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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 1

Consider the following pairs: 

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 1
  • In 1866, Dadabhai Naoroji organized the East India Association in London to discuss the Indian question and to influence the British public officials to promote Indian welfare. Later, he organized the branches of the Association in prominent Indian cities.
  • The most important of the preCongress nationalist organizations was the Indian Association of Calcutta. The younger nationalists of Bengal had been gradually getting discontented with the conservative and pro-landlord policies of the British India Association. They wanted sustained political agitation on the issues of wider public interest. They found a leader in Surendra Nath Banerjea, who was a brilliant writer and orator. Led by Surendra Nath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose, the younger nationalists of Bengal founded the Indian Association in 1876. The Indian Association set before itself the aims of creating strong public opinion in the country on political questions and the unification of the Indian people under a common political programme.
  • The younger elements were also active in other parts of India. Justice Ranade and others organized the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha in 1870. M. Viraraghavachari, G. Subramaniya Iyer, Ananda Charlu and others formed the Madras Mahajan Sabha in 1884. Pherozeshah Mehta, K.T. Telang, Badruddin Tyabji and others formed the Bombay Presidency Association in 1885.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 2

With reference to the functions of constitution, consider the following:

1. Constitutional Governance

2. Legal Interpretation

3. Amendment and Flexibility

4. Protection of Minority Rights

How many of the above-mentioned are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 2

Functions of Constitution:

  • The constitution is a vital document that provides the foundation for governance, protects individual rights, ensures the rule of law, and establishes the framework for a functioning and stable society. Its meaning, importance, and functions are essential for upholding democratic values, promoting justice, and safeguarding the rights of citizens within a nation.
  • Constitutional Governance: The constitution establishes the framework for governance, defin ing the powers and functions of the government and its institutions. It outlines the procedures for lawmaking, decision-making, and implementation of policies.
  • Legal Interpretation: The constitution serves as a legal reference point for the interpretation of laws and judicial decisions. Courts often rely on constitutional provisions to determine the legality and constitutionality of laws, ensuring their alignment with constitutional principles.
  • Amendment and Flexibility: A constitution allows for amendments to adapt to changing circumstances and societal needs. This function ensures that the constitution remains relevant and responsive to the evolving dynamics of the nation.
  • Protection of Minority Rights: The constitution acts as a shield for minority rights, preventing majoritarian rule and discrimination. It establishes a framework for inclusivity, equality, and protection of diverse communities and their interests.
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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 3

Part IV of the Indian Constitution contains the directive principles of state policy (DPSP). In this context, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: DPSP promote social welfare, and improve the standard of living for the citizens.
Statement-II: Unlike fundamental rights, the directive principles are not enforceable in the courts.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 3

Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy 

  • Part IV of the Indian Constitution contains the directive principles of state policy. These principles are guidelines for the government to formulate policies and laws in order to establish a just society, promote social welfare, and improve the standard of living for the citizens.
  • Unlike fundamental rights, the directive principles are not enforceable in the courts, but they serve as a moral and political compass for governance. The directive principles cover a wide range of areas, including:
  • Social Justice: They aim to promote social, economic, and political justice and eliminate inequalities based on caste, religion, sex, or any other factors. Economic Rights: They include principles related to securing fair and just wages, providing opportunities for livelihood, preventing concentration of wealth, and ensuring equal pay for equal work.
  • Welfare Measures: They focus on securing public health, protecting the environment, promoting the welfare of children, and providing social security to vulnerable sections of society.
  • Educational and Cultural Rights: They emphasize the promotion of education, preservation of cultural heritage, and the development of scientific temper.
  • International Relations: They advocate for principles of international peace and security, respect for international law, and cooperation among nations.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 4

Which of the following provisions contains by the Representation of the People Act of 1951, related to the electoral matters?

  1. Qualifications and disqualifi cations for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures
  2. Registration of political parties
  3. Bye-elections and time limit for filling vacancies
  4. Barring the jurisdiction of civil courts

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 4

Representation of the People Act, 1951

  • The provisions for the actual conduct of elections to the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State, the qualifi cations and disqualifications for the membership of these Houses, the corrupt practices and other election offences, and the decision of election disputes were all left to be made in a subsequent measure. In order to provide for these provisions, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 was enacted. Broadly speaking, this Act contains provisions relating to the following electoral matters:
    • Qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures
    • Notification of general elections
    • Administrative machinery for the conduct of elections
    • Registration of political parties
    • Conduct of elections
    • Free supply of certain material to candidates of recognized political parties
    • Disputes regarding elections
    • Corrupt practices and electoral offences
    • Powers of Election Commission in connection with inquiries as to disqualifi cations of members.
    • Bye-elections and time limit for filling vacancies
    • Miscellaneous provisions relating to elections
    • Barring the jurisdiction of civil courts
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 5

Consider the following:

1. Capital Input  

2. Technology used for production

3. Prices of substitute products

4. Cost of  Labour

How many of the factors given above affects the supply of a product?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 5
  • Option (d) is correct: The quantity of a commodity that is supplied in the market depends not only on the price obtainable for the commodity but also on potentially many other factors, such as the prices of substitute products, the production technology, and the availability and cost of labour and other factors of production.

Supplementary Notes:

Supply and Demand

  • In basic economic analysis, analysing supply involves looking at the relationship between various prices and the quantity potentially offered by producers at each price, again holding constant all other factors that could infl uence the price.
  • Those price-quantity combinations may be plotted on a curve, known as a supply curve, with price represented on the vertical axis and quantity represented on the horizontal axis.
  • A supply curve is usually upward-sloping, refl ecting the willingness of producers to sell more of the commodity they produce in a market with higher prices.
  • Any change in non-price factors would cause a shift in the supply curve, whereas changes in the price of the commodity can be traced along a fi xed supply curve.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 6

Consider the following statements about 74th Amendment Act:

1. Under the Act, the creation of a Finance Commission to determine the sharing of taxes, duties, and funds from the State Consolidated Fund.
2. The government passed the Panchayat Extension to Tribal Areas (PESA) Act under 73rd Amendment Act.
3. The Act reserves 50 percent of local body seats for ST community.

How many of the above statements are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 6

74th Amendment Act

  • Whereas the 74th Amendment Act made provisions for urban local bodies (ULBs) by mandating a three-tier arrangement of ULBs, with Nagar Panchayats in peri-urban areas, Municipal Councils in small towns, and the Municipal Corporations (MCs) in bigger cities/metropolis.  Much like the 73rd Amendment, the 74th Amendment enables direct elections every fi ve years at the municipality level, with a mandatory quota for SCs and STs apart from reserving one-third of seats for women.
  • The Twelfth Schedule - a list of 18 subjects that can be devolved to ULBs in due course—was established. The Act also provides for the creation of a Finance Commission to determine the sharing of taxes, duties, and funds from the State Consolidated Fund.
  • Lastly, the government passed the landmark Panchayat Extension to Tribal Areas (PESA) Act in 1996 to extend self-governance to Scheduled and Tribal Areas of the country.
  • Signifi cantly, the Act reserves 50 percent of local body seats for STs, while reserving the offic e of chairperson solely for the ST community. In short, these three legislations have formed the key pillars of local self-governance in India, forming the foundations upon which today’s third-tier institutions rest.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: Post the constitution of Monetary Policy Committee in 2016, RBI has for the first time calculated the NEER and REER.
  • Statement-II: RBI formally adopted a “multiple-indicator approach” in 1998 instead of monetary policy based on demand function of money with excessive interest controls and credit rationing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 7
  • Statement 1 is Incorrect: NEER and REER were calculated for the first time posts the 1991 reforms.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The crisis, and a series of domestic scams, helped bring home the lesson that excessive interest controls and credit rationing were deleterious to and stability. The RBI itself noted monetary pohcy based on demand function of money, as the latter became unstable, could be expected to lack precision.
  • After the adverse impact of the 1990s’ peak in interest rates, the Reserve Bank moved toward an interest rate based operating procedure, basing its actions on a number of indicators of monetary conditions, including forward-looking expectation surveys. It formally adopted a “multiple-indicator approach’’ in April 1998, following informal changes in practice from the mid-1990.

Changes occurred post the 1991 reforms:

  • First, the adjustment of exchange rate was frequent and an attempt was made to ensure that the exchange rate of the rupee in real terms chd not appreciate. Thus the nominal value of the rupee depreciated significantly in view of the higher level of inflation in India.
  • Second, in order to assess the value of the rupee, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for the first time computed the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) and the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER).
  • Move to multiple indicators approach: Prior to 1982, the emphasis was on the quantum of credit and its allocation. In the 1980s, attention shifted to larger aggregates such as money supply. The quantum of credit and its allocation became part of an overall picture.
  • It was realized that inflation control required regulation of money supply and the regulation of money supply , in turn, required an understanding with the government on the quantum of government borrowing and its monetization. The Chakravarty Committee, which reported in 1985, outhned an approach to money-supply growth. The targeted growth rate in money supply was related to the expected increase in real income and the acceptable level of inflation. Obviously, such an approach rested on a stable-demand function for money and, therefore, on a reasonably constant income elasticity of demand for money.
  • This approach, which was accepted, could broadly be described as ‘flexible monetary targeting’. There was no formal inflation targeting, but pol icy statements gave both inflation control and facihtated growth as key objectives. The multiple inchcators were the variables affecting future growth and inflation. A specific value of 5% was given as the desirable rate of inflation, with the aim of bringing it even lower in the long term.
  • Present inflation targeting approach: The multiple-in chca tor approach was criticized as list based. For Incha, inflation forecast targeting is a natural progression that converts the multiple inchcators from an omnibus list to action based on the determinants of inflation, even while retaining vital flexibilities coming from considering a range of information.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 8

Consider the following Mahajanapadas:

1. Vaisali

2. Vajji

3. Magadha

4. Sakya

Which of the above Mahajanapadas were republics (gaṇasanghas) according to Buddhist and Jaina texts?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 8

There were also non-monarchical states in Ancient India which can be called republics or ganasanghas. Buddhist texts reveal that during the time of the Buddha there were many such republican states.
Some of the important ones were:

(i) Mallas of Kusinara
(ii) Mallas of Pava
(iii) Sakyas of Kapilavastu
(iv) Koliyas of Ramagrama
(v) Moriyas of Pipphalivana
(vi) Bulis of Nakappa
(vii) Kalamas of Kesaputta
(viii) Bhaggas of Sumsumaragiri 
(ix) Lichchhavis of Vaishali
The Vajjis were the most important republican state during the period of Buddha.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 9

Which of the following explains why we should move away from coal-based power generation?

  1. There are several occupational hazards associated with coal mining like Pneumoconiosis and asthma.
  2. Coal emits nearly twice as much carbon dioxide as natural gas.
  3. Opencast mining and underground mining of coal affect the vegetation pattern.
  4. Combusting coal also leaves behind partially burnt carbon particles that feed pollution and trigger respiratory disorders.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 9
  • Coal emits nearly twice as much carbon dioxide as natural gas and about 60% more than oil, on a kilogram comparison having a greater role in global warming.
  • Combusting coal also leaves behind partially burnt carbon particles that feed pollution and trigger respiratory disorders.
  • Environmental issues associated with Coal Mining that is air pollution, water pollution, soil pollution etc.
  • Opencast mining and underground mining of coal affect the vegetation pattern.
  • Several occupational hazards are associated with coal mining: Pneumoconiosis (by inhaling coal dust), allergies and asthma, noise hazard etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 10

Regarding the Amaravati School of Art, consider the following statements:

1. The rulers of the Rashtrakuta dynasty were the first patron of the Amaravati School of Art.

2. The sculptural form in Amravati art is distinguished by its portrayal of dynamic movements and depiction of bodies in the ‘Tribhanga postures’.

3. The narrative art of the Amaravati School showcases influences from the Gandhara School of Art.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 10
  • The Amaravati School of Art refers to a significant artistic tradition that flourished in Amaravati, an ancient town in presentday Andhra Pradesh. It developed from the 2nd century BCE to the 3rd century CE. The Amaravati School of Art is renowned for its exquisite sculptures and relief works, primarily focused on the Buddhist themes.
  • The sculptural form at the Amaravati site is characterised by intense emotions. Figures are slender, have a lot of movement, bodies are shown with three bents (i.e., Tribhanga), and the sculptural composition is more complex than at Sanchi. The idea of creating three-dimensional space in the relief sculpture is devised by using pronounced volume, angular bodies and complex overlapping. However, absolute attention has been paid to the clarity of form despite its size and role in the narrative.
  • Narratives are profusely depicted, which include events from the life of the Buddha and the Jataka stories. The Amaravati style of art experienced a selfcontained development and flourishing within India for around six centuries, devoid of external influences.
  • The Satavahanas were the earliest patrons of this artistic tradition, which developed and thrived in the lower valleys of the Krishna and the Godavari rivers in Andhra Pradesh. This School of Art encompassed both religious and secular images.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 11

Which of the following is/are white blood cells?

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Basophils
  4. Erythrocytes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 11
  • Blood cells are the cells which are produced during hematopoiesis and found mainly in the blood. Blood is composed of the blood cells which accounts for 45% of the blood tissue by volume, with the remaining 55% of the volume composed of plasma, the liquid portion of the blood.
  • There are three types of blood cells. They are:
    • Red blood cells (Erythrocytes). Hence, option 4 is not correct.
    • White blood cells (Leukocytes)
    • Platelets (Thrombocytes)
  • What are White Blood Cells?
    • White blood cells account for only about 1% of our blood, but their impact is big.
      • White blood cells are also called leukocytes. They protect us against illness and disease.
      • White blood cells are made in the bone marrow.
      • They are stored in our blood and lymph tissues.
      • Because some white blood cells have a short life of 1 to 3 days, your bone marrow is always making them.
  • What are the types of WBC?
    • Monocytes: They have a longer lifespan than many white blood cells and help to break down bacteria.
    • Lymphocytes: They create antibodies to fight against bacteria, viruses, and other potentially harmful invaders. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    • Neutrophils: They kill and digest bacteria and fungi. They are the most numerous type of white blood cell and your first line of defense when infection strikes. Hence, option 1 is correct.
    • Basophils: These small cells seem to sound an alarm when infectious agents invade your blood. They secrete chemicals such as histamine, a marker of allergic disease, that help control the body's immune response. Hence, option 3 is correct.
    • Eosinophils: They attack and kill parasites and cancer cells, and help with allergic responses.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

  1. Genome India Project (GIP) is a research initiative led by the Bangalore-based Indian Institute of Science’s Centre for Brain Research and funded by the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research.
  2. The GIP aims to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India.
  3. Human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of the human body.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 12
  • Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
  • Context: The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) announced the completion of India’s ‘10,000 genome’ project, aiming to create a reference database of whole-genome sequences representative of the country’s diverse population.
  • The Genome India Project (GIP) is a national project that aims to sequence 10,000 genomes by the end of 2023. The project is funded by the Government of India’s Department of Biotechnology and is led by the Centre for Brain Research (CBR). The GIP’s first phase aims to identify genetic variations by sequencing the genomes of 10,000 people across India. The project’s goal is to develop personalized medicine based on patients’ genomes.
  • S1: Genome India Project funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, and spearheaded by Indian Institute of Science’s Centre for Brain Research(CBR).
  • S2: The project aims to identify genetic variations through whole genome sequencing of 10,000 representative individuals across India in the first phase of the study.
  • S3: Human genome is the entire set of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) residing in the nucleus of every cell of the human body. It carries the complete genetic information responsible for the development and functioning of an organism.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 13

Consider the following events with reference to the evolution of the Earth:

  1. Initiation of photosynthesis.
  2. Loss of the primordial atmosphere of the earth.
  3. Degassing because of continuous volcanic eruptions.
  4. Flooding of the atmosphere by oxygen.
  5. Formation of the oceans

Which one of the following depicts the correct chronological order of the above events from past to present?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 13

There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere. The loss of the primordial atmosphere marks the first stage. The earth's hot interior in the second stage contributed to the atmosphere's evolution. Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis.

  • The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off as a result of the solar winds. This happened not only in the case of the Earth but also in all the terrestrial planets, which are supposed to have lost their primordial atmosphere through the impact of solar winds.
  • During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. The early atmosphere largely contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little free oxygen. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing. Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere.
  • As the earth cooled, the water vapour released started getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere dissolved in rainwater, and the temperature further decreased, causing more condensation and more rain. The rainwater falling onto the surface got collected in the depressions to give rise to oceans. The earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years from the formation of the earth.
  • Sometime around 3,800 million years ago, life began to evolve. However, around 2,500-3,000 million years before the present, the process of photosynthesis evolved. Life was confined to the oceans for a long time. Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis.
  • Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to flood the atmosphere.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 14

With reference to the Indian Elephants, consider the following statements:
1. It is the National Heritage animal and is depicted on the frieze of the circular abacus of the State Emblem.
2. Elephant census is conducted once in 5 years.
3. There are around 50 Elephant Reserves in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 14

About Indian elephant (Elephas maximus)

  • Characteristics:- Highly intelligent animals characterised by strong family bonds, sophisticated forms of communication and complex behaviour, including tool use and the ability to feel grief and compassion.
  • It is the National Heritage Animal of India. The frieze of the circular abacus of Lion Capital is adorned with sculptures an elephant, agalloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Conservation measures:

  • Project Elephant, a centrally sponsored scheme and was launched in 1992 by the Narsimha Rao government for the protection of elephants, their habitats, and corridors.
  • Elephant census is conducted once in 5 years and there are around 33 Elephant Reserves in India. Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
  • Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE), an international effort for conservation of elephants in Asia and Africa.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 15

With reference to the term ‘Fiscal Drag’, which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. It is a damper on the economy caused by excessive spending by the Government.
  2. Fiscal drag implies a lowering average tax rate over time for constant real income.
  3. It can be seen as an automatic fi scal stabilizer as it controls a rapidly expanding economy from overheating.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 15
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It is caused by a lack of spending or excessive taxation.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The increase in taxes reduces aggregate demand and consumer spending from taxpayers as a larger share of their income now goes to taxes, which leads to defl ationary policies, or fi scal drag, on the economy.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Fiscal drag is a natural economic stabilizer, however, since it tends to keep demand stable and the economy from overheating.

Fiscal Drag

  • Government has proposed to bring a new policy regime to the Fiscal Consolidation to control the fiscal deficit; wherein the term fiscal drag came into the picture. Basically, fiscal drag shows the relationship between fiscal deficit and tax rates.
  • Fiscal drag is essentially a drag or damper on the economy caused by a lack of spending or excessive taxation.
  • Fiscal drag happens when the government’s net fiscal position (spending minus taxation) fails to cover the net savings desires of the private economy, also called the private economy spending gap (earnings minus spending and private investment).
  • The resulting lack of aggregate demand leads to deflationary pressure, or drag, on the economy, essentially due to a lack of state spending or excess taxation.
  • The term fiscal drag stands for the effect that taxpayers move into income brackets subject to higher marginal tax rates only because of their market income being adjusted to inflation, i.e. with real income remaining constant.
  • Fiscal drag thus implies a rising average tax rate over time for constant real income; it is a major problem inherent to progressive tax schedules and the more so the steeper the profile of rising marginal tax rates.
  • This is also called bracket creep; bracket creep is a situation, where inflation pushes income into higher tax brackets. The result is an increase in income taxes but no increase in real purchasing power. This can create a fiscal drag on the economy as taxpayers spend more money on taxes though they have not reaped any benefits of a tangibly higher salary rate.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 16

"It stipulated that there should be a timelimit, desirably six months to give assent or to reserve a Bill for consideration of the President. If the Bill is reserved for consideration of the President, there should be a time-limit, desirably of three months, within which the President should take a decision whether to accord his assent or to direct the Governor to return it to the State Legislature or to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court.”

Recommendation stated above was given by which of the following Commissions?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 16

Governor and Legislative Process

  • When a bill is reserved by the governor for the consideration of the President, the President has three alternatives (Under Article 201 of the Constitution):
  • He may give his assent to the bill, or
  • He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
  • He may direct the governor to return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for the reconsideration of the state legislature.
  • If the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments and presented again to the President for his assent, the President is not bound to give his assent to the bill. This means that the state legislature cannot override the veto power of the President.
  • The Constitution has not prescribed any time limit within which the President has to take decision with regard to a bill reserved by the governor for his consideration.

Some important recommendations by Commissions w.r.t Governor are given below:

  • The Sarkaria Commission recommended that Governor shall be an eminent person in some walk of life, someone outside the respective State so that he would not have any personal interest to protect.
  • The first  Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) in its report on “CentreState Relationships” had recommended strongly that once the Governor completes his term of fiv e years, he shall not be made eligible for further appointment as Governor.
  • Punchhi Commission: While Sarkaria Commission recommended that Governor’s tenure of five years shall only be sparingly cut short, Punchhi Commission went one step ahead and recommended that Governor shall have fi xed tenure so that they wouldn’t hold offi ce under the intangible pleasure of the Central government. It proposed an amendment to Article 156 so that there would be a procedure to remove the Governor from office. It also went further in recommending that Governors shall not be overburdened with the task of running universities by virtue of them being made Chancellors under the State University Acts. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 17

Arrange the following organisms in the correct sequential order of a food chain, starting from the primary producer to the top predator.
1. Desert Hare
2. Desert willow
3. Coyote
4. Falcon
5. Snake

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 17

Desert food chain:

  • A desert food chain is a graphical representation showing wheats whom and thus the flow of energy in the desert biome. Like other food chains, there are twmain types of organisms in a desert food chain: producers and consumers.
  • Producers are organisms that make their food. Usually, plants and microorganisms are producers. In contrast, consumers feed on producers for their livelihood. Based on their position in the food chain, consumers are divided intprimary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary consumers or apex predators.

A desert food chain is unique due tits harsh environment. The Desert ecosystem food chain proceeds as follows,

  • Desert Willow: This is a plant and serves as the primary producer in the food chain. It captures sunlight and converts it intenergy through photosynthesis. The other primary producers in Deserts are date palms, cacti, acacia, sagebrush, and desert milkweed.
  • Desert Hare: The Desert Hare is an herbivore that feeds on plants, including the Desert Willow. Herbivores are primary consumers in the food chain as they consume primary producers. The other primary consumers are Kangarorats, desert tortoises, ground squirrels, Arabian camels, and some insects feed only on plants tsurvive.
  • Snake: Snakes can be both secondary and tertiary consumers, depending on what they prey on. They may eat smaller herbivores like Desert Hares or smaller carnivores like birds. The other secondary consumers are izards, coyotes, rattlesnakes, mongooses, tarantulas, and scorpions.
  • Falcon: Falcons are higher-level carnivores that feed on other animals, including birds and rodents. They are tertiary consumers in the food chain. The other tertiary consumers are hyenas, sand cats, foxes, hawks, and eagles.
  • Coyote: Coyotes are at the top of the food chain, or at the highest “trophic” level. Coyotes prey on mesopredators, like raccoons, opossums, striped skunks, Falcons, and red foxes, which occupy the next lowest trophic level Carnivores are secondary consumers because they feed on herbivores.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 18

Regarding the ‘Bharhut Stupa’ situated in Madhya Pradesh, consider the following statements:

1. One of the sculptures found here depicts a story from the ‘Ruru Jataka’, where the Boddhisattva deer is rescuing a man on his back.

2. The construction of the Stupa commenced in the 2nd century BCE, during the rule of the Shunga dynasty.

3. The sculptures and reliefs at the Stupa were completely financed by the imperial court.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 18
  • Narrative reliefs at Bharhut show how the artisans used the pictorial language very effectively to communicate stories. In one such narrative, showing Queen Mayadevi’s (mother of Siddhartha Gautam) dream, a descending elephant is shown. The queen is shown reclining on the bed whereas an elephant is shown on the top heading towards the womb of Queen Mayadevi.
  • On the other hand, the depiction of a Jataka story is very simple—narrated by clubbing the events according to the geographical location of the story, like the depiction of the Ruru Jataka, where the Boddhisattva deer is rescuing a man on his back.
  • The Bharhut Stupa is believed to have been initially constructed by the Maurya king Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE.
  • However, numerous artistic elements, including the gateway and the railings, were likely added during the Shunga period, featuring reliefs dating back to the 2nd century BCE or later. In contrast to the imperial art of the Mauryas, the railings of the Bharhut Stupa display inscriptions indicating that the reliefs and the figures were donated by the lay-people, monks and nuns. This aspect makes it one of the earliest examples of popular art during the Maurya period.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

1. A demand curve indicates the willingness of consumers to purchase more of the commodity at lower price levels.

2. For Demand curve, Non-price factors shifts the curve as compared to fi xed trends for price volatility in the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 19

Demand Curve

  • A demand curve is almost always downwardsloping, refl ecting the willingness of consumers to purchase more of the commodity at lower price levels.
  • Any change in non-price factors would cause a shift in the demand curve, whereas changes in the price of the commodity can be traced along a fi xed demand curve.
  • The quantity of a commodity demanded depends on the price of that commodity and potentially on many other factors, such as the prices of other commodities, the incomes and preferences of consumers, and seasonal effects. 
  • In basic economic analysis, all factors except the price of the commodity are often held constant; the analysis then involves examining the relationship between various price levels and the maximum quantity that would potentially be purchased by consumers at each of those prices. 
  • The price-quantity combinations may be plotted on a curve, known as a demand curve, with price represented on the vertical axis and quantity represented on the horizontal axis.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 20

With respect to the 15th Law Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. The Commission was tasked with overseeing reforms under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
  2. The introduction of electoral bonds was a significant step towards reforming political funding.
  3. The Commission proposed the ban on State Funding of Elections to ensure transparency.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 20

statement 3 is incorrect: The State Funding of Elections was introduced to support the political parties to reduce their reliance on private funding.
Supplementary Notes: Electoral Reforms in India

  • The Law Commission (i.e. the 15th Law Commission) was also constituted in November, 1977 for an exhaustive study of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 with a view to finding out and identifying the measures necessary in the direction of electoral reforms.
  • The Law Commission has submitted its 170th report regarding reform of the Election System. In addition, Government has also initiated redemptive measures from time to time.

State Funding of Elections:

  • One of the proposed reforms is to introduce state funding of elections. This would mean that the government would provide fi nancial support to political parties to reduce their reliance on private funding.
  • The aim is to curb corruption and the influence of money in politics, ensuring a more level playing fi eld for all parties and candidates.

Transparency in Political Donations:

  • Enhancing transparency in political donations is another crucial reform. Implementing measures to disclose the source of funds received by political parties could help prevent the flo w of illicit or undisclosed money into the electoral process, ensuring accountability and reducing the potential for corruption.

Electoral Bonds:

  • The introduction of electoral bonds was a significant step towards reforming political funding.
  • These bonds were designed to enable individuals and organizations to make donations to political parties while maintaining anonymity.
  • However, there were debates about whether this system increased transparency or actually exacerbated the issue of undisclosed donations.

Use of Technology in Elections:

  • To improve the efficiency and transparency of the electoral process, there have been discussions about leveraging technology.
  • Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were a substantial step in this direction. However, concerns have been raised regarding the security and tamper-proof nature of EVMs, and some experts advocated for a paper trail (Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trail - VVPAT) to be associated with EVMs.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 21

Which of the following activities can threaten the health and existence of an ecosystem?

1. Habitat Destruction
2. Eutrophication
3. Overharvesting
4. UV Radiation
5. Existence of foreign species

Select the correct answer suing the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 21

Option (d) is correct

Anything that attempts to alter the balance of the ecosystem potentially threatens the health and existence of that ecosystem. Some of these threats are:

  • Habitat Destruction: Economic activities such as logging, mining, farming and construction often involve clearing out places with natural vegetative cover. Very often, tampering with one factor of the ecosystem can have a ripple effect on it and affect many more or all other factors of that ecosystem. For example, clearing a piece of forest for timber can expose the upper layers of the soil to the sun’s heat, causing erosion and drying. It can cause a lot of animals and insects that depended on the shade and moisture from the tree to die or migrate to other places.
  • Pollution: Water, land and air pollution all together play a crucial role in the health of ecosystems. Pollution may be natural or human-caused, but regardless they potentially release destructive agents or chemicals (pollutants) into the environments of living things.
  • Eutrophication: This is the enrichment of water bodies with plant biomass as a result of the continuous infl ow of nutrients particularly nitrogen and phosphorus. Eutrophication of water fuels excessive plant and algae growth and also hurts water life, often resulting in the loss of fl ora and fauna diversity. “The known consequences of cultural eutrophication include blooms of bluegreen algae, tainted drinking water supplies, degradation of recreational opportunities, and hypoxia.
  • Invasive species: Any foreign species (biological) that fi nds its way into an ecosystem, either by natural or human introduction can have an effect on the ecosystem. If this alien has the ability to prey on vulnerable and native members of that ecosystem, they will be wiped out, sooner or later.
  • Overharvesting: Fish species, game and special plants all do fall victim from time to time as a result of over-harvesting or humans over-dependence on them. Overharvesting leads to the reduction in populations, community structures and distributions, with an overall reduction in recruitment.
  • UV Radiation: UV rays come in three main wavelengths: UVA, UVB and UVC. UVB and UVC are more destructive and can cause DNA and cell damage to plants and animals. Ozone depletion is one way that exposes living things to UVB and UVC and the harm caused can wipe lots of species, and affect ecosystems members including humans.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 22

With reference to the Aitchison Committee on Public Services, consider the following statements:

  1. It recommended lowering the age limit for recruitment to the public services.
  2. It recommended that the terms „covenanted‟ and „uncovenanted‟ be dropped.
  3. The Committee favoured holding the examination of the Imperial Indian Civil Service in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 22

The Aitchison Committee on Public Services (1886), set up by Dufferin, recommended:

  • Dropping of the terms covenanted‘ and uncovenanted‘.
  • Classification of the Civil Service into the Imperial Indian Civil Service (examination in England), the Provincial Civil Service (examination in India) and the Subordinate Civil Service (examination in India).
  • Raising the age limit to 23 years.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 23

With respect to National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions.
Statement-II: The decision of NGT can be challenged before the High Court.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 23

Are decisions of the Court binding?
Yes, decisions of the Tribunal are binding. The Tribunal’s orders are enforceable as the powers vested are the same as in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Are decisions of the Tribunal final?
The Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be challenged before the Supreme Court within ninety days.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 24

Which among the following most appropriately describes a ‘Nation’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 24
  • Option (a) is incorrect: It is commonly believed that nations are constituted by a group who share certain features such as descent, or language, or religion or ethnicity.  However, But there is in fact no common set of characteristics which is present in all nations.
  • Option (b) is incorrect: Many nations may be or may not have a common language, Canada is an example here. Canada includes English speaking as well as French speaking peoples. India also has a large number of languages which are spoken in different regions and by different communities. Nor do many nations have a common religion to unite them. The same could be said of other characteristics such as race or descent
  • Option (c) is incorrect: A nation is not any casual collection of people. At the same time it is also different from other groups or communities found in human society.

Notes

Nation

  • It is different from the family which is based on face-to-face relationships with each member having direct personal knowledge of the identity and character of others. It is also different from tribes and clans and other kinship groups in which ties of marriage and descent link members to each other so that even if we do not personally know all the members we can, if need be, trace the links that bind them to us.
  • But as a member of a nation we may never come face to face with most of our fellow nationals nor need we share ties of descent with them. Yet nations exist, are lived in and valued by their members.  
  • First, a nation is constituted by belief.
  • Nations are not like mountains, rivers or buildings which we can see and feel. They are not things which exist independent of the beliefs that people have about them.
  • To speak of a people as a nation is not to make a comment about their physical characteristics or behaviour. Rather, it is to refer to the collective identity and vision for the future of a group which aspires to have an independent political existence.
  • To this extent, nations can be compared with a team. When we speak of a team, we mean a set of people who work or play together and, more importantly, conceive of themselves as a collective group. 
  • If they did not think of themselves in this way they would cease to be a team and be simply different individuals playing a game or undertaking a task.
  • A nation exists when its members believe that they belong together.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 25

With reference to the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, consider the following statements:
1. It was adopted during the sixteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 16) to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
2. It aspires to restore 30% of degraded lands and marine areas by 2030.
3. It targets to reduce the rate of introduced invasive species by 50 percent by 2030.

How many of the a correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 25
  • The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) was adopted during the fifteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 15) following a four year consultation and negotiation process. This historic Framework, which supports the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals and builds on the Convention’s previous Strategic Plans, sets out an ambitious pathway treach the global vision of a world living in harmony with nature by 2050. Among the Framework’s key elements are 4 goals for 2050 and 23 targets for 2030. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The countries will monitor and report every five years or less on a large set of indicators related tprogress. The Global Environment Facility has been requested testablish a Special Trust Fund tsupport the implementation of the Global Biodiversity Framework (“GBF Fund”).
  • In the GBF, the world made a number of significant commitments thalt and reverse biodiversity loss.
    • It targets tprotect 30 per cent of the terrestrial and marine environment. It targets tput 30 percent of land and marine area under active restoration by 2030 and mobilize US$ 30 billion by 2030. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • It agreed treduce – at least by half – nutrients introduced intthe environment.
    • It agreed treduce the risk from pesticides and hazardous chemicals by at least half.
    • It agreed treduce the rate of introduced invasive species by 50 per cent by 2030 and teradicate and control those already introduced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • And It agreed teliminate, phase out or reform harmful subsidies, reducing them by US$ 500 billion per year by 2030 – starting with the most harmful.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding an ecotone:

1. It is the transitional zone between two or more diverse ecosystems.
2. It often contains species not found in adjoining communities.
3. It may exist along a broad belt or in a small pocket.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 26
  • Statement 1 is correct: Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem.
  • Ecotone also appear where one body of water meets another (e.g., estuaries and lagoons) or at the boundary between the water and the land (e.g., marshes, river bank etc.).
  • It has the conditions intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems. Hence it is a zone of transition.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It is linear as it shows progressive increase in species composition of one in coming community and a simultaneous decrease in species of the other outgoing adjoining community.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It may be very narrow or quite wide.
  • A well-developed ecotone contains some organisms which are entirely different from that of the adjoining communities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 27

With reference to Public Distribution System, consider the following statements:

1. Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) is notified under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (ECA).

2. There is only Centrahzed procurement which is carried out by the Food Corporal ion of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 27
  • Statement 1 is correct: TPDS is administered under the Public Distribution System (Control) Order 2001 notified under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (EGA).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Two types of procurement, Centrahsed Procurement, and decentralized procurement.

Public Distribution System

  • India’s Public Distribution System (PDS) is the largest distribution network. TPDS aims to provide subsidised food and fuel to the poor through a network of ration shops. Food grains such as rice and wheat that are provided under TPDS are procured from farmers, allocated to states and dehvered to the ration shop where the beneficiary buys his entitlement.
  • The centre and states share the responsibilities of identifying the poor, procuring grains and delivering food grains to beneficiaries.

Laws and Regulations governing TPDS

  • Essential Commodities Act and PDS (Control) Order: TPDS is administered under the Public Distribution System (Control) Order 2001 notified under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (EGA). The ECA regulates the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities incluchng edible oils, food crops such as wheat, rice, and sugar, among others. It regulates prices, cultivation and distribution of essential commodities. The PDS (Control) Order, 2001 specifies the framework for the implementation of TPDS. It highhghts key aspects of the scheme incluchng the method of identification of beneficiaries, the issue of food grains, and the mechanism for chstribution of food grains from the centre to states.
  • PUCL vs. Union of India, 2001: In 2001, the People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCE) filed a writ petition in the Supreme Court contenchng that the “right to food’’ is essential to the right to life as provided in Article 21 of the Constitution. During the ongoing litigation, the Court has issued several interim orders, incluchng the implementation of eight central schemes as legal entitlements. These include PDS, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, and Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS). In 2008, the Court ordered that Below Poverty Line (BPL) families be entitled to 35 kg of food grains per month at subsichsecl prices.

National Food Security Act, 2013: The

  • National Food Security Act gives statutory backing to the TPDS. This legislation marks a shift in the right to food as a legal right rather than a general entitlement. The Act classifies the imputation into three categories: excluded (i.e., no entitlement), priority (entitlement), and Antyoclaya Anna Yojana (AAY: higher entitlement).

Procurement of foodgrains

  • The center is responsible for procuring the food grains from farmers at a Minimum Support Price (MSP). The MSP is the price at which the FCI purchases the crop directly from farmers: generally, the MSP is higher than the market price. This is intended to provide price support to farmers and incentivize the production.
  • MSP: Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • Procurement: Two types of procurement, Centralised Procurement, and decentralized procurement.
  • Centralized procurement is carried out by the PCI (Food Corporation of India) where PCI buys crops directly from farmers. 
  • Decentralized procurement is a central scheme under which 10 states/Union Territories procure food grains for the central pool at MSP on behalf of PCI.
  • Why decentralized procurement? The purpose is to encourage local procurement of food grains and minimize expenditure incurred when transporting grains from surplus to deficit states over long distances.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 28

With reference to India’s Lokpal and Lokayuktas, consider the following statements:

  1. The idea of a Lokpal first came up in 1963 during a discussion on Budget allocation of the Union Law Ministry.
  2. Karnataka was the first state to create a Lokayukta in 1972.
  3. The Lokpal and Lokayukta deal with complaints against public servants, including the Lokpal chairperson and members.

How many of the above statements given is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 28
  • Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • Context: Former Supreme Court judge A.M. Khanwilkar has been appointed as the chairperson of the anti-corruption ombudsman Lokpal, filling a vacancy that existed for nearly two years.
  • S1: The idea of a Lokpal — the central anti-corruption ombudsman — first came up in 1963 during a discussion on Budget allocation of the Union Law Ministry. Bills seeking an ombudsman were introduced in Parliament eight times between 1968 and 2001 but were not passed, noted a 2020 report by anti-corruption organisation Transparency International India.
  • S2: Over the years, different states set up their own Lokayuktas — the state equivalent of the Lokpal. Maharashtra was first in this respect with its Lokayukta body established in 1971 under the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upayukta Act
  • S3: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, subsequently came into force on January 16, 2014. The Act provides for establishing a Lokpal headed by a Chairperson, who is or has been a Chief Justice of India, or is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person who fulfils eligibility criteria as specified. Of its other members, not exceeding eight, 50 per cent are to be judicial members, provided that not less than 50 per cent belong to the Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Other Backward Classes, or minority communities, or are women. The Lokpal and Lokayukta deal with complaints against public servants, including the Lokpal chairperson and members.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 29

With reference to the local bodies, as envisaged by Ripon‟s Resolution of 1882, consider the following statements:

  1. The Resolution did away with the need for local bodies to seek official executive sanction for the imposition of taxes.
  2. These local bodies would consist of a majority of non-officials.
  3. The Chairpersons of the local bodies would be officials

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 29

The Government of Ripon desired the Provincial Governments to apply in case of the local bodies the same principle of financial decentralization which Lord Mayo‘s Government had begun towards them. For his contributions, Lord Ripon is called the Father of Local Self-Government in India.‘ The main points of the Resolution were as follows:

  • Development of local bodies advocated to improve the administration and as an instrument of political and popular education.
  • Policy of administering local affairs through urban and rural local bodies, charged with definite duties and entrusted with suitable sources of revenues.
  • Non-officials to be in majority in these bodies, who could be elected if the officials thought that it was possible to introduce elections.
  • Non-officials to act as the Chairpersons to these bodies.
  • Official interference to be reduced to the minimum and to be exercised to revise and check the acts of the local bodies, but not to dictate policies.
  • Official executive sanction required in certain cases, such as raising of loans, alienation of municipal property, imposition of new taxes, undertaking works costing more than a prescribed sum, framing rules and bye-laws, etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 30

With reference to the 73rd Amendment Act, consider the following statements:

1. The Act unveiled three-tier rural institutions - Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, and Zilla Parishad.
2. The Act mandated one-third of the seats at all levels of panchayats are reserved for women.
3. It mandated the formation of state fi nance commissions and provision for grants-inaid from state governments to PRIs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 30

73rd Amendment Act

  • After decades of struggles and half starts, fin ally, the Congress-led coalition government in 1992 passed the 73rd and 74th Constitution (Amendments) to lay the legal and constitutional foundation for genuine self-governance in India.
  • The 73rd Amendment Act echoed the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee. The 73rd Amendment unveiled three-tier rural institutions: Gram Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat Samitis, and Zilla Parishad at the district level.
  • Further, the act mandated direct and regular elections every fi ve years and a mandatory quota for the SCs and STs.
  • Importantly, the Act mandated one-third of the seats at all levels of panchayats are reserved for women.
  • Apart from recommending the devolution of 29 functions to panchayats, the 73rd Amendment mandated the formation of state fin ance commissions and provision for grants-in-aid from state governments to PRIs.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 31

Which of the following organisations releases the ‘Logistic Performance Index’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 31

The Logistic Performance Index is an interactive benchmarking tool developed by the World Bank to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance. The International LPI 2023 allows for comparisons across 139 countries. The LPI is based on two components:

A worldwide survey of international logistics operators:

  • Conducted worldwide among global freight forwarders and express carriers
  • Measures the logistics “friendliness” of the countries they trade with
  • Granular high-frequency information: The second component of the LPI is based on granular high frequency information on maritime shipping and container tracking, postal and air freight activities that is collected and made available to LPI by several data partners.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 32

‘This National Park was designated as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1985 and it was also declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2006. River Diphlu runs through the park and it hosts two-thirds of the world's Indian rhinoceroses’.Which of the following national parks is best described by the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 32

the Golaghat and Nagaon districts of the state of Assam, India. It is situated on the banks of the river Brahmaputra in Assam. The Diphlu River runs through it. In 1985, the park was designated as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. Further, it was also declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2006. It is also recognized as an Important Bird Area by Bird Life International for the conservation of avifaunal species. It is majorly known for the ‘big four’ species— Rhino, Elephant, Royal Bengal tiger, and Asiatic water buffalo. It is home to twothirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 33

How many of the following cabinet Committees are headed by the Home Minister?

1. Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
2. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
3. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
4. Cabinet Committee on Accommodation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 33

List of Cabinet Committees:

  • Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
  • Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
  • Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs.
  • Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth.
  • Cabinet Committee on Security.
  • Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
  • Cabinet Committee on Employment & Skill Development.
  • Cabinet Committee on Accommodation.
  • Cabinet Committees are extraconstitutional in emergence, but the Rules of Business provide for their formation.
  • They are established by the PM as per the exigencies of the time and needs of the situation.
  • They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. Non-cabinet ministers can also be included as members.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 34

Consider the following statements regarding cryogenic engines:

  1. Cryogenic engines are highly efficient propulsion systems used in the upper stages of rockets
  2. Cryogenic engine use Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) as propellants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 34
  • Cryogenic engines are highly efficient propulsion systems used in the upper stages of rockets. They offer a higher specific impulse, which measures the efficiency or thrust of an engine, resulting in an increased payload capacity. A Cryogenic rocket stage is more efficient and provides more thrust for every kilogram of propellant it burns compared to solid and earth-storable liquid propellant rocket stages. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The main components of a cryogenic rocket engine include an igniter, combustion chamber (thrust chamber), fuel cryo pumps, fuel injector, oxidiser cryo pumps, gas turbine, cryo valves, regulators, fuel tanks, and a rocket engine nozzle.
  • Cryogenic engine makes use of Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) as propellants which liquefy at -183 deg C and -253 deg C respectively. LOX and LH2 are stored in their respective tanks. Typically, these engines use a combination of liquid oxygen (LOX) as the oxidizer and liquid hydrogen (LH2) as the fuel. The use of cryogenic fuels allows for high performance and efficiency in rocket engines. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • For the Chandrayaan-3 mission, the CE-20 cryogenic engine was used. The CE-20 was India’s first cryogenic engine with a gas-generator cycle and the largest cryogenic engine to be made by ISRO. It took its first flight in June 2017.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 35

Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Gandhara School of Art’:

1. The Gandhara School of Art was closely associated with the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

2. The Gandhara School drew inspiration from the Greco-Roman sculptural art, showing a distinct absence of indigenous Indian influence.

3. The Stupa sculptures discovered at Sanghol (Punjab) belong to the Gandhara School of Art.

How many statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 35
  • The Gandhara School of Art, which flourished during the reign of the Kushana emperor Kanishka, was one of ancient India's significant artistic schools. It emerged through the amalgamation of the Greco-Roman and the Indian ideas, incorporating influences from foreign traditions, such as China and Iran.
  • The central theme of the Gandhara School of Art revolved around Lord Buddha and the Bodhisattvas, reflecting its close association with Mahayana Buddhism. This suggests that while the concept behind this style was Indian, its execution showcased foreign influences. The Bamiyan Buddha statues serve as notable examples of the Gandhara style of art.
  • The flourishing of this art form primarily occurred in Afghanistan and present-day north-western India, with prominent sites, including Taxila, Peshawar, Begram and Bamiyan. The Gandhara School of Art thrived from the 1st century BCE to the 4th century CE.
  • Sanghol (Punjab) has its roots dating back to the Harappan Civilization.
  • Excavations conducted at the site have yielded coins and seals associated with Toramana and Mihirakula from Central Asia. A Buddhist Stupa was excavated and the archaeologists unearthed a treasure trove of exquisitely carved stone slabs, including pillars. The scholars have identified these artistic creations as Kushan sculptures, belonging to the Mathura School of the 1st and the 2nd centuries AD.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 36

Regarding the evolution of the third tier governance in India, consider the following statements:

1. In 1957, the Ashok Mehta Committee recommended the establishment of a three-tier structure of Panchayati Raj across states.
2. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended mandatory quotas for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 36

Evolution of the third tier governance in India

  • With the exit of the British, the institutionalisation of local bodies regressed as several Indian states dissolved district councils, bringing their duties and functions within the ambit of state governments, such as in Bihar in 1958.
  • However, the fi rst Five Year Plan (1951-56) recognised the importance of decentralised governance, stating that local selfgoverning bodies play a vital role in a democratic system where there is a “proper diffusion of power and responsibility”.
  • The impetus for establishing local bodies gained further currency with recommendations from the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee of 1957.
  • The Committee emphasised that the central function of local bodies lies in their role in constituting an intermediary between the general public and the government, recommending a three-tier structure of Panchayati Raj (consisting of Zilla Parishads, Panchayati Samitis, and Gram Panchayats) and reservation for women.
  • While these recommendations were accompanied by a rise in the number of panchayats—over 200,000 village panchayats were functioning in India by 1959—they were largely ineffective due to a lack of functional and fi nancial autonomy. This led to the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee of 1978 which included direct elections to Panchayats, mandatory quotas for marginalised communities particularly the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and “transfer (of) substantial quantum of powers from the State Government to the local bodies”.
  • At the same time, the Constitution (64th Amendment) Bill and The Constitution (65th Amendment) Bill of 1989 were introduced to formally institutionalise local bodies at the national level. The Bills, however, failed to receive enough support in Parliament.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 37

Consider the following statements:

  1. Part III of the Indian Constitution guarantees fundamental rights to all citizens.
  2. It provides the minorities right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  3. It includes the right to move the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement of rights.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect regarding the fundamental rights?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 37

Part III: Fundamental Rights 

Part III of the Indian Constitution guarantees fundamental rights to all citizens. These rights are considered essential for the development of an individual’s personality, protection of human dignity, and ensuring a just and fair society.

  • The fundamental rights outlined in Part III are enforceable by the courts, and any law that violates these rights can be declared unconstitutional. The fundamental rights guaranteed in Part III include:
  • Right to Equality: This includes the right to equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination on various grounds, and equality of opportunity in public employment.
  • Right to Freedom: It includes freedoms such as freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly, freedom of association, freedom of movement, freedom of residence, and freedom of profession, occupation, trade, or business.
  • Right against Exploitation: It prohibits traffi cking in human beings, forced labor, and child labor.
  • Right to Freedom of Religion: This includes the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagates any religion.
  • Cultural and Educational Rights: It protects the rights of minorities to conserve their language, script, and culture, and provides the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  • Right to Constitutional Remedies: This ensures that individuals can seek legal remedies if their fundamental rights are violated. It includes the right to move the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement of rights.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 38

Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is related to additional liquidity protection for member-nations of which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 38
  • The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is related to additional liquidity protection for member nations of the New Development Bank (NDB).
  • The New Development Bank is also known as the BRICS Bank, was established by the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) countries to finance infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies.
  • The CRA is one of the mechanisms created by the NDB to provide financial support to its member countries in case of balance of payments problems or other financial crises. The CRA is being funded 41 per cent by China, 18 per cent each from Brazil, India, and Russia, and 5 per cent from South Africa.
  • CRA is ‘a framework for the provision of currency swaps in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures.’
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 39

While calculating the MSP of a crop, which of the following determinants are analysed by the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices?

1. Demand and supply

2. Cost of production

3. Inter-crop price parity

4. A minimum of 100 percent, as the margin over cost of production

5. Likely implications of MSP on consumers of that product

6. Price trends in the market, both domestic and international

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 39

Calculation of MSP

  • While recommending price policy of various commodities under its mandate, the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices keeps in mind the various Terms of Reference (ToR). Accordingly, it analyses:
  • demand and supply;
  • cost of production;
  • price trends in the market, both domestic and international;
  • inter-crop price parity;
  • terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture;
  • a minimum of 50 percent as the margin over cost of production; and
  • likely implications of MSP on consumers of that product.
  • It may be noted that cost of production is an important factor that goes as an input in determination of MSP, but it is certainly not the only factor that determines MSP.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 40

Consider the following statements about the Women Exporters in the Digital Economy (WEIDE) Fund:

  1. It is a joint effort between the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the Ford Foundation to accelerate progress on closing the gender digital divide.
  2. The fund has received its first donation of USD 5 million from the United States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 40
  • Context: The World Trade Organization (WTO) and the International Trade Centre (ITC) have jointly launched a USD 50 million global fund called the Women Exporters in the Digital Economy (WEIDE) Fund.
  • The aim of this fund is to assist women-led businesses and women entrepreneurs in developing economies and least-developed countries in adopting digital technologies and expanding their online presence.
  • The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has allocated USD 5 million as the first donor to the fund.
  • Additionally, the ITC hosted the SheTrades Summit, bringing together women entrepreneurs, global business leaders, and development partners to discuss solutions to challenges faced by women in accessing new markets in the digital trading system.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 41

Consider the following statements:
1. Populations refer to groups of individuals of the same species living in a particular area.
2. Communities consist of single population of particular species living and interacting in the same area.
3. Biomes are large-scale ecological regions characterized by distinct climate, vegetation, and animal communities.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 41
  • Statement 1 is correct: Populations refer to groups of individuals of the same species living in a particular area.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Communities consist of multiple populations of different species living and interacting in the same area.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Biomes are largescale ecological regions characterized by distinct climate, vegetation, and animal communities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 42

With reference to the ‘National Development Council (NDC)’, consider the following statements:

1. The National Development Council is a constitutional body established to facilitate cooperative federalism in planning.

2. It is presided over by the President of India, and its members include the Chief Ministers of all states.

3. It has the power to directly allocate funds to states from the Consolidated Fund of India for the execution of centrallysponsored schemes.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 42
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) was set up on August 6, 1952, by a Resolution issued by the cabinet secretariat. Hence, It is not a constitutional body.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Considering the recommendations of the ‘Administrative Reforms Commission’, the NDC was reconstituted and its functions redefined by a Cabinet Resolution on October 7, 1967.
  • The reconstituted NDC comprises the Prime Minister, all Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories and the Members of the Planning Commission. It is presided over by the Prime Minister of India.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) does not have the power to directly allocate funds to states for the execution of centrallysponsored schemes. The allocation of funds is typically done through the Union Budget, and the NDC serves as a platform for discussion and coordination among the central and state governments regarding national development policies.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 43

Consider the following statements about the Big Bang theory:

  1. The Big Bang event took place approximately 13.7 million years before the present.
  2. The event led to a huge expansion initially, but today, the universe remains static without any expansion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 43
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also called the expanding universe hypothesis. It is generally accepted that the Big Bang event took place 13.7 billion years before the present.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a “tiny ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density. At the Big Bang, the “tiny ball” explodes violently. This led to a vast expansion. There was remarkably rapid expansion within fractions of a second after the bang. After that, the expansion has slowed down. The first atom began to form within the first three minutes of the Big Bang event. The expansion continues even to the present day.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 44

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 44

  • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Varanasi was the capital of Kashi. It is located in the present day Varanasi. Of the sixteen Mahajanapadas, Kashi seems to have been the most powerful in the beginning. But eventually, it succumbed to the power of Koshala.
  • Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Koshala embraced the area occupied by eastern Uttar Pradesh and had its capital at Shravasti. Koshala had an important city called Ayodhya which is associated with the story in the Ramayana.
  • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Vatsas had its capital at Kausambi near Allahabad. The Vatsas were a Kuru clan who had shifted from Hastinapur and settled at Kausambi.
  • Pair 4 is correctly matched: Beginning from the east, we hear of the kingdom of Anga which covered the modern districts of Monghyr and Bhagalpur. It had its capital at Champa, which shows signs of habitation in the fifth century BC, and there is a mud fort dating to that century. Eventually the kingdom of Anga was swallowed by its powerful neighbour Magadha.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 45

Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Protected Areas (MPAs):
1. They are notified as ‘national parks’ or ‘wildlife sanctuaries’ under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
2. Coastal and marine sites are identified and prioritized as Important Coastal and Marine Areas by the Wildlife Institute of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 45

Marine Protected Areas (MPA):

  • MPA is a section of ocean where a government has placed limits on human activity. Currently, an estimated 7.65% of ocean is covered by MPAs.
  • They are notified as either ‘national parks’ or ‘wildlife sanctuaries’ under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • They are given special protections for natural or historic marine resources by local, state, territorial, native, regional, or national authorities.
  • Recently, a total of 106 coastal and marine sites have been identified and prioritized as Important Coastal and Marine Areas (ICMBA) using globally used criteria by the Wildlife Institute of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Important MPAs (coastal or marine) of India are as given in image:-
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 46

With reference to the nineteenth century Indian economy, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The poverty of India during this period can be mainly attributed as the remnant of the Mughal period and of the pre-British past.
Statement –II: Britain subordinated the Indian economy to its own economy and determined the basic social trends in India according to her own needs.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 46

The poverty of India was not a product of its geography or of the lack of natural resources, or of some „inherent‟ defect in the character and capabilities of the people. Nor was it a remnant of the Mughal period or of the pre-British past. It was mainly a product of the history of the last two centuries.
Before that, India was no more backward than the countries of Western Europe. Nor were the differences in the standards of living at the time very wide among the countries of the world. Precisely during the period that the countries of the West developed and prospered, India was subjected to modern colonialism and was prevented from developing.

The basic fact is that the same social, political and economic processes, that produced industrial development, and social and cultural progress in Britain, also produced, and then maintained economic underdevelopment, and social and cultural backwardness in India. The reason for this is obvious. Britain subordinated the Indian economy to its own economy and determined the basic social trends in India according to her own needs. The result was stagnation of India‘s agriculture and industries.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 47

Consider the following approaches for the conservation of biodiversity:
1. Germplasm banks
2. Tissue culture
3. Cryopreservation
4. DNA clones

How many of the above techniques are in-vitro techniques for the conservation of biodiversity?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 47
  • An organism can be conserved in a natural/ artificial habitat or in the form of a germplasm (bacterial cultures, animal tissues, seeds etc.) by employing various methods. A number of efforts have been put forward by various governmental and non-governmental organizations aiming for the conservation of biodiversity. It includes certain in-situ and ex-situ approaches. Emergence of in-vitro technology as an adjunct to ex-situ conservation is being viewed with great expectations for conservation of threatened species.
  • In-vitro techniques include the laboratory practices used for the conservation of plant/ animal and microbial diversity through its storage in germplasm banks, propagation via tissue culture methods, preservation using the technique of cryopreservation, conversion into artificial seeds, maintenance as slow growth cultures, and long term perpetuation as DNA clones.
  • Germplasm banks: Germplasm banks or biobanks provide controlled storage facilities of temperature, humidity etc. for the material to be conserved. These are variously called as seed banks, gene banks, DNA banks etc. depending on the material that is conserved in them.
  • Seed banks: In case of plant species, seeds are a convenient means of long term storage of genetic diversity, as the samples are small in size, easy to handle, require low maintenance and frequently remain viable for long periods. In seed banks, material in the form of seeds are stored at nearly -10 to -20°C, often using silica gel in the seed containers to reduce humidity.
  • Tissue culture: It is an in-vitro technique, based on the concept of “totipotency” of plant cells. Cellular totipotency is the capability of a cell to give rise to a whole new plant. Mature cells undergo dedifferentiation to become meristematic and then undergo redifferentiation to form a whole new organism. Germplasm available in the form of microbial cultures, cells or organs in case of animal species and seeds, cuttings or vegetative propagules in case of plants is used for micropropagation.
  • Cryopreservation: It is a technique of preservation of germplasm at ultra low temperature of -196°C i.e. the temperature of liquid nitrogen. The principle underlying cryopreservation involves bringing the culture to a state of non-dividing and zero metabolism, so that any biological activity, is effectively stopped. Cryopreservation also helps in storing tissues of animal origin such as cultured animal cells, spermatozoa, ovarian or embryonic tissues and whole embryos for livestock breeding programmes.
  • Artificial seeds: Somatic embryos are cultured in vitro through embryogenesis and can be preserved as artificial or synthetic seeds by coating with gels like sodium alginate, calcium alginate, and polyacralamide gel etc. which prevent them from desiccating. These somatic embryos are then dehydrated to a suitable level and subjected to slow growth or cryopreservation in a manner similar to zygotic seeds. Production of sodium alginate beads by encapsulation of shoot tips and nodal segments of medicinally important plant Mentha arvensis helps in its in-vitro regeneration and conservation.
  • DNA clones: DNA, the basic unit of heredity of a cell, can effectively be used for conservation of threatened plant species. Germplasm can be stored in the form of DNA segments cloned into a suitable vector such as cosmids, plasmids and bacteriophage. With the recent progress in the field of molecular biology such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR), combined with gene cloning, small amounts of tissues can provide substantial collections of all the DNA of a plant genome.
  • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 48

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Deception Detection Tests (DDT)?

  1. The drugs used in the Narco Analysis test guarantee that the subject will speak only the truth.
  2. Heart rate and Blood Pressure are among the parameters used in the Polygraph test analysis.
  3. Brain mapping is based on the finding that the brain generates a unique brainwave pattern when a person encounters a familiar stimulus.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Narco-analysis test involves the intravenous administration of a drug (such as sodium pentothal, scopolamine and sodium amytal) that causes the subject to enter into various stages of anaesthesia. In the hypnotic stage, the subject becomes less inhibited and is more likely to divulge information, which would usually not be revealed in the conscious state. The drugs used do not guarantee that the subject will speak only the truth. The main drawback of this technique is that some persons are able to retain their ability to deceive even in the hypnotic state.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Polygraph is also called a lie detector test, but this term is a misnomer. The theory behind polygraph tests is that a guilty subject is more likely to be concerned with lying about the relevant facts about the crime, which in turn produces a hyper-arousal state which is picked up by a person trained in reading polygraph results. Measurement of hyperarousal state is based on a number of parameters such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, skin conductance and electromyography.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The brain mapping test measures the changes in the electrical field potentials produced by the sum of the neuronal activity in the brain by means of electrodes placed on the surface of the skin covering the head and face. The changes directly related to specific perceptual or cognitive events are called event-related potentials. In simple words, it is based on the finding that the brain generates a unique brain-wave pattern when a person encounters a familiar stimulus. Commonly used method in India is called the Brain Electrical Activation Profile test, also known as the ‘P300 Waves test’
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 49

Consider the following:

1. Bimbisara

2. Chetaka

3. Mahavira

4. Mahapadama Nanda

Who among the above were the contemporaries of Gautama Buddha?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 49
  • The earliest important ruler of Magadh was the king Bimbisara, who ruled for 52 years from 544 BC to 492 BC. He was a contemporary of both Buddha and Mahavira and paid equal respect to them. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • During the time of Buddha, the Lichchhavis, under the leadership of Chetaka, were the most prominent gana in the Vajji sangha. They are also called kshatriyas. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Gautama Buddha, or Siddhartha, was a contemporary of Mahavira. According to tradition he was born in 567 BC in a Shakya kshatriya family in Lumbini in Nepal near Kapilavastu. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Mahapadma Nanda (4th century BCE) was the first Emperor of the Nanda Empire of ancient India. He was not a contemporary of Gautama Buddha.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 50

Consider the following statements:

  1. The African Club is a close association of creditor nations that get together to offer debt relief and financial support to debtor governments within the African Union.
  2. The African Club was founded in 2023 after Democratic Republic of the Congo consented to meet in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia with its public creditors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 50
  • Context: During the 37th African Union Summit, held in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, African leaders launched the ‘Africa Club’, an alliance of African multilateral financial institutions.
  • Focusing on the urgent need for reforming the global financial system to address climate and development needs.
  • To tackle this, there was a call for increased access to high-quality finance for climate and development efforts, which led to the
  • African leaders also demanded solutions to the debt crisis, increased grant and concessional money to Africa, and rechannelling of Special Drawing Rights (SDR) to African financial institutions.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 51

Consider the following statements with respect to TB disease:

  1. TB is an infectious disease caused by bacteria.
  2. Multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDRTB) is a form of TB which is resistant to at least four of the core anti-TB drugs.
  3. Under the Universal Immunisation Programme, the BCG vaccine against tuberculosis is given to a child immediately after birth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 51
  • TB is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) and it most often affects the lungs. TB is spread through the air when people with lung TB cough, sneeze or spit. A person needs to inhale only a few germs to become infected. Every year, 10 million people fall ill with tuberculosis (TB). Despite being a preventable and curable disease, 1.5 million people die from TB each year – making it the world’s top infectious killer. Hence statement 1 is correct. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • XDR-TB, an abbreviation for extensively drug -resistant tuberculosis (TB), is a form of TB which is resistant to at least four of the core anti -TB drugs. XDR-TB involves resistance to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs, isoniazid and rifampicin, also known as multidrug-resistance (MDR-TB), in addition to resistance to any of the fluoroquinolones (such as levofloxacin or moxifloxacin) and to at least one of the three injectable second-line drugs (amikacin, capreomycin or kanamycin). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • MDR-TB and XDR-TB both take substantially longer to treat than ordinary (drug -susceptible) TB, and require the use of second-line anti-TB drugs, which are more expensive and have more side-effects than the first-line drugs used for drug-susceptible TB.
  • Under Universal Immunization Programme, immunization of children starts as soon as child is born. Vaccination against childhood tuberculosis (BCG), polio (OPV) and maternally transmitted Hepatitis B (Hep B vaccine) are given to a child immediately after birth. After this, specific vaccines are given at recommended ages and routes as outlined in National Immunization Schedule. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 52

Consider the following statements with reference to the Karst topography:

  1. The work of underground water gives rise to distinctive Karst landforms.
  2. A solution valley is one of the landforms associated with Karst topography.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 52
  • Statement 1 is correct: The work of underground water is important in the areas of limestone rocks where it gives rise to distinctive landforms. Like running water, underground water also erodes, transports and deposits.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Slow-moving groundwater can dissolve huge quantities of soluble rocks and carry it away in solution. In some areas, it is the dominant agent of erosion and produces Karst topography, which is characterized by sinkholes, solution valleys, and disappearing streams. Initially, water follows surface drainage until a large river cuts a deep valley below the limestone layer. Groundwater then moves through joints and emerges at river banks. With the passage of time the water emerges at the river banks. Finally, the roofs of the caves collapse so numerous sinkholes are produced. This process ultimately develops solution valleys.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 53

With reference to the Lee Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. It recommended holding simultaneous examinations for Civil services in India and England.
  2. It favoured direct recruitment to the Imperial Civil Service (ICS) on the basis of 50:50 parity between the Europeans and the Indians.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 53

The Lee Commission (1924) recommended that:

  • The Secretary of State should continue to recruit the ICS (Imperial Civil Service), the Irrigation branch of the Service of Engineers, the Indian Forest Service, etc.
  • The recruitments for the transferred fields, like education and civil medical service to be made by the Provincial Governments.
  • Direct recruitment to the ICS on the basis of 50:50 parity between the Europeans and the Indians to be reached in 15 years.
  • A Public Service Commission be immediately established (as laid down in the Government of India Act, 1919).

The Montford (1919) Reforms:

  • Stated a realistic policy: ―If a responsible government is to be established in India, the more Indians we can employ in public service, the better.
  • Recommended holding of simultaneous examination in India and England.
  • Recommended that one-third of recruitments be made in India itself— to be raised annually by 1.5%.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 54

Consider the following statements regarding Hypersonic missiles:

  1. A hypersonic missile is a weapon system which flies at least at the speed of Mach2.
  2. Hypersonic missiles cannot be manoeuvred to the intended target.
  3. Conventional hypersonic weapons use only kinetic energy to destroy unhardened targets.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 54
  • A hypersonic missile is a weapon system which flies at least at the speed of Mach 5 i.e. five times the speed of sound and is manoeuvrable. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The manoeuvrability of the hypersonic missile is what sets it apart from a ballistic missile as the latter follows a set course or a ballistic trajectory. Hypersonic missiles mostly are cruise missiles that do not follow a ballistic trajectory and can be manoeuvred to the intended target. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • The two types of hypersonic weapons systems are Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGV) and Hypersonic Cruise Missiles. The HGV is launched from a rocket before gliding to the intended target while the hypersonic cruise missile is powered by air-breathing high-speed engines or ‘scramjets’ after acquiring their target.
  • Conventional hypersonic weapons use only kinetic energy i.e. energy derived from motion, to destroy unhardened targets or even underground facilities. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • India is also developing an indigenous, dual-capable (conventional as well as nuclear) hypersonic cruise missile as part of its Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator Vehicle programme and has successfully tested a Mach 6 scramjet
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 55

Which of the following processes are associated with vulcanicity?

  1. Gradual increase in temperature with increasing depth due to heat generated from the disintegration of radioactive elements.
  2. Origin of gases and vapour due to heating of water which reaches underground through percolation of rainwater.
  3. Ascent of magma forced by enormous volume of gases and vapour.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 55

The mechanism of vulcanicity (vulcanism ) and volcanic eruptions is closely associated with several interconnected processes such as:
(i) Gradual increase of temperature with increasing depth at the rate of 1°C per 32 m due to heat generated from the disintegration of radioactive elements deep within the earth.
(ii) The origin of magma because of the lowering of melting point caused by reduction in the pressure of overlying superincumbent load due to fracture caused by splitting of plates and their movement in opposite directions.
(iii) Origin of gases and vapour due to heating of water which reaches underground through percolation of rainwater and melt-water (water derived through the melting of ice and snow)
(iv) The ascent of magma forced by enormous volume of gases and vapour and
(v) Finally the occurrence of volcanic eruptions of either violent explosive central type or quiet fissure type depending upon the intensity of gases and vapour and the nature of crustal surface.
Hence, options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 10 - Question 56