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50 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Test: Polity- 1

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Test: Polity- 1 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019:

  • Statement-I: This act specifically targets illegal immigrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Sri lanka.
  • Statement-II: The act is to provide expedited Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The CAA specifically targets illegal immigrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.

Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019

  • The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) is an Indian law that was enacted on December 12, 2019.
  • It amends the Citizenship Act of 1955 and introduces changes to the criteria for acquiring Indian citizenship.
  • The CAA specifically targets illegal immigrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who are members of six religious minority communities: Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians.
  • The main objective of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act is to provide expedited Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.
  • It seeks to protect those individuals who faced religious persecution in the three neighboring countries and have been residing in India without valid documents.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

  1. The guidelines for renunciation of Indian Citizenship are issued by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
  2. Citizenship of a minor child shall get suspended till the attainment of full age if his/her parent ceases to be citizen of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 2
  • Statement 1 is correct: The guidelines for renunciation of Indian Citizenship are issued by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). 
  • Statement 2 is correct: As per Section 8 (2) of Indian Citizenship Act, 1955, “every minor child of a person who renounces their citizenship under Section 8(1), shall, thereupon, cease to be a citizen of India.

Provision for Citizenship by descent:

  • A person born outside India shall be a citizen of India by descent,—
    • on or after the 26th day of January, 1950, but before the 10th day of December, 1992, if his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth; or
    • on or after the 10th day of December, 1992, if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth: Provided that if the father of a person referred to in clause (a) was a citizen of India by descent only, that person shall not be a citizen of India by virtue of this section unless—
    • his birth is registered at an Indian consulate within one year of its occurrence or the commencement of this Act, whichever is later, or, with the permission of the Central Government, after the expiry of the said period; or
    • his father is, at the time of his birth, in service under a Government in India: Provided further that if either of the parents of a person referred to in clause (b) was a citizen of India by descent only, that person shall not be a citizen of India by virtue of this section unless—
    • A minor who is a citizen of India and also a citizen of any other country shall cease to be a citizen of India if he does not renounce the citizenship or nationality of another country within six months of attaining full age.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

  1. Overseas citizen of India (OCI) includes a group of people holding a company in any foreign country of Indian origin.
  2. Foreign nationals cannot apply for OCI while on visiting India in Tourist Visa.
  3. The foreigner staying in a particular country or in India for a continuous period of 6 months is eligible to apply for OCI cardholder.
  4. The Spouse of OCI cardholder, whose marriage is registered in the country of residence, is also eligible for OCI cardholder to India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 3
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Overseas Citizen of India means ‘a person’ registered as overseas citizen with the central government.
    • Here person does not include any company or association or anybody or individual.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Foreign nationals cannot apply for OCI in India while on Tourist Visa, Missionary Visa and Mountaineering Visa. 
  • Statement 3 is correct: Moreover, the foreigner has to be ordinarily resident of India to be eligible to apply for OCI registration in India.
    • ‘Ordinarily resident’ will mean a person staying in a particular country or in India for a continuous period of 6 months.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder and whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the application is also eligible for registration as OCI cardholder.

A foreign national:

  • Who was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after 26th January, 1950; or
  • Who was eligible to become a citizen of India on 26th January, 1950; or
  • Who belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15th August, 1947; or
  • Who is a child or a grandchild or a great grandchild of such a citizen; or
  • who is a minor child of such persons mentioned above; or (vi) who is a minor child and whose both parents are citizens of India or one of the parents is a citizen of India - is eligible for registration as OCI cardholder.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 4

Which of the statements given below is correct regarding provisions of ‘Citizenship in India’?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 4

Citizenship

  • Constitution of India does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (1955).
  • According to the Constitution, the following four categories of persons became the citizens of India at its commencement i.e., on January 26, 1950:
    • A person who had his domicile in India
    • A person who migrated to India from Pakistan became an Indian citizen if he or either of his parents or any of his grandparents was born in undivided India.
    • Persons migrated to Pakistan but later returned;
    • Persons of Indian origin residing outside India.
  • The other constitutional provisions with respect to the citizenship are as follows:
    • No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state.
  • Every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India shall continue to be such citizen, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
    • Parliament shall have the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 5

With reference to the federal government, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The power is divided between a central authority and various regional or state governments.
  2. It is composed of two distinct branches: legislative and executive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 5
  • Statement 1 is correct: The power is divided between a central authority and various regional or state governments.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The federal government is composed of three distinct branches: legislative, executive, and judicial.

Federal Government

  • The federal government refers to the central government of a country that has a federal system of governance. In a federal system, power is divided between a central authority and various regional or state governments. The specific structure and functions of the federal government can vary from country to country.
  • The federal government typically has authority over national-level issues such as defense, foreign policy, currency, interstate commerce, and overall governance of the country. It is responsible for making and enforcing laws, collecting taxes, and providing essential services to its citizens.
  • In many countries, the federal government consists of three separate branches: the executive branch, the legislative branch, and the judicial branch. The executive branch, headed by the head of state or head of government, is responsible for implementing and enforcing laws. The legislative branch, usually a parliament or congress, is responsible for making laws. The judicial branch, comprising the courts, interprets the laws and ensures their proper application.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 6

With reference to Citizenship Act 1955, consider the following statements:

  1. The Act allows recognizing Commonwealth citizenship and permitting the Central Government to extend on a reciprocal basis such rights of an Indian citizen.
  2. Every person who is a citizen of a Commonwealth country specified in the First Schedule of the act, by virtue of that citizenship, have the status of a Commonwealth citizen in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 6

Citizenship Act 1955

  • Articles 5 to 9 of the Constitution determine who are Indian citizens at the Commencement of the Constitution are and Article 10 provides for their continuance as such citizens subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament.
  • The Constitution does not, however, make any provision with respect to the acquisition of citizenship after its commencement or the termination of citizenship or other matters relating to citizenship.
  • Under Article 11, the Constitution expressly saves the power of Parliament to make a law to provide for such matters.
  • It is obviously necessary to make such a law to supplement the provisions of the Constitution and this Bill seeks to achieve this object.
  • This Act provides for the acquisition of citizenship, after the commencement of the Constitution, by birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory. It also makes necessary provisions for the termination and deprivation of citizenship under certain circumstances.
  • The Act also seeks to formally recognize Commonwealth citizenship and permit the Central Government to extend on a reciprocal basis such rights of an Indian citizen as may be agreed upon to the citizens of other Commonwealth countries and the Republic of Ireland.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 7

Which of the following is the aim of Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 7
  • Option (a) is correct: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution aiming to create a just and egalitarian society where every individual enjoys fundamental rights and opportunities for growth.

Goals and Objectives of Preamble:

  • The Preamble also expresses certain key objectives, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. These objectives are the guiding principles for the functioning of the Indian state and society.
  • They encompass social, economic, and political aspects, aiming to create a just and egalitarian society where every individual enjoys fundamental rights and opportunities for growth.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: The State government can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employments in that State.
  • Statement-II: The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 8
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Parliament (and not the legislature of a state) can prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory, or local authority or other authority within that state or union territory.

Parliament (under Article 16)

  • In India, all citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country and no discrimination is made between them.
  • However, this general rule of absence of discrimination is subject to some exceptions, viz,
    • The Parliament (under Article 16) can prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory, or local authority or other authority within that state or union territory.
    • Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act, 1957, and thereby authorised the Government of India to prescribe residential qualification only for appointment to non-Gazetted posts in Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura.
    • The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence.
    • This means that the state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens.
    • For example, a state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. 3. The freedom of movement and residence (under Article 19) is subjected to the protection of interests of any schedule tribe. In other words, the right of outsiders to enter, reside and settle in tribal areas is restricted.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

  1. Parliament can introduce a bill to readjust the boundary of a territory in Union of States, only with prior recommendation of the President.
  2. The power conferred by Parliament to form a new State can be done only by a Constitutional amendment.
  3. Sikkim was acquired within the Union of India under Thirty-sixth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975.
  4. Five states have got status of full-fledged states earlier being a Union Territory (UT) since 1947.

How many of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 9
  • Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 3 of the Constitution provides that a State has no say over the formation of new States beyond communicating its views to Parliament.
  • Article 3 assigns to Parliament the power to enact legislation for the formation of new States.
  • Parliament may create new States in a number of ways, namely by:
    • separating territory from any State,
    • uniting two or more States,
    • uniting parts of States and
    • Uniting any territory to a part of any State.
  • Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 2A. [Sikkim to be associated with the Union.] Represented by the Constitution (Thirtysixth Amendment) Act, 1975.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Five current states viz. Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura and Mizoram were union territories before becoming fullfledged states.

Process referred for incorporation or alteration of boundaries:

  • Firstly, a bill calling for formation of new States may be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.
  • Secondly, such a bill must be referred by the President to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views to Parliament if it contains provisions which affect the areas, boundaries or name of that State.
  • As can be seen, the only role that the U.P. State Legislature [the Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council] will play in any future formation of new States is when the President calls for its views to be placed before Parliament.
  • Parliament will not be bound by these views in the process of enacting legislation for the formation of new States.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 10

Which of the following does not signify India as a ‘Union’?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 10

Constitutional Provisions

  • Article 246: Division of powers between the union and its constituents (Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains three lists such as the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List) is a federal feature.
  • Article 371: Provision with respect to the States of Maharashtra (Vidarbha and Marathwada) and Gujarat (Saurashtra and Kutch).
  • Article 263: Establishing a permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for consultation with a mandate well defined in accordance with Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
  • Article 352: Article 352 says that if the President is ‘satisfied’ that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of it is threatened due to outside aggression or armed rebellion, he may make a proclamation to that effect regarding whole of India or a part thereof.
  • Article 356 gives wide powers to the Union government to assert its authority over a state if civil unrest occurs and the state government does not have the means to end it.
  • The Constitution of India provides for a clear distribution of powers and responsibilities between the central government (referred to as the Union government) and the state governments. The key constitutional provisions related to the powers of the Union and the states are as follows:
    • Union List: The Union List contains subjects on which only the central government has the authority to make laws. This includes matters of national importance such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, currency, banking, telecommunications, and interstate trade and commerce.
    • State List: The State List contains subjects on which only the state governments have the authority to make laws. This includes subjects such as public order, police, health, agriculture, local government, public health, and state taxation.
    • Residuary Powers: Any matter that is not explicitly mentioned in any of the three lists (Union, State, and Concurrent) falls under the residuary powers of the Union government. The central government has the authority to make laws on these matters.
    • Emergency Provisions: The Constitution empowers the central government to assume certain additional powers in times of emergency. During a national emergency, the central government gains the authority to make laws on subjects that fall within the state list. The state governments are required to comply with and implement these laws.
    • Financial Relations: The Constitution outlines the financial relations between the Union and the states. It provides for the distribution of revenues and grantsin-aid from the central government to the states. It also establishes a Finance Commission to recommend the sharing of financial resources between the Union and the states.
    • Inter-State Council: The Constitution provides for the establishment of an InterState Council to promote coordination and cooperation between the Union and the states. The council discusses and resolves disputes and issues related to the common interests of the Union and the states.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 reduced the number of states to 15.
  2. In order to implement the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 the Constitution introduced the 7th Constitutional Amendment.
  3. Formation of States including Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh & Jharkhand was done under States Reorganisation Act.
  4. After State Re-organisation, the distribution of all services within States cadre is allocated to the successor States is done by the Central government.

How many of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 reduced the number of states from 27 to 14. The states were Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Jammu and Kashmir, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Madras, Mysore, Orissa, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal.
  • Statement 2 is correct: To give effect to the scheme of reorganization, the States Reorganisation Act, of 1956, was enacted by the Parliament under Article 4 of the Constitution of India.
  • 7th Constitutional Amendment: In order to implement the States Reorganisation Act, the Constitution introduced the 7th Constitutional Amendment, which received the Indian President’s assent on October 19, 1956.
  • Statement 3 is correct: State Reorganization Acts were enacted in November 2000 for the purpose of reorganization of the then existing States of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Bihar. As a result, UP was bifurcated into UP & Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh & Chhattisgarh and Bihar and Jharkhand.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: At present allocation of State Government employees between the successor States of Uttar Pradesh / Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh/ Chhattisgarh and Bihar/Jharkhand, is done by ‘Department of Personnel’.

State Reorganization Acts:

  • In August 1953, the Then PM, Pt. Nehru appointed the States
  • Reorganisation Commission (SRC), with Justice Fazl Ali, K.M. Panikkar, and Hriday Nath Kunzru as members, to examine ‘objectively and dispassionately ’ the entire question of the reorganization of the states of the Union.
  • SRC widely accepted language as the foundation for state reorganization. It did, however, reject the theory of ‘one language, one state.’
  • The SRC recommended the conversion of the four kinds of states into two categories States and Union territories and the merger of the erstwhile Part B state of Hyderabad with Andhra.
  • New States and union territories created after 1956: The demand for the creation of some more states on the basis of language or cultural homogeneity resulted in the bifurcation of existing states.
  • Maharashtra and Gujarat: In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided (Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960) into two separate states- Maharashtra for Marathispeaking people and Gujarat (15th state) for Gujarati-speaking people.
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli: The Portuguese ruled this territory until its liberation in 1954. Subsequently, the administration was carried on till 1961 by an administrator chosen by the people themselves. It was converted into a union territory of India by the 10th constitutional Amendment Act, of 1961.
  • Goa, Daman, and Diu: India acquired these three territories from the Portuguese by means of police action in 1961 and by the 12th CAA, 1962, they constituted a union territory later Goa was Statehood in 1987.
  • Puducherry: Former french establishments in India- Puducherry, Karaikal, Yanam, and Mahe. The French handed over this territory to India in 1954 and by the 14th CAA, it was made a union territory.
  • Nagaland: In 1963, the state of Nagaland out of Assam was created for the Nagas. It was meant to protect their culture and ethnicity. However, the division was also done based on geographical reasons.
  • Haryana, Chandigarh, and Himachal Pradesh: Punjab reorganization act was passed in 1966. According to this, the state of Punjabi-speaking areas was made Haryana, and the hilly regions joined with Himachal Pradesh.
    • In addition, Chandigarh was made to serve as the joint capital for Punjab and Haryana. This followed the demand of ‘Sikh Homeland’ by Akalidal and on the recommendation of the Shah commission.
    • The later union territory of Himachal Pradesh was elevated to a full-fledged State in 1971.
  • Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya: On January 21, 1972, Tripura, Meghalaya, and Manipur became states under the North Eastern region reorganization act of 1971.
  • Sikkim: Till 1947, Sikkim was ruled by Chogyal. After the lapse of British paramountcy, Sikkim became a ‘protectorate of India’. In 1974, Sikkim has conferred the status of a new class of state called ‘associate state’ by the 35th CAA.
    • However, this experiment did not last long and in 1975 a referendum was held and the people of Sikkim voted for the abolition of the institution of Chogyal and Sikkim became an integral part of India.
    • Consequently, Sikkim became a fullfledged state by the 36th CAA in 1976.
  • Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh: Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh in February 1987 also acquired the status of state.
  • Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand: The 9th of November 2000 saw the separation of Uttar Pradesh into Uttarakhand (Uttranchal), which became India’s 27th state.
    • Lack of development in a geographically distinct region 93% of the land is hilly, and 64% of the overall area is forest and rising unemployment sparked the longstanding call for a separate state.
    • After a prolonged struggle for their separate state demand, the central government made Jharkhand-28th state of India on November 15th, 2000.
    • The demand for a separate state was later advanced by other tribal organizations and movements, including the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha, led by Shibu Soren.
    • Chhattisgarh was created out of the territory of Madhya Pradesh on November 1, 2000. Despite having such vast natural resource storage, the area was heavily underdeveloped, which was the main reason behind the demand for Chhattisgarh.
    • Telangana: In 1956, Telangana and Andhra combined to become Andhra Pradesh. The Telangana Praja Samiti, led by Marri Channa Reddy, started an agitation in the area in 1969. Long periods of time passed during the conflict with no breakthrough. Telangana finally became the 29th Indian state in 2014, under the Andhra Pradesh reorganization act.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 12

The Preamble begins with the powerful words, “We, the people of India,” emphasizing -

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 12

Option (d) is correct: The Preamble begins with the powerful words, “We, the people of India,” emphasizing the democratic nature of the Indian state.
Preamble of the Indian Constitution

  • The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is an introductory statement that serves as a preface and guiding philosophy for the entire constitutional framework of India. It reflects the aspirations, ideals, and objectives of the people of India, as well as the values and principles that form the foundation of the nation.
  • The Preamble begins with the powerful words, “We, the people of India,” emphasizing the democratic nature of the Indian state. It signifies that ultimate sovereignty rests with the people and that the Constitution derives its authority from them. This phrase highlights the inclusive and participatory nature of the Indian democracy, where every citizen, regardless of caste, creed, religion, or gender, is an integral part of the nation-building process.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 13

The philosophical dimension of Part III of the Indian Constitution can be understood through which principles?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 13

hilosophical dimension of Part III of the Indian Constitution

  • Part III of the Indian Constitution, also known as the “Fundamental Rights,” holds immense philosophical signifi cance.
  • It reflects the aspirations of the framers to create a just and equitable society that upholds the dignity and rights of every individual.
  • The philosophical dimension of Part III can be understood through the lens of three key principles: equality, liberty, and social justice.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian constitution:

Statement-I: The amendability of the Indian Constitution is outlined in Article 362.
Statement-II: The provisions of the Constitution state that it can be amended by Parliament in accordance with the prescribed procedure.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 14

Amendability of the Constitution

  • The Indian Constitution, adopted on January 26, 1950, provides a framework for the governance of India.
  • It is a unique document that refl ects the aspirations and values of the Indian people. One of the signifi cant features of the Indian Constitution is its amendability, which allows for changes and adaptations to meet the evolving needs of the country.
  • The amendability of the Indian Constitution is outlined in Article 368. It states that the Constitution can be amended by Parliament in accordance with the prescribed procedure.
  • The procedure for amendment varies depending on the nature of the amendment. There are three types of amendments:
  • Simple Majority: Some provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament. These amendments do not require ratifi cation by the states.
  • Special Majority: Certain provisions can be amended by a special majority, which requires a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament and a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting. These amendments do not require ratifi cation by the states.
  • Special Majority and Ratification by States: Some provisions that affect the federal nature of the Constitution require a special majority in Parliament and ratifi cation by at least half of the state legislatures.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 15

With respect to the meaning and importance of Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements:

1. They encompass a wide range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights.
2. These rights are only enforceable by the supreme court of India.
3. They protect citizens from arbitrary arrest, detention, or discrimination, and guarantee equality before the law.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 15

Meaning and importance of Fundamental Rights

  • Fundamental rights in India are a set of basic human rights guaranteed to every citizen under Part III of the Indian Constitution. These rights are considered essential for the development and well-being of individuals and are crucial for maintaining a democratic and inclusive society.
  • Fundamental rights are individual rights that are considered fundamental to human dignity, freedom, and equality. They encompass a wide range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights. These rights are enforceable by the courts, and any law or action that violates them can be challenged and struck down.
  • Protection of individual liberty: Fundamental rights ensure the protection of individual liberties by safeguarding freedoms such as freedom of speech, expression, assembly, and association. They protect citizens from arbitrary arrest, detention, or discrimination, and guarantee equality before the law.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

1. The Right to Property was removed as a fundamental right through the 44th Amendment Act in 1978.
2. The 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 introduced signific ant changes to the executive, judiciary, and legislature, increasing the power of the central government.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 16

Constitutional Amendment

  • The Indian Constitution has been amended several times since its adoption in 1950. These amendments have introduced changes, additions, or deletions to various provisions of the Constitution.
  • Amendments affecting Fundamental Rights: These amendments deal with the fundamental rights guaranteed to Indian citizens. They can modify the scope, limitations, or interpretation of these rights. For example, the Right to Property was removed as a fundamental right through the 44th Amendment Act in 1978.
  • Amendments affecting Directive Principles of State Policy: The Directive Principles of State Policy provide guidelines for the government to frame policies and legislation. Amendments can modify or add to these principles, shaping the social and economic objectives of the state.
  • Amendments affecting the Structure of Government: These amendments pertain to changes in the structure, powers, and functioning of the various organs of the government. For instance, the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 introduced signifi cant changes to the executive, judiciary, and legislature, increasing the power of the central government.
  • Amendments related to Federalism: These amendments involve changes in the distribution of powers between the central government and the states. They may impact the legislative, administrative, or fi nancial relations between the center and the states.
  • Amendments related to Elections: These amendments cover electoral processes, such as changes in the composition or powers of the Election Commission, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and the conduct of elections.
  • Amendments affecting the Special Status of Certain States: Some amendments have specific  provisions for certain states, such as changes in their status, powers, or autonomy. For instance, the 370th Amendment Act in 2019 abrogated Article 370, which provided special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Other Amendments: There are various other types of amendments that don’t fall into the above categories. They could include changes in the language provisions, citizenship, offi cial languages, etc.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the constitution of India:

1. Promote the ideal of political democracy
2. Prevent the establishment of an authoritarian rule
3. Protect the liberties and freedoms of the people
4. Promote the tyranny of the executive

How many of the above are the objectives of Fundamental Rights?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 17

Objective of Fundamental Rights

  • The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy. They prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, and protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the State.
  • They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. In short, they aim at establishing ‘a government of laws and not of men’.
  • The Fundamental Rights are named so because they are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution, which is the fundamental law of the land.
  • They are ‘fundamental’ also in the sense that they are most essential for the allround development (material, intellectual, moral and spiritual) of the individuals.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding the Right against Exploitation:

Statement-I: It is enshrined in Articles 17 and 18 and aims to protect individuals from various forms of exploitation and ensure the preservation of human dignity.
Statement-II: This right refl ects India’s commitment to social justice and the eradication of exploitative practices.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 18

Right against Exploitation

  • The Right against Exploitation is one of the fundamental rights guaranteed under the Indian Constitution. It is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 and aims to protect individuals from various forms of exploitation and ensure the preservation of human dignity. This right refl ects India’s commitment to social justice and the eradication of exploitative practices.
  • Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic king in human beings and forced labor. It states that “Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labor are prohibited, and any contravention of this provision shall be an offense punishable in accordance with law.”
  • This provision ensures that individuals are not subjected to slavery, forced labor, or any form of human traffi cking. It recognizes the inherent dignity and worth of every person and seeks to eliminate practices that treat individuals as mere commodities.
  • Article 23 also prohibits begar, which refers to the practice of compelling someone to work without payment or under exploitative conditions. This provision aims to prevent the exploitation of vulnerable individuals who may be forced into labor against their will.
  • Article 24 of the Indian Constitution further strengthens the Right against Exploitation by prohibiting the employment of children in hazardous occupations. It states that “No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.”
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 19

Article 34 grants the Parliament the authority to impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights of public offi cials, which includes members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and civil services. In this regard, consider the following:

1. Participation in Public welfare
2. Participation in political activities
3. Expressing views on government policies
4. Involvement in trade unions or associations

How many of the above restrictions are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 19

Article 34 and its uses

  • Article 34 grants the Parliament the authority to impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights of public offi cials, which includes members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and civil services.
  • These restrictions can be related to participation in political activities, expressing views on government policies, and involvement in trade unions or associations.
  • The rationale behind Article 34 is to maintain the political neutrality and impartiality of public offi cials, ensuring that their duties and responsibilities are carried out without any bias or interference.
  • It aims to prevent public offi cials from engaging in activities that could compromise the effi ciency, integrity, or credibility of the public services they are a part of.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 20

With reference to ‘Tribal Sub-Plan’, consider the following statement:

1. It was established to promote the development of areas with a signifi cant tribal concentration.
2. It was renamed as Scheduled Tribe Component (STC) by Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 20

Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP) 

  • TSP was established in 1974-75 as a strategic initiative to promote the development of areas with a signifi cant tribal concentration.

Identification and Allocation:

  • A total of 41 Central Ministries/Departments have been designated for the earmarking of funds under the STC.
  • State Governments are also required to allocate TSP funds in proportion to the Scheduled Tribe (ST) population, as per the 2011 Census, in relation to the overall State Plan.

Monitoring Responsibilities:

  • The monitoring of the TSP plan was initially carried out by the former Planning Commission until 2017-18.
  • However, starting from the fi scal year 2018-19, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs took over the monitoring of the STC plan.

Fund Allocation and Programs:

  • The Government allocates funds for various schemes and programs across Ministries/ Departments to provide targeted fi nancial and physical benefi ts to the Scheduled Tribes.
  • In 2018, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched an online portal known as the Scheduled Tribe Component Management Information System (STCMIS). This portal facilitates the monitoring of funds allocated and released for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes in the Union Budget.

Objective of the Scheduled Tribe Component:

  • The main objective of the Scheduled Tribe Component is to channelize and monitor the allocation of resources and benefi ts from general sectors within the Central Ministries/Departments.
  • The aim is to ensure the development of Scheduled Tribes, at least in proportion to their population, by directing the fl ow of outlays and benefi ts towards their welfare.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding the Bodoland Territorial Council:

1. The Council was created under the 5th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
2. A Speaker leads the Council, while a Chief Executive Member chairs the executive committee.
3. The executive and legislative powers of the Council are derived from Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 21

Bodoland Territorial Council

  • The Councle came after the signing of the Memorandum of Settlement on 10th February, 2003, involving the Government of India, the Government of Assam, and the Bodo Liberation Tigers.
  • The Bodoland Territorial Council Legislative Assembly consists of Speaker, Deputy Speaker and other elected MCLAs of the Bodoland Territorial Council.
  • The executive and legislative powers of the Bodoland Territorial Council are derived from the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India and the 2003 and 2020 Bodoland Peace Agreements.
  • The primary objectives of the Council were to address the economic, educational, and linguistic aspirations of the Bodos, as well as to safeguard their land rights, socio-cultural heritage, and ethnic identity. Additionally, the Council aimed to expedite infrastructure development in the BTC area.
  • The Council’s primary focus is to drive accelerated progress in one of the most underdeveloped regions of Assam, with particular attention given to the advancement of the Bodo community in areas such as education, preservation of land rights, linguistic aspirations, cultural heritage, and ethnic identity.
  • Moreover, the BTC places signifi cant importance on enhancing the economic infrastructure throughout the entire area, with the goal of uplifting marginalized communities regardless of their caste, creed, or religion, who reside in this part of the country.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Development Councils’ in Assam:

1. Government of Assam has created 33 Development Councils to decentralize power and responsibility.
2. The main function of these Council bodies is to formulate various developmental schemes and to execute these in priority and need base manner.
3. The creation of each of the Development Council was made by separate Gazetted Notification.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 22

Development Council

  • To uplift and sustain the socio-economic conditions of different backward communities, the Government of Assam has established 33 Development Councils.
  • These Councils aim to decentralize power and responsibility, enabling them to address the specific  development needs of their respective communities.
  • The primary function of these Council bodies is to design and implement various developmental schemes and projects in a prioritized and need- based manner.
  • Each Development Council was created through separate Gazetted Notifi cations, with the initial establishments occurring in May and June of 2010, and in January of 2011.
  • Additionally, during the period of 2015- 2016, a few more Development Councils were created to promote the socioeconomic, educational, cultural, and ethnic advancement of specifi c communities within the state of Assam. Some of the Development councils aíe as given below:
  • Moían Development Council
  • Mottok Development Council
  • Maimal Development Council
  • Moíia Development Council
  • Goíkha Development Council
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative relations between the Centre and States:

Statement-I: Both the Parliament and the State legislatures can make laws on subjects given in the Concurrent list.
Statement-II: In case of confl ict between the law of the State and Union law on a subject in the Concurrent list, the law of the Parliament prevails.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 23

Legislative relations between Centre and states

  • Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the Constitution deal with the legislative relations between the Centre and the State.

Extent of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States

  • The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. Territory of India includes the states, UTs and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India. Whereas, the state legislature can make laws for whole or any part of state.
  • The Parliament can alone make ‘extra territorial legislation’ thus the laws of the Parliament are applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.

Subject-matter of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislation of States

  • The Constitution divides legislative authority between the Union and the States in three lists- the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List.
  • The Union list consists of 99 items. The Union Parliament has exclusive authority to frame laws on subjects enumerated in the list.
  • These include foreign affairs, defence, armed forces, communications, posts and telegraph, foreign trade etc.
  • The State list consists of 61 subjects on which ordinarily the States alone can make laws. These include public order, police, administration of justice, prison, local governments, agriculture etc.
  • The Concurrent list comprises of 52 items including criminal and civil procedure, marriage and divorce, economic and special planning trade unions, electricity, newspapers, books, education, population control and family planning etc.
  • Both the Parliament and the State legislatures can make laws on subjects given in the Concurrent list, but the Centre has a prior and supreme claim to legislate on current subjects.
  • In case of conflict between the law of the State and Union law on a subject in the Concurrent list, the law of the Parliament prevails.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 24

With respect to the Inter-State Councils, consider the following statements:

1. The council was established on recommendations of Sarkaria Commission.
2. The councils empowered to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and states, or among states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 24

Inter-state councils

  • As part of the process of reviewing the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and the States, the Government constituted a commission in 1988 under the Chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria.
  • One of the important recommendations of Sarkaria Commission was for establishing a permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for consultation with a mandate well defi ned in accordance with Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
  • The inter-state council is a recommendatory body that has been empowered to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and state(s), or among states. It also makes recommendations for better coordination of policy and action on these subjects, and deliberations on matters of general interest to the states, which may be referred to it by its chairman.
  • It also deliberates on other matters of general interest to the states as may be referred by the chairman to the council. The Council may meet at least thrice in a year. There is also a Standing Committee of the Council.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 25

In the context of the Zonal Councils, consider the following pairs:

1. Northern Zonal Council - Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir
2. Central Zonal Council - Chhattisgarh and Uttarakhand
3. The Eastern Zonal Council - Orissa and Sikkim
4. Western Zonal Council - Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 25

Zonal councils

  • The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council ‘to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these States.
  • This suggestion was made by Pandit Nehru at a time when linguistic hostilities and bitterness as a result of re-organisation of the States on linguistic pattern were threatening the very fabric of our nation.
  • As an antidote to this situation, it was suggested that a high level advisory forum should be set up to minimise the impact of these hostilities and to create healthy inter-State and Centre-State environment with a view to solving inter-State problems and fostering balanced socio economic development of the respective zones.
  • In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, fi ve Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:
    • The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh.
    • The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
    • The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal.
    • The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
    • The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 26

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. NITI Aayog has been constituted to actualise the important goal of cooperative federalism and to enable good governance in India.
2. NITI has established the Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH) programme to promotion of cooperative federalism among the states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 26

Cooperative federalism

  • NITI Aayog has been constituted to actualise the important goal of cooperative federalism and to enable good governance in India.
  • On the premise that strong states make a strong nation, NITI Aayog acts as the quintessential platform for the Government of India by bringing States together as ‘Team India’ to work towards the national development agenda. In view of this, a number of steps have been taken by NITI Aayog to foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and engagement with the States/ UTs on a continuous basis.
  • These include meetings between the Prime Minister/Cabinet Ministers and all Chief Ministers; subgroups of Chief Ministers on subjects of national importance; sharing of best practices; policy support and capacity development of State/UT functionaries; launching of the Aspirational Districts Programme for development of backward districts; theme-based extensive engagements in various sectors; framing model laws for land leasing and agriculture marketing reforms; and area-specific interventions for the North-Eastern and Himalayan States and island development.
  • NITI Aayog has been providing relevant technical advice to the Centre, States and UTs. NITI has also established models and programmes for the development of infrastructure and to reignite and establish private-public partnership, such as the Centre-state partnership model Development Support Services to States and Union Territories (DSSS); and the Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH) programme.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The term “emergency” refers to an unanticipated turn of circumstances that requires government bodies to act immediately within their jurisdiction.
Statement-II: In situations of emergency, all civil rights - except Articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India suspended inside the state or nation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 27

Emergency provisions

  • The term “emergency” refers to an unanticipated turn of circumstances that requires government bodies to act immediately within their jurisdiction.
  • In situations of emergency, all civil rights—except Articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India suspended inside the state or nation. The failure of administrative equipment causes the majority of emergencies.
  • According to Dr Bhimrao Rao Ambedkar, the Indian federal structure is distinctive in that it can become unitary when the institutional system breaks down.
  • Additionally, the main goal of emergency legislative measures was to protect the area from dictatorship combined with the domestic disorder, conflicts, and foreign invasions.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding the National Emergency in India:

1. Article 356 states that the President can proclaim an emergency when the territory of India is under invasion, foreign encroachment, or internal insurrection.
2. The nation’s first emergency was proclaimed during the 1962–1968 confrontation with China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 28

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 356 states that the President can proclaim an emergency when the territory of India is under invasion, foreign encroachment, or internal insurrection.
- This statement is correct. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of President's Rule in a state in case of failure of the constitutional machinery. The President can declare a state of emergency in a state if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement 2: The nation’s first emergency was proclaimed during the 1962–1968 confrontation with China.
- This statement is incorrect. The first national emergency in India was declared in 1962, not during the confrontation with China. It was declared due to the Indo-China War of 1962.

Therefore, the correct answer is B: 1 only.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 29

Regarding the 42nd Amendment Act in India, consider the following statements:

1. It introduced Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution enshrines the principles of socialism, secularism, and integrity under this amendment.
3. The amendment declared that Parliament had the power to amend any part of the Constitution excluding Fundamental Rights.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 29

42nd Amendment Act

  • The 42nd Amendment Act in India is a signifi cant constitutional amendment that was passed in 1976 during the period of emergency in the country.
  • It made several changes to the Indian Constitution and is considered one of the most controversial amendments in Indian history.
  • The amendment changed the Preamble of the Indian Constitution to include the terms “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” to refl ect the ideals and aspirations of the nation.
  • It introduced a new chapter (Part IVA) in the Constitution that outlines the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
  • These are moral and civic responsibilities to the nation, such as respecting the national fla g, defending the country, promoting harmony, etc.
  • The amendment accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights, stating that if there is a confl ict between the two, the Directive Principles would take precedence.
  • The amendment extended the duration of the President’s rule from one year to three years during a national emergency.
  • The amendment declared that Parliament had the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, and this power could not be challenged in court.
  • It altered the balance between the Center and the States by granting greater control to the Union government, thereby reducing the autonomy of the States.
  • The amendment abolished the privy purses and privileges granted to the former rulers of princely states by the 26th Amendment Act.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 30

Consider the following provisions of the Constitution of India:

  1. Citizenship
  2. Electoral Process in India
  3. Fundamental Duties
  4. Fundamental Rights
  5. Formation of States and Union Territories

Which of the above provisions came into existence on November 26, 1949?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 30

On November 26, 1949, the final version of the Constitution received the signature of the president of the assembly and was declared as passed. The provisions relating to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and transitional provisions were given immediate effect from November 26, 1949.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 31

Consider the following statements:
I. The Preamble provides the citizens the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
II. The citizens are entitled to unhindered liberty.
Choose the right answer:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 31

The term liberty does not mean that citizens have unrestricted freedom. Their liberties are subject to reasonable restrictions.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 32

Which of the following statements are correctly matched regarding fundamental rights given in Article 25?

  1. Freedom of conscience: Inner freedom of an individual to mould his relation with God or Creatures in whatever way he desires
  2. Right to profess: Declaration of beliefs and faith openly and freely
  3. Right to practice: Performance of religious worship, rituals, ceremonies and exhibition of beliefs and ideas
Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 32

The correct answer is option (c) All of them.
All three statements correctly describe different aspects of the fundamental rights given in Article 25 of the Indian Constitution.

  • Statement 1: Freedom of conscience refers to the inner freedom of an individual to mold their relationship with God or creatures in any way they desire. It emphasizes the personal and individual nature of religious beliefs and the freedom to hold and change those beliefs.
  • Statement 2: The right to profess refers to the freedom to openly and freely declare one's beliefs and faith. It entails the right to express one's religious beliefs and communicate them to others without fear of persecution or discrimination.
  • Statement 3: The right to practice encompasses the freedom to engage in religious worship, rituals, ceremonies, and the exhibition of beliefs and ideas. It includes the right to perform religious rituals, observe religious customs and practices, and express one's religious beliefs through actions and conduct.

Therefore, all three statements accurately describe different aspects of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 25 of the Indian Constitution.
 

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 33

Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 33

The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. These principles reflect a mix of humanitarian socialist precepts, Gandhian ideals, and democratic socialism.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 34

The committees which examined the Centre-State Relations are: 

  1. Sarkaria Commission 
  2. L M Singhvi Committee
  3. Rajamannar Committee 
  4. M M Punchhi Commission

Q. Select the correct codes: 

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 34

In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on 'Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development'' under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 35

When the President's Rule is imposed in a state:
1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state
2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament
3. He can take all other necessary steps excluding the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 35

Correct option is A. 1 and 2 Only
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President's Rule is imposed in a state:

  1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state.
  2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
     
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 36

Consider the following statements about the administrative setup of the Government of India.
1. The President's Ministries/Departments are created by the President on the prime minister's advice.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President on the prime minister's advice.
3. The rules for the government of India's allocation of business are made by the President.
Select the correct answer using the codes below

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 36

The Correct Answer is D : 1,2 and 3

All the given statements about the administrative setup of the Government of India are correct. Here is a detailed explanation:
1. The President's Ministries/Departments are created by the President on the Prime Minister's advice:

  • This statement is correct. The President of India, on the advice of the Prime Minister, can create new ministries or departments.
  • The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. This is as per Article 77 of the Constitution of India.

2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President on the Prime Minister's advice:

  • This statement is also correct. The President, on the advice of the Prime Minister, assigns each ministry to a particular minister.
  • This is as per Article 78 of the Constitution, which stipulates that it is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.

The rules for the Government of India's allocation of business are made by the President:

  • This statement is correct. The President makes the rules for the allocation of business of the Government of India. This is as per the Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
  • These rules are made by the President under Article 77(3) of the Constitution. They provide the framework for the governance of India and specify the businesses to be allocated to the various Ministries and Departments of the Government of India.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 37

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Council of Ministers?

  1. It consists of three categories of ministers.
  2. At times, the council of ministers may also include a deputy prime minister.

Select the correct answer code from the following options.
 

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 37

Central Council of Ministers consists of three categories of ministers, namely, cabinet ministers, ministers of state and deputy ministers. At times, the council of ministers may also include a deputy prime minister. The deputy prime ministers are appointed mostly for political reasons.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 38

Consider the following statements about the Chief Minister.

  1. He plays a very significant and highly crucial role in the state administration
  2. The Constitution provides that the Chief Minister shall communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration and the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation.

Which of these statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 38

The chief minister  plays a very significant and highly crucial role in the state administration and it is the function of the Chief Minister shall communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration and the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 39

To create the Legislative Council in states, which kind of majorities have been prescribed by the Constitution in the State Assembly and the Parliament?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 39

The correct option is C Simple majority in the parliament and special majority in the state assembly

Explanation:

Article 169 of The Constitution Of India deals with the Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States.

It says that- Notwithstanding anything in Article 168, Parliament may by law (simple majority) provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting. It also specifies that - No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Hence the correct answer is option (c).

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 40

What were the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta committee on Panchayati Raj?

  1. The Gram Panchayat should be the executive body and Zila Parishad should be the supervisory body
  2. Jila Parishad should be constituted with indirectly elected members

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 40

The Balwant Rai Mehta committee was appointed in 1957 to study the existing Panchayati Raj system in India and make recommendations for its improvement. The committee made several recommendations, including the following:

  1. The Gram Panchayat should be the executive body at the village level and the Zila Parishad (District Council) should be the supervisory body at the district level. This statement is incorrect. Panchayat Samiti is the executive body.
  2. Jila Parishad (District Council) should be constituted with indirectly elected members. This statement is correct. 

Therefore, the correct answer is 2. Only

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 41

Consider the following statements.

  1. In order to safeguard the interests of the STs more effectively, it was proposed to set up a separate National Commission for STs by bifurcating the existing combined National Commission for SCs and STs
  2. This was done by passing the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 41

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 was passed to provide for better safeguards for the Scheduled Tribes. One of the provisions of the amendment was to bifurcate the existing National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate commissions, namely, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. This was done in order to ensure that the interests of the Scheduled Tribes are safeguarded more effectively.

The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) is a statutory body established under Article 338A of the Constitution of India. The NCST was set up on 19 February 2004 with the objective of protecting, promoting and safeguarding the interests of the Scheduled Tribes. The NCST has the following functions:

  • To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution or under any other law for the time being in force or under any other order of the Government;
  • To evaluate the working of such safeguards;
  • To make recommendations to the Central Government and the State Governments on the measures required to be taken for the protection, development and welfare of the Scheduled Tribes;
  • To advise the Central Government and the State Governments on any matter relating to the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes;
  • To take up such other work as may be entrusted to it by the Central Government or the State Governments.

The NCST is headed by a Chairperson who is appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. The Chairperson is assisted by a Vice-Chairperson and a few members. The NCST has its headquarters in New Delhi and has regional offices in different parts of the country.

 

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 42

Consider the following statements: 

  1. The anti-defection law is intended to strengthen the fabric of Indian Parliamentary democracy.
  2. The anti-defection law was enacted during the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 42

It is intended to strengthen the fabric of Indian parliamentary democracy by curbing unprincipled and unethical political defections. Rajiv Gandhi, the then Prime Minister, described it as the ‘first step towards cleaning-up public life’.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with respect to Freedom of Religion enshrined in the Constitution:
1. It includes the freedom to not follow any religion.
2. It bars all religious conversions.
3. It is not applicable to foreign nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 43
  • Freedom of Religion is a Fundamental Right provided under Articles 25-28 of the Constitution. Freedom of religion also includes the freedom of conscience. This means that a person may choose any religion or may choose not to follow any religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Freedom of Religion includes the right to not just practice one’s religion but also to propagate it. This includes persuading people to join one’s religion and willful conversion from one religion to another. The Constitution bars forceful conversions and conversions done by inducements. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Freedom of Religion is available to not just Indian citizens but also to foreign nationals residing within Indian territory. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 44

Which of the following are the similarities between Indian Parliamentary System and British Parliamentary System?

  1. Supremacy of Parliament
  2. Elected head of state
  3. Majority party rule

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 44

The features of parliamentary government in India are:

  1. Presence of nominal and real executives;
  2. Majority party rule,
  3. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
  4. Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
  5. Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
  6. Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

There are some differences between the British Parliamentary system and that of India. For example, the Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. Also, the Indian State has an elected head (republic) while the British State has hereditary head (monarchy).
 

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 45

Consider the following functionaries of NITI Aayog:
1. Chairperson
2. Vice-chairperson
3. Special Invitees
4. Chief Executive Officer
Which of the above are appointed by the Prime Minister?
 

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 45

The Composition of the NITI Aayog is as follows:

  • Chairperson: The Prime Minister of India
  • Governing Council: It comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief Ministers of Union erritories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi andPuducherry) and Lt. Governors of other Union Territories.
  • Regional Councils: These are formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region. These are formedfor a specified tenure. These are convened by the Prime Minister and comprises of the Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of UnionTerritories in the region. These are chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee.
  • Special Invitees: Experts, specialists and practitioners with relevant domain knowledge as special invitees nominated by the Prime Minister.
  • Full-time Organisational Framework: It comprises, in addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson:
  • Vice-Chairperson: He is appointed by the Prime Minister. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet
  • Minister.
  • Members: Full-time. They enjoy the rank of a Minister of State.
  • Part-time Members: Maximum of 2, from leading universities, research organisations and other relevant institutions in an ex-officio capacity. Part-time members would be on a rotation.
  • Ex-Officio Members: Maximum of 4 members of the Union Council of Ministers to be
  • nominated by the Prime Minister.
  • Chief Executive Officer: He is appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.
  • Secretariat: As deemed necessary.
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 46

Indian form of government is described as a federation with centralizing tendency. Which
among the following provisions of the constitution supports this tendency?
1. A single and flexible constitution
2. Provision of All India Services
3. Appointment of State Governor by the Center.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 46
  • Statement 1 correct: Unlike the USA, where it has two sets of constitutions for center and states, India has a single constitution for both states and center. The Indian constitution is also flexible unlike the case of a true federation where it will be rigid. This is a centralizing tendency as states boundaries can be altered by the center.
  • Statement 2 correct: The candidates selected for All India services were recruited and trained by the center but are to be served in the states, which do not have the capacity to 'remove' them.
  • Statement 3 correct: The governor having many discretionary powers at the state is appointed by the center. This is one of the major centralizing tendencies.
     
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 47

With reference to Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, Consider the following statements:
1. SECC-2011 was conducted under the 1948 Census of India Act.
2. The Ministry of Rural Development conducted a caste census in 2010-11 along with the socioeconomic census.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 47
  • Statement 1 is not correct: SECC-2011 was not done under the 1948 Census of India Act and the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India was not entrusted to do the same.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Ministry of Rural Development conducted a caste census in 2010-11 along with the socio- economic census
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 48

Consider the following statements with reference to The Sexual Harassment at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013.

  1. It mandated that every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch with 10 or more employees.
  2. It is applicable to all sectors including organised and unorganised sectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 48

In News: A recent investigation revealed that more than half of India’s 30 national sports federations do not have an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) which is a legal requirement under the Prevention of
Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act, 2013.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Government of India has enacted ‘the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013’ (POSH Act) with the aim to provide a safe and secure work environment to women.

  • It broadened and gave legislative backing to what is known as the Vishaka Guidelines, which were laid down by the Supreme Court in a judgment passed in 1997.
    • It mandated that every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch with 10 or more employees.
    • It lay down procedures and defined various aspects of sexual harassment, including the aggrieved victim, who could be a woman “of any age whether employed or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”.
    • The aggrieved victim under the Act can be a woman “of any age whether employed [at the
    • workplace] or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”.
    • In effect, the Act protects the rights of all women who are working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity.
    • Further, the Prevention of Workplace Sexual Harassment Act applies to both the organized and unorganized sectors in India.
       
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 49

Consider the following statements regarding the practice of Polygamy in India.
1. The Hindu personal law outlaws bigamy and polygamy in India whereas the Muslim personal law does not.
2. India is the only country to have Polygamy permissible and legal exclusively for Muslims.
3. A Muslim woman is not allowed to marry more than one individual.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 49

Polygamy

  • About:
    • Polygamy is defined as “the act or custom of maintaining more than one spouse at the same time”.
  • Polygamy under Hindu Law:
    • The Hindu Marriage Act, which came into effect on May 18, 1955, made it clear that Hindu polygamy would be abolished and criminalised.
  • Monogamy was the sole option available to Hindus.
  • Polygamy under the Muslim personal law:
    • Crucially, while the Hindu personal law outlaws bigamy and polygamy, the Muslim personal law does not. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • The clauses under the ‘Muslim Personal Law Application Act (Shariat) of 1937, as construed by the All India Muslim Personal Law Board, apply to Muslims in India.
    • A Muslim man can marry and maintain four women or spouses at the same time, according to Muslim personal law.
    • Under Muslim personal law, such a relationship is recognised and legal.
    • While a Muslim man can have four wives at the same time, however, the same is not applicable to a Muslim woman.
    • A Muslim woman is not allowed to marry more than one individual. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

  • Global practice:
    • Polygamy is permissible and legal exclusively for Muslims in nations such as India, Singapore, as well as Malaysia. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
    • Polygamy is still recognised and practiced in nations such as Algeria, Egypt, and Cameroon.
       
Test: Polity- 1 - Question 50

Nabam Rebia case, which was recently in the news, is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 1 - Question 50

The Nabam Rebia case
In Nabam Rebia & Bamang Felix v. Deputy Speaker, Arunachal Legislative Assembly (2016), the Supreme Court had ruled that it would be o “constitutionally impermissible for a Speaker of the House to adjudicate upon disqualification petitions under the anti-defection law as per Tenth Schedule while a motion of resolution for his/her own removal from Office of Speaker is pending”.

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