaar'' targeting the untapped geographies is in the works. IRDAI is working on to develop an affordable, accessible and comprehensive cover - Bima Vistaar for rural population in the event of natural disasters, such as floods, and earthquakes etc.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 11

Consider the following statements with reference to the Vivad se Vishwas II scheme:

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. This scheme will apply to all domestic contractual disputes where one of the parties is either the Government of India or an organisation working under its control.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, has launched the scheme, “Vivad se Vishwas II – (Contractual Disputes). The scheme aims to settle contractual disputes of government and government undertakings, wherein an arbitral award is under challenge in a court, a voluntary settlement scheme with standardized terms will be introduced. This will be done by offering graded settlement terms depending on the pendency level of the disputes.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The scheme will apply to all domestic contractual disputes where one of the parties is either the Government of India or an organisation working under its control. Government e-Marketplace (GeM) has developed a dedicated web page for the implementation of this scheme. Eligible claims shall be processed only through GeM. For non-GeM contracts of the Ministry of Railways, contractors may register their claims on IREPS.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 12

Which one of the following is the major objective of ‘Operation Samudragupta’?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 12

India began its fight against drug trafficking under Operation Samudragupta. This is a joint operation between the Indian Navy and the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB). It is a successful attempt by the government to stop maritime infiltration of contraband. India is located between two of the largest Opium producing and trafficking regions, namely the “GOLDEN CRESCENT” in the west and “GOLDEN TRIANGLE” in the east.
Golden Crescent Countries: Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan
Golden Triangle Countries: Myanmar, Thailand and Laos

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 13

Consider the following rivers:

1. Nagwati

2. Rukmawati

3. Sabarmati

4. Tapti

How many of the above rivers drain into the Gulf of Khambhat?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 13

Gulf of Khambhat is a trumpet-shaped gulf of the Arabian Sea, indenting northward the coast of Gujarat state, western India, between Mumbai (Bombay) and the Kathiawar Peninsula. The gulf receives many rivers, including the:

  • Sabarmati
  • Mahi
  • Narmada
  • Tapti

Its shape and its orientation in relation to the southwest monsoon winds account for its high tidal range and the high velocity of the entering tides. Shoals and sandbanks are treacherous to navigation, and all the gulf ports have suffered from silting caused by tides and flood torrents from the rivers.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 14

Consider the following statements with reference to the Har Ghar Jal Programme:

1. It is implemented by the Jal Jeevan Mission under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

2. The program aims to provide every rural household with affordable and regular access to an adequate supply of safe drinking water through taps.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 14
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Har Ghar Jal Programme, implemented by the Jal Jeevan Mission under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. Jal Jeevan Mission is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India. The programme will also implement source sustainability measures as mandatory elements, such as recharge and reuse through greywater management, water conservation, and rainwater harvesting.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The program aims to provide every rural household with affordable and regular access to an adequate supply of safe drinking water through taps. The program's components align with the WHO/UNICEF Joint Monitoring Programme for Water Supply, Sanitation, and Hygiene (JMP) to monitor progress on SDG 6.1 for safely managed drinking water services.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs: Type of Earthquake Area of Occurrence

1. Tectonic : Near tectonic boundaries

2. Collapse : Areas near a reservoir

3. Explosion : Nuclear test sites

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 15

Types of Earthquakes include tectonic earthquakes, collapse earthquakes, explosion earthquakes and reservoirinduced earthquakes.

  • Tectonic earthquakes - The most common ones are the tectonic earthquakes. These are generated due to the sliding of rocks along a fault plane. A special class of tectonic earthquake is sometimes recognised as a volcanic earthquake. However, these are confined to areas of active volcanoes. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
  • Collapse earthquakes - In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Reservoir-induced earthquakes -The earthquakes that occur in the areas of large reservoirs are referred to as reservoir-induced earthquakes. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
  • Explosion earthquakes - Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 16

With reference to landscape evolution in deserts, consider the following statements:

1. Pediments are depositional landforms.

2. Inselbergs are remnants of mountains.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 16
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of the mountainfront through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.
  • Statement 2 is correct: An inselberg is an isolated hill that stands above welldeveloped plains and appears not unlike an island rising from the sea. The early German explorers of southern Africa were impressed by such features, and they dubbed the domed or castlelike highlands inselbergs. Spectacular examples include Uluru/Ayers Rock and the Olga Rocks in central Australia. Inselbergs are remnants of mountains. Inselbergs are relict features. They have maintained their relief as the adjacent surrounding landscape was lowered.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 17

Consider the following statements with reference to the Science and Engineering Research Board:

1. It is an executive body formed by a resolution of the government.

2. It tries to position science and technology as the fulcrum for social and economic change in the country.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 17
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament. Supporting basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board. The Board structure, with both financial and administrative powers vested in the Board, would enable quicker decisions on research issues, greatly improving thereby our responsiveness to the genuine needs of the research scientists and the S&T system.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The vision of the board is to position science and technology as the fulcrum for social and economic change by supporting relevant, competitive and quality scientific research and development. The mission of the board is to raise the quality and footprint of Indian science and engineering to the highest global levels in an accelerated mode, through calibrated support for research and development.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 18

Consider the following regarding the surface of the Earth:

1. The unevenness of the Earth's surface is attributed to the movement of the Earth’s crust.

2. Exogenic forces contribute only to the degradation of relief features.

3. Human activities have had no impact on the Earth's surface.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 18
  • Statement 1 is correct: The unevenness of the Earth's surface is primarily attributed to the dynamic nature of the Earth's crust. The movement of Earth's crust, both vertically and horizontally, plays a crucial role in shaping the topography and relief features of its surface. It moved a bit faster in the past than the rate at which it is moving now. The differences in the internal forces operating from within the earth which built up the crust have been responsible for the variations in the outer surface of the crust.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Exogenic forces, driven by external factors such as sunlight, contribute to both the degradation (wearing down) and aggradation (filling up) of relief features on the Earth's surface. Endogenic forces are mainly responsible for landbuilding processes. This distinction emphasizes the collaborative yet opposing actions of these forces in shaping the Earth's surface.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Human activities have significantly impacted the Earth's surface, leading to the degradation of its potential. Overuse of resources and environmental damage caused by human actions have accelerated the diminishing of the Earth's natural balance and potential for future sustenance.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with reference to the Data Security Council of India:

1. It is a statutory body on data protection in India.

2. This council runs certification programmes for cyber forensic professionals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 19
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Data Security Council of India (DSCI), is a not-forprofit, industry body on data protection in India, setup by nasscom, committed to making the cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy. To further its objectives, DSCI engages with governments and their agencies, regulators, industry sectors, industry associations and think tanks for policy advocacy, thought leadership, capacity building and outreach activities.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The aim of the council is to strengthen thought leadership in cyber security and privacy, DSCI develops best practices and frameworks, published studies, surveys and papers. It builds capacity in security, privacy and cyber forensics through training and certification programs for professionals and law enforcement agencies and engages stakeholders through various outreach initiatives including events,awards, chapters, consultations and membership programs. DSCI also endeavors to increase India’s share in the global security product and services market through global trade development initiatives. These aim to strengthen the security and privacy culture in India.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 20

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Nunataks’?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 20

Nunataks: The higher peaks and mounds surrounded by ice from all sides are called nunataks. They look like scattered small islands amid extensive ice masses. That is why they are also called glacial islands. They decrease in size due to erosion caused by glacial lateral erosion and frost action.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 21

Consider the following statements with reference to the International Telecommunication Union (ITU):

1. It is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies.

2. The union allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 21
  • Statement 1 is correct: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies – ICTs. ITU is a unique platform for global public-private partnerships. By joining ITU, you can become part of a community of more than 20'000 professionals. At ITU, members from the public and private sectors are working together to help shape the future ICT policy and regulatory environment, global standards, and best practices to help spread access to ICT services.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Union was founded in 1865 to facilitate international connectivity in communications networks, we allocate global radio spectrum and satellite orbits, develop the technical standards that ensure networks and technologies seamlessly interconnect, and strive to improve access to ICTs to underserved communities worldwide. Every time you make a phone call via mobile, access the Internet or send an email, you are benefitting from the work of ITU.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 22

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 22
  • Pair 1 is correct: Sital Sasthi is a sacred Hindu festival celebrated in Odisha. This week-long special festival highlights the marriage of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati. People observing this festival believe that Lord Shiva represents the scorching heat of summer while Goddess Parvati signifies the first rain. So, this holy and lavish wedding is observed for a good monsoon. Sital Sasthi is a celebration wherein Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati are adopted by two families, and their wedding is solemnized with the involvement of rituals. After the marriage is performed, the God and Goddess are then carried around the city via a procession.
  • Pair 2 is correct: Bihu is the name for the National Festival of Assam which is one of the most beautiful states of India which is reckoned for tea gardens, mighty Brahmaputra River and Lush green forests. Also the state of Assam is reckoned for the Bihu festival that depicts a set of three different cultural festivals of the state. The origin of the term ‘Bihu’ came from the Sanskrit word that means ‘Vishu’. It is the cheerful festival of Assam that is celebrated by the locals irrespective of caste, creed and beliefs.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Pongal is a harvest festival celebrated by the Tamil community. It is a celebration to thank the Sun, Mother Nature and the various farm animals that help to contribute to a bountiful harvest. Celebrated over four days, Pongal also marks the beginning of the Tamil month called Thai, which is considered an auspicious month. It usually falls on the 14th or 15th of January each year.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Mauritius and Reunion Islands of the Indian Ocean are the coral islands.

Statement-II: The coral islands are very much lower and emerge just above the water surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 23
  • Statement-I is incorrect: Mauritius and Réunion are volcanic islands located in the Indian Ocean. Mauritius is situated to the east of the continent of Africa. It is formed by volcanic activity and is part of a submerged mountain range that extends beneath the Indian Ocean. Réunion, a French overseas territory and is located further to the southwest of Mauritius. Like Mauritius, Réunion is also a volcanic island, and its Piton de la Fournaise is one of the most active volcanoes in the world.
  • Statement-II is correct: Unlike the volcanic islands, the coral islands are very much lower and emerge just above the water’s surface. These islands, built up by coral animals of various species, are found both near the shores of the mainland and in the midst of oceans. Coral islands include the Marshall Islands, Gilbert and Ellice Islands of the Pacific; Bermuda in the Atlantic and the Laccadives and Maldives of the Indian Ocean.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 24

With reference to a Cyclone, consider the following statements:

1. The Indian subcontinent is exposed to nearly 45 percent of the world’s tropical cyclones.

2. The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere in a cyclone.

3. Cyclones are classified on the basis of the wind speed and their capacity to cause damage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 24

Cyclones are classified as
(i) extratropical cyclones (also called temperate cyclones);
(ii) tropical cyclones.

  • Tropical cyclones are the progeny of ocean and atmosphere, powered by the heat from the sea; and driven by easterly trades and temperate westerlies, high planetary winds and their own fierce energy.
  • Tropical cyclones are large-scale weather systems developing over tropical or subtropical waters, where they get organised into surface wind circulation.
  • Extra tropical cyclones occur in temperate zones and high-latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the Polar Regions.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian subcontinent is one of the worst affected regions in the world. The subcontinent, with a long coastline of 8041 kilometres, is exposed to nearly 10 per cent of the world’s tropical cyclones.

Statement 2 is correct: Cyclones are caused by atmospheric disturbances around a low-pressure area distinguished by swift and often destructive air circulation. Cyclones are usually accompanied by violent storms and bad weather. The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere. Statement 3 is correct: In India, cyclones are classified by:

  • Strength of associated winds,
  • Storm surges
  • Exceptional rainfall occurrences

Cyclones are classified into five different levels on the basis of wind speed. They are further divided into the following categories according to their capacity to cause damage:-

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

1. Nuclear and Radiological Emergency can arise while using radiation sources at Hospitals, Industries or Agriculture.

2. Infra-red rays are ionising rays and cause severe damage to human bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 25

The growth in the application of nuclear science and technology in the fields of power generation, medicine, industry, agriculture, research and defence has led to an increase in the risk of occurrence of Nuclear and Radiological emergencies.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Nuclear and Radiological Emergencies can arise in a nuclear facility at the plant level, leading to plant/ site or offsite emergencies. It can also take place while using radiation sources, either at Hospitals, Industries, Agriculture or Research Institutions, due to loss or misplacement or due to faulty handling. The other events that can lead to a Nuclear or Radiological Emergency in the public domain include an accident of a vehicle carrying radioactive/nuclear material, due to an orphan source, i.e. the source which is not under regulatory control or due to usage of radiation source/radioactive material in Malevolant activities. Any radiation incident resulting in or having the potential to result in exposure and/or contamination of the workers or the public in excess of the respective permissible limits can lead to a nuclear/radiological emergency.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Sunlight feels warm because our body absorbs the infrared rays it contains. But, infrared rays do not produce ionisation in body tissue. In contrast, ionising radiation can impair the normal functioning of the cells or even kill them. The amount of energy necessary to cause significant biological effects through ionisation is so small that our bodies cannot feel this energy as in the case of infrared rays, which produce heat.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 26

‘It drains the largest number of glaciers and mountain slopes of the Karakorum, Ladakh, Zaskar and Himalayan Ranges. Originating from the Kailash Mountain, it flows in a constricted valley north-westward through Tibet, where it is called Singi Khamban or Lion’s mouth.’

Which of the following rivers is best described in the passage given above?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 26

The Indus is the westernmost River system in the subcontinent. Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Satluj are its main tributaries. The Indus originates from the Bokhar Chu (glacier) on the northern slopes of Mt. Kailash (6714m). It drains the largest number of glaciers and mountain slopes of the Karakorum, Ladakh, Zaskar and Himalayan Ranges. Originating from the Kailash Mountain, it flows in a constricted valley northwestward through Tibet, where it is called Singi Khamban or Lion’s mouth. In Ladakh, it follows a long, nearly straight course between the Ladakh range and the Zaskar range. Downward; the Indus crosses the central Himalayan range through a huge synclinal gorge. The River passes by the Nanga-Parbat and turns southwest to enter Pakistan

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

1. A marginal worker is a person who works for less than 183 days in a year.

2. The Labour Force Participation Rate of women in rural areas is higher than that of urban areas.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 27
  • Statement 1 is correct: The population of India, according to their economic status, is divided into three groups, namely, main workers, marginal workers and nonworkers. A Main Worker is a person who works for at least 183 days (or six months) in a year. A Marginal Worker is a person who works for less than 183 days (or six months) in a year.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The labour force participation rate is the portion of the working population in the 16-64 years' age group in the economy currently in employment or seeking employment. The LFPR of women in rural areas was 41.5 in 2022-23 while it was 25.4 for urban areas in the same period.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

1. The Gross Enrolment Ratio for females in higher education has been consistently greater than that of males in the last 5 years.

2. The male-female gap in literacy rate in India has consistently reduced since Independence.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 28

Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) refers to the total enrolment in a specific level of education, regardless of age, expressed as a percentage of the eligible official schoolage population corresponding to the same level of education in a given school year. Table: Gender-wise GER figures of All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) and Literacy rate in India since independence

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Gross Enrolment Ratio for females in higher education has been consistently greater than that of males since 2017-18.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The malefemale gap in literacy rate in India has remained inconsistent since Independence.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 29

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 29
  • Pair 1 is correct: Similipal Tiger Reserve is located within the Mayurbhanj District, in the Northern-most part of Odisha. The terrain is mostly undulating and hilly, interspersed with open grasslands and wooded areas. The inclined plateau has risen abruptly from the low coastal plains of the District. The steep side faces the Bay of Bengal and run northwards to finally merge with Chhota Nagpur. The water level is high and the tract is woven with perennial water sources converging into rivers like Budhabalanga, Salandi and many tributaries of Baitarani river flowing from the Reserve.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in the foothills of Himalayas in the north-west corner of Bihar, spread over Northern part of the West Champaran district. The terrain is undulating with a rich soil. Rivers Gandak, Pandai, Manor, Harha, Masan and Bhapsa flow through various parts of the reserve. By and large, the reserve is spread over lower Shivalik region with a deep water table. The tract is porous with boulders and sand deposits.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve, located in Rajasthan, is named after two continuous flat topped, almost parallel hills with narrow central ridges, forming part of the Vindhyan range and extending from river Chambal to Kalisindh, with a length of almost 80 km and the width ranging from 2 to 5 km. The tiger reserve was constituted in the year 2013 which encompasses the area of Mukundara National Park, Dara Sanctuary, Jawahar Sagar Sanctuary and part of Chambal Sanctuary (from Garadia Mahadev to Jawahar Sagar Dam), forming its core / critical tiger habitat. The forests of Kota, Chittorgarh and Jhalawar are included in the buffer.
  • Pair 4 is correct: The Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve is located between the Vindhyan and Satpura ranges of Madhya Pradesh. The habitat is characterised by valleys, hills and plains, with the Bandhavgarh fort prominently seen as a major landmark. The habitat consists of tropical moist, deciduous forests with sal, mixed forest and grasslands. The habitat also has several archaeological monuments.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 30

Consider the following statements in the context of Central Highlands:

1. The general slope of the highlands is towards the south and south-east.

2. Musi river basin forms the majority part of the region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 30

Statement 1 is incorrect. Central Highlands: also called the Madhya Bharat Pathar or Madhya Bharat Plateau. It slopes towards the north and northeastern directions. Musi River or Musinuru is a tributary of the Krishna River in the Deccan Plateau, flowing through Telangana state in India. Hyderabad stands on the banks of Musi river Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Central Highlands are to the east of the Marwar or Mewar Upland and the north of the Narmada river. It covers the major portion of the Malwa plateau. Most of the plateau comprises the basin of the Chambal river which flows in a rift valley. The Kali Sindh, flowing from Rana Pratap Sagar, The Banas flowing through Mewar plateau, and The Parwan and the Parbati flowing from Madhya Pradesh are Chambal's main tributaries. It is a rolling plateau with rounded hills composed of sandstone. Thick forests grow here. To the north are the ravines or badlands of the Chambal river and Satpura ranges, to the south is the Deccan plateau, and to the west are Aravalli ranges

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 31

Which of the following are the major features of the Shola forests of Southern India?

1. Stunted trees

2. Large leaves

3. Round and dense canopies

4. Changing colours of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 31
  • The Shola forests of southern India are classified as „Southern Montane Wet Temperate Forest’. The Sholas are found in the upper reaches of the Nilgiris, Anamalais, Palni hills, Kalakadu, Mundanthurai and Kanyakumari in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. These forests are found sheltered in valleys with sufficient moisture and proper drainage, at an altitude of more than 1,500 metres. The upper reaches are covered with grasslands, known as Shola grasslands.
  • The vegetation that grows in Shola forests is evergreen. The trees are stunted and have many branches. Their rounded and dense canopies appear in different colours. Generally, the leaves are small in size and leathery. Red-coloured young leaves turning into different colours on maturity is a prominent characteristic of the Shola forests. Epiphytes like lichens, ferns and bryophytes usually grow on the trees.
  • Sholas play a major role in conserving the water supply of the Nilgiris’ streams. Pastoral communities, who settled in the grasslands centuries ago, periodically burn grass. This has checked the advance of the Shola forests. As tree species of the montane, evergreen forests are flammable, regeneration of any Shola tree species is completely prevented except for Rhododendron nilagiricum, the only Shola tree that can tolerate fire.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 32

Consider the following statements:

1. The Chenab flows through the Wular Lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge.

2. The Indus rises west of the Rohtang Pass and flows through the Chamba valley.

3. The Satluj originates in Tibet, passes through the Shipki La and enters the Punjab plains.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 32
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Just before the Jhelum River enters the main city of Srinagar which is situated on its both banks it is joined near Shergari by a stream which drains from Dal Lake. At Banyari 20 km. downstream the River joins with the water of Wular Lakes and takes off from the lake at its southwest corner and flows to the southwest direction through the alluvial plain for a length of 21 km up to the bridge at Baramulla.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ravi is another important tributary of the Indus. It rises west of the Rohtang pass in the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba valley of the state. Before entering Pakistan and joining the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu, it drains the area lying between the southeastern part of the Pir Panjal and the Dhauladhar ranges.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Satluj originates in the „Raksas tal’ near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India, and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains. It is an antecedent river. It is a very important tributary as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal project.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

1. Aesthetic forestry refers to the growth of forests without human intervention.

2. Unlike farm forestry, community forestry takes place on public land.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 33
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Aesthetic Forestry is the practice of forestry with the object of raising flowering trees and shrubs mainly to serve as recreation forests for the urban and rural population. This type of forestry is also known as Recreational forestry which is defined as the practice of forestry with the object of developing or maintaining a forest of high scenic value.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Farm Forestry is the name given to programmes which promote commercial tree growing by farmers on their own land. It is defined as the practice of forestry in all its aspects in and around the farms or village lands integrated with other farm operations. Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community land such as the village pasture and temple land, roadside, canal bank, strips along railway lines, and schools etc. Community forestry programme aims at providing benefits to the community as a whole. Community forestry provides a means under which the people of landless classes can associate themselves with tree raising and thus, get those benefits which otherwise are restricted for landowners.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 34

 Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 34

A large dam is classified as one with a maximum height of more than 15 metres from its deepest foundation to the crest. A dam between 10 and 15 metres in height from its deepest foundation is also included in the classification of a large dam provided it complies with one of the following conditions :

  • length of the crest of the dam is not less than 500 metres or
  • capacity of the reservoir formed by the dam is not less than one million cubic metres or
  • the maximum flood discharge dealt with by the dam is not less than 2000 cubic metres per second or
  • the dam has especially difficult foundation problems, or
  • the dam is of unusual design

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Tehri Dam

  • River – Bhagirathi
  • State – Uttarakhand

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

  • River – Krishna
  • State – Telangana

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Idukki Dam

  • River – Periyar
  • State – Kerala

Pair 4 is correctly matched: Ranjit Sagar Dam

  • River – Ravi
  • State – Punjab
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 35

Consider the following statements in the context of Duars:

1. Constitute the alluvial floodplains situated in the outer foothills of the Northeastern Himalayas.

2. Characterized by a substantial soil cover rich in organic content conducive to the cultivation of tea.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 35
  • Statement 1 is correct: Dooars or Duars, are situated south of the outer Himalayan foothills and north of the Brahmaputra River basin in northeastern India, span approximately 30 km in width and 350 km from the Teesta River in West Bengal to the Dhansiri River in Assam. Serving as the gateway to Bhutan, this region, part of the Terai-Duar savanna and grasslands ecoregion, is renowned for its wildlife richness.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Capitalizing on favourable conditions like a gentle slope, abundant soil with high organic content, consistent year-round rainfall, and mild winters, the British established tea plantations in this area. Renowned globally, Darjeeling and Assam tea gardens are celebrated for the exceptional quality of their tea leaves.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 36

Consider the following statements with reference to the British type of climate:

1. The natural vegetation of the British type of climate is temperate evergreen forest.

2. The natural vegetation of the British-type of climate is not suitable for the lumbering industry.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 36
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The natural vegetation of the British type of climate is deciduous forest. The trees shed their leaves in the cold season. This is an adaptation for protecting themselves against the winter snow and frost. Shedding begins in autumn, during which the leaves fall and are scattered by the winds. When the deciduous trees have leaves, they have thick trunks and outspreading branches that yield valuable temperate hardwood. Some of the more common species include oak, elm, ash, birch and poplar. In the wetter areas grow willows, alder and aspen.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike the equatorial forests, the deciduous trees in the British climate occur in pure stands and have greater lumbering value from the commercial point of view. The open nature of the forests with spare undergrowth is useful in logging operations. Easy penetration helps in the movement of the logs and can save much of the cost.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 37

Which of the following aquifer systems covers the maximum area of India?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 37

The entire country has been classified into 14 Principal Aquifer Systems and 42 major aquifers based on the hydrogeological characteristics.

  • Alluviums cover a maximum area of around 31% of the entire country and are available in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Assam, Odisha and Rajasthan.
  • Around 20% of the area of the country is covered by the Banded Gneissic Complex (BGC) and Gneiss aquifers which are available almost in all the peninsular states as well as the Himalayan states.
  • Basalt aquifer covers around 17% area of the country and is mainly spread over Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan and Karnataka.
  • Sandstone aquifer covers around 8% area in the country and is available in Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka and Rajasthan.
  • Shale aquifer accounts for around 7% of the area.
  • Limestone aquifer covers a very small area of around 2% in the country.
  • The rest 15% of the entire area is covered by aquifers namely; Schist, Granite, Quartzite, Charnockite, Khondalite, Laterites and Intrusive.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 38

Which of the following traditional water harvesting methods uses ‘kuis’ or ‘beris’ to access percolated rainwater in sandy soil?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 38

Paar is a common water harvesting practice in the western Rajasthan region. It is a common place where the rainwater flows from the agar (catchment) and in the process percolates into the sandy soil. To access the Rajani pani (percolated water) kuis or beris are dug in the agor (storage area). Kuis or beris are normally 5 metres (m) to 12 m deep. The structure was constructed through traditional masonry technology.

  • Talab/Bandhis: Reservoirs, natural or human-made, are called talabs. They play a crucial role in irrigation and drinking purposes, with smaller ones referred to as talai and medium-sized lakes as bandhi or talab.
  • Saza Kuva: An open well with multiple owners, Saza Kuva is a vital source of irrigation in the Aravalli hills, employing traditional water-lifting devices and buffalo-powered mechanisms.
  • Johad: Small earthen check dams, known as johads, capture and conserve rainwater, leading to significant improvements in percolation and groundwater recharge in regions like Alwar district, Rajasthan.
  • Pat: The unique pat system in Bhitada village, Madhya Pradesh, involves diverting water from hill streams into irrigation channels called pats, requiring constant maintenance and collaborative efforts from the community.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 39

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 39

Jhumming: The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America, ‘Conuco’ in Venezuela, ‘Roca’ in Brazil, ‘Masole’ in Central Africa, ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia, ‘Ray’ in Vietnam. In India, this primitive form of cultivation is called

  • 'Bewar’ or 'Dahiya’ in Madhya Pradesh,
  • 'Podu’ or „Penda’ in Andhra Pradesh,
  • 'Pama Dabi’ or „Koman’ or Bringa’ in Odisha,
  • ‘Kumari’ in Western Ghats,
  • ‘Valre’ or ‘Waltre’ in Southeastern Rajasthan,
  • ‘Khil’ in the Himalayan belt, 
  • 'Kuruwa’ in Jharkhand, and
  • ‘Jhumming’ in the North-eastern region.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 40

Consider the following statements with reference to the ULLAS app:

1. It is Centrally Sponsored Scheme to cover all the aspects of Education For All.

2. The scheme also encompasses to impart some critical life skills and vocational skills.

3. School will be the unit of implementation of the scheme.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 40

Statement 1 is correct: Government of India has approved a Centrally Sponsored Scheme “ULLAS” for the period FYs 2022-2027 to cover all the aspects of Education For All (erstwhile termed as Adult Education) to align with National Education Policy 2020 and Budget Announcements FY 2021-22 ‘To enable increased access of resources, online modules covering the entire gamut of adult education will be introduced’.

Statement 2 is correct: The objectives of the scheme is to impart not only Foundational Literacy and Numeracy but also to cover other components which are necessary for a citizen of the 21st century such as:

  • Critical Life Skills (including financial literacy, digital literacy, commercial skills, health care and awareness, child care and education, and family welfare)
  • Vocational Skills Development (with a view towards obtaining local employment)
  • Basic Education (including preparatory, middle, and secondary stage equivalency)
  • Continuing Education (including engaging holistic adult education courses in arts, sciences, technology, culture, sports, and recreation, as well as other topics of interest or use to local learners, such as more advanced material on critical life skills).

Statement 3 is correct: Some of the features of the scheme are:

  • School will be Unit for implementation of the scheme.
  • Schools to be used for conducting survey of beneficiaries and volunteers.
  • Different strategies are to be adopted for different age cohorts. Flexibility for States/UTs will be provided to undertake innovative activities.
  • Foundational Literacy and Numeracy will be imparted through Critical Life Skills to all non-literates in the age group of 15 years and above.
  • Use of Technologies to impart Adult Education for wider coverage of the scheme.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 41

Consider the following:

1. Kameng

2. Teesta

3. Subansiri

4. Dhansiri

How many of the above are the tributaries of Brahmaputra which originate in India?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 41
  • The Kameng river  is a lifeline for many and has its source in a glacial lake near the Nyegi Kangsang, one of the highest mountains in Arunachal Pradesh.Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • The Teesta is the largest river of North Bengal. It rises in the Himalayas in North Sikkim. Running through narrow gorges for nearly 138 km, it debouches into the plains of the Jalpaiguri district at Sevoke. It flows in a steady course upto Jalpaiguri town beyond which it records frequent changes. It joins the Brahmaputra near Rangpur town in Bangladesh. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • The Subansiri rises in the mountains of Tibet. Near its source, a big “Chu” family of streams drain into the main valley. The principal stream belonging to this “Chu” group is the “Sikung chu” which may be considered as the main source of the Subansiri. The total length of the Subansiri is about 442 km. Out of which 192 km lie in NEFA now renamed as Arunachal Pradesh and 190 km in Assam and the rest part falls in Tibet. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
  • The Dhansiri rises in the southwest corner of Nagaland below the Laishiang peak. From its source upto Dimapur, the Dhansiri forms the boundary between the districts of Cachar, Nagaon and Nagaland. Beyond Dimapur, the river enters and flows through the Karbi Anglong and Golaghat districts of Assam. Hence, option 4 is correct.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 42

Consider the following statements:

1. Peninsular rivers are characterised by the absence of meanders and have a perennial flow of water.

2. The Narmada and Tapi rivers lack alluvial and deltaic deposits.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 42

The Peninsular drainage system is older than the Himalayan one. This is evident from the broad, largely-graded shallow valleys, and the maturity of the rivers. Peninsular rivers are characterised by fixed course, absence of meanders and nonperennial flow of water. The Narmada and the Tapi which flow through the rift valley are, however, exceptions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Three major geological events in the distant past have shaped the present drainage systems of Peninsular India:
(i) Subsidence of the western flank of the Peninsula.
(ii) Upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the Peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and the consequent trough faulting. The Narmada and The Tapi flow in trough faults and fill the original cracks with their detritus materials. Hence, there is a lack of alluvial and deltaic deposits in these rivers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(iii) Slight tilting of the Peninsular block from northwest to the southeastern direction gave orientation to the entire drainage system towards the Bay of Bengal during the same period.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 43

In which of the following ways do trees in the coniferous forests adapt to survive the Siberian climate?

1. Thick bark

2. Needle shaped leaves

3. Conical shaped trees

4. Sloping branches

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 43
  • Coniferous forests are also known as „Taiga’. They extend as a belt across North America and North Eurasia below the Arctic tundra. There is no counterpart of these forests in the southern hemisphere as there is no land at this latitude. The climate is cold with long, harsh winters, and with mean annual temperature below 0 degrees Celsius. The soils are acidic and poor in nutrients. Coniferous forests are characterized by evergreen, drought-resistant and woody.
  • Conifers (gymnosperms) e.g. spruce, fir and pine trees which bear naked seeds in cones. They have thick bark to protect against the cold. The leaves are small, thick, leathery and needle-shaped. This is to check excessive transpiration. The leaf surface is reduced to the minimum as transpiration can be rapid in warm summer due to intense continental heating. The conifers are conical in shape. The sloping branches of the trees prevent snow accumulation which may snap the branches.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 44

Which of the following ores has the highest iron content?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 44

Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good-quality iron ores.

  • Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry.
  • Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite (50-60 per cent).
  • Siderite and Limonite have 30–40% Iron content.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with reference to the Coalition of Disaster Resilient Infrastructure:

1. It was launched by India during the 2019 United Nations Climate Action Summit.

2. It aims to promote the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development.

3. It is the only International organisation to be headquartered in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 45

Statement 1 is correct: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure was launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India during the United Nations Climate Action Summit on the 23rd September, 2019, at New York. It is the second major global initiative launched by the Government of India and is a demonstration of India's leadership role in climate change and disaster resilience matters, globally.

Statement 2 is correct: CDRI is a global partnership of National Governments, UN agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, academic and knowledge institutions that aims to promote the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Central Government has approved the categorization of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) as an ‘International Organization’ and signing of the Headquarters Agreement (HQA) with CDRI for granting it the exemptions, immunities and privileges as contemplated under the United Nations (Privileges & Immunities) Act, 1947. It is headquartered in New Delhi, India. The International Solar Organization is also headquartered in Gurugram, India.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

1. Sacred Groves refer to the systematic plantations of sacred trees by the local people.

2. Mahua and Kadamba are worshipped by the Mundas and Santhals of Chota Nagpur Plateau.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 46
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Sacred Groves are the tracts of virgin forests that are left untouched by the local inhabitants and are protected by the local people due to their culture and religious beliefs. Sacred groves are relic vegetation of once dominant flora. They are repositories of our rich biodiversity; they are also the last bastion where the rich culture and the customs of the indigenous people are still preserved.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship Mahua (Bassia latifolia) and Kadamba (Anthocaphalus cadamba) trees, and the tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (Mangifera indica) trees during weddings. Peepal and banyan trees are also considered sacred.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 47

With reference to the cyclones in India, consider the following statements:

1. The majority of the cyclones in the Indian region originate over the Bay of Bengal and strike the East coast of India.

2. The approximate ratio of the occurrence of cyclones in the Bay of Bengal to the Arabian Sea is 4:1.

3. During a cyclone, the most damage is always caused by the destructive winds.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 47

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian subcontinent is one of the worst affected regions in the world. The subcontinent, with a long coastline of 8041 kilometres, is exposed to nearly 10 per cent of the world’s tropical cyclones. Of these, the majority of them have their initial genesis over the Bay of Bengal and strike the East coast of India. On average, five to six tropical cyclones form every year, of which two or three could be severe.

Statement 2 is correct: More cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal than in the Arabian Sea, and the ratio is approximately 4:1. Cyclones occur frequently on both coasts (the West coast -Arabian Sea; and the East coast - Bay of Bengal). An analysis of the frequency of cyclones on the East and West coasts of India between 1891 and 1990 shows that nearly 262 cyclones occurred (92 of these severe) in a 50 km wide strip above the East coast. Less severe cyclonic activity has been noticed on the West Coast, where 33 cyclones occurred in the same period, out of which 19 were severe.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Tropical cyclones occur in the months of May-June and October-November. Cyclones of severe intensity and frequency in the North Indian Ocean are bi-modal in character, with their primary peak in November and secondary peak in May. The disaster potential is particularly high during landfall in the North Indian Ocean (Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea) due to the accompanying destructive wind, storm surges and torrential rainfall. Of these, storm surges cause the most damage as sea water inundates low-lying areas of coastal regions and causes heavy floods, erodes beaches and embankments, destroys vegetation and reduces soil fertility.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 48

Consider the following statements with reference to Tropical Evergreen forests:

1. They are found in warm and humid areas with mean annual temperatures above 22 degrees Celsius.

2. Ebony, mahogany and rosewood are the common species found in these forests.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is correct: Tropical Evergreen forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and a mean annual temperature above 22 degrees Celsius.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by a tall variety of trees. In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. As such these forests appear green all year round. Species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony, etc.

Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 49

Consider the following statements:

1. Bromeliads are special plants that store water in their leaves.

2. Pineapple is an example of Bromeliad.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 49
  • Statement 1 is correct: Bromeliads are special plants that store water in their leaves. Animals like frogs use these pockets of water to lay their eggs.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Spanish moss (Tillandsia usneoides) and the edible fruit of the pineapple Ananas comosus) are the major economic products of the family. The fibrous leaves of some species are made into rope, fabric, and netting in some regions. Members of Bromeliaceae are herbaceous evergreen perennials with simple spirally arranged leaves. Many bromeliads are short-stemmed epiphytes that live in trees or on cacti, though a number are terrestrial. The flowers have three parts, like lilies but with contrasting sepals and petals, and are often borne in long spikes with distinctive coloured bracts. Most have fleshy fruit, but some produce dry capsules.
Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 50

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands frequently experience damaging earthquakes.

Statement-II: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are situated on the boundary of tectonic plates.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Geography- 1 - Question 50
  • An earthquake is a phenomenon that occurs without warning and involves violent shaking of the ground and everything over it. It results from the release of accumulated stress of the moving lithospheric or crustal plates. The earth's crust is divided into seven major plates, that are about 50 miles thick, which move slowly and continuously over the earth's interior and several minor plates. Earthquakes are tectonic in origin; that is the moving plates are responsible for the occurrence of violent shakes.
  • The Earthquake Risk in India: As per the current seismic zone map of the country (IS 1893: 2002), over 59 per cent of India’s land area is under threat of moderate to severe seismic hazard; that means it is prone to shaking of MSK Intensity VII and above. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are also situated on an inter-plate boundary and frequently experience damaging earthquakes. Hence, both Statement-I and StatementII are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
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