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Practice Test: Polity- 2 - UPSC MCQ


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50 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Practice Test: Polity- 2

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Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 1

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct? 
1. The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will be administered by the President, through an administrator appointed as the Lieutenant Governor 
2. The Chief Minister will communicate all decisions of the Council to the Lieutenant Governor 
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 1

The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have a Council of Ministers of not more than ten per cent of the total number of members in the Assembly. The Council will aide and advise the Lieutenant Governor on matters that the Assembly has powers to make laws. The Chief Minister will communicate all decisions of the Council to the Lieutenant Governor.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 2

The constituent assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. Regarding the plan consider the following statements:
1. Allocation of seats for each province and princely state to be in proportion to their respective population
2. Representatives to be elected through proportional representation using a single transferable vote.
3. The representatives of the princely state were to be nominated by the heads of princely states.
4. Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the governor’s provinces and 4 from the chief commissioners’ provinces.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 2

The Cabinet Mission Plan was formulated in 1946 to outline the framework for the drafting of the Indian Constitution. The plan led to the creation of the Constituent Assembly, which was responsible for drafting the Constitution. The following statements about the plan are correct:

  1. Allocation of seats for each province and princely state to be in proportion to their respective population - This was done to ensure that every region had fair representation in the Constituent Assembly.
  2. Representatives to be elected through proportional representation using a single transferable vote - This method of election was chosen to ensure that minority groups would also have a voice in the drafting of the Constitution.
  3. The representatives of the princely state were to be nominated by the heads of princely states - The princely states were not directly represented in the Assembly, but their representatives were nominated by the heads of the states to participate in the drafting process.
  4. Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the governor’s provinces and 4 from the chief commissioners’ provinces - This allocation ensured that both the provinces directly governed by the British and those with more autonomy had representation in the Constituent Assembly.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 3

Consider the following statements : 
1. The Preamble can be amended under Art. 368.
2. The original Constitution had words Sovereign Socialist Secular Demaocratic Republic in its Preamble.
Q. Which of the above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 3

The Supreme Court, however, held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. The Court stated that the opinion tendered by it in the Berubari Union (1960) in this regard was wrong, and held that the Preamble can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features’. In other words, the Court held that the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution as contained in the Preamble cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368.
Correct option is A.

As originally enacted the preamble described the state as a "sovereign democratic republic", to which the terms "Secular" and "Socialist" were later passed by the Parliament during The Emergency in the 42nd Amendment. The preamble was amended only once on 18 December 1976.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 4

Consider the following statements about Quo Warranto.
1. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution.
2. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office.
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 4

Explanation:


  • Statement 1: The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution.

    This statement is correct. Quo Warranto is a legal action through which an individual's right to hold a public office is challenged. It can only be issued in cases where there is a substantive public office of a permanent character that has been created by a statute or by the Constitution.

  • Statement 2: It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office.

    This statement is also correct. Quo Warranto is specifically meant for challenging the right to hold public office, and cannot be issued in cases of ministerial or private office, which are not considered public offices of a permanent character.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct in relation to the issuance of Quo Warranto.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 5

Consider the following statements.
1. The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law
2. The expression ‘martial law' means the military rule and it has been defined in the Constitution
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 5

The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. However, the expression ‘martial law' has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. It means “military rule'. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rules and regulations framed outside the ordinary law. It thus implies the suspension of ordinary law and the government by military tribunals. It is different from military law that applies to the armed forces.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 6

The nominated members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha do NOT participate in the following?
1. Election of President
2. Passing of Constitutional Amendment Bill
3. Impeachment of President
4. Election of Vice-President
Q. Choose the correct answer from the codes below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 6
  • The nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President.
  • An assembly is dissolved. The members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the presidential election.
  • While electing and impeaching Vice- President, nominated members to participate.
  • The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 7

Consider the following statements. 
1. The election of a person as Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete 
2. If the election of a person as Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are invalidated 
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 7

The election of a person as Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (i.e., the existence of any vacancy among the members of the electoral college). If the election of a person as Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated (i.e., they continue to remain in force).

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 8

The functions of the Indian Government is carried out by several Ministry and Departments. Consider the following statements:
1. No minister can openly criticise the government's decision, even if it is about another Ministry or Department.
2. Every ministry lias secretaries, who are civil servants.
3. The secretaries provide the necessary background information to the ministers to take decisions.
4. The Prime Minister's decisions are final in case disagreements arise between Departments.
Which of the statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 8
  • Cabinet Ministers are usually top-level leaders of the ruling party or parties in charge of the major ministries.
  • Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and discuss everything, the decisions are taken in Cabinet meetings. The cabinet works as a team.
  • The ministers may have different views and opinions, but everyone has to own up to the Cabinet's decision. No minister can openly criticise the government's decision, even if it is about another Ministry or Department. Every ministry has secretaries, who are civil servants. The secretaries provide the necessary background information to the ministers to take decisions.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 9

What among the following statements is true about the procedure to remove the judge of a Supreme Court of India?
1. The judge of the Supreme Court may be removed from his current office by an order of the President
2. There are only two grounds of removal: incapacity or proved misbehaviour
3. So far, no judge of the Supreme Court has been removed by impeachment
4. The procedure for the removal of the judges is regulated by the Judges Enquiry Act (1968) 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 9
  • The Grounds for removal of Judge of SC are two - proved misbehaviour and incapacity.
  • The removal procedure is regulated by The Judges Enquiry Act 1968.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 10

Consider the following statements about the Public Interest Litigations (PILs).
1. It need not be filed by the aggrieved party only.
2. It may be introduced in suo moto by the court.
3. The provision of PILs is mentioned in the constitution of India.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 10
  • It was introduced by Justice P.N. Bhagwati of the Supreme Court.
  • It was not mentioned in the constitution of India nor any law enacted by Parliament. It is a result of Judicial activism.
  • An individual or group of people directly files public Interest Litigation in the supreme court.
  • It was felt that the government undermines its interests. In such a situation, the court directly accepts the public good. It is a new legal horizon in which the court of law can initiate and enforce action to serve and secure significant Public Interest.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 11

Which of the following are the similarities between Indian Parliamentary System and British Parliamentary System?
1. Supremacy of Parliament
2. Elected head of state
3. Majority party rule
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 11

The features of parliamentary government in India are:

  • Presence of nominal and real executives;
  • Majority party rule,
  • Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
  • Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
  • Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
  • Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

There are some differences between the British Parliamentary system and that of India. For example, the Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. Also, the Indian State has an elected head (republic) while the British State has hereditary head (monarchy).
 

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 12

Consider the following statements.
1. President can make such provision as he thinks fit for the discharge of the functions of the governor in any contingency not provided for in the Constitution
2. President may appoint the chief justice of the concerned state high court temporarily to discharge the functions of the governor of that state
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 12

Correct option is C. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
1. The President can make such provision as he thinks fit for the discharge of the functions of the governor in any contingency not provided for in the Constitution, for example, the death of a sitting governor.
2. The Chief Justice of the concerned state high court may be appointed temporarily to discharge the functions of the governor if the President thinks. The idea is that there must be Governor in the state and it can not be vacant.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 13

Consider the following statements about the Chief Minister.
1. He plays a very significant and highly crucial role in the state administration
2. The Constitution provides that the Chief Minister shall communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration and the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation.
Which of these statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 13

The chief minister  plays a very significant and highly crucial role in the state administration and it is the function of the Chief Minister shall communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration and the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 14

Consider the following statements.
1. Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business.
2. It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House, excluding the presiding officer, whichever is greater
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 14

Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business. It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 15

Consider the following statements about Appellate jurisdiction of High Court.
1. In civil cases its jurisdiction includes to the orders and judgments of the district courts, additional district courts and other subordinate courts
2. In criminal cases its jurisdiction includes judgments relating to sessions courts and additional sessions court
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 15

It is said that the high court is the primary court of appeal i.e. it has power to hear the appeals against the judgment of the subordinate courts within its territories. This power can be classified into 2 categories-Civil jurisdiction and Criminal jurisdiction In civil cases its jurisdiction includes the orders and judgments of the district courts, additional district courts and other subordinate courts. In criminal cases its jurisdiction includes judgments relating to sessions courts and additional sessions courts.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 16

Consider the following statements.
1. Below the District and Sessions Court stands the Court of Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate on the criminal side 
2. The subordinate judge exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits' 
3. The chief judicial magistrate decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to 10 years 
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 16

Below the District and Sessions Court stands the Court of Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordinate judge exercises unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits'. The chief judicial magistrate decides criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to seven years.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 17

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct? 
1. The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will be administered by the President, through an administrator appointed as the Lieutenant Governor 
2. The Chief Minister will communicate all decisions of the Council to the Lieutenant Governor 
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 17

The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have a Council of Ministers of not more than ten per cent of the total number of members in the Assembly. The Council will aide and advise the Lieutenant Governor on matters that the Assembly has powers to make laws. The Chief Minister will communicate all decisions of the Council to the Lieutenant Governor.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 18

Consider the following statements with respect to freedom from taxation for the promotion of a religion:
1. State should not spend the money collected by way of tax for the promotion of any particular religion.
2. This provision prohibits the levy of a tax and fee to control the secular administration of religious institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 18
  • Right to freedom of Religion (Articles 25 to 28) o Freedom from Taxation for the Promotion of a Religion under Article 27 lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
    • In other words, the State should not spend the public money collected by way of tax for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • This provision prohibits the State from favouring, patronising and supporting one religion over the other. This means that taxes can be used for the promotion or maintenance of all religions.
    • This provision prohibits only the levy of a tax and not a fee. This is because the purpose of a fee is to control the secular administration of religious institutions and not to promote or maintain the religion. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to provide them with some special service or safety measures. Similarly, a fee can be levied on religious endowments for meeting the regulation expenditure.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 19

Which of the following are the advantages of parliamentary democracy?
1. Responsible Government
2. Wide Representation
3. Strict Separation of powers
4. Harmony Between Legislature and Executive
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 19
  • Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of nature of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government.
    • The parliamentary system of government is one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts. The presidential system of government, on the other hand, is one in which the executive is not responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts, and is constitutionally independent of the legislature in respect of its term of office.
  • Advantages of the Parliamentary System
    • Harmony Between Legislature and Executive
      • The greatest advantage of the parliamentary system is that it ensures harmonious relationship and cooperation between the legislative and executive organs of the government. The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at work.
    • Responsible Government
      • By its very nature, the parliamentary system establishes a responsible government. The ministers are responsible to the Parliament for all their acts of omission and commission. The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion.
    • Ready Alternative Government
      • In case the ruling party loses its majority, the Head of the State can invite the opposition party to form the government. This means an alternative government can be formed without fresh elections. Hence, Dr. Jennings says, ‘the leader of the opposition is the alternative prime minister’.
    • Wide Representation
      • In a parliamentary system, the executive consists of a group of individuals (i.e., ministers who are representatives of the people). Hence, it is possible to provide representation to all sections and regions in the government. The prime minister while selecting his ministers can take this factor into consideration.
    • Prevents Despotism.
      • Demerits of the parliamentary system
    • Continuity of Policies
      • The parliamentary system is not conducive to the formulation and implementation of long-term policies. This is due to the uncertainty of the tenure of the government. A change in the ruling party is usually followed by changes in the policies of the government.
    • Unstable Government
    • Dictatorship of the Cabinet
    • Against strict separation of powers
    • Government by Amateurs
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
     
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 20

What is/are the point(s) of convergence with respect to the ‘System of Government’ in the USA and India?
1. The Executive is dependent upon a majority in Legislature.
2. There is a periodic assessment of the responsibility of the Executive.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 20
  • In USA both the members of the executive and legislative are elected separately and they execute their work in their spheres, so the executives are independent of legislature. So, Statement 1 could be eliminated.
  • In a parliamentary system like India, the Council of Ministers (Executive) is dependent on the support of the majority in the legislature. This also means that the Council of Ministers may be removed at any time and a new Council of Ministers will have to be put in place. (Parliamentary form of government) Whereas in the USA, they have a Presidential form of Government in which the President is directly elected by the people and is not either dependent or accountable to the legislature. Hence, there is no convergence, with respect to the given matter (Executive dependent upon majority in the legislature), in the USA and India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • Having a fixed tenure for the Head of the State in both the Presidential form of Government in USA and the Parliamentary form of Government in India, the Elections are held periodically which ensures the assessment of the responsibility of the executive. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 21

With regards to “Protection in respect of conviction for offenses” as mentioned in Article 20 of the Constitution of India, which of the below statements is/are correct?
1. It Prohibits Retrospective criminal legislation.
2. The immunity from self-incrimination extends to civil proceedings.
3. It provides immunity from double jeopardy including Prosecution for an offence.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 21
  • According to Article 20(1), No person can be convicted except for the violation of an offence under the law prevalent at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence. It prohibits retrospective legislation only for Criminal laws. Any retrospective increase in the penalty (or) the punishment for an offence provided is valid for civil and tax laws and not for criminal laws. So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Article 20(3) prohibits the compulsion to give self-incriminating evidence only in criminal proceedings and not for civil proceedings. An accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself/herself. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Article 20(2) states that No person shall be prosecuted and punished for same offence more than once which means that, this article provides immunity from double jeopardy not only against Punishment for an offence but also against Prosecution. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 22

Which of the following provisions of the constitution ensure political equality?
1. Elections based on adult suffrage.
2. Abolition of titles.
3. No ineligibility for inclusion in electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 22

Equality

  • The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special privileges to any section of society and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble secures all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity. This provision embraces three dimensions of equality–civic, political, and economic.
  • There are some provisions in the Constitution that seek to achieve political equality.
    • No person is to be declared ineligible for inclusion in electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex (Article 325). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Elections to the Lok Sabha and the state assemblies were to be on the basis of adult suffrage (Article 326). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The following provisions of the chapter on Fundamental Rights ensure civic equality:
    • Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (Article 15).
    • Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
    • Abolition of untouchability (Article 17).
    • Abolition of titles (Article 18). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 23

Consider the following statements with respect to Constituent Assembly:
1. Whenever the Constituent Assembly met as the legislative body, it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
2. The Constituent Assembly adopted the national anthem and the national song in 1947.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 23
  • The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947.
  • After the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan of June 3, 1947, for the partition of the country, the representatives of most of the other princely states took their seats in the Assembly. The members of the Muslim League from the Indian Dominion also entered the Assembly.
    • The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased.
    • Two separate functions were assigned to the Assembly, that is, making of the Constitution for free India and enacting ordinary laws for the country. Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it met as the legislative body , it was chaired by G.V. Mavlankar. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • The Muslim League members (hailing from the areas included in Pakistan) withdrew from the Constituent Assembly for India. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly came down to 299 as against 389 originally fixed in 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan.
  • In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions:
    • It ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. o It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. o It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950. o It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950.
  • In all, the Constituent Assembly had 11 sessions over two years, 11 months and 18 days. On January 24, 1950, the Constituent Assembly held its final session. It, however, did not end, and continued as the provisional  parliament of India from January 26, 1950, till the formation of new Parliament after the first general elections in 1951–52.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 24

With reference to the working of the constitution assembly, Consider the following Pairs:

How many pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 24

The constituent assembly appointed committees to handle different works of constitution making.
Of that 8 were major committees and others were minors.

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru - States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States)
  2. Pattabhi Sitaramayya - House Committee
  3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad - Rules of Procedure Committee
  4. Sardar Patel - Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas

So, Option (c) is correct.
 

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 25

Which of the following Supreme Court cases is/are related to disputes/conflicts between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. IR Coehlo Case, 2007
2. Golaknath case, 1967
3. Maneka Gandhi case, 1978
4. Minerva Mill Case, 1980
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 25
  • Cases related to dispute/conflict between Fundamental Right and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) -:
    • Champakam Dorairajan Case, 1951 - In this case, Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between FRs and DPSPs, FRs would prevail. It declared that DPSPs have to conform to and run as subsidiaries to the fundamental right. However, it also held that FRs could be amended by the Parliament through constitutional amendment acts. This led to the First, Fourth, and Seventeenth Amendment Act to implement some of the DPSPs.
    • Golak Nath case, 1967 - In this case, Supreme Court held that Parliament can’t take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature. Hence, the court held that Fundamental Rights can’t be amended for the implementation of DPSPs. This led to the enactment of the 24th Amendment Act and the 25 amendment Act which inserted a new Article 31C.
    • Kesavanand Bharti case, 1973 - In this case, Supreme Court declared the second provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution. This led to the enactment of the 42nd Amendment Act which gave legal primacy and supremacy to the DPSPs over FRs conferred by Articles 14, 19, and 21.
    • Minerva Mills case, 1980 - In this case, Supreme Court held the primacy of DPSPs over FRs as unconstitutional and invalid. It led to the subordination of DPSPs over FRs. However, FRs conferred by Articles 14 and 19 were accepted as subordinate to the DPSPs specified under Article 39(b) and (c).
  • The present position is that the FRs enjoy supremacy over DPSPs. However, Parliament can amend the FRs for implementing the DPSP, so long as the amendment doesn’t destroy of the basic feature of the constitution.
  • Maneka Gandhi case, 1978 - It deals with rights guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. Prior to this, there was ‘procedure prescribed by law’ which was replaced by ‘due process of law’ with respect to article 21 of the Constitution.
  • IR Coelho case in 2007—popularly known as the Ninth Schedule case—the Supreme Court took this further and argued that if the purpose of inserting a law into the Ninth Schedule was to undo a judgment of the Supreme Court, this could be examined by the courts. Also, the Supreme Court held that the laws placed under IX schedule after Kesavananda Bharati's judgment (24th April 1973 ) cannot be exempt from Judicial review.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 26

Under the Constitution of India, which of the following rights and privileges are conferred on the citizens of India and denied to aliens?
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth 
2. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession
3. Right to serve as a judge in the higher judiciary 
4. Right to contest for membership of the Parliament and the state legislature
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 26
  • The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens):
    • Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15). Hence option 1 is correct.
    • Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).
    • Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession (Article 19). Hence option 2 is correct.
    • Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).
    • Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.
    • Right to contest for membership of the Parliament and the state legislature.
    • Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, Governor of states, Attorney General of India, and Advocate General of states. Hence options 3 and 4 are correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 27

Which of the following bodies/institutions is/are audited totally and directly by the CAG?

  1. Reserve Bank of India
  2. Oil and Natural Gas Commission
  3. Life Insurance Corporation of India
  4. State Bank of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 27
  • The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited. Broadly speaking, his relationship with public corporations falls into the following three categories:
    • Some corporations are audited totally and directly by the CAG, for example, Damodar Valley Corporation, Oil and Natural Gas Commission, and others. Hence option 2 is correct.
    • Some other corporations are audited by private professional auditors who are appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the CAG. If necessary, the CAG can conduct a supplementary audit. Examples are Central Warehousing Corporation, Industrial Finance Corporation, and others.
    • Some other corporations are totally subjected to private audits. In other words, their audit is done exclusively by private professional auditors and the CAG does not come into the picture at all. They submit their annual reports and accounts directly to the Parliament. Examples of such corporations are the Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of India, State Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, and others. Hence options 1, 3, and 4 are not correct.
  • The role of the CAG in the auditing of Government companies is also limited. They are audited by private auditors who are appointed by the Government on the advice of the CAG. The CAG can also undertake a supplementary audit or test audit of such Companies.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 28

With reference to the Regulating Act of 1773, consider the following statements:
1. It recognized the political function of the company for the first time.
2. It allowed the servants of the company to engage in private trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 28

Statement 1 is correct: With the help of Regulating Act of 1773 British Government took its first step to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India. It not only recognized the political and administrative functions of the company but laid the foundations of central administration in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Regulating Act of 1773 prohibited the servants of the Company to engage in any private trade or accepting bribes from the natives.
Features of the Act of 1773:

  • Act designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ (Lord Warren Hastings.) and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him.
  • Act made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor-general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
  • Act provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) (1 chief justice and 3 judges).
  • Act prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the natives.
  • Act strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 29

Which of the following rights is/are being conferred on the citizens of India?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 29

The Constitution of India explicitly confers some fundamental rights to the citizens of India exclusively. The right under article 15 i.e. Right against discrimination, article 16 - the right to equality of opportunity in matters of employment and six freedoms under article 19 are guaranteed only to citizens of India.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 30

Which of the following fall within the purview of Freedom of Speech and Expression as guaranteed under Article 19 of the Indian constitution?
1. Freedom of Silence
2. Right to Strike
3. Right to telecast
4. Right to know about government activities
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 30

Freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under Article 19(1) of the Indian constitution. It implies that every citizen has the right to express his views, opinions, belief, and convictions. The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes the following -:

  • Right to propagate one's views as well as views of others.
  • Freedom of press
  • Freedom of Commercial advertisements
  • Right against tapping of telephonic conversation
  • Right to telecast
  • Freedom of silence
  • Right to know about government activities
  • Right against the imposition of pre-censorship
  • Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 31

In the context Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 31
  • The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution -making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees.
  • Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
  • Provincial Constitution Committee - Sardar Patel. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
  • Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  • Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas - Sardar Patel.
    • This committee had the following five sub-committees:
    • Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee - J.B. Kripalani
    • Minorities Sub-Committee - H.C. Mukheijee
    • North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas SubCommittee -Gopinath Bardoloi
    • Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee - A.V. Thakkar
    • North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee8a
    • Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  • States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Nehru,
  • Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding the loss of citizenship under the Citizenship Act (1955):

  1. When a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship.
  2. When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 32

The Citizenship Act (1955) prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination, and deprivation:

  • By Renunciation: Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a citizen of India. However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government. Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship.
  • By Termination: When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence, or compulsion) acquires citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. Hence, statement 2 is correct. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is Engaged.
  • By Deprivation: It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if:
    • the citizen has obtained citizenship by fraud:
    • the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India:
    • the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;
    • the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any country for two years; and
    • the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 33

Consider the following statements with respect to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):
1. It is a statutory body constituted under the Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986.
2. It has been designated as the agency to monitor provisions of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 33
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. The Commission works under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) emphasizes the principle of universality and inviolability of child rights and recognizes the tone of urgency in all the child-related policies of the country. For the Commission, the protection of all children in the 0 to 18 years age group is of equal importance.
  • The Commission shall perform the following functions, namely:
    • Examine and review the safeguards provided by any law for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
    • Present to the central government, reports upon working of those safeguards;
    • Inquire into violation of child rights
    • Examine all factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of children affected by terrorism, communal violence, riots,
    • Look into matters relating to children in need of special care and protection etc.
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has been designated as the agency to monitor provisions of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act. Under the Act, NCPCR can investigate complaints and have the powers of a civil court in trying cases. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 34

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

  1. He is appointed by the Prime Minister.
  2. He enjoys the rank of a Minister of State.
  3. He chairs the meetings of Regional Councils.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 34

The composition of the NITI Aayog is as follows:

  • Chairperson: The Prime Minister of India
  • Governing Council: It comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu and Kashmir), and Lt.Governors of other Union Territories.
  • Regional Councils: These are formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or region. These are formed for a specified tenure. These are convened by the Prime Minister and comprised of the Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories in the region. These are chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • Special Invitees: Experts, specialists, and practitioners with relevant domain knowledge as special invitees nominated by the Prime Minister.

Full-time Organisational Framework: It comprises, in addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson:

  • Vice-Chairperson: He is appointed by the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 1 is correct. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Members: Full-time. They enjoy the rank of a Minister of State.
  • Part-time Members: Maximum of 2, from leading university research organizations and other relevant institutions in an ex-officio capacity. Part-time members would be on a rotation.
  • Ex-Officio Members: Maximum of 4 members of the Uni Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
  • Chief Executive Officer: He is appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.
  • Secretariat: As deemed necessary.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 35

Consider the following statements with reference to the idea of liberalism in the context of the Indian Constitution:
1. Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the rights of the community.
2. Reservations for SC/ST community in the constitution are an example of Indian liberalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 35
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Indian liberalism is different from classical or western liberalism. Classical liberalism is more concerned with individual freedom. While in India, an individual identifies himself with the community to which he/she belongs. So Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the demands of social justice and community values.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The reservation to deprived classes to meet their demands for social justice signifies the idea of Indian liberalism.
     
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 36

With reference to the production of millets in India, consider the following statements:

  1. They have low per-hectare yields at the national level compared to wheat and paddy.
  2. Their production has decreased in India during the last two decades.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 36
  • Recent Context: The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets.
  • Millet is a collective term referring to a number of small-seeded annual grasses that are cultivated as grain crops, primarily on marginal lands in dry areas in temperate, subtropical, and tropical regions. Some of the common millets available in India are Ragi (Finger millet), Jowar (Sorghum), Sama (Little millet), Bajra (Pearl millet), and Variga (Proso millet).
  • India is the largest producer of millet in the world accounting for 20% of global production and 80% of Asia’s production.
  • In India, the national average per-hectare yield is roughly 1 tonne for jowar, 1.5 tonnes for bajra and 1.7 tonnes for ragi, as against 3.5 tonnes for wheat and 4 tonnes for paddy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Between 2003-04 and 2021-22, India’s millet output has actually fallen from 21.32 million tonnes (mt) to 15.92 mt. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 37

Which of the following statements are true?
1. The presidential system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organ of the Government.
2. The parliamentary system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the legislative and executive organ of
the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 37

Option (d) is correct:
The Constitution of India has opted for the British parliamentary System of Government rather than American Presidential System of Government. The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organs while the presidential system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs. The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:

  • Presence of nominal and real executives
  • Majority party rule
  • Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
  • Membership of the ministers in the legislature
  • Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister
  • Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). In a parliamentary system whether in India or Britain, the role of the Prime Minister has become so significant and crucial that the political scientists like to call it a ‘Prime Ministerial Government’.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 38

With reference to the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Amendment Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

  1. The provisions of the Act extend to scheduled offenses, committed in India or abroad, that affect the interest of India.
  2. It designates state high courts as special courts for conducting the trial of offenses under the NIA Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 38

The various features or provisions of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Amendment Act, 2019 are as follows :

  • It applied the provisions of the NIA Act also to persons who commit a scheduled offence beyond India against Indian citizens or affect the interest of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct,
  • It provided that the officers of the NIA shall have similar powers, duties, privies and liabilities being exercised by the police officers in connection with the investigation of offences, not only in India but also outside India.
  • It empowered the central government, with respect to a scheduled offence committed outside India, to direct the NIA to register the case and take up an investigation as if such an offence has taken place in India.
  • It provided that the central government and the state governments may designate Sessions Courts as Special Courts for conducting the trial of offences under the NIA Act . Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • It inserted certain new offences in the Schedule of the NIA Act.
  • The Act extends to the whole of India and it applies also
    • to citizens of India outside India;
    • to persons in the service of the Government wherever they may be;
    • to persons on ships and aircraft registered in India wherever they may be; and
    • to persons who commit a Scheduled Offence beyond India against an Indian citizen or affect the interest of India.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 39

Which of the following Acts are associated with the communal representation?
1. Indian Council Act, 1909
2. Government of India Act, 1919
3. Government of India Act, 1935
4. Rowlatt Act, 1919
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 39

Option (c) is correct:
The Indian Council Act, 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate. The Government of India Act, 1919 extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans. The Government of India Act, 1935 further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 40

In the context of methods of election in India, consider the following statements regarding the First Past The Post System:

  1. The Indian constitution has prescribed the First Past The Post System method of election to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
  2. In this system the candidate needs to get more than 50 percent to get elected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 40
  • First Past The Post System (FPTP) is a plurality voting method, a plurality meaning the largest part of the whole, in contrast to majority, which generally means more than half of the whole. Under FPTP the candidate with the highest number (but not necessarily a majority) of votes is elected.
  • Though the Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha. Instead, it has adopted the First-past-the-post system (territorial representation) for the election of members to the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Under this system, every member of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a constituency. From each constituency, only one representative is elected. Hence such a constituency is known as a single-member constituency. In this system, a candidate who secures majority of votes is declared elected. There is no need to get 50 percent of the total votes to get elected. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • This simple majority system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other words, it does not secure due representation to minorities (small groups).
  • The system of proportional representation aims at removing the defects of territorial representation. Under this system, all sections of the people get representation in proportion to their number. Even the smallest section of the population gets its due share of representation in the legislature.
  • There are two kinds of proportional representation, namely, single transferable vote system and list system. In India, the first kind is adopted for the election of members to the Rajya Sabha and state legislative council and for electing the President and the Vice-President.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 41

Which of the following are ex-officio members of The National Human Rights Commission?

  1. Chairperson, National Commission for Backward Classes
  2. Special officer for linguistic minorities.
  3. Chairperson, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights.
  4. Chairperson, National Commission for Women.
  5. Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 41

The NHRC is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members. The chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court and members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court, and three persons (out of which at least one should be a woman) having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.

In addition to these full-time members, the commission also has seven ex-officio members–the chairpersons of

  • the National Commission for Minorities,
  • the National Commission for SCs,
  • the National Commission for STs,
  • the National Commission for Women,
  • the National Commission for BCs and
  • the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights and
  • the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.

Hence, options 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 42

Consider the following statements:
1. MPs from each party necessarily have to obey the whip.
2. A party whip serves the function of gauging the opinion of the members, and communicating it to party leaders.
3. A one-line whip directs MPs to be present during the vote.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 42

Statement 1 is correct: Political parties issue whips to their MPs to either vote for or against the bill, depending on their party line. Once the whip is issued, the MPs from each party will necessarily have to obey the whip or else risk losing their seat in Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: The whip is an official appointed to maintain discipline among, secure attendance of, and give necessary information to, members of his party.

  • They are expected to be a channel of communication between the political party and the members of the party in the legislature.
  • They also serve the function of gauging the opinion of the members, and communicating it to party leaders. Statement 3 is not correct There can be 3 Types of Whips
  • A one-line whip, underlined once, is usually issued to inform party members of a vote, and allows them to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line.
  • A two-line whip directs them to be present during the vote.
  • A three-line whip is the strongest, employed on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence motion, and places an obligation on members to toe the party line.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with respect to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC):

  1. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body.
  2. The Commission presents an annual report to both Houses of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 43
  • 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 conferred a constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes. For this purpose, the amendment inserted a new Article 338-B in the constitution. Hence, the Commission ceased to be a statutory body and became a constitutional body. In other words, the constitutional status of the new Commission is at par with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Commission presents an annual report to the President. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary. The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non-acceptance of any of such recommendations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 44

With reference to the sovereign green bonds, consider the following statements:

  1. The bonds will be issued in maturities of five years and 10 years.
  2. They are eligible for trading in the secondary market.
  3. As of now, NRIs are not allowed to invest in them.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 44
  • The Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) are bonds issued by any sovereign entity, inter-governmental groups or alliances and corporates with the aim that proceeds of bonds are utilised for environmentally sustainable projects. It will help in reducing the carbon intensity of the economy.
  • SGrBs were announced in Union Budget 2022-23 and framework for SGrBs was issued (by Ministry of Finance) in November 2022.
  • RBI will issue 5-year and 10-year green bonds of Rs 4,000 crore each in current financial year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The only difference between Green Bonds and other ordinary government-issued bonds is that the funds raised from investors are only used to support initiatives that have a good influence on the environment, such as green construction and renewable energy. Primarily these aim to contribute to the planet and its sustainability.
  • The government has tried to make them attractive for institutional investors by giving sops like issuing them through a uniform price auction, making them eligible for Repo as also SLR purposes, and making them eligible for trading in the secondary market. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Even NRIs are allowed to invest in them. The risk is further reduced in these bonds as per the framework announced earlier where the payments of principal and interest on these bonds are not conditional on the performance of the eligible projects and the investors in these bonds do not bear any project-related risks. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • Eligible projects under SGrBs framework include projects of renewable energy, energy efficiency, clean transportation, climate change adaptation, sustainable water and waste management, pollution prevention and control, green buildings, and biodiversity conservation.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with respect to the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC):
1. It is an ad-hoc body which is set up to examine only bills presented before the Parliament.
2. The first JPC was authorised in 1974 to investigate the maruti scandal.
3. They are set up by a motion passed in any one house of Parliament and agreed to by the other.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 45
  • Statement 1 is not correct: The Joint Parliamentary committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc body which is set up for a given period of time and is aimed at addressing a specific issue not limited to only bills and dissolved after submission of its report to Parliament.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: The first JPC was formed in August 1987 to investigate the Bofors scandal. It was formed on a motion moved by the then defence minister K.C. Pant in the Lok Sabha on August 6, 1987.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Joint parliament committees are set up by a motion passed in one house of Parliament and agreed to by the other. The details regarding membership and subjects are also decided by Parliament. For example, the motion to constitute a JPC on the stock market scam (2001) and pesticide residues in soft drinks (2003) was moved by the government in the Lok Sabha
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 46

Consider the following statements with respect to the office of Lokayuktas:

  1. The institution of Lokayukta was established for the first time in Maharashtra in 1971.
  2. The Lokayukta of a state is always appointed by the chief justice of the high court of the concerned state.
  3. The recommendations made by the Lokayukta are only advisory and not binding on the state government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 46
  • The Lokayukta is the Indian Parliamentary Ombudsman, executed into power, through and for, each of the State Governments of India. It is brought into effect in a state, after passing the Lokayukta Act in the respective state Legislature and a person of reputable background is nominated to the post. The post is created to quickly address grievances against the working integrity and efficiency of the government or its administration (public servants). Once appointed, Lokayukta cannot be dismissed or transferred by the government, and can only be removed by passing an impeachment motion by the state assembly, making it a powerful deterrent against corruption and maladministration of the governing system.
  • Even much before the enactment of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) itself, many states had already set up the institution of Lokayuktas. It must be noted here that the institution of lokayukta was established first in Maharashtra in 1971. Although Odisha had passed the Act in this regard in 1970, it came into force only in 1983. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The lokayukta and upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state. While appointing, the governor in most of the states (varies from state to state) consults
    • the chief justice of the state high court, and
    • the leader of the Opposition in the state legislative assembly.
    • the speaker of the legislative assembly (optional)
    • In case the state has a legislative council, the chairman of the legislative council and the leader of the opposition of the legislative council are also consulted
    • Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The recommendations made by the Lokayukta are only advisory and not binding on the state government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 47

With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, consider the following statements:
1. It was established by the 89th Amendment Act of the constitution in 2003.
2. The Commission is vested with powers of a civil court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 47
  • Statement 1 is correct: It was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Powers of the Commission: For Investigation and Inquiry, the Commission is vested with powers of a civil court having authority to:
    • Summon and enforce attendance of any person and examine on oath;
    • Discovery & production of any documents;
    • Receive evidence on affidavits;
    • Requisition any public record or copy thereof from any court or office;
    • Issue Commissions for examination of witnesses and documents; and
    • Any matter which President, by rule, may determine.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 48

Which among the following constitutional amendments fall outside the scope of Article 368? 

  1. Abolition of Legislative Councils in States  
  2. Elections to Parliament and State Legislatures  
  3. Election of the President  

Select the correct answer using the code given below.  

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 48

The constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.

These provisions include:

  • Admission or establishment of new states.
  • Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states.
  • Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
  • Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges, and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
  • Quorum in Parliament.
  • Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
  • Rules of procedure in Parliament.
  • Privileges of the Parliament, its members, and its committees.
  • Use of English language in Parliament.
  • Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
  • Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
  • Use of official language.
  • Citizenship—acquisition, and termination.
  • Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
  • Delimitation of constituencies.
  • Union territories.
  • Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
  • Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.

Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. Like, Election of the President and its manner.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 49

Which of the following languages are mentioned in the eighth schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. Bodo
  2. English
  3. Nepali
  4. Urdu
  5. Santhali

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 49
  • At present (2019), the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution specifies 22 languages (originally 14 languages). These are
    • Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia , Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
  • English is not listed in eighth schedule.
  • In terms of the Constitution provisions, there are two objectives behind the specification of the above regional languages in the Eighth Schedule:
    • the members of these languages are to be given representation in the Official Language Commission; and
    • the forms, style and expression of these languages are to be used for the enrichment of the Hindi language
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 50

Consider the following statements :

  1. Article 1 describes India as a federation of states.
  2. Currently, India has 28 states and 8 union territories.
  3. The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the third schedule of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 2 - Question 50

Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country; and two, type of polity. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Secondly, the country is described as ‘Union’ although its Constitution is federal in structure.

According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation.

  • According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
  • Territories of the states
  • Union territories
  • Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.

The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first schedule of the Constitution. At present, there are 28 states and 8 union territories. Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

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