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Test: Polity- 3 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Test: Polity- 3

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Test: Polity- 3 - Question 1

Consider the following statements :

  1. Pressure groups aim to promote and advance specific causes or issues.
  2. Pressure groups work to influence government policies and decisions.
  3. Pressure groups always operate within the legal framework.
  4. Pressure groups participate in elections to represent the public will.

How many of the above statements is/are correct regarding Pressure groups?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 1
  • Pressure groups, also known as interest groups or advocacy groups, are organized associations of individuals or organizations that aim to influence government policies, decisions, and actions on specific issues.
  • They do not seek to directly participate in the government through elections but instead exert influence through various means, such as lobbying, public demonstrations, and media campaign.!. Pressure groups do not always operate within the legal framework.

Challenges Faced by Pressure Groups:

  • Limited Resources: Pressure groups, especially smaller ones, may face financial and organizational constraints, making it difficult to compete with well-funded and established entities.
  • Unequal Influence: Larger and more influential pressure groups might dominate the policy-making process, overshadowing the interests of smaller groups or marginalized sections of society.
  • Elitism and Inequality: Pressure groups representing wealthy or privdeged interests may exert more influence, potentially leading to policies that favor the affluent over the general public.
  • Access to Decision-Makers: Gaining access to policymakers can he challenging. particularly for less influential pressure groups, limiting their ability to present their concerns effectivel
  • Co-optation: Pressure groups may face the risk of being co-opted or absorbed by the government, leading to compromises in their original objectives.
  • Public Perception: Some pressure groups may be perceived negatively if their methods are seen as disruptive or if their interests clash with popular opinion
  • Policy Fragmentation: The presence of numerous pressure groups with differing agendas can lead to policy fragmentation and gridlock in decision-making.
  • Ethical Concerns: In some cases, pressure groups may resort to unethical practices or engage in corrupt activities to achieve their goals.
  • Despite these challenges, pressure groups play a crucial role in democratic societies by providing citizens with opportunities to participate in the political process and ensuring that a wide range of voices and interests are heard in policymaking.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 2

Consider the following:

  1. Common Interest
  2. Voluntary Membership
  3. Expertise and Research
  4. Pluralism

How many of the above is/are the  characteristics of ‘Pressure groups?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 2

Characteristics of Pressure Groups

  • Common Interest: Pressure groups are formed around common interests, goals, or causes, represent i ng a specific section of society, industry, or issue.
  • Voluntary Membership: Membership in pressure groups is voluntary, and individuals or organizations join based on their alignment with the group's objectives.
  • Narrow Focus: Pressure groups typically concentrate on specific policy areas or issues rather than pursuing a broad political agenda.
  • Influence Strategies: They use various strategies to influence policy makers, such as lobbying government officials, organizing protests, mobilizing public opinion, and engaging in legal action.
  • Expertise and Research: Pressure groups often possess specialized knowledge and research on their focus areas, making them valuable sources of information for policymakers.
  • Pluralism: Pressure groups are a manifestation of the pluralistic nature of democratic societies, representing diverse interests and ensuring a balance of power.
  • Non-Partisan: Although pressure groups have specific objectives, they are not affiliated with pohtical parties and work independently of them.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 3

How is the development Industry different from Pressure groups?

  1. Pressure groups do not directly participate in the policy-making process through governmental roles while the development industry is often directly involved.
  2. Pressure groups are typically nongovernmental and non-profit entities while the development industry may be public, private or non-governmental in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 3

Pressure groups do not directly participate in the policy-making process through governmental roles while the development industry is often directly involved in the formulation and implementation of government policies and projects related to economic development.

Pressure groups consist of individuals or organizations that voluntarily join together based on shared interests or causes. They are typically non-governmental and non-profit entities.

Development Industry vs. Pressure Groups
The development industry and pressure groups are two distinct entities that operate in different spheres and have different purposes and approaches.

1. Purpose and Goals:

  • Development Industry: The development industry refers to organizations, institutions, and government agencies that are involved in various development projects and initiatives. Their primary goal is to foster economic growth, improve infrastructure, reduce poverty, and enhance overall societal progress.
  • Pressure Groups: Pressure groups, on the other hand, are organized associations of individuals or organizations that aim to influence government policies, decisions, and actions on specific issues. Their focus is on advocating for the interests and concerns of a particular section of society or addressing specific policy areas.

2. Role in Policy Making:

  • Development Industry: The development industry is often directly involved in the formulation and implementation of government policies and projects related to economic development, infrastructure, education, healthcare, and other developmental aspects.
  • Pressure Groups: Pressure groups do not directly participate in the policy-making process through governmentalroles. Instead, they exert influence through various means like lobbying, public demonstrations, media campaigns, and legal action.

3. Membership and Organization:

  • Development Industry: The development industry encompasses a wide range of organizations, both pubhc and private. such as government agencies, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), international development organizations, and private corporations involved in development projects.
  • Pressure Groups: Pressure groups consist of individuals or organizations that voluntardy join together based on shared interests or causes. They are typically nongovernmental and non-profit entities. 4. Scope of Influence:
  • Development Industry: The development industry’s influence is typically broad and encompasses a wide range of sectors and issues related to economic and social development,
  • Pressure Groups: Pressure groups focus on specific pohey areas or issues, and their influence is more targeted towards those particular concerns.

5. Representation:

  • Development Industry: The development industry may work in collaboration with governments and international bodies to implement projects and policies that ahgn with national or global development goals.
  • Pressure Groups: Pressure groups represent the interests of specific sections of society, industries, or policy areas. Their advocacy is geared towards achieving outcomes that benefit their constituents.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Mission Amrit Sarovar’:

  1. The Mission is aimed at developing and rejuvenating 75 water bodies in each district of the country during this Amrit Varsh, 75th Years of Independence.
  2. People’s participation has been seen in this mission as a key milestone.
  3. This will result in the creation of a total carbon sequestration potential of about 1 lakh tonnes of carbon per year.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 5

Consider the following schemes:

  1. PM SVanidhi
  2. PM KISAN Scheme
  3. SVAMITVA Scheme
  4. National Social Assistance Progamme

Which of the above schemes is/are Central Sector Scheme(s)?

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 6

With reference to the Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a comprehensive initiative aimed at empowering senior citizens in India.
  2. Under the scheme, financial assistance is provided for maintenance of Senior Citizen Homes/ Continuous Care Homes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 6

Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY)

  • The AVYAY, introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment,
  • is a comprehensive initiative aimed at empowering senior citizens in India.
  • This scheme recognizes the invaluable contribution made by the elderly to society and seeks to ensure their well-being and social inclusion.
  • By recognizing the invaluable contributions of the elderly to society, the government aims to empower and uplift them, ensuring their active participation and inclusion in all aspects of life.
  • The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, being the Nodal Department for welfare of senior citizens, is implementing various programs and schemes. National Action Plan for Senior Citizens (NAPSrc) had been revamped, renamed as Atal VayoAbhyuday Yojana (AVYAY) and subsumed in April 2021.
  • Under the umbrella Scheme, Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY), an Integrated Programme for Senior Citizens (IPSrC) provides financial assistance to eligible organization’s for running and maintenance of Senior Citizen Homes/ Continuous Care Homes to improve the quality of life of the senior citizens, especially indigent senior citizens by providing basic amenities, entertainment opportunities and by encouraging productive and active ageing.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 7

Which of the pair is correctly matched _________.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 7
  • Secularism means a state free of any religion or there is no state religion. India practices the feature of secularism as mentioned in our preamble. 
  • Constitutional provision to freely practice and profess our religion is given under article 25, right to freedom of religion. 
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 8

Consider the following statements.
1. A remedy under Article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction
2. A remedy under Article 226 is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 8

The writ jurisdiction of the high court (under Article 226) is not exclusive but concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under Article 32). It means, when the fundamental rights of a citizen are violated, the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the high court or the Supreme Court directly. However, the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged. 

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 9

During a national emergency,
1. State governments are suspended, and the Centre takes control of the states.
2. Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the State List.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 9
  • The Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on 'any' matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the centre's complete control, though they are not suspended.
  • Although the legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the Parliament. Thus, the normal distribution of the legislative powers between the Centre and states is suspended, though the state legislatures are not suspended. In brief, the Constitution becomes unitary rather than federal.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 10

Consider the following statements. 
1. The Oath of office to the vice president is administered by the president 
2. The Oath of office to the vice president can be administered by chief justice appointed in that behalf by president 
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 10

Both of them are correct. Before entering upon his office, the Vice-President has to make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation. In his oath, the Vice President swears 1. to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India, and 2. to faithfully discharge the duties of his office. The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the President or some person appointed on that behalf by him.

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 11

Consider the following statements: 
1. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister 
2. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength in the Lok Sabha
Which of these statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 11

The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 12

The principle of collective responsibility is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The principle implies that the
1. Lok Sabha can remove the council of ministers from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
2. The Council of Ministers as a whole is bound by consensus.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 12
  • The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament and the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75).
  • They act as a team and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e." council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
  • Members of the council of ministers are bound by consensus. The government cannot have two opinions on the same issue.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 13

If the removal motion is admitted then the Speaker/Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the allegations charged against the judge. The three-member committee comprises of
1. The Chief Justice of session court
2. Senior most judge of Supreme Court
3. Chief justice of the High Court 
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 13

The three-member committee comprises (1). The Chief Justice or senior-most judge of the Supreme Court (2). Chief justice of the High Court and (3). A prominent jurist

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 14

Consider the following pairs:
Commission/Body Falls under
1. National Commission for Minorities : Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
2. National Commission for Women : Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. National Commission for STs : Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 14
  • National Commission for Minorities falls under the Minorities Ministry of Minority Affairs.
  • National Commission for Women falls under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
  • National Commission for STs falls under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
  • Hence, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor. 
1. During his term of office, the governor is immune to any criminal proceedings even in respect of his personal acts.
2. Criminal proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts. 
3. After giving two months' notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of both his personal acts 
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 15

Like the President, the governor is also entitled to several privileges and immunities personal immunity from legal liability for his acts. During his term of office, he is immune to any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months' notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 16

Consider the following statements.
1. The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise
2. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 40
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 16

The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60.

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 17

Consider the following statements about the Legislative Council.
1. The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote
2. The bonafides or propriety of the governor's nomination in any case cannot be challenged in the courts
3. This scheme of composition of a legislative council as laid down in the Constitution is tentative and not final
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 17

The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The bonafides or propriety of the governor's nomination in any case cannot be challenged in the courts. This scheme of composition of a legislative council as laid down in the Constitution is tentative and not final. The Parliament is authorised to modify or replace the same. However, it has not enacted any such law so far.

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 18

Which among the following is NOT a requirement to be a judge of the High Court?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 18

He should be over 40 years of age There is no specification of a minimum age limit for the judge of a high court. A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years; or 
(b) He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for ten years. 
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 19

Article 371-F contains 
1. The Sikkim Legislative Assembly is to consist of not less than 50 members 
2. One seat is allotted to Sikkim in the Lok Sabha, and Sikkim forms one Parliamentary constituency
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 19

1. The Sikkim Legislative Assembly is to consist of not less than 30 members. 
2. One seat is allotted to Sikkim in the Lok Sabha and Sikkim forms one Parliamentary constituency.

Test: Polity- 3 - Question 20

The directive principles of State policy laiddown in Part IV of the Constitution cannot inany way override or abridge the fundamentalrights guaranteed by Part III. On the otherhand, they have to conform to and run assubsidiaries to the fundamental rights laiddown in Part III. But, the FundamentalRights could be amended by the Parliamentby enacting constitutional amendment acts.
Q. In which of the following cases did theSupreme Court hold this opinion?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 20
  • In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court ruled that the directive principles of State policy laid down in Part IV of the Constitution cannot in any way override or abridge the fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III. On the other hand, they have to conform to and run as subsidiaries to the fundamental rights laid down in Part III. But, it also held that Fundamental Rights could be amended by the Parliament by enacting constitutional amendment acts.
  • As a result, the Parliament made the First Amendment Act (1951), the Fourth Amendment Act (1955), and the Seventeenth Amendment Act (1964) to implement some of the Directives.
  • The above situation underwent a major change in 1967 following the Supreme Court’s judgement in the Golaknath case (1967). In that case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature. In other words, the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles.
  • In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court declared the above second provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away.
  • In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court also held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. They together constitute the core of the commitment to social revolution. They are like two wheels of a chariot, one no less than the other. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution. This harmony and balance between the two is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.
  • Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 21

Consider the following about the Charter Act of 1813.
1. The company’s monopoly over trade with India completely ended.
2. The constitutional position of the British territories in India was defined explicitly for the first time.
3. Christian missionaries were also permitted to come to India and preach their religion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 21
  • The charter Act of 1813 doesn’t completely end the monopoly of the east India company in India, however, the company’s monopoly in trade with china and trade in Indian tea remained with that company for 20 more years. Whereas in the 1833 charter Act, the company’s commercial activity was completely banned and it became a purely administrative body. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • In charter Act 1813, for the first time, the Constitutional position of the British territories in India was defined explicitly which means the EIC was given the power to retain the possession of territories and the revenue for 20 more years (until 1833-so comes charter Act of 1833), which also asserted crowns sovereignty over British processions in India. So, Statement 2 is correct. 1813
  • Charter act Legally permitted Christian missionaries to come to India and preach Christianity while engaged in religious conversion. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 22

Liberty means the absence of constraints on individuals. Consider the following statements about Liberty.
1. Positive Liberty means no external authority can interfere in the exercise of free will.
2. Negative Liberty means freedom as an expansion of opportunities to express one’s self.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 22
  • The basic meaning for negative is restraint one’s action, whereas positive means indulging in an activity. It also extends for positive and negative liberty. So, Statement 1 and 2 could be eliminated.
  • Positive liberty recognizes that one can be free only in society and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual. It must provide opportunities by enabling positive conditions in material, political and social domains for the development of an individual. It means freedom as the expansion of opportunities to express one’s self. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • Negative liberty seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual would be inviolable, in which he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’. This is an area in which no external authority can interfere in the exercise of free will. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC):
1. The commission has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim.
2. The commission submits its annual or special reports to the governor of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 23
  • The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of not only the National Human Rights Commission but also a State Human Rights Commission at the state level. A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
  • The Commission may take any of the following steps during or upon the completion of an inquiry:
    • it may recommend to the state government or authority to make payment of compensation or damages to the victim;
    • it may recommend to the state government or authority the initiation of proceedings for prosecution or any other action against the guilty public servant;
    • it may recommend to the state government or authority for the grant of immediate interim relief to the victim;
    • it may approach the Supreme Court or the state high court for the necessary directions, orders or writs 
  • From the above, It’s clear that the functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature. It has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. Notably, its recommendations are not binding on the state government or authority. But, it should be informed about the action taken on its recommendations within one month. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Commission submits its annual or special reports to the state government. These reports are laid before the state legislature, along with a memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of the Commission and the reasons for non-acceptance of any of such recommendations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 24

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Indian Constitution:
1. Securing opportunities for the healthy development of children
2. Organising agriculture on modern and scientific lines 
3. Prohibition of slaughter of cows
4. Promotion of Cooperative societies 
Q. Which of the directive principles given above are based on Liberal-Intellectual Principles?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 24
  • Liberal-Intellectual Principles The principles included in this category represent the ideology of liberalism.
  • They direct the state:
    • To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country (Article 44).
    • To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45).
    • To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48).
    • To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
    • To protect monuments, places, and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49).
    • To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article 50).
    • To promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration (Article 51).
  •  Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and the Promotion of Cooperative societies are based on Gandhian ideology.
  • Securing opportunities for the healthy development of children is based on an ideology of socialism.
  • Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 25

Which of the following Supreme Court verdicts is either directly or indirectly related to the Right to Life and Liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
1. AK Gopalan Case
2. Maneka Gandhi’s case
3. Puttaswamy Case
4. Vishaka Guidelines
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 25
  • The Vishaka guidelines mentions about the security needed for women in workplace which inhibits, right to decency and dignity under Article 21. So, Option (d) could be arrived.
  • In the famous Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of Article 21. It held that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. This means that the State can deprive the right to life and personal liberty of a person based on a law.
  • This is because of the expression ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21, which is different from the expression ‘due process of law’ contained in the American Constitution. In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of Article 21.
  • Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair, and just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.
  • In the seminal Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India case, the Supreme Court of India ordered, that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal freedom guaranteed by the Indian Constitution under Article 21. Vishaka Guidelines were laid down by the Supreme Court in Vishaka and Others Vs. State of Rajasthan and Others case (1997) deals against sexual harassment in the workplace.
  • These Guidelines States that 'All employers or persons in charge of work place whether in the public or private sector should take appropriate steps to prevent sexual harassment.' Article 21 of the Indian constitution, gives force to the guidelines by giving the right to women to be treated with decency and dignity. So, Option (d) is correct.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 26

Which of the following rights are a part of the Right to Protection of Life and Personal Liberty?
1. Right not to be driven out of a state
2. Right to travel abroad
3. Freedom of silence
4. Right to the road in hilly areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 26
  • Article 21 declares that nperson shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according tthe procedure established by law. This right is available tboth citizens and non-citizens.
  • The Supreme Court has reaffirmed its judgement in the Menaka case in the subsequent cases.
  • It has declared the following rights as part of Article 21:
    • Right tlive with human dignity.
    • Right ta decent environment including pollution-free water and air and protection against hazardous
    • industries.
    • Right tlivelihood.
    • Right tprivacy.
    • Right tshelter.
    • Right thealth.
    • Right tfree education up t14 years of age.
    • Right tfree legal aid.
    • Right against solitary confinement.
    • Right ta speedy trial.
    • Right against handcuffing.
    • Right against inhuman treatment.
    • Right against delayed execution.
    • Right ttravel abroad. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    • Right against bonded labour.
    • Right against custodial harassment.
    • Right temergency medical aid.
    • Right ttimely medical treatment in government hospitals.
    • Right not tbe driven out of a state. Hence, option 1 is correct.
    • Right ta fair trial.
    • Right of the prisoner thave necessities of life.
    • Right of women tbe treated with decency and dignity.
    • Right against public hanging.
    • Right tthe road in hilly areas. Hence, option 4 is correct.
    • Right tinformation.
    • Right treputation.
    • Right of appeal from a judgement of conviction
    • Right tfamily pension
    • Right tsocial and economic justice and empowerment
    • Right against bar fetters
    • Right tappropriate life insurance policy
    • Right tsleep
    • Right tfreedom from noise pollution
    • Right tsustainable development
    • Right topportunity.
  • Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19(1)(a))
    • o It implies that every citizen has the right to express his views, opinions, belief and convictions freely by word of mouth, writing, printing, picturing or in any other manner. The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes the following:
  • Right to propagate one’s views as well as the views of others. (b) Freedom of the press.
  • Freedom of commercial advertisements.
  • Right to telecast, the government has no monopoly on electronic media.
  • Right against bundh called by a political party or organisation. (g) Right to know about government activities.
  • Freedom of silence. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
  • Right against the imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper. (j) Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike.
    • The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the freedom of speech and expression on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 27

With reference to the proclamation of national emergency under Article 352 imposed till now, consider the following statements:
1. So far, a national emergency has been proclaimed two times.
2. The first proclamation of national emergency was issued in October 1962 on account of Chinese aggression in the NEFA (North-East Frontier Agency)
3. The second proclamation of national emergency was made in 1975.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 27
  • National Emergency has been proclaimed three times so far– in 1962, 1971, and 1975. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The First proclamation of National Emergency was issued in October 1962 on account of Chinese aggression in the NEFA (North-East Frontier Agency–now Arunachal Pradesh) and was in force till January 1968. Hence, a fresh proclamation was not needed at the time of the war against Pakistan in 1965. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The Second proclamation of national emergency was made in December 1971 in the wake of an attack by Pakistan. Even when this Emergency was in operation. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • A Third proclamation of National Emergency was made in June 1975. Both the second and third proclamations were revoked in March 1977.
  • The first two proclamations (1962 and 1971) were made on the ground of ‘external aggression’, while the third proclamation (1975) was made on the ground of ‘internal disturbance’, that is, certain persons have been inciting the police and the armed forces against the discharge of their duties and their normal functioning.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 28

Consider the following statements with respect to terms contained in the Preamble:
1. The term republic has been taken from German Constitution.
2. The ideals of justice in the preamble have been adopted from Soviet Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 28

Preamble

  • “We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.

Sources of the Constitution:

  • Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic, and political) in the Preamble have been taken from Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble have been taken from French Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 29

Consider the following statements: 
1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 29

Option (d) is correct:
The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of Lok Sabha is as follows:

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
  2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
  3. A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
  4. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
  5. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
  6. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.
Test: Polity- 3 - Question 30

Which of the following come(s) under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. Writ jurisdiction 
2. Dispute between centre and a state
3. Dispute related to election of the President
4. A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: Polity- 3 - Question 30

Option (b) is correct:
As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute:

(a) Between the Centre and one or more states; or
(b) Between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other side; or
(c) Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal. However, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not exclusive. The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to a dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument. It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice- president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

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