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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 1

Consider the following:

  1. Nagasena associated with book Milinda Panho.
  2. Buddhaghosa was founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism 
  3. Vasubandhu wrote from the perspective of the Sautrantika schools.

How many of the above statements are correct about Buddhist scholars?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is correct: Nagasena answered questions about Buddhism posed by Menander I (or Milinda), the Indo-Greek king, and the conversation is recorded in the book Milinda Panho around 150 BC.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Nagarjuna lived around 150 AD-250 AD and was the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism. Buddhaghosa was a 5th-century Indian Theravada Buddhist commentator and scholar famous for his work, Visuddhimagga (Path of Purification)
  • Statement 3 is correct: Vasubandhu was a proponent of Mahayana Buddhism in 4th- 5th century AD from Gandhara and wrote from the perspectives of the Sarvastivada and Sautrantika schools His works, such as the "Abhidharmakosa" and the "Vimshika," are highly regarded in Mahayana Buddhism
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 2

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Coinage Act, 2011 gives the central government the power to design and mint coins in various denominations.
  2. All of India’s currency note printing presses are owned by the Government of India.
  3. The first banknote issued in independent India was the Re 1 note that replaced the portrait of King George with the symbol of the Lion Capital of the Ashoka Pillar at Sarnath.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 2

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The Coinage Act, 2011 gives the central government the power to design and mint coins in various denominations. In the case of coins, the role of the RBI is limited to the distribution of coins that are supplied by the central government.
  • The government decides on the quantity of coins to be minted on the basis of indents received from the RBI on a yearly basis, the central bank says. Coins are minted in four mints owned by the Government of India in Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kolkata and Noida.
  • Two of India’s currency note printing presses (in Nasik and Dewas) are owned by the Government of India; two others (in Mysore and Salboni) are owned by the RBI through its wholly owned subsidiary, Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Ltd (BRBNML).
  • Ashoka Pillar Banknotes: The first banknote issued in independent India was the Re 1 note issued in 1949. While retaining the existing design, the new banknotes replaced the portrait of King George with the symbol of the Lion Capital of the Ashoka Pillar at Sarnath in the watermark window.
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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 3

Which of the following are the examples of Oxidation Reaction?

  1. The taste of butter changes if left for a longer time
  2. Wine gets sour with time
  3. A reddish brown powder gets coated on articles made of iron

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 3

The term oxidation was originally used to describe reactions in which an element combines with oxygen. The iron metal is oxidized to form the iron oxide known as rust.
Electrochemical reactions are great examples of oxidation reactions.
All the above are the examples of Oxidation Reaction.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 4

Recently the Ministry of Jal Shakti released a document, which is the first such census of water bodies in India. Consider the following statements in this context.

  1. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of lakes in India.
  2. Among the total number of utilised water bodies in India, majority is used for irrigation.
  3. More than 90% of water bodies can be found in rural regions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 4

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • West Bengal boasts of the highest number of ponds and reservoirs; Andhra Pradesh the highest number of tanks; and Tamil Nadu the highest number of lakes.
  • The majority of water bodies serve as resources for fish farming, with their subsequent uses including irrigation, replenishing groundwater, and providing water for household and drinking needs. Among the total 20,30,040 utilised water bodies, 55.5% (11,26,830) are dedicated to fish farming, 16.5% (3,35,768) to irrigation, 12.1% (2,44,918) to groundwater replenishment, and 10.1% (2,05,197) to domestic and drinking water needs. The remaining are employed for recreational, industrial, religious and other purposes.
  • A substantial 97.1% of water bodies can be found in rural regions; only 2.9% are situated in urban areas. Of these, 83.7% are in use, while the rest are non-functional or unused due to factors such as construction, siltation, irreparable damage, and industrial effluents, among others.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 5

Consider the following statements.

  1. The combination of high temperature and low humidity is referred to as the wet bulb temperature.
  2. High moisture content in the atmosphere makes it difficult for the sweat to evaporate and bodies to cool down.
  3. Oral rehydration solutions (ORS) can act as lifesavers during heatstroke.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 5

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The combination of high temperature and high humidity, referred to as the wet bulb temperature, is what makes heatwaves deadly. High moisture content in the atmosphere makes it difficult for the sweat to evaporate and bodies to cool down, as a result of which the internal body temperature increases sharply, and is often fatal.

Access to drinking water or oral rehydration solutions (ORS). These can be lifesavers in such situations.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 6

Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), sometimes seen in news is the initiative of 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 6

The EU in 2021, came up with a proposal for a Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM).

The CBAM plans to impose a tariff on a set of carbon-intensive imports, which will have to be paid by EU importers and companies who export such goods to EU countries.

With the CBAM, the EU also wants to create a level-playing field for business in the bloc with those outside by making equal the price for the carbon content of goods regardless of where they are made.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 7

Consider the following:
1. Accessibility
2. Affordability
3. Frontline functionaries
4. Real-time Data

How many of the above given are the pillars of Tele-law initiative?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 7

Tele-law initiative

  • The Tele-law initiative was a program launched by the Government of India in collaboration with the Ministry of Law and Justice, along with the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), to provide free legal services to marginalized and disadvantaged communities in remote areas of the country.

Pillars of Tele-law initiative Accessibility

  • Tele-Law service is made accessible to citizens of India via video conferencing/ telephonic facilities available at CSCs, situated at the Panchayat level.
  • The Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App has also been launched, which allows benefi ciaries to obtain advice from Panel Lawyers directly through their mobile phones.

Affordability

  • Tele-Law is provided free of cost to those persons entitled to free legal aid under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities (LSA) Act, 1987, and at a nominal fee of Rs. 30/- per consultation for “others”.

Frontline Functionaries

  • Para Legal Volunteers (PLVs) have been stationed to act as intermediaries, bridging the gap between common people and the Tele-Law service, and also to create public awareness about TeleLaw.
  • Village Level Entrepreneurs (VLEs) who run the CSCs facilitate online registration of benefi ciaries with Panel Lawyers.
  • Panel Lawyers have been positioned to provide legal advice and consultation to people.
  • State Coordinators manage different stakeholders in effective implementation of Tele-Law programme in States/UTs.

Real-time Data

  • A dedicated Tele-Law dashboard has been developed to capture real-time data on nature of cases registered & advice enabled. This data has also been hosted on the Prayas Dashboard.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 8

‘Agatti Island’, often mentioned in the news, is located in which one of the following union territories of India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 8

The Agatti Island is at a distance of 459 km from Kochi and is located west of Kavaratti Island. It lies between 10 48′ and 10 53′ N latitude and 72 09′ and 7 13′ E longitude, having an area of 3.84 sq km, with a maximum length of 10 km and width of 2 km. It has a northeast, southwest trend with a long tail on the south. The lagoon area of this island is 17.50 sq km.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 9

The name of rock type means ‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action of pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes. It is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation and reorganisation of materials within the original rocks.
Which one of the following types of rocks is best described by the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 9

The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action of pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes. Metamorphism occurs when rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are subjected to great amounts of pressure by overlying rocks.
Metamorphism is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation and reorganisation of materials within the original rocks.

  • Mechanical disruption and reorganisation of the original minerals within rocks due to breaking and crushing without any appreciable chemical changes is called dynamic metamorphism.
  • The materials of rocks chemically alter and recrystallise due to thermal metamorphism.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 10

With reference to Temperate Deciduous Forest and Tundra, consider the following statements:

  1. The flora includes trees like beech, oak, maple and cherry. 
  2. The typical animals seen here are reindeer, arctic fox, polar bear, snowy owl and arctic hare.
  3. These are generally the most productive agricultural areas of the earth.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 10
  • Statement 1 is correct: Temperate Deciduous Forest extends over Central and Southern Europe, Eastern North America, Western China, Japan, New Zealand etc. It has moderate average temperature and abundant rainfall. The flora includes trees like beech, oak, maple and cherry. 
  • Statement 2 is correct: Most animals found in Temperate Deciduous Forest are the familiar vertebrates and invertebrates. Animals such as are reindeer, arctic fox, polar bear, snowy owl, lemming, and arctic hare are seen in Tundra region which is Northern and Southern most region of world adjoining the ice bound poles.
  • Statement 3 is correct: These are generally the most productive agricultural areas of the earth. The fertile former forest ground was ideal for agricultural use as arable or pasture land. Thus these regions are among the most densely populated on earth and much of the original forest has been cleared.

Temperate Deciduous Forest

  • The temperate forests are characterised by a moderate climate and broad-leafed deciduous trees, which shed their leaves in fall, are bare over winter and grow new foliage in the spring.
  • The precipitation is fairly uniform throughout.  Soils of temperate forests are podzolic and fairly deep.

Tundra

  • Tundra means a “barren land” since they are found where environmental conditions are very severe.
  • There are two types of tundra- arctic and alpine.  Arctic tundra extends as a continuous belt below the polar ice cap and above the tree line in the northern hemisphere. It occupies the northern fringe of Canada, Alaska, European Russia, Siberia and island group of Arctic Ocean.
  • On the South Pole, tundra is very small since most of it is covered by ocean. Alpine tundra occurs at high mountains above the with respect to Arctic mountains are found at all latitudes therefore alpine tundra shows day and night temperature variations. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 11

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has provided approval for Bima Sugam Portal. Consider the following statements in this regard:

  1. It will bring all companies selling life, general insurance, and health insurance on a single platform.
  2. It will facilitate the purchase of insurance policies as well as the settlement of claims.
  3. The policyholder can access various portal services through an e-insurance account (E-IA).

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is correct: All insurance requirements, including those for life, health, and general insurance (including motor, travel, etc.), will be met by BIMA Sugam.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Bima Sugam portal will provide following services to the policyholders.  1) Buy insurance policy 2) Claim Settlement 3) Agent Portability 4) Policy Portability. Hence, it will be responsible for the sale, servicing and the claims management attached to the insurance policies.      
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Bima Sugam platform will provide all these facilities to policyholders with an e-insurance account (E-IA) and E-BIMA account. It will give policyholders an option to maintain a single repository for their family, which will create ease for claim settlements due to linkages of information stored at one place. Hence, it is envisaged to be a platform where a centralized technology infrastructure will help manage policyholders’ entire policy.

Supplementary Notes:
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

  • The IRDA regulates the licensing and registration of insurers, intermediaries, and insurance agents. It sets the eligibility criteria, qualificat ions, and capital requirements for obtaining licenses in the insurance business.
  • The recent initiative by IRDAI Bima Sugam is perceived to be a big game changer in the general insurance market development.
  • It is a revolutionary step with ambitions of becoming the largest online market for insurance products and services which has not been practiced anywhere in the world.
  • Going by the diversity and the size of India’s population it may prove to be quite successful and a model for other developing economies. It will facilitate convergence of all stakeholders and insurance services in a single place.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 12

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : Longer surf boards are more stable while maneuvering in water.
Statement-II : Longer surf boards have more volume and surface area interacting with water.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 12
  • Longer surfboards provide more stability due to their increased surface area and volume interacting with the water. This larger planing surface makes it easier for riders to maintain balance, especially for beginners who are still developing their skills.
  • The extended length of the board distributes the rider's weight over a larger area, reducing the chances of tipping or wobbling.
  • Beginners often benefit from longer boards that prioritize stability, making it easier for them to learn the fundamentals of paddling, balance, and catching waves.
  • Additional factors like thickness, rocker (curve of the board), and fin configurations also play a role in shaping a surfboard's performance.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 13

Consider the following pairs :

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 13

Many of the Sangam texts, including the didactic ones, were written by the brahmana scholars of Prakrit or Sanskrit. The didactic texts cover the early centuries of the Christian era and prescribe a code of conduct not only for the king and his court but also for the various social groups and occupations. These categories could have been possible only after the fourth century, when brahmanas rose in number under the Pallavas. The texts also refer to the grants of villages and also to the descent of kings from the solar and lunar dynasties.

  • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Besides the Sangam texts, we have a text called Tolkkappiyam, which deals with grammar and poetics.
  • Pair 2 is correctly matched: In addition, we have the twin Tamil epics, Silappadikaram and Manimekalai. The two were composed around the sixth century. The first is considered to be the brightest gem of early Tamil literature. It deals with a love story in which a dignitary called Kovalan prefers a courtesan called Madhavi of Kaveripattanam to his wedded wife Kannagi from a noble family. The author apparently seems to be a Jaina and tries to locate the scenes of the story in all the kingdoms of the Tamil state. The other epic, Manimekalai, was written by a grain merchant from Madurai. It deals with the adventures of the daughter born of the union of Kovalan and Madhavi.
  • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Another important Tamil text deals with philosophy and wise maxims and is called Tirukkural.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 14

With reference to the early Arab invasions of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The battle of Qadisiya brought the Arab armies to the frontiers of al-Hind.
  2. The early invasion of Arabs took place on the eastern coast of India.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 14
  • Battle of al-Qādisiyyah: The battle was fought near Al-Ḥīrah (in present-day Iraq) between forces of the Sāsānian dynasty and an invading Arab army. The Arab victory over the army of Yazdegerd III (reigned 632–651 AD) marked the end of his dynasty and the beginning of Arab and Islamic rule in Persia.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The battle of Al Qadisiya brought the Arab armies to the frontiers of al-Hind. The conquest of India, however, proved to be no walkover for this army. While they had won relatively easy victories in Christian and Zoroastrian lands, they were checkmated in Sind, Kabul and Zabul, three tiny Hindu kingdoms on the northwestern frontier of India, for almost four centuries.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The invasions, which culminated in the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate in A.D. 1206, fall broadly into four phases, with the first two overlapping to some extent.
    • The first phase covers the Arab attacks on the western coast of India from A.D. 636-712.
    • The second includes the Arab and Turkish offensives against the Hindu kingdoms of modern Afghanistan between A.D. 643-870.
    • The third stage, incorporating the Turkish attempts to conquer the Punjab, ends with the death of Mahmud Ghazni.
    • Muhammad Ghur's conquests between A.D.1175-1206 bring to a close the fourth phase.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 15

Consider the following statements :

  1. Political Parties are required to be registered with Election Commission of India under Section 29A of the Representation of People Act, 1951
  2. Political Parties can recommend disqualifi cation of Members of the House in certain contingencies under the Tenth Schedule
  3. Election Commission of India calls for details of expenses made by Political Parties in the elections
  4. Election Commission of India can suspend or withdraw recognition of a political party.

How many of the above statements justify constitutional and legal rights and liabilities of Political Parties in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 15

Constitutional/Legal Provisions: Political Parties’ Rights and Liabilities

  • Political parties in India enjoy specific constitutional and legal rights and responsibilities, as outlined below:
  • Registration with ECI (Election Commission of India): Pobtical parties are mandated to be registered with the ECI as per Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 — a Central Legislation. This registration grants them recognition and official status as pobtical entities.
  • Disclosure of Election Expenses: To ensure transparency and accountabihty, the ECI requires political parties to provide details of expenses incurr e d during election s. This financial disclosure is essential for maintaining the integrity of the electoral process.
  • Intimation of Contributions: Political pari ies are obhgated to inform the ECI of contributions valued at Rs. 20,000/-and above, as per section 29C of the Representation of the People Act. This provision ensures that significant contributions are made pubhc to prevent undue influence on pohtical parties.
  • ECI’s Authority: The Election Commission of Incha is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections under Article 324 of the Constitution. It plays a crucial role in overseeing and regulating the conduct of elections. Additionally, the ECI has the power to suspend or withdraw recognition of a pohtical party in certain circumstances.
  • Tenth Schedule and Disqualification: Under the Tenth Schedule of the Inchan Constitution, political parties hold the authority to recommend the disqualification ofMembersoftheHouse(bothParhamentand State Legislatures) in sped fie contingencies. This schedule addresses issues related to defection and helps maintain the stahihty of the pohtical system.
  • These constitutional and legal provisions collectively shape the functioning of political parties in Incha and contribute to the democratic and transparent nature of the electoral process.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding the Inflation:
Statement-I: It is the percentage change in the value of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) on a year-on year basis.
Statement-II: In India, inflation is calculated by taking the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 16
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, infl ation is calculated by taking the WPI as base.

Supplementary Notes: Inflation

  • Inflation is the percentage change in the value of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) on a year-on year basis. It effectively measures the change in the prices of a basket of goods and services in a year. In India, inflation is calculated by taking the WPI as base.
  • Inflation occurs due to an imbalance between demand and supply of money, changes in production and distribution cost or increase in taxes on products. When economy experiences infl ation, i.e. when the price level of goods and services rises, the value of currency reduces. This means now each unit of currency buys fewer goods and services.
  • It has its worst impact on consumers. High prices of day-to-day goods make it diffi cult for consumers to afford even the basic commodities in life. This leaves them with no choice but to ask for higher incomes. Hence the government tries to keep inflation under control.
  • Contrary to its negative effects, a moderate level of inflation characterizes a good economy. An inflation rate of 2 or 3% is beneficial for an economy as it encourages people to buy more and borrow more, because during times of lower inflation, the level of interest rate also remains low. Hence the government as well as the central bank always strives to achieve a limited level of inflation.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 17

The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in which of the following states?

1. Tripura
2. Manipur
3. Assam
4. Meghalaya
5. Nagaland
6. Mizoram

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 17

Administrative features of Sixth Schedule Areas

  • Autonomy within state executive authority: The tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram have been established as autonomous districts. However, these districts remain under the executive authority of the respective states.
  • Governor’s power to organize and reorganize: The governor is granted the authority to organize and reorganize the autonomous districts.
    • This includes the ability to modify their geographical boundaries, increase or decrease their areas, rename them, and undertake similar actions.
  • Division of autonomous districts into regions: In the case of multiple tribes residing within an autonomous district, the governor has the power to divide the district into several autonomous regions.
    • This allows for more specifi c governance tailored to the needs of distinct tribal communities.
  • District Council: Each autonomous district is equipped with a district council comprising 30 members. Among these members, four are nominated by the governor, while the remaining 26 are elected through adult franchise.
    • The elected members serve a term of fi ve years, unless the council is dissolved earlier. Nominated members hold offi ce at the governor’s discretion.
  • Regional Council for each autonomous region: Additionally, each autonomous region within the district has a separate regional council.
    • The specific functions and composition of these regional councils may vary, providing local governance at a more granular level.
    • These provisions in the Sixth Schedule aim to grant autonomy and self- governance to the tribal areas, while still maintaining a connection with the state administration.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding Insurance In India:

  1. Properties in India cannot be insured with a foreign insurer.
  2. The orders given by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) are final, and there lies no appeal against these orders.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 18
  • Insurance in India is a dynamic sector that encompasses a wide range of products and services to protect individuals, businesses, and assets against various risks. The insurance industry in India is regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). The government also has implemented the Insurance Laws (Amendment) Act, 2015.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Properties in India can now be insured with a foreign insurer with prior permission of IRDAI, which was earlier to be done with the approval of the Central Government.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Appeals against the orders of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) are to be referred to SAT as the amended law provides for any insurer or insurance intermediary aggrieved by any order made by IRDAI to prefer an appeal to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

  1. Shyamji Krishnavarma had started in London an Indian Home Rule Society‘India House’-as a centre for Indian students.
  2. Revolutionaries such as Savarkar and Hardayal became the members of India House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 19

Shyamji Krishnavarma had started in London in 1905 an Indian Home Rule Society- ‗India House‘-as a centre for Indian students, a scholarship scheme to bring radical youth from India, and a journal The Indian Sociologist. Revolutionaries such as Savarkar and Hardayal became the members of India House.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 20

With reference to the properties of the Graphene, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a two-dimensional form of carbon.
  2. It consists of a multi layers of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
  3. It is prepared by heating Graphite, Coal tar and or Shellac.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 20

Graphene:

  • Context: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) established India Innovation Centre for Graphene (IICG) at Kochi, Kerala
  • IICG is India’s first Graphene Centre.
  • IICG is a joint venture of the Digital University of Kerala, Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET) and Tata Steel Limited.
  • IICG aims to foster Research and development, product innovation and capacity building in the area of Graphene and twodimensional materials (2DM).
  • It will also support the Graphene-Aurora program of the MeitY.
  • This programme aims to fill the gap between R&D and commercialization by providing a complete facility to startup and industry.
  • About Graphene:
    • It is a two-dimensional form (allotrope) of carbon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Consists of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice like a honeycomb. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • It is prepared by heating Graphite, Coal tar and or Shellac or a mixture of these three in an inert atmosphere. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Applications:
    • Electronics- Super-capacitors, touchscreens, better energy storage etc.
    • Biomedical- Can be used in targeted drug delivery, etc.
    • Defence- Developing stealth coatings, etc.
    • Ultra-sensitive sensors: For environmental monitoring, etc.
    • Along with IICG, Centre of Excellence in Intelligent Internet of Things Sensors was also launched.
    • It aims at creating incubation facilities, build capacity in intelligent IoT sensors, promote research and innovation,
    • IoT is the interconnection of computing devices in everyday lives with the internet. Intelligent IOT is integrated with Artificial Intelligence.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 21

With reference to the features of administration contained in the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes.
Statement-II: The jurisdiction of high court over suits and cases between the tribes is specifi ed by the Governor.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 21

Administration in Tribal Area

  • Within their territorial jurisdictions, the district and regional councils possess the   authority to establish village councils or courts dedicated to resolving disputes among the tribes.
  • These councils hear appeals arising from such cases. The Governor specifi es the jurisdiction of the high court over these suits and cases.
  • The district council is empowered to establish, construct, or manage essential institutions and facilities within the district, such as primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, and roads.
  • It can also formulate regulations governing money lending and trading activities conducted by non-tribals. However, the assent of the governor is required for the implementation of such regulations.
  • Furthermore, the district and regional councils are authorized to assess and collect land revenue, as well as impose certain specifi ed taxes within their jurisdictions.
  • In the autonomous districts and autonomous regions, the acts passed by the Parliament or the state legislature do not automatically apply. Instead, they may be applied with modifi cations and exceptions as determined by the relevant authorities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 22

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 22

The shrines of the temples were of three kinds:
(i) Sandhara type (without Pradikshinapatha);
(ii) Nirandhara type (with Pradakshinapatha); and
(iii) Sarvatobhadra (which can be accessed from all sides).
Some of the important temple sites of this period are Deogarh in Uttar Pradesh, Eran, Nachna-Kuthara and Udaygiri near Vidisha in Madhya Pradesh. These temples are simple structures consisting of a veranda, a hall and a shrine at the rear.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

  1. Temperature inversion, that causes air pollutants to dwell near the surface for a longer time leading to serious health risks to all life forms, is a typical feature of the summer season.
  2. PM2.5, due to their small size, reaches deeper into the respiratory system as compared to PM10 or larger particles.
  3. The pollutants emitted by engines such as Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC) in the presence of sunlight produce ozone as a secondary pollutant.

How many of the above statements is/are correct about the various effects of air pollution at the global as well as local level?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 23

Statement 1 is incorrect: Temperature inversion is the phenomenon of inversion of the atmospheric temperature gradient that occurs during the winter season that causes the formation of smog and lets it stay longer near the surface.
Temperature Inversion

  • Usually, the higher the altitude, the lower the temperature of the air. Temperature inversion is a meteorological phenomenon that develops when cool air is trapped in the ground under a layer of warm air.
  • There are four types of temperature inversions:
    • A ground inversion occurs most often on clear nights when the air close to the ground is cooled by radiation.
    • A turbulence inversion is created when a layer of calm air lies above turbulent air. As the turbulent layer brings warm air down and cools its upper part through what’s called vertical mixing, the layer of calm air above eventually ends up being warmer, thus causing an inversion.
    • A subsidence inversion forms when a large layer of air sinks due to high pressure and heats up as a result.
    • A frontal inversion develops when a cold air mass undercuts a warm air mass and keeps it on top.

Temperature Inversions and Smog

  • The warmer air in a temperature inversion acts as a lid, trapping pollutants near the ground and making them unable to disperse until the weather changes. As a result, the compounds end up reacting with each other to form other pollutants such as groundlevel ozone, thus posing a serious risk to human health.
  • Temperature inversions are more common during the winter in the northern hemisphere due to high pressure, clear skies, and long nights, which allow heat to dissipate easily from the ground. This leads to a phenomenon called winter smog, which is further exacerbated by homes burning wood and coal for warmth.

PM10 vs PM2.5

  • PM10 and PM2.5 often derive from different emissions sources, and also have different chemical compositions. Emissions from the combustion of gasoline, oil, diesel fuel or wood produce much of the PM2.5 pollution found in outdoor air, as well as a significant proportion of PM10. PM10 also includes dust from construction sites, landfills and agriculture, wildfires and brush/waste burning, industrial sources, wind-blown dust from open lands, pollen, and fragments of bacteria.
  • PM may be either directly emitted from sources (primary particles) or formed in the atmosphere through chemical reactions of gases (secondary particles) such as sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOX), and certain organic compounds. These organic compounds can be emitted by both natural sources, such as trees and vegetation, as well as from man-made (anthropogenic) sources, such as industrial processes and motor vehicle exhaust.
  • Both PM2.5 and PM10 can be inhaled, with some depositing throughout the airways, though the locations of particle deposition in the lung depend on particle size. PM2.5 is more likely to travel into and deposit on the surface of the deeper parts of the lung, while PM10 is more likely to deposit on the surfaces of the larger airways of the upper region of the lung. Particles deposited on the lung surface can induce tissue damage and lung inflammation.

Formation of Ground Ozone

  • Tropospheric, or ground-level ozone, is not emitted directly into the air but is created by chemical reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOC). This happens when pollutants emitted by cars, power plants, industrial boilers, refineries, chemical plants, and other sources chemically react in the presence of sunlight.
  • Ozone is most likely to reach unhealthy levels on hot sunny days in urban environments, but can still reach high levels during colder months. Ozone can also be transported long distances by wind, so even rural areas can experience high ozone levels.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding BRICS Bank:

  1. It was created by the Fortaleza Declaration.
  2. It supports projects in both public and private sectors through loans and other instruments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is correct: Together with the process of globalisation, world regional forces have also been asserting their power through different short of alignments—the Fortaleza Declaration of Heads of State (late July 2014) from Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (the BRICS countries) is another such attempt—the creation of a BRICS Bank, i.e., the New Development Bank (NDB).
  • Statement 2 is correct: To fulfil the purpose of the bank, It supports projects in both public and private sectors through loans, equity investments, and other tailored instruments.

Major highlights of the bank are as given below:

  • The bank will have an initial subscribed capital of $50 billion— equally shared by the five nations.
  • The capital base is to be used for funding infrastructure and ‘sustainable development’ projects in the BRICS countries initially.
  • Other low and middle-income countries will be able to get funding as time progresses.
  • A Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) of $100 billion is to be created to provide additional liquidity protection to member nations during balance of payments problems.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 25

Which of the following texts elaborates on the trading activity during the Sangam age?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 25

Pattinappalai, composed by the poet Katiyalur Uruttirankannanar, offers elaborate descriptions of the bustling trading activity during the rule of Karikalan. It is the Sangam Age text that elaborates on trading activities and provides insights into the commerce and trade of that time. It describes the bustling port city of Puhar (Kaveripattinam) and the maritime trade that was an essential part of the Sangam culture.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 26

With reference to legislative reforms introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861, consider the following statements:

  1. The act for the first time separated the legislative and executive functions of the British government in India.
  2. The act provided for a majority of nonofficial members in the Governor General Executive Council for legislative purposes.
  3. The Central Legislative Council constituted under this act did not have the right to vote on the Budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 26
  • The Indian Councils Act of 1861 enlarged the Governor General’s Executive Council for the purpose of making laws. The Governor General's executive council consisted of five members. And for the purpose of the legislation, the council was reinforced by six to twelve nominated members for a two-year term. Half of these were to be nonofficials, both European and Indian not in the service of the Crown. There were similar councils in the provinces. Thus, the act did not provide for the non-official majority. The executive council was still dominated by officials. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Central legislative council constituted under the Indian Councils Act of 1861 came to be known as the Imperial Legislative Council. The Council possessed no powers at all. It could not discuss the budget or a financial measure or any other important bill without the previous approval of the Government. It could not discuss the actions of the administration. The council did not have the right to vote on the Budget. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The Charter Act of 1853 for the first time separated the legislative and executive functions of the British government in India. The Council under the act of 1853 in its legislative capacity was to consist of 12 members. These included the Governor General, Commander-in-Chief, four members of his council and six legislative members. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 27

As the exhaust passes through which of the following, where the unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 27

Option (a) is correct: As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
Control of Air Pollution

  • Automobiles are a major cause for atmospheric pollution at least in the metro cities. As the number of vehicles increase on the streets, this problem is now shifting to the other cities too.
  • Proper maintenance of automobiles along with use of lead-free petrol or diesel can reduce the pollutants they emit.
  • Catalytic converters, having expensive metals namely platinum-palladium and rhodium as the catalysts, are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases.
  • As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
  • Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 28

Which of the following statements about factors affecting exchange rate system is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 28

Factors affecting exchange rate system

  • The exchange rate is the value of a currency in terms of a different currency. Many buyers and sellers are engaged in the foreign currency market, including students, commercial banks, brokers, and more.
  • Foreign Exchange Reserves are important assets held by the central bank in foreign currencies as reserves. They are commonly used to support the exchange rate and set monetary policy. Most of the reserves are usually held in US dollars, given the currency’s importance in the international financial and trading system.
  • India’s foreign exchange reserves include:
    • Foreign Currency Assets
    • Gold Reserves
    • Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
    • Reserve position with International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Factors Affecting the Exchange Rate of India

  • Intervention of The Reserve Bank of India: During high volatility in the exchange rate, RBI intervenes to prevent the exchange rate going out of control.
    • For example, the RBI sells dollars when Indian rupee depreciates too much, while it purchases dollars when the Indian rupee appreciates beyond a certain level.
  • Inflation rate: The increase in inflation rate can increase the demand for foreign currency which can negatively impact the exchange rate of the national currency.
    • For example, an increase in the inflation level of petroleum oil can increase the demand for foreign currency leading to the depreciation of Indian rupee.
  • Interest rate: Interest rates on government securities and bonds, corporate securities etc affect the outflow and inflow of foreign currency.
    • If the interest rates on government bonds are higher compared to other country forex markets, it can increase the inflow of foreign currency, while lower interest rates can lead to the outflow of foreign currency. This affects the exchange rate of Indian rupee.
  • Exports and imports: Exports and imports affect exchange rate as exports earn of foreign currency while imports require payments in foreign currency.
    • Thus, if the overall exports increases, the national currency appreciates, while an increase in imports leads to the depreciation of the national currency.
  • A part from above, the Indian foreign exchange market is also affected by factors such as the receipts in the accounts of exports in invisibles in the current account, inflow in the capital account such as FDI, external commercial borrowings, foreign institutional investments, NRI deposits, tourism activities etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 29

Consider the following statements with reference to the Naegleria fowleri:

  1. It is a free-living amoeba commonly found in warm fresh water and soil.
  2. People can be infected with Naegleria fowleri even by drinking contaminated water.
  3. It feeds on other small organisms like bacteria found in the sediment of lakes and rivers.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 29
  • Statement 1 is correct: Naegleria is a freeliving amoeba (a single-celled living organism). It is so small that it can only be seen with a microscope. Naegleria fowleri is a heat-loving (thermophilic) organism, meaning it thrives in heat and likes warm water. It grows best at high temperatures up to 115°F (46°C) and can survive for short periods at even higher temperatures.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Naegleria fowleri infects people when water containing the amoeba enters the body through the nose. The amoeba then travels up the nose to the brain, where it destroys the brain tissue and causes a devastating infection called primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). PAM is almost always fatal. Naegleria fowleri infections may also happen when people use contaminated tap water to cleanse their noses during religious practices or rinse their sinuses (sending water up the nose). People cannot be infected with Naegleria fowleri by drinking contaminated water.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Naegleria fowleri eats other small organisms like bacteria found in the sediment in lakes and rivers. Infections usually happen when temperatures are hot, which results in higher water temperatures and lower water levels. While infections with Naegleria fowleri are rare, they happen mainly during the summer months of July, August, and September. Naegleria fowleri infection cannot spread from one person to another.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 30

SuperBIT, recently seen in the news, is a:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 30
  • Recent context: The first images for research purposes captured by NASA’s Super Pressure Balloon Imaging Telescope (SuperBIT) instrument have been released.
  • The dark matter observatory consists of a telescope mounted on a balloon lofted to an altitude of 32.9 kilometres on April 16, 2023. The platform allows researchers to investigate scientific targets from a nearspace environment. Using a balloon is much more economical than a launch vehicle to deploy an instrument in orbit. The super-pressure balloon can gather scientific data by circumnavigating the world for up to 100 days after deployment. The height of the balloon prevents most of the atmospheric interference for the imaging instrument on board.
  • The goal of the observatory is to map the amount of dark matter in its targets, by measuring the amount of light from distant sources that is amplified and distorted. The targets of SuperBIT exhibit weak gravitational lensing, as against the strong gravitational lensing of more massive targets, such as galaxy clusters. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 31

Consider the following statements about Indian patent regime:

  1. The original Indian Patents Act did not grant patent protection to pharmaceutical products.
  2. India has not yet joined the WIPO Copyright Treaty and the WIPO Performances and Phonograms Treaty. 
  3. India is a member of Nice Agreement, concerning the International Classification of Goods and Services for the Purposes of the Registration of Marks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 31
  • Statement 1 is correct: The original Indian Patents Act did not grant patent protection to pharmaceutical products to ensure that medicines were available at a low price.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: India joined the WIPO Copyright Treaty and the WIPO Performances and Phonograms Treaty - known together as the “Internet Treaties”.
  • Statement 3 is correct: India becomes the 88th member of the Nice Agreement.

Supplementary Notes Indian patent regime

  • Right granted for an invention- A patent is an exclusive set of rights granted for an invention, which may be a product or process that provides a new way of doing something or offers a new technical solution to a problem. Indian patents are governed by the Indian Patent Act of 1970.
  • Patent protection of pharmaceuticals -The original Indian Patents Act did not grant patent protection to pharmaceutical products to ensure that medicines were available at a low price. Patent protection of pharmaceuticals were rei ntroduced after the 2005 amendment to comply with TRIPS
  • Recent situation- The USTR report highlighted a range of issues in domains ranging from copyright and piracy to trademark counterfeiting and trade secrets, saying that India “remained one of the world’s most challenging major economies with respect to protection and enforcement of IP.”

Internet Treaties

  • India joined the WIPO Copyright Treaty and the WIPO Performances and Phonograms Treaty - known together as the “Internet Treaties”. India’s accession brings the total number of contracting parties to the “Internet Treaties” to 97 each.
  • The WIPO Internet Treaties update the multilateral copyright system set forth in older treaties such as the Berne Convention from 1886 and the Rome Convention from 1961 for the digital era.  By joining these treaties, India is taking an important step to support the development of its renowned creative industries and to allow them to distribute their creative outputs worldwide within the copyright framework.

Nice Agreement

  • The Nice Agreement is an important administrative tool that establishes a classification of goods and services for registering trademarks and service marks (the Nice Classifi cation).
  • The trademark offices of member states must indicate, in official documents and publications in connection with each registration, the numbers of the classes of the Classification to which the goods or services for which the mark is registered belong.
  • India becomes the 88th member of the Nice Agreement.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 32

Regarding Bio-piracy, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: It refers to the appropriation of traditional knowledge of biodiversity by outsiders and companies.
Statement-II: It includes fraudulent patenting of biological resources for profit.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 32

Biopiracy

  • It is often assumed that traditional knowledge is in public domain and the local communities have no claims over it. Hence, such knowledge can be easily misappropriated.
  • Biopiracy here refers to the appropriation of traditional knowledge of biodiversity by outsiders and companies and it includes fraudulent patenting of such biological resources for profit.
  • Some examples of biopiracy in India
    • Turmeric: In 1995, two NRIs in the US were awarded a patent for the woundhealing property of turmeric. India’s Council of Scientific  and Industrial Research contested the patent on the argument that the medicinal properties of turmeric were known to Indians since centuries. The patent was cancelled.
    • Basmati Rice: In 1997, the US firm Rice Tec obtained patents for Basmati Rice line and grains, arguing that they invented the variety. Due to massive protests, some of their claims were rejected.
    • Neem: In 1994, the European Patent Office awards a patent to the US firm, W.R. Grace for a method of controlling fungi on plants by the aid of Neem oil. NGOs and Indian farmers successfully contested this patent.
    • It is not always easy to fight against biopiracy. In this era of globalization, it is important to record all such traditional and local knowledge of biodiversity.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 33

If Political Parties are already answerable to the Election Commission of India and Income Tax Department, then why should they come under Right to Information Act?

  1. They file details of donations of less than Rs 20,000 but not more than it received by them annually to the Election Commission of India.
  2. In their Income Tax Returns, the Parties divulge many details of the sources of incomes.
  3. Political Parties put out only very limited information regarding their internal functioning.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 33
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Pohtical parties file details of donations of Rs 20,000 and above but not less than 20,000rs. receivedby them annually to the Election Commission of Incha.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Political parties in their IT Returns do not divulge many details of the sources of incomes,
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Political Parties put out only very limited information regarding their internal functioning.
    • While it is true that Pohtical Parties are currently accountable to the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the Income Tax Department, there are several reasons why bringing them under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act would he beneficial:
    • Currently, Political Parties reveal only limited information in their submissions to ECI and IT Dept. They disclose detads of donations of Rs. 20,000 and above received annually by them to the ECI, leaving out smaller donations and exploiting this loophole.
    • Sindlarly, their IT Returns do not chvulge many detads about the sources of income. Moreover, Pohtical Parties provide only limited information about their internal functioning, such as the total number of members, internal elections, details of office bearers, and criteria for inducting members. Ad this information is precisely what people seek to obtain under the RTI Act.
    • Bringing Political Parties under the RTI Act would enhance transparency and accountability, empowering citizens to access crucial information related to party funding, internal workings, and decisionmaking processes. This would strengthen democracy by enabhng the public to make informed choices and hold pohtical parties to higher standards of transparency and openness.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 34

Consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: The Indian Constitution grants residual powers to the central government.
  • Statement-II: Residual powers refer to the powers that are not specifically assigned to either the central or state governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 34

Residual Powers:

  • The Indian Constitution grants residual powers to the central government. Residual powers refer to the powers that are not specifically assigned to either the central or state governments but are necessary for the effective functioning of the country as a whole.
  • These powers, which include matters not mentioned in any of the lists, are vested in the central government. This ensures the unity and integrity of the nation.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 35

With respect to the concept of Dead zones in the oceans, consider the following statements:

  1. It is caused due to excessive nutrient pollution from human activities that deplete the oxygen required to support the marine ecosystem.
  2. These occur near inhabited coastlines, where aquatic life is most concentrated.
  3. There are many physical, chemical, and biological factors that combine to create dead zones.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 35

Dead Zones

  • Dead zones are hypoxic (low-oxygen) areas in the world’s oceans and large lakes, caused by “excessive nutrient pollution from human activities coupled with other factors that deplete the oxygen required to support most marine life in bottom and near-bottom water. In the 1970s oceanographers began noting increased instances of dead zones. There are many physical, chemical, and biological factors that combine to create dead zones, but nutrient pollution is the primary cause of those zones created by humans. Excess nutrients that run off land or are piped as wastewater into rivers and coasts can stimulate an overgrowth of algae, which then sinks and decomposes in the water. The decomposition process consumes oxygen and depletes the supply available to healthy marine life.
  • Less oxygen dissolved in the water is often referred to as a “dead zone” because most marine life either dies, or, if they are mobile such as fish, leave the area. Habitats that would normally be teeming with life become, essentially, biological deserts.
  • These occur near inhabited coastlines, where aquatic life is most concentrated due to availability of food and nutritional requirements. Dead zones occur in many areas of the country, particularly along the East Coast, the Gulf of Mexico, and the Great Lakes, but there is no part of the country or the world that is immune. The second largest dead zone in the world is located in the U.S., in the northern Gulf of Mexico. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 36

How many of the following given below can be considered as homeostatic mechanisms observed in animals?

  1. Maintenance of healthy blood pressure
  2. Labor contractions 
  3. Blood clotting

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 36

Homeostasis

  • Ecosystems are capable of maintaining their state of equilibrium. They can regulate their own species structure and functional processes. This capacity of ecosystem of self-regulation is known as homeostasis.
  • Homeostatic mechanisms that respond to a perturbation may be in the form of a looping mechanism (called feedback mechanism) that may be positive or negative.
  • Positive feedback maintains the direction of the stimulus. It tends to accelerate or promote the effect of the stimulus. Examples are labor contractions, blood clotting etc.
  • Negative feedback is a self-regulatory system and is employed in various biological systems. It reverses the direction of the stimulus and tends to inhibit the source of the stimulus or slow down the metabolic process.
  • Examples include thermoregulation, blood glucose regulation, maintenance of healthy blood pressure, potassium homeostasis, and osmoregulation.
  • Labor contractions: Labor contraction during childbirth is positive feedback since the initial contraction of the uterine muscle leads to further contractions. Rather than inhibiting the contraction, the body tends to produce more contractions.
  • Blood clotting: The formation of a blood clot is an example of positive feedback. As soon as one clotting factor is activated, the next clotting factor is activated, resulting in the formation of a fibrin clot. In this process, the direction of the stimulus is maintained.
  • The maintenance of healthy blood pressure is an example of is negative feedback. The heart can sense changes in blood pressure, sending signals to the brain, which then sends appropriate instructions back to the heart. If blood pressure is too high, the heart should slow down; if it is too low, the heart should speed up.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 37

With respect to Fundamental Duties, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 37

Fundamental Duties

  • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions: Citizens should uphold the values and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution. They should have a deep respect for democratic norms, the rule of law, and the institutions that safeguard the rights and freedoms of individuals.
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom: Citizens should value and uphold the principles of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity that formed the basis of India’s struggle for independence. They should recognize the sacrific es made by freedom fi ghters and work towards realizing the aspirations of a just and inclusive society.
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India: Citizens have a duty to defend the sovereignty, territorial integrity, and unity of the country. They should strive to promote a sense of national unity, harmony, and integration, while rejecting divisive forces that threaten the fabric of the nation.
  • To promote a spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India: Citizens should foster a sense of unity and brotherhood among the diverse communities and cultures that exist within India.
  • To preserve the rich heritage of India’s composite culture: Citizens should take pride in India’s diverse cultural heritage and contribute to its preservation and promotion. To protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife: Citizens have a responsibility to protect and conserve the environment.
  • To develop scientifi c temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform: Citizens should cultivate a scientifi c temper, rational thinking, and a spirit of inquiry.
  • To safeguard public property and abjure violence: Citizens should respect public property and refrain from engaging in violence or any form of destructive behavior that may harm individuals, society, or the nation.
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity: Citizens should pursue excellence in their personal and collective endeavors.
  • To provide opportunities for education to children: Citizens have a duty to ensure that children have access to education and promote the importance of education in society. They should support initiatives to improve educational infrastructure, eliminate child labor, and create an environment conducive to learning.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 38

‘Export Preparedness Index’ is published by which one of the following organisations?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 38

The Index is prepared by National Institute of Transforming India (NITI Aayog). For the Indian context, the Export Preparedness Index extends India’s innate heterogeneity to its exports and serves as a tool to help states in developing strategies for their context specific challenges. The third iteration of this report on India’s export preparedness provides a comprehensive analysis of the country’s export trends, district-level performance, and insights from the analysis of states and UTs. It highlights the achievements made in surpassing export targets despite challenging circumstances and acknowledges the collaborative efforts of the government and state governments in creating a resilient export ecosystem.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 39

Regarding the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: BOD is a critical parameter used to measure the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms in water bodies.
  • Statement-II: BOD  is an essential measurement in wastewater treatment, environmental monitoring, and assessing the health of aquatic ecosystems.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 39

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)

  • Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a critical parameter used to measure the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms in water bodies. It serves as an indicator of the organic pollution level in water and provides insights into its quality and potential ecological impact.
  • BOD is an essential measurement in wastewater treatment, environmental monitoring, and assessing the health of aquatic ecosystems.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 40

What is the significance of the Haripura Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1938?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 40
  • The first time that INC session was held in a village was at the Faizpur Session of 193 under the presidentship of Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • National Planning Committee was set up under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru at the Haripura Session of 1938 under the presidentship of Subhash Chandra Bose. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
  • The Independence Resolution was adopted by INC at the Madras session of 1927 under the presidentship of M.A. Ansari.
  • New Constitution for INC was framed at the Nagpur Session of 1920 under the presidentship of C. Vijayaraghavachariar.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 41

With respect to the India, consider the following principles:
1. Reservation Policy
2. Right to Education
3. Directive principles
4. Abolition of Untouchability

How many of the above are examples of social justice principles under the Indian constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 41

Principles of Social Justice

  • The Indian constitution, adopted in 1950, lays the foundation for social justice and equality in the country. It includes several provisions that aim to uplift marginalized sections of society and ensure their rights and well-being. Here are some examples of social justice principles enshrined in the Indian constitution:
  • Right to Equality (Article 14): This fundamental right guarantees equality before the law and prohibits discrimination on various grounds, such as race, religion, caste, sex, or place of birth. It ensures equal protection of the law for all individuals.
  • Reservation Policy (Articles 15 and 16): The constitution provides for reservations in educational institutions and public employment for historically disadvantaged groups, such as Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs). These reservations aim to address historical injustices and promote social inclusion.
  • Abolition of Untouchability (Article 17): Article 17 explicitly abolishes the practice of untouchability, which was prevalent in Indian society. It makes untouchability a punishable offense and seeks to eradicate social discrimination against Dalits (formerly known as untouchables).
  • Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25): This fundamental right guarantees the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate any religion. It ensures that individuals have the right to follow their own religious beliefs without facing discrimination or persecution.
  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): The constitution includes several directive principles that guide the state in its policymaking. Some relevant DPSPs include the promotion of social justice (Article 38), protection of the interests of SCs and STs (Article 46), and securing just and humane conditions of work (Article 43).
  • Protection of Women’s Rights: The constitution provides for various provisions to protect and promote women’s rights, including the prohibition of discrimination (Article 15), equal pay for equal work (Article 39), and measures to improve the status of women (Article 42).
  • Right to Education (Article 21A): The constitution recognizes the right to free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of 6 and 14. This provision aims to promote equal access to education and bridge the educational gap between different sections of society.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 42

Who among the following Persian visited the Vijayanagar court during the reign of Devaraya II?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 42
  • Abdur Razzak, the Persian ambassador, who visited the Zamorin of Kochi and the Vijayanagar court states that Devaraya II controlled a vast area. He received tribute from the king of Sri Lanka too.
  • Similar to Nicolo di Conti, Abdur Razzak also visited Vijaynagara during Deva Raya II's reign, but he did so roughly twenty years after Conti. He was entrusted with an embassy from Persia and set out on his mission on January 13, A.D. 1442. In the same year, he arrived at Calicut, where he resided till the beginning of April 1443. Being there he was summoned to Vijayanagara, travelled thither, and was in the great city from the end of April till the 5th December of the same year. He writes:
  • "The city of Bidjanagar is such that the pupil of the eye has never seen a place like it, and the ear of intelligence has never been informed that there existed anything to equal it in the world. It is built in such a manner that seven citadels and the same number of walls enclose each other. Around the first citadel are stones of the height of a man, one half of which is sunk in the ground while the other half rises above it. These are fixed one beside the other in such a manner that no horse or foot soldier could boldly or with ease approach the citadel."
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 43

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding Global Eco-regions?

  1. Global Eco-regions is a science-based global ranking of the Earth’s most biologically outstanding terrestrial, freshwater, and marine habitats.
  2. It is developed by WWF scientists, in collaboration with regional experts around the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 43

Global Eco-regions

  • Developed by WWF scientists, in collaboration with regional experts around the world, the Global Ecoregions is a science-based global ranking of the Earth’s most biologically outstanding terrestrial, freshwater, and marine habitats.
  • It provides a critical blueprint for biodiversity conservation at a global scale. It is the first comparative analysis of biodiversity to cover every major habitat type, spanning fi ve continents and all the world’s oceans.
  • The aim of the Global Eco regions analysis is to ensure that the full range of ecosystems is represented within regional conservation and development strategies, so that conservation efforts around the world contribute to a global biodiversity strategy.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 44

Consider the following:

  1. Detection of cancer
  2. Reduction in occurrences of wildfire
  3. Writing poetry
  4. Identification and classification of celestial objects

With the present state of development, how many of the above-mentioned things are possible through Artificial Intelligence?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 44
  • Given the escalating cases of cancer, the shortage of specialists poses a significant challenge in curbing fatalities. To address this gap, Mumbai’s Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH), the biggest cancer hospital in India, is turning to artificial intelligence (AI).
  • By establishing a ‘Bio-Imaging Bank’ for cancer, the hospital is utilizing deep learning to craft a cancer-specific tailored algorithm that aids in early-stage cancer detection. It incorporated data from 60,000 patients into the biobank in the last year.
  • The project’s overarching goal is to create a robust repository encompassing radiology and pathology images, intricately linked with clinical information, outcome data, treatment specifics, and additional metadata. This comprehensive resource is strategically designed for the training, validation, and rigorous testing of AI algorithms. AI contributes significantly to cancer detection by emulating the human brain’s information processing. In cancer diagnosis, AI analyses radiological and pathological images, learning from extensive datasets to recognize unique features associated with various cancers. This technology facilitates early detection by identifying tissue changes and potential malignancies.
  • Recently, a new artificial intelligence (AI) tool and a fully automated process have successfully detected, identified, and classified its first supernova. The AI tool is called BTSbot. BTSBot stands for Bright Transient Survey Bot, and it was developed by an international group of researchers led by Northwestern University. Apart from rapidly accelerating the process of analyzing and classifying new supernovas, the bot might even be able to bypass human errors.
  • Also, recently, In a first, an artificial intelligence wrote a poetry anthology titled “I AM CODE” which featured poems and hinted at the dangers that humans may face with the rise of robots. ChatGPT can also write poetry even though its authenticity is questionable at this stage of development.
  • In many countries, Artificial intelligence is bolstering the battles against wildfires. Pano AI is one of a new class of “firetech” startups that have emerged to tackle such threats. Based in California, a U.S. state subjected to increasingly frequent and ferocious wildfires, the company uses a network of mountaintop cameras, each rotating 360 degrees every minute, to capture data that is uploaded to the cloud. In order to distinguish smoke from clouds, fog or dust, Pano uses a method of AI called object detection, which has been trained to distinguish between smoke and non-smoke images. Human analysts then review the boxes to dismiss any false positives, and once smoke is confirmed, its position is pinpointed and first responders are alerted. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 45

In context of Indian stock market, consider the following statements:

  1. Bonus Issue is the process of creating new shares which are given free of charge to existing shareholders.
  2. Badla System is buying of shares using borrowed money & making promises to carry forward the settlement for up to 72 days.
  3. Kerb dealings are the transactions of stocks which take place outside the stock exchanges.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 45
  • Statement 1 is correct: In corporate finance, a Bonus issue or  scrip issue, is the process of creating new shares which are given free of charge to existing shareholders. Bonus shares issue is also known as: Bonus issue/Scrip issue/Capitalisation issue. These are additional shares given to shareholders without any charges.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Badla System/ Carry forward system: Buying of shares using borrowed money & making promises to carry forward the settlement for upto 72 days, the scamsters misused it. So, SEBI discontinued Badla System (in 2001) & introduced (T+2) rolling settlement system i.e. after trade is conducted, the parties must settle it within two working days (= buyer pays money, seller deliver shares/bonds/securities). The Settlement cycle represents the time period within which the stock exchanges have to settle security transactions. Until now we had T+2 days but from 2022: T+1 started.
  • Statement 3 is correct: �������� ���������������� are the transactions of stocks which take place outside the stock exchanges— unoffi cially and take place after the normal trading hours. It is also associated with the trading of shares outside the system of official stock markets or at hours when those stock markets are closed: The reluctance of banks to lend to private companies forced the city’s entrepreneurs to turn to the kerb market.

Supplementary Notes:
Indian stock market

  • A financial instrument is defined as a document that indicates an asset to one individual (this person is owed) and a liability (this person owes) to another individual. Not all financial instruments are traded on the stock market.
  • The financial instruments that are specifically traded on the stock market are shares/ stocks, derivatives, bonds and mutual funds. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 46

Consider the following statements regarding Inner Line Permit (ILP):

Statement-I: Manipur, Mizoram, and Nagaland are the states that require a permit.
Statement-II: It is obligatory for Indian citizens from outside those states to obtain a permit for entering the protected state.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 46

Inner Line Permit (ILP)

  • ILP is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period.
  • It is obligatory for Indian citizens from outside those states to obtain a permit for entering into the protected state.
  • The document is an effort by the government to regulate movement to certain areas located near the international border of India.
  • This is an offshoot of the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulations, 1873, which protected Crown’s interest in the tea, oil and elephant trade by prohibiting “British subjects” from entering into these “Protected Areas” (to prevent them from establishing any commercial venture that could rival the Crown’s agents).
  • The word “British subjects” was replaced by Citizen of India in 1950. Despite the fact that the ILP was originally created by the British to safeguard their commercial interests, it continues to be used in India, offic ially to protect tribal cultures in northeastern India.
  • There are different kinds of ILP’s, one for tourists and others for people who intend to stay for long-term periods, often for employment purposes.
  • ILP’s valid for tourism purposes are granted as a matter of routine.
  • The states which require the permit are Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and Nagaland.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 47

Consider the following:

  1. Emission of Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) and carcinogenic polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons into the atmosphere.
  2. Increase in soil organic carbon and soil fertility.
  3. Loss of soil moisture and useful microbes.
  4. Reduced lung function.

How many of the above are the possible impacts of stubble burning? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 47

Stubble Burning

  • Recently a study conducted in Punjab by researchers at The Energy Resources Institute (TERI), All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), and the Punjab Agricultural University showed that pollution from stubble burning significantly reduced lung function and was particularly harmful to women in rural Punjab.
  • Stubble burning is the act of setting fire to crop residue to remove them from the field to sow the next crop.
  • To plant the next winter crop (Rabi crop), farmers in Haryana and Punjab have to move in a very short interval and if they are late, due to short winters these days, they might face considerable losses. Therefore, burning is the cheapest and fastest way to get rid of stubble.

Effects of Stubble Burning

  • Pollution: Emits large amounts of toxic pollutants in the atmosphere which contain harmful gases like methane (CH4), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Volatile Organic Compound (VOC), and carcinogenic polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons. These pollutants disperse in the surroundings, may undergo a physical and chemical transformation, and eventually adversely affect human health by causing a thick blanket of smog.
  • Soil Fertility: Burning husk on the ground destroys the nutrients in the soil, making it less fertile.
  • Heat Penetration: Heat generated by stubble burning penetrates the soil, leading to the loss of moisture and useful microbes.
  • Impact on Respiratory System: Concentrations of PM2.5, the category of unburnt carbon particles considered most harmful to respiratory health increase during the crop residue burning period resulting in a two to three-fold increase in most of the respiratory symptoms including wheezing, breathlessness on exertion, cough in the morning, cough at night, skin rashes, runny nose or itchiness of eyes, etc. across all age groups (10-60 years).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 48

Consider the following statements regarding Buddhism:

  1. All Tripitakas have been written in Pali language only.
  2. Buddhism split into two sects during third Buddhist council.
  3. Theravada Buddhism emerged after the decline of Hinayana school.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is correct: Once Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at Kushinagar in 483 BC, there was a need to compile his teachings, and hence four Buddhist Councils were held in a span of 500 years to collate this material into Pitakas. The result was the writing of three major pitakas- Vinaya, Sutta and Abhidhamma—that, when combined, were called Tripitaka. All of these have been written in Pali language.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In the fourth council of King Kanishka’s reign, there was a split in Buddhism, and two sects were born: Hinayana and Mahayana Buddhism.
  • Statement 3 is correct: In the later periods, Hinayana schools declined and two new schools under Buddhism were born. Thus, the four major schools developed so far under Buddhism are:
    • Hinayana Buddhism
    • Mahayana Buddhism
    • Theravada Buddhism
    • Vajrayana Buddhism
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 49

Consider the following statements:

  1. Homeostasis is the process by which organisms maintain their internal environment despite varying external environmental conditions.
  2. The process by which zooplankton species cope up with external environmental conditions is known as aestivation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 49

Statement 2 is incorrect: The process by which zooplankton species cope up with external environmental conditions is known as diapause.
Responses to Abiotic Factors

  • There are various ways in which living things or an organism responds to the various abiotic components. They include the following:
  • Regulators: It is the mechanism used by organisms to maintain a constant condition in the body. Homeostasis is the process by which organisms maintain their internal environment despite varying external environmental conditions. All birds and mammals are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological means which ensures constant body temperature, constant osmotic concentration via thermoregulation and osmoregulation.
  • Conformers: Most of the organisms do not have the ability to regulate their body condition and they have a fluctuating bodily condition as per the environment.
  • Migrate: Organisms travel to far off places during a particular weather condition and return when the weather condition is restored. For example, birds from Siberia migrate to south during winter to avoid the cold weather.
  • Suspension: Many organisms, if unable to migrate, might avoid the stress by escaping in time. They do this by reducing their metabolic activity and going into a state of ‘dormancy’. The familiar case of bears going into hibernation during winter is an example of an escape in time. Some snails and fish go into aestivation to avoid summer-related problems-heat and desiccation. Under unfavourable conditions, many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds are known to enter diapause, a stage of suspended development.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 50

Consider the following statements regarding the "National Statistical Commission":

  1. It is a statutory body set up on the recommendations of the Rangarajan Commission.
  2. It works under the aegis of the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 50
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India through a resolution dated 1st June 2005 set up the National Statistical Commission (NSC), on the recommendations of the Rangarajan Commission, which reviewed the Indian Statistical System in 2001. It has a parttime Chairperson, 4 part-time Members, and an ex-officio Member, each having specialisation and experience in specified statistical fields. The Chief Statistician of India is the Secretary of the Commission.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The commission works under the aegis of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The objective of its constitution is to reduce the problems faced by statistical agencies in the country in relation to the collection of data. It would lay special emphasis on ensuring the collection of unbiased data so as to restore public trust in the figures released by the Government. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 51

With respect to Balance of Trade, which of the following statement is/are correct?

  1. Balance of trade is the difference between the value of a country’s imports and exports for a given period.
  2. The Balance of Payment (BOP) combines only public investments to find out the money inflow and outflow in an economy over a specific period.
  3. Positive Balance of Payment (BOP) indicates deficit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 51
  • Statement 1 is correct: The term ‘trade’ refers to buying and selling of goods. However, when it is performed on an international scale, it is called imports and exports. Balance of Trade (BOT) mentions the import and exports made by a nation’s economy within a specific year. BOT only records tangible items. Balance of trade (BOT) is the difference between the value of a country’s imports and exports for a given period and is the largest component of a country’s balance of payments (BOP).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Balance of Payment is a combination of accounts that shows the commercial transactions concluded by a country within a specific period with other countries. These accounts reflect every monetary transaction, i.e. commodities, services, and incomes during that period. The Balance of Payment (BOP) combines every private and public investment to fi nd out the money inflow and outflow in an economy over a specific period. 
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The ideal status of BOP should be zero, which indicates that the money coming into the country is equal to the money going out of the country. However, this situation is highly unlikely. Therefore, if it is negative, then it indicates deficit, and if positive, it means a surplus.

Balance of Payments

  • The Balance of Payments provides a framework that is applicable for a range of economies, from the smallest and least developed economies to the more advanced and complex economies.
  • As a result, it is recognized that some items may not be relevant in all cases. The balance of payments is a statistical statement that summarizes transactions between residents and non-residents during a period.
  • It consists of the goods and services account, the primary income account, the secondary income account, the capital account, and the financial account.
  • Under the double-entry accounting system that underlies the balance of payments, each transaction is recorded as consisting of two entries and the sum of the credit entries and the sum of the debit entries is the same.
  • The different accounts within the balance of payments are distinguished according to the nature of the economic resources provided and received.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 52

Regarding the Parliamentary committees, consider the following statements:

1. The members of these committees are elected or nominated from among the Members of Parliament (MPs) from both houses.
2. Standing Committees are temporary committees that are constituted for a fi xed term, usually for a year.
3. Ad Hoc Committees are permanent committees formed to investigate specifi c issues or events that require immediate attention.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 52

Parliamentary committees Standing Committees

  • Standing Committees are permanent committees that are constituted for a fi xed term, usually for a year.
  • These committees are reconstituted in every parliamentary session. Each Standing Committee is responsible for specifi c areas or ministries, and their primary functions include the examination of bills, budgets, and other policy matters related to their respective domains. The key Standing Committees in the Indian Parliament are:
  • Public Accounts Committee (PAC): The PAC examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, which highlight instances of fi nancial irregularities and mismanagement in government departments. The committee holds the government accountable for its fi nancial decisions and ensures transparency in public expenditure.
  • Estimates Committee: This committee examines the government’s annual estimates and suggests possible reallocations of funds for various programs and policies. It aims to ensure that government spending is in line with the national priorities and is optimally utilized.
  • Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU): The COPU examines the performance and management of public sector undertakings (PSUs) and ensures their accountability and effi ciency in delivering public services.

Ad Hoc Committees:

  • Ad Hoc Committees are temporary committees formed to investigate specifi c issues or events that require immediate attention. These committees are dissolved once they complete their designated tasks.

One prominent Ad Hoc Committee is:

  • Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC): The JPC is constituted to investigate and inquire into specifi c matters of national importance. For instance, a JPC might be formed to probe a major fi nancial scam or securityrelated incident.
  • The members of these committees are elected or nominated from among the Members of Parliament (MPs) from both houses. The Lok Sabha Speaker and the Rajya Sabha Chairman appoint the committee chairs based on the proportional representation of political parties.
  • Parliamentary Committees hold extensive powers, including the authority to summon government offi cials, experts, and stakeholders to provide evidence and testimony. They can also recommend changes to legislation, policy improvements, and corrective actions to the government.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 53

Consider the following:

  1. Phasing out of old vehicles
  2. Use of leaded petrol
  3. Use of low-sulphur petrol and diesel
  4. Replace the catalytic converters from vehicles

How many of the above can use to reduce the Air pollution? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 53
  • Option (b) is correct: In the context of reducing vehicular pollution include phasing out of old vehicles, use of unleaded petrol, use of low-sulphur petrol and diesel, use of catalytic converters in vehicles, application of stringent pollution-level norms for vehicles, etc.

Pollution Control

  • CNG burns most efficiently, unlike petrol or diesel, in the automobiles and very little of it is left unburnt. Moreover, CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel, cannot be siphoned off by thieves and adulterated like petrol or diesel.
  • The main problem with switching over to CNG is the difficulty of laying down pipelines to deliver CNG through distribution points/ pumps and ensuring uninterrupted supply.
  • Simultaneously parallel steps taken in Delhi for reducing vehicular pollution include phasing out of old vehicles, use of unleaded petrol, use of low-sulphur petrol and diesel, use of catalytic converters in vehicles, application of stringent pollutionlevel norms for vehicles, etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 54

The first city-specific ‘Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan’ (ZCBAP) in India was launched in which of the following Indian cities? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 54
  • Context: Nagpur has initiated India’s first city-specific Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan (ZCBAP), aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions from buildings by 2050.
  • The plan covers public buildings, affordable housing, commercial buildings, and homes, focusing on decarbonization and sustainable development.
  • Developed by Nagpur Municipal Corporation (NMC) and Nagpur Smart and Sustainable City Development Corporation Limited (NSSCDCL), with support from international partners, the ZCBAP aligns with India’s climate goals and global commitments.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 55

Consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: Inshore waters have productivity higher than offshore waters.
  • Statement-II: Runoff from land often contains a high abundance of nutrients which get deposited in coastal waters and stimulate production.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 55

Productivity

  • Primary productivity varies both geographically and seasonally. Geographically, phytoplankton abundance generally decreases as you move from coastal to oceanic waters. Inshore tropical waters have productivity as much as 10 times higher than offshore.
  • Coastal waters are more productive than the central ocean for two main reasons. First, runoff from land often contains a high abundance of nutrients which get deposited in coastal waters and stimulate production.
  • Second, the shallower bottom along the continental shelf can trap nutrients and prevent them from sinking to greater depths. It is easier for these nutrients to be brought back to the surface when they remain trapped in the shallows.
  • Conversely, the central ocean generally has very low primary production, as these areas are far removed from any terrestrial sources of nutrients, and the great depth prevents the deep nutrients from returning to the surface.
  • Productivity is the rate at which energy is added to the bodies of a group of organisms (such as primary producers) in the form of biomass. Sunlight and oxygen are the most important factors limiting the productivity of the aquatic ecosystems.
  • Sunlight penetration rapidly diminishes as it passes down the column of water. The depth to which light penetrates a lake determines the extent of plant distribution. Suspended particulate matters such as clay, silt, phytoplankton, etc. make the water turbid. Turbidity limits the extent of light penetration and photosynthetic activity in a significant way.
  • Dissolved oxygen: In freshwater the average concentration of dissolved oxygen is 10 parts per million by weight. Oxygen enters the aquatic ecosystem through the airwater interface and by the photosynthetic activities of aquatic plants. When the dissolved oxygen level falls below 3-5 ppm, many aquatic organisms are likely to die.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 56

Which of the following statements correctly describe the technologies that have helped to reduce air pollution by replacing their predecessors?

  1. Use of LED bulbs replacing the incandescent bulbs that consumed 4-5 times more power for the same intensity of the light.
  2. The use of diesel engine tractors for farming replacing the use of animals, as rearing livestock causes enteric methane emission (EME) which makes up 30% of the total anthropogenic methane emission.
  3. Use of LPG for cooking food as compared to biogas fuel.

Select the correct answer using the following code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 56
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Although livestock produce EME, the contribution of diesel engines to air pollution is far more than livestock. The transition from Bull driven farming to engine-driven farming was mostly due to the effic iency of the engines.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: LPG offers a cleaner solution for the household cooking fuel as compared to biomass burning and helps to reduce indoor pollution. But when it is compared to biogas, which is equally clean and renewable, while the use of LPG adds net carbon into the atmosphere, LPG falls short in this context.

LED bulbs vs Incandescent Bulbs

  • LEDs use much less energy than incandescent bulbs because diode light is much more efficient, power-wise, than filament light.
  • LED bulbs use more than 75% less energy than incandescent lighting. At low power levels, the difference is even larger. Bright LED flood lamps to use only 11 to 12 watts while creating a light output comparable to a 50-watt incandescent bulb.

Benefits of using animals for Farming (although efficiency is an extremely limiting factor)

  • Animals are considered to be the backbone of the rural economy in India. Draught animals play a dominant role in our rural economy. A part from the manual labour, the traditional cultivation in India was based on the use of animal power for 97.6 % of farmers (landowners) accounting for 77.2 percent of landholdings.
  • India had the largest population of draught animals in the world (Approx. 88Million). This localized resource is an exhaustible and available resource with farmers, yet to be optimized properly.
  • Animal data (In terms of present Contribution to National Economy and Climate):
  • Contributes approx. 50 %  of all the power consumed in the farming sector in India so approx. annual saving of diesel is  23.75 MT equivalent to INR 21500 crore.
  • Gives traction power to 50 million ploughs in villages.
  • Gives employment to 20 million people on a full-time/part-time basis in the Bullock cart business.
  • Transports approx.15% of the total of the load (Tonnes-km) carried by the motor transport sector in India.
  • In load terms, bullock carts carry more load than the total load transported by railways.
  • Provides approx. 100 million tons of dry dung per year which is equivalent to INR 5000 crore /year.
  • Saves 5 million tons of firewood per year which is equivalent to INR 500 crore per year.
  • Provides by-products like skin, bone, horn, and etc. worth INR 100 crore/ year.
  • The present market value of draught animals @ average 10,000 per pair is INR 30000 crore.
  • Gives dung for Bio-gas, cakes & Biofertilizers.
  • The backbone of rural economy & an asset in bio-diversity terms.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 57

Match the following pairs;

  1. Demand-Pull Inflation - When the cost of production increases, leading to higher prices for goods and services.
  2. Cost-Push Inflation - When aggregate demand exceeds the available supply of goods and services.
  3. Structural Inflation - India faces structural bottlenecks in sectors such as agriculture, infrastructure, and logistics.

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 57
  • Pair 1 is incorrect: Demand:Pull Inflation - when aggregate demand exceeds the available supply of goods and services.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Cost:Push Inflation - when the cost of production increases, leading to higher prices for goods and services.
  • Pair 3 is correct: Structural Inflation - India faces structural bottlenecks in sectors such as agriculture, infrastructure, and logistics.

Supplementary Notes:
Inflation

  • Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It erodes the purchasing power of money and affects the overall economy.
  • Like many other countries, India has faced various episodes of inflation throughout its history.

Causes of Inflation in the Indian Economy:
Demand-Pull Inflation

  • This type of inflation occurs when aggregate demand exceeds the available supply of goods and services.
  • In India, rapid economic growth, urbanization, rising incomes, and increasing consumer spending have contributed to demand-pull inflation.

Cost-Push Inflation

  • This type of inflation occurs when the cost of production increases, leading to higher prices for goods and services.
  • Factors such as rising wages, raw material costs, fuel prices, and taxes can contribute to cost-push inflation in India.

Structural Inflation

  • India faces structural bottlenecks in sectors such as agriculture, infrastructure, and logistics.
  • Inadequate supply chain management, inefficient distribution channels, and supplyside constraints contribute to structural infl ation in the country.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 11 - Question 58

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Mahmud Ghazni received the title Yamin al-Dawla from the Abbasid Caliph.
Statement-II : Mahmud Ghazni first encountered the Hindushahi ruler Jaipal in 1001 A.D.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?