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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 1

Subhash Chandra Bose set up two headquarters of Indian National Army (INA). One was at Rangoon and the other one was at

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 1
  • The second phase of the Indian National Army (INA) began when Subhas Chandra Bose was brought to Singapore on 2 July 1943, by means of German and Japanese submarines.
  • He went to Tokyo and Prime Minister Tojo declared that Japan had no territorial designs on India.
  • Bose returned to Singapore and set up the Provisional Government of Free India on 21 October 1943.
  • The Provisional Government then declared war on Britain and the United States and was recognised by the Axis powers and their satellites.
  • Subhas Bose set up two INA headquarters, in Rangoon and in Singapore, and began to reorganize the INA.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 2

Consider the following statements.

  1. The U.S. central bank usually increases the supply of dollars to tackle economic downturns and also to fund the U.S. government’s expenditures.
  2. The global acceptability of the U.S. dollar has primarily been attributed to the popularity of U.S. assets among investors.
  3. U.S. has been running a persistent trade surplus for decades now.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 2

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • The U.S. central bank usually increases the supply of dollars through various means to tackle economic downturns and also to fund the U.S. government’s expenditures. But it should be noted that the U.S. Federal Reserve is not the only central bank in the world that has been debasing its currency by engaging in expansionary monetary policy over several decades. Other countries have also been expanding their respective money supplies to address their domestic economic problems. As long as the U.S. does not debase its currency at a faster pace than other countries, the dollar may manage to hold its value against other currencies and hence its reserve currency status may not come under serious threat.
  • The global acceptability of the U.S. dollar has primarily been attributed to the popularity of U.S. assets among investors. It should be noted that the U.S. has been running a persistent trade deficit for decades now (in fact the last time the U.S. ran a trade surplus was way back in 1975). That is, the value of its imports has for a long time exceeded the value of its exports to the rest of the world. The excess dollars that the rest of the world accumulates due to the U.S.’s trade deficit has been invested in U.S. assets such as in debt securities issued by the US government.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 3

Variola virus is commonly associated with which of the following disease? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 3

The history of smallpox holds a special place in the field of epidemiology. One of the deadliest diseases known to mankind, it is also the only one to have been eradicated by vaccination. However, the origins of smallpox have always been unclear. Until now, the earliest confirmed case of the disease was found in the mummified remains of a 17th-century Lithuanian child, even though written records suggest that it is much older. A new study carried out by an international team of researchers provides fresh insight into the origins of the disease caused by the Variola virus (VARV), suggesting that the smallpox was in existence as early as during the Viking age in the 8th century CE.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Internal Complaints Committee (ICC).

  1. The constitution of Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is mandated by law under the 2013 Prevention of Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act.
  2. As per law, the Internal Complaints Committee needs to have a minimum of four members, with at least half of them women.
  3. A functional Internal Complaints Committee is one of the key conditions set up by the Ministry of Sports to grant annual recognition to the national sports federations.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 4

Internal Complaints Committee (ICC), as mandated by law under the 2013 Prevention of Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act.

The ICC was designed to be the first port of call for any grievance under the PoSH Act, a key element needed to create a safe workplace environment for women.

As per the law, it needs to have a minimum of four members – at least half of them women – of whom one shall be an external member, preferably from an NGO or an association that works for women’s empowerment or a person familiar with issues related to sexual harassment, like a lawyer. In fact, a functional ICC is one of the key conditions set up by the Ministry of Sports to grant annual recognition to the federations.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Buildings Breakthrough Initiative.

  1. The goal of the Buildings Breakthrough Initiative is to make near-zero emissions and resilient buildings the new normal by 2030.
  2. The initiative was launched by India.
  3. It is hosted by the Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 5

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The Governments of France and Morocco, together with the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), launched the Buildings Breakthrough today at COP28, which will see countries joining forces to accelerate the transformation of the sector – which accounts for 21 per cent of global greenhouse gas emissions – with a view to making near-zero emissions and climate resilient buildings the new normal by 2030. 
  • The Buildings Breakthrough is part of the Breakthrough Agenda, which provides a framework for countries, businesses and civil society to join up and strengthen their actions every year in key emitting sectors, through a coalition of leading public, private and public-private global initiatives.
  • It is coordinated under the auspices of the UNEP-hosted Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction (GlobalABC).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Powering Past Coal Alliance (PPCA).

  1. PPCA is a coalition involving governments, businesses, and organizations, focusing on transitioning from unabated coal power to clean energy.
  2. India is part of PPCAas it has committed to phasing out of coal production.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 6

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 7

Vegetative Propagation, a form of asexual reproduction can be achieved by which of the following parts of a plant?

  1. Roots
  2. Leaves
  3. Stem

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 7
  • Plant propagation is the process of creating new plants. There are two types of propagation: sexual and asexual. Sexual reproduction is the union of the pollen and egg, drawing from the genes of two parents to create a new, third individual. Sexual propagation involves the floral parts of a plant.
  • Asexual or vegetative propagation involves taking a part of one parent plant and causing it to regenerate itself into a new plant. The resulting new plant is genetically identical to its parent.
  • There are many plants in which parts like the root, stem, and leaves develop into new plants under appropriate conditions. Unlike in most animals, plants can indeed use such a mode for reproduction. This property of vegetative propagation is used in methods such as layering or grafting to grow many plants like sugarcane, roses, or grapes for agricultural purposes. Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds. Such methods also make possible the propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine that has lost the capacity to produce seeds.

Hence all the options are correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 8

Which of the follow ing is/are the components of fly ash?

  1. Iron Oxide
  2. Potassium Oxide
  3. Aluminium Oxide
  4. Titanium Dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 8
  • Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notifies norms for fly ash utilization by power plants.
    • MoEFCC has notified the latest amendments exercising the power under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986. Amendments are aimed at better utilization of fly ash by coal-based thermal power plants (TPPs) in the country.
  • About Fly ash:
    • Ash is the mineral matter left after burning coal. In a power plant, a major portion of the ash is carried off with flue gases (hence, the term fly ash), and can be filtered using electrostatic precipitators. Due to improper handling, it ends up in neglected ash ponds in dangerous quantities, polluting the surface and groundwater.
  • Composition: substantial amounts of oxides of silicon, aluminum, calcium; arsenic, boron, chromium, lead, etc. in trace concentrations.
  • Usage: manufacturing of Portland cement, bricks, tiles, manufacturing of absorbents (for purification of waste gases, drinking water), etc.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 9

With reference to Civil Disobedience Movement in different places, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 9

Rajagopalachari

A salt march was led by him from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast in Tamil Nadu, in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement. And on April 30, 1930 he was arrested.

Sarojini Naidu
Sarojini Naidu
 led the Satyagraha at Dharasana in Gujarat.

Bonga Manjhi
The Civil Disobedience Movement, launched in March 1930, unleashed an unprecedented wave of mass participation in the country. In the region in and around Gomia town of present-day Bokaro district of Jharkhand, the Santhals joined the movement under the leadership of Bangam Manjhi.

Imam Sahib
Mohamed Saheb SK. Ahmed participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement in Bombay and was arrested on 27 June 1930 and was charged with section 4 of Ordinance V of 1930. He was convicted on 28 June 1930 and sentenced to four months of rigorous imprisonment.

The Civil Disobedience Movement was inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi on 12 March 1930. In Bombay, severe clashes have occurred between the satyagrahis raiding salt depots and the police at Juhu - Vile - Parle, Congress House, Esplanade Maidan, Gowalia Tank, Bhatia Bag, K.E.M. Hospital, Kurla Churchgate, Koliwada, Matunga, and Wadala, etc.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 10

The fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause which of the following health issues?

  1. Breathing and respiratory symptoms
  2. Irritation
  3. Inflammations
  4. Lungs Damage
  5. Premature deaths

Select the correct option using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 10
  • Option (d) is correct: The fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and damage to the lungs and premature deaths.

Human Health

  • According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
  • These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and damage to the lungs and premature deaths.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 11

The awardee for the Gandhi Peace Prize is selected by a five-member jury consisting of which of the following?

  1. Prime Minister
  2. Chief Justice of India
  3. Leader of Opposition
  4. Union Minister of Culture

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 11

Instituted in 1995, the Gandhi Peace Prize is awarded for social, economic, and political transformation through nonviolence, to any deserving person/s or institution/s. The award comprises a citation and an amount of Rs 1 crore and is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or gender and any association, institution, or organisation.
The awardee is selected by a five-member jury comprising the:

  • Prime Minister
  • Chief Justice of India
  • Leader of the Opposition
  • Two eminent personalities

The Union Minister of Culture is not a member of the committee.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 12

With reference to administration of tribal areas, consider the following statements:

1. Tribal areas are autonomous districts but not independent of state control.
2. The Governor can split an autonomous district into multiple regions for diverse tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 12

Administration of Tribal Areas

  • Tribal areas are governed as autonomous districts but remain under the e xecutive authority of the state.
  • The state’s Governor has the power to organize and reorganize the a utonomous district, including modifying its area and boundary lines.
  • If multiple tribes exist within an autonomous district, the Governor is authorized to divide it into separate autonomous regions.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 13

Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations High Seas Treaty:

  1. It is the first legally binding treaty that aims at responsible use of the marine environment.
  2. It helps to place 30% of the seas into protected areas by 2030. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 13

The High Seas Treaty is also known as the agreement on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction or 'BBNJ'.
The background of the BBNJ: In the year 1982, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) was adopted. This delineated the rules to govern the oceans and the use of its resources. However, there was no comprehensive legal framework and guide that covered the high seas. It is in this context that the need arose for the BBNJ.

  • Statement 1 is correct: This is the world's first treaty to safeguard oceans outside state borders. The objectives of this legally binding agreement are to preserve the intrinsic value of marine biological diversity, uphold the integrity of ocean ecosystems, and safeguard, care for, and ensure the responsible use of the maritime environment.
  • Statement 2 is correct: By 2030, it seeks to turn thirty per cent of the oceans into protected areas (a commitment made by nations at the UN biodiversity conference in 2022). It will offer a framework for lawfully creating sizable marine protected areas (MPAs) in order to prevent the extinction of wildlife and distribute the high seas' genetic resources. It also includes environmental evaluations to determine how much harm commercial operations like deepsea mining could do. The pact includes mechanisms for resolving disputes and provisions grounded in the polluter-pays principle with the goal of bolstering resilience.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 14

Which of the following personalities were tried and sentenced to imprisonment in the Kanpur Bolshevik Case, 1924?

  1. S.A.Dange
  2. Muzaffar Ahmed
  3. Nalini Gupta
  4. Shaukat Usmani

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 14
  • Kanpur Bolshevik conspiracy case was a controversial court case initiated in British India in 1924.
  • It was against the newly turned communists by the British government. The charge on them was 'to deprive King-Emperor of his sovereignty of British India, by complete separation of India from imperialistic Britain in a violent revolution.
  • S.A.Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed, Nalini Gupta and Shaukat Usmani in the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case, all four were sentenced to four years of imprisonment.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 15

Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the ‘Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 15

The Government has launched the ‘Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index’ as part of the ‘Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan’ for Persons with disabilities.
The government launched the ‘Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index’ to mark the next chapter of its flagship Campaign, the ‘Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan’.
The Index was prepared in collaboration with The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI). The ‘Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index’ helps industries and corporations to participate in the Accessible India Campaign (AIC) by voluntarily evaluating their readiness for making the workplace accessible for Persons with Disabilities.
The Index has been prepared with a holistic approach and may be applied and used by organisations irrespective of their size and scale.
The absorption and recognition of the Index by the Corporate Sector and public sector organisations will benefit them immensely by:

  • Being the benchmark.
  • Take Progressive steps to increase support.
  • Fully utilise a diverse talent pool.
  • Reduce employee turnover, increase employee loyalty and increase the morale and productivity of other employees in the organisation.
  • Create a positive brand image.
  • Expand the customer base through new products and services.
  • Enhance shareholder value.
  • Above all, the Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index shall promote human dignity and social cohesion where all citizens have equal access to opportunities to fully realise their potential.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

  1. It is a compilation of poems sung by women in the ancient Indian society.
  2. It is classified as part of the Khuddaka Nikaya, the collection of short books in the Sutta Pitaka.
  3. Originally, the texts were orally composed and transmitted in Magadhi, but they were subsequently written in Pali.
  4. It represents the earliest surviving text within Theravada Buddhism that portrays the spiritual experiences of women.

The statements given above relate to which of the following texts/treatises?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 16
  • The Therigatha is translated as the ‘Verses of the Elder Nuns’. It is a Buddhist text, a collection of short poems of early enlightened women who were elder nuns. The Therigatha is the earliest extant text depicting women’s spiritual experiences in Theravada Buddhism.
  • In the Pali Canon, the Therigatha is classified as part of the Khuddaka Nikaya, the collection of short books in the Sutta Pitaka. It is the companion text to the Theragatha, verses attributed to the senior monks. The poems in Therigatha were composed orally in the Magadhi language and were passed on orally until about 80 BCE, when they were written down in Pali. Therigatha is a very significant document in the study of early Buddhism. It contains passages reaffirming the view that women are the equal of men in terms of spiritual attainment, as well as verses that address  the issues of particular interest to women in the ancient society.
  • Sumangala-Vilasini: Buddhaghosha's commentary on the Digha Nikaya.
  • Stridharmapaddhati: Sanskrit-language text written in the court of Thanjavur, the Maratha kingdom of the present-day Tamil Nadu. It outlines the duties of women from an orthodox Hindu point of view, based on several Shruti, Smriti and Puranic texts.
  • Divyavadana: Sanskrit anthology of Buddhist Avadana tales. It may be dated to the 2nd century CE. Typically, the stories involve the Buddha explaining to a group of disciples how a particular individual, through actions in a previous life, came to have a particular karmic result in the present.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 17

With extent of mass participation in the Civil Disobedience Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. Students and youth played a prominent part in the boycott of foreign cloth and liquor.
  2. Muslims stayed away from the movement.
  3. Women marked their entry into the public sphere.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 17

Several sections of the population participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

  • Women: Gandhi had specially asked women to play a leading part in the movement. Soon, they became a familiar sight, picketing outside liquor shops, opium dens and shops selling foreign cloth. For Indian women, the movement was the most liberating experience and can truly be said to have marked their entry into the public sphere.
  • Students: Along with women, students and youth played the most prominent part in the boycott of foreign cloth and liquor.

Muslims: The Muslim participation was nowhere near the 1920-22 level because of appeals by Muslim leaders to stay away from the movement and because of active government encouragement to communal dissension. Still, some areas such as the NWFP saw an overwhelming participation. Middle class Muslim participation was quite significant in Senhatta, Tripura, Gaibandha, Bagura and Noakhali. In Dacca, Muslim leaders, shopkeepers, lower class people and upper class women were active. The Muslim weaving community in Bihar, Delhi and Lucknow were also effectively mobilised.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

  1. Ecological succession is defined as an orderly process wherein an initial pioneer community goes through transition to culminate into a climax community.
  2. Hydrosere or hydrarch succession starts in a water body like pond where the pioneer community consists of lichens and mosses.
  3. Xerosere (Xerarch) succession starts on a bare rock where the pioneer community consists of phytoplankton.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 18
  • Statement 1 is correct: Ecological succession is defined as an orderly process of changes in the community structure and function with time mediated through modifications in the physical environment and ultimately culminating in a stabilized ecosystem known as climax. The whole sequences of communities which are transitory are known as seral stages or seres whereas the community establishing first of all in the area is called a pioneer community.
  • The climax community is characterized by maximum biomass and symbiotic (mutually beneficial) linkages between organisms and is maintained quite efficiently per unit of available energy.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Hydrosere/ Hydrarch succession starts in a water body like pond. A number of intermediate stages come and ultimately it culminates in a climax community which is a forest. The pioneer community consists of phytoplanktons, which are free floating algae, diatoms etc. Gradually these are replaced by rooted submerged plants followed by rooted-floating plants.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Xerosere/ Xerarch succession originates on a bare rock, which lacks water and organic matter. Here the climax community is a forest, although the intermediate stages are very different. The pioneer community here consists of crustose and foliose lichens. These lichens produce some weak acids and help in disintegrating the rock, a process known as weathering. Their growth helps in building up gradually some organic matter, humus and soil. Then comes the community of mosses, followed by herbs, shrubs and finally the forest trees. Throughout this gradual process there is a slow build-up of organic matter and water in the substratum.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Irregularities in polling’:

Statement I: Undue influence and bribery at elections are electoral offences under the Indian Penal Code.

Statement II: Undue influence and bribery at elections are non-cognizable offences.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 19
  • Statement I is correct: Undue influence and bribery at elections are electoral offences under Sections 171B and 171C, respectively, of the IPC.
  • Statement II is correct: These offences are non-cognizable offences, with punishment provision of one year’s imprisonment, or fine, or both.

Irregularities in polling

  • Consequent to Indian independence, the Parliament enacted a special enactment.i.e., the Representation of Peoples Act . 1951, to regulate election proceedings and control electoral malpractices. However, ordinary criminal courts still have jurisdiction to decide on election-related offences.
  • Sections 171B to 1711 of Chapter IXA of the Indian Penal Code deal with the offences related to elections and punishment concerning such offences. Chapler IXA includes elections of Parliament, State Legislatures, as well as local bodies such as Panchayats and municipalities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 20

What are the Constitutional provisions in India to protect Biodiversity?

  1. Article 48
  2. Article 48A
  3. Article 50
  4. Article 51A

Select the correct option using the codes given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 20

Constitutional provisions in India to protect Biodiversity

  • Under Article 48A of the Indian Constitution, it is stated that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.
  • Article 51A of the Constitution of India specifies fundamental duties of every citizen. It is the duty of every citizen of India: to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the national struggle for freedom; to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to value and preserve the rich heritage of the composite culture; to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures; and to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 21

In the context of Unitary System of Government, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The central government has the ultimate decision-making authority.
Statement-II: France, Japan, and the United Kingdom all have this type of government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 21
  • Statement 1 is correct: The central government has the ultimate decisionmaking authority.
  • Statement 2 is correct: France, Japan, and the United Kingdom all have this type of government.

Unitary System of Government

  • A unitary system of government is a political system where power and authority are concentrated in a central government, and regional or local governments derive their powers from the central government. In this system, the central government has the ultimate decision-making authority and can create or abolish regional or local governments as it sees fit. Some examples of countries with unitary systems of government include:
    • France: France has a unitary system where power is concentrated in the central government. The country is divided into administrative regions, but these regions have limited autonomy and derive their powers from the central government.
    • United Kingdom: The United Kingdom operates under a unitary system, although it has devolved certain powers to regional governments in Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland. However, these devolved powers can be revoked by the central government if needed.
    • Japan: Japan has a unitary system of government where power is concentrated in the central government. The country is divided into prefectures, but these prefectures have limited powers and are subject to the authority of the central government.
    • Italy: Italy operates under a unitary system where power is concentrated in the central government. The country is divided into regions, but these regions have limited powers and derive their authority from the central government.
    • China: China has a unitary system where power is concentrated in the central government. The country is divided into provinces, autonomous regions, and municipalities, but these subnational units derive their powers from the central government and are subject to its authority.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 22

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A Person of Indian Origin (PIO) means a foreign citizen, except a national of Pakistan, Afghanistan Bangladesh, China, Iran, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Nepal.
  2. PIOs are not eligible to obtain an Indian passport.
  3. They are not entitled to enjoy parity with NRIs in economic, financial and educational benefits in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 22
  • Statement 1 is correct: A Person of Indian Origin (PIO) means a foreign citizen, except a national of Pakistan, Afghanistan Bangladesh, China, Iran, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Nepal.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: PIO held an Indian Passport at any time.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: They are entitled to enjoy parity with NRIs in economic, financial and educational benefits in India.

Person of Indian Origin (PIO)

  • A Person of Indian Origin (PIO) means a foreign citizen, except a national of Pakistan, Afghanistan Bangladesh, China, Iran, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Nepal. PIO, who at any time held an Indian passport.
  • They enjoy parity with NRIs in economic, financial and educational benefits like:
    • Acquisition, holding, transfer and disposal of immovable properties in India, except agricultural/ plantation properties.
    • Admission of children to educational institutions in India under general category quota for NRIs, including medical and engineering college, IITs, IIMs etc.
    • Availing various housing schemes of LIC of India, State Government and Central Government agencies.
    • All future benefits  that would be exempted to NRIs would also be available to the PIO card holders.
  • However, PIOs do not enjoy employment rights in Government of India services nor can they hold any constitutional office in the Government of India. They need prior permission for undertaking mountaineering, missionary activities, and research work and to visit restricted areas in India.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 23

Consider the following statements with reference to Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs):

  1. It is a basket of securities that is traded on the stock exchange.
  2. Like mutual funds, they are only traded once a day after the market closes.
  3. There are no underlying assets involved in these operations.
  4. Unlike Mutual Funds, fund manager may also change the composition of the portfolio.

How many of the statement(s) above is/ are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 23
  • Statement 1 is correct: An ETF is a basket of securities, shares of which are sold on a stock exchange. An exchange traded fund (ETF) is a type of security that tracks an index, sector, commodity, or other asset, but which can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange the same way a regular stock. ETFs are a mix of open-ended and closeended mutual funds.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: ETF share prices fl uctuate all day as the ETF is bought and sold; this is different from mutual funds that only trade once a day after the market closes. ETFs can be traded at any point during the trading day.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Commodities, like gold, are widely traded in ETFs. There isn’t any physical delivery of commodity. The investor is just provided with an ETF certifi cate, similar to a stock certificate.  
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Unlike Mutual Funds in which fund manager may also change the composition of the portfolio Bharat 22 is an ETF that will track the performance of 22 stocks of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE), the Composition of portfolio in ETF is fixed and it will not change.  

Supplementary Notes:
Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)

  • If an investor holds the ETF then he will get returns from the dividend generated by those CPSE companies in the backend.
  • He may also sell these ETF to a third party via stock exchange, hence called Exchange Traded Funds.  
  • Bharat-22 ETF is managed by the ICICI Prudential AMC while Asia Index is the index provider.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 24

Mission 50K-EV4ECO, to promote the growth and development of value chain of India’s electric vehicle industry has been launched by:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 24
  • Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) recently announced a new scheme Mission 50KEV4ECO to boost the electric vehicle (EV) ecosystem in the country.
  • About Mission 50K-EV4ECO:
    • The objective of the mission is to promote the growth and development of the value chain of India’s electric vehicle industry.
    • It aims at strengthening the EV ecosystem, including uptake for two, three and four-wheelers through direct and indirect lending.
    • The pilot scheme, which is the precursor to EVOLVE scheme by SIDBI-World Bank, has two components -direct lending and indirect lending.
    • Under direct lending, SIDBI will directly give loans to eligible MSMEs (including aggregators, fleet operators, and EV leasing companies) for the purchase of electric vehicles and develop charging infrastructure, including battery swapping.
    • The indirect scheme targeted at NBFCs, including small unrated focused and emerging NBFCs, actively engaged in EV financing, will reach out to the last mile by inducing access to funds as also reducing landed cost.
  • Key facts about SIDBI o It was established under an Act of Parliament in 1990. o It is the Principal Financial Institution engaged in the promotion, financing & development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector and coordination of the functions of the various institutions engaged in similar activities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution guarantee to every person the freedom of conscience and the right to profess practice and propagate religion.
  • Statement-II: In L Chandra Kumar v Union of India, the Supreme Court held that secularism is the basic feature of the Constitution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 25
  • Statement 1 is correct: Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution guarantee to every person the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propogate religion.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that “secularism is the basic feature of the Constitution.” 

Secularism

  • In the context of secularism in India, it is said that ‘India is neither religious, nor irreligious nor anti- religious.’ It implies that in India there will be no ‘State’ religion – the ‘State’ will not support any particular religion out of public fund. This has two implications,
  • Every individual is free to believe in, and practice, any religion he/ she belongs to, and,
  • State will not discriminate against any individual or group on the basis of religion.
  • The concept of secularism was already implicit in the Constitution, “liberty of belief, faith and worship”. Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution guarantee to every person the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propogate religion.
  • In St. Xaviers College v. State of Gujarat, the SC has held, “although the words ‘SECULAR STATE’ are not expressly mentioned in the Constitution but there can be no doubt that Constitution-makers wanted to establish such a state” and accordingly Articles 25 to 28 have been included in the Constitution.
  • In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that “secularism is the basic feature of the Constitution.”
  • In Aruna Roy v. Union of India, the Supreme Court has said that Secularism has a positive meaning that is developing, understanding and respect towards different religions.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 26

Which of the following is the main reason for Laterite soils to be considered poor for cultivation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 26

The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.

  • These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compounds are left behind.
  • Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrive well in high temperature.
  • These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess.

Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 27

The Global Minimum Corporate Tax rate of 15%, as endorsed by the G7 countries, best deals with which of the following burning issues in global economy:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 27

G-7 corporate tax

  • Advanced economies making up the G7 grouping reached a “historic” deal on taxing multinational companies.
  • They agreed to counter tax avoidance through measures to make companies pay in the countries where they do business.
  • They also agreed in principle to ratify a global minimum corporate tax rate to counter the possibility of countries undercutting each other to attract investments.
  • Under base erosion and profit shifting, multinational companies shift their tax base or profits from high tax countries like India, to tax havens like Switzerland by using different techniques and accounting manipulations.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 28

As per the Aihole Inscription, King Pulikesin II defeated who among the following rulers on the banks of the Narmada?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 28

Aihole Inscription of Pulikesin II: The Megudi temple at Aihole (in Karnataka) stands on top of a hill. On the eastern wall of this Jaina temple is a Sanskrit inscription (dated to 556 Saka era: 634-635). The composer is a poet named Ravikriti. It provides details of the Pallava - Chalukya conflict. Pulikesin I’s grandson Pulikesin II (609-(642), after defeating Mangalesha, proclaimed himself as king, an event that is described in the Aihole inscription. The inscription is a prashasti of the Chalukyas, especially the reigning king Pulikesin II, referred to as Sathyasraya. One of the most outstanding victories of Pulikesin II was the defeat of Harshavardhana’s army on the banks of the Narmada.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Negative or neutral voting’:

  1. Negative voting allows voters to reject all of the candidates on the ballot.
  2. In PUCL vs. Union of India Judgement 2013 the Supreme Court held that voters have the right to express their disapproval of all the candidates by voting NOTA.
  3. Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral Reforms favoured neutral voting and was of the view that it serves a great public purpose.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 29
  • Statement 1 and 2 are correct:
  • None of The above (NOTA) is a ballot option in which the voter has the choice to record his disapproval of all the candidates in a voting system.
  • The Supreme Court in PUCL v. Union of India judgement, 2013 directed the use of NOTA in the context of direct elections to the Lok Sabha and the respective State Assemblies.
  • The judgment delineated that in a direct election the voters must be given an option to choose “None of the above” to express their dissatisfaction with all the candidates/ political parties on the ballot.
  • The Committee on Electoral Reforms (Dinesh Goswami Committee) expressed its disapproval and concluded that the inclusion of the “None of The above ” (NOTA) option does not serve any meaningful purpose,
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with electoral reforms. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was formed in 1990. This committee was concerned with the electoral reforms. It recommended that there is a need for restructuring of the accounting of election expenses.

Negative or neutral voting:

  • Negative Voting’ is when a voter wants to cast a negative vote, that is, when the voter makes a choice to vote for none of the candidates contesting elections in his constituency.
  • The voter, in this instance, registers a ‘negative vote’, which implies that he does not support any of the candidates fisted on the ballot but still registers his vote.
  • Along with recording his choice, the voter also protects his ballot from being misused by someone else. This has to he distinguished from a voter’s ‘right not to vote’ which means a voter refusing to exercise his franchise.
  • This is also different form not voting at all where the voter does not come out and cast his vote, and thereby his vote gets added to the percentage of people who did not vote,
  • The concept of ‘negative voting’ is not a new one. It is prevalent in several democracies across the world. Although it appears in different facets, it has not been implemented rigorously.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding the Lokpal:

1. It was established through the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
2. A high-level selection committee, including the Prime Minister, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Leader of the Opposition, Chief Justice, and eminent jurist, appoints its members.
3. The Lokpal has the authority to investigate allegations of corruption against public servants at the state level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 30

Lokpal

  • The Lokpal is an ombudsman institution at the central level in India. It was established through the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
  • The primary objective of the Lokpal is to investigate and prosecute cases of corruption against public servants at the central government level, including the Prime Minister, Members of Parliament, and central government employees.
  • The Lokpal is an independent body, and its members are appointed by a highlevel selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (lower house of Parliament), the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India, and an eminent jurist nominated by the President of India.

Jurisdiction of Lokpal:

  • The Lokpal has the authority to investigate allegations of corruption against public servants at the central level.
  • This includes corruption cases related to the misuse of public offi ce, bribery, embezzlement of public funds, and other acts of corruption.
  • However, the Lokpal does not have jurisdiction over the state governments or their employees.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 31

Consider the following statements:

  1. These are igneous rocks formed out of magma.
  2. These rocks provide evidence for the theory of Continental Drift.

Which of the statements given above are correct regarding tillite rocks?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 31
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Tillite is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. At the base of the Gondwana system, there is thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. The glacial tillite provides evidence of paleoclimates.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. The base of the system has thick tillite. Counterparts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia besides India. Overall resemblance of the Gondwana-type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. Thus, it supports the theory of Continental Drift.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 32

Consider the following statements:

1. Lokayuktas have the authority to investigate and prosecute cases of corruption against public servants at the central government level only.
2. The jurisdiction of Lokayuktas is limited to the central level, and may extend to the state government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 32

Lok Ayuktas

  • Lok Ayuktas are similar institutions to Lokpal but operate at the state level. The concept of Lokayuktas has been in existence in some states even before the establishment of the central Lokpal.
  • After the enactment of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, it became mandatory for every state to establish a Lokayukta within one year from the commencement of the Act.

Jurisdiction of Lok Ayuktas

  • Lokayuktas have the authority to investigate and prosecute cases of corruption against public servants at the state government level.
  • This includes Chief Ministers, Ministers, Members of the State Legislature, and state government employees.
  • The jurisdiction of Lokayuktas is limited to the respective states they are established in and does not extend to the central government.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 33

Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 33
  • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The 11th five-year plan (2007 - 2012) aims to achieve inclusive growth, improve the quality of life for the citizens of the state and contribute to the larger national goals of socioeconomic development. It did not focus on strengthening capital markets as a part of inclusive growth whereas it mainly concentrated on eradicating poverty, providing employment opportunities, promoting education and health care, and increasing agricultural productivity as part of inclusive growth
  • Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Fifth Five Year Plan (1974–79) had its focus on poverty alleviation and self-reliance. The popular rhetoric of poverty alleviation was sensationalised by the government to the extent of launching a fresh plan, i.e., the Twenty-point Programme (1975) with a marginal importance being given to the objective of ‘growth with stability’ (one of the major objectives of the Fourth Plan).
  • Pair 3  is correctly matched: The Second Five Year Plan period was 1956–61. The strategy of growth laid emphasis on rapid industrialisation with a focus on heavy industries and capital goods. The plan was developed by Professor Mahalanobis. Due to the assumption of a closed economy, shortages of food and capital were felt during this Plan.
  • Pair 4 is correctly matched: The third five-year plan (1961-1966) focused was to make India a self-reliant and self-generating economy because it was felt that the Indian government is present at the take-off stage. Based on the experiences from the first two plans agriculture was given top priority to support exports and industry
  • Pair 5 is correctly matched: The seventh five-year plan (1985- 1990) emphasized rapid growth in food-grains production, increased employment opportunities, and productivity within the framework of basic tenants of planning. For the first-time private sector got priority over the public sector. The plan was very successful; the economy recorded a 6% growth rate against the targeted 5%.

Supplementary Notes:
Five Year Plans and Its objectives

  • The Eighth Plan could not take off in 1990 due to the fast-changing political situation at the Centre and the years 1990-91 and 1991-92 were treated as Annual Plans.
  • The Eighth Plan was finally launched in 1992 after the initiation of structural adjustment policies. For the first eight Plans, the emphasis was on a growing public sector with massive investments in basic and heavy industries, but since the launch of the Ninth Plan in 1997, the emphasis on the public sector has become less pronounced and the current thinking on planning in the country, in general, is that it should increasingly be indicative.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 34

Which of the following are the possible effects of ‘Operation Twist’, sometimes seen in the news?

  1. Long term bond yields will increase.
  2. Long term loans will become cheaper
  3. Short term interest rates will decrease
  4. Saving will be less desirable

How many of the statement(s) above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 34
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Now as more long-term bonds are bought, their prices will go up, and subsequently their yield will fall. As Bond yield is inversely proportional to market price of bonds thus as prices go up the yield will fall.
  • Statement 2 is correct: As long-term bond yields fall due to buying of long-term bonds by RBI, the long term interest rates will fall as well. This will result in cheaper (not costlier) long-term loans like those for cars, houses, etc. for retail consumers, as well as for the government.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: In Operation Twist, Short Term Bonds are sold, thus driving their prices down, and increasing the interest rate in the short term.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Lower longer-term yields help boost the economy by making loans less expensive for those looking to buy homes, purchase cars, and finance projects, while saving becomes less desirable because it doesn’t pay as much interest.

Supplementary Notes:
Operation Twist

  • Under Operation Twist, RBI will conduct simultaneous purchase and sale of government securities that is it will purchase the longer-term maturities from the market and simultaneously sell the shorter    duration ones. Operation Twist involves using proceeds from selling shortterm bonds to buy long-term bonds in the market simultaneously.
  • Commercial banks were reluctant to lend money to private sector companies because of the problem of Bad Loans /NonPerforming assets.
  • If such companies could borrow money by issuing corporate bonds (at cheaper interest rate) that would lead to more factories, more jobs, more production, more GDP. RBI decided goes for operation twist as “If the yield on long term G-Sec decreased, then automatically Corporate Bond interest rates could also decrease.”
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 35

Consider the following statements regarding the employment scenario in India:

  1. More than half of the female workforce in both rural and urban India is selfemployed.
  2. More than 90% of India’s workforce has no training from formal sources.
  3. India’s Worker Population Ratio has decreased consistently during the last five years.
  4. The Female Labour force participation rate (FLFPR) has been increasing consistently since the launch of Periodic Labour Force Survey in 2017.

Which of the statements given above is /are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 35
  • Statement 1 is  incorrect: In Rural areas more than half (63%) of the female workforce is self-employed. However, in urban areas, only 34.6% of the female workforce is selfemployed, with a majority (54.2%) of them being salaried regular workers.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Despite economic slowdown in the wake of COVID pandemic and the lockdown, the Worker Population Ratio has increased to 39.8 per cent in 2020-21 from 38.2 in 2019-20, 35.3 per cent in 2018-20 and 34.7 per cent in 2017-18. 

Supplementary Notes:
Employment Scenario in India

  • As per the latest available Annual PLFS Reports, the estimated Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) on usual status for women of age 15 years and above in the country was 30.0%, 32.5% and 32.8% during 2019-20, 2020-21 and 2021-22, respectively, which shows an increasing trend.  Female LFPR was 23.3 percent in 2017-18 and 24.5 % in 2018-19, so it has been increasing every year since the launch of PLFS in 2017.
  • More than 93% of the Indian workforce does not have any vocational or technical training from formal sources.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 36

With reference to the domestic electric circuit, consider the following statements:

  1. The earth wire is used as a safety measure for appliances that have a metallic body.
  2. The potential difference between the live wire and neutral wire in our country is 220 V.
  3. In our homes, electrical devices are always connected in series.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 36

Domestic Electric Circuit:

  • In our homes, we receive a supply of electric power through a main supply (also called mains), either supported by overhead electric poles or by underground cables.
  • One of the wires in this supply, usually with red insulation cover, is called live wire (or positive). Another wire, with black insulation, is called neutral wire (or negative).
  • In our country, the potential difference between the two is 220 V. At the meter board in the house, these wires pass into an electricity meter through a main fuse. Through the main switch, they are connected to the line wires in the house. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • These wires supply electricity to separate circuits within the house. Often, two separate circuits are used, one of 15 A current ratings for appliances with higher power ratings such as geysers, air coolers, etc. The other circuit is of 5 A current rating for bulbs, fans, etc. The earth wire, which has insulation of green color, is usually connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This is used as a safety measure, especially for those appliances that have a metallic body, for example, electric press, toaster, table fan, refrigerator, etc.
  • The metallic body is connected to the earth wire, which provides a low-resistance conducting path for the current. Thus, it ensures that any leakage of current to the metallic body of the appliance keeps its potential to that of the earth, and the user may not get a severe electric shock. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Home appliances are connected in parallel to each other. The reasons why different electrical appliances in a domestic circuit are connected in parallel are: All the appliances get their rated voltage so that they function efficiently. All the components can have their independent switch to control them. If one appliance gets faulty, it doesn't affect the other appliances. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 37

Which one of the following can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 37
  • Option (c) is correct: Electrostatic Precipitator (ESPs) can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.

Air Pollution and Its Control

  • There are several ways of removing particulate matter; the most widely used of which is the electrostatic precipitator, which can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.
  • It has electrode wires that are maintained at several thousand volts, which produce a corona that releases electrons.
  • These electrons attach to dust particles giving them a net negative charge. The collecting plates are grounded and attract the charged dust particles.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 38

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Jainism split into two sects shvetambaras led by Sthulabhadra and digambaras led by Bhadrabahu
Statement-II : Mahavira asked his followers to lead a more austere life by discarding their clothes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 38

Parshva, who is considered a predecessor to Mahavira, is believed to have instructed his followers to cover both the upper and lower parts of their bodies. This is seen as a form of modesty and asceticism. However, Mahavira, the 24th and last Tirthankara of Jainism, took asceticism to a more extreme level. He advocated complete nudity as a means of shedding all worldly attachments and desires. By discarding clothing, his followers aimed to shed not only physical possessions but also the symbolic and psychological attachments associated with clothing. This leds to split in Jainism into two sects : shvetambaras, or those who donned white garments led by Sthulabhadra and digambaras, who remained naked led by Bhadrabahu.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 39

Consider the following statements:

  1. Exfoliation is the process where rock layers peel off in concentric cells due to temperature differences
  2. Block disintegration is a process in which the rocks break down in blocks due to freezing of water in the rock joints and cracks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 39
  • Statement 1 is correct: A weathering process by which the outer layers of the rock peel out in concentric cells due to difference of temperature in the outer layers is called exfoliation.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The rapid heating and cooling of the rocks creates a series of joints and cracks which leads to breaking up into smaller blocks. This process is known as block disintegration.
    Frost action: Breaking up of rocks due to the freezing of water in the rock joints and cracks, in very cold regions, is called frost action.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 40

With reference to the ‘Vijayanagar kingdom’, consider the following statements:

  1. The kingdom was established by the Sangama brothers on the south bank of Tungabhadra.
  2. The first capital was in Anegondi which was later shifted to the Hoysala town Hosapattana.
  3. The rulers adopted the emblem of the Cholas, the tiger, as their royal insignia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 40
  • Statement 1 is correct: in 1336, the Vijayanagar kingdom was established by the Sangama brothers Harihara and Bukka at Vijayanagara (present-day Hampi) on the south bank of Tungabhadra. During the next two centuries, these two states (Vijaynagar and Bahmani) fought continually and bitterly to control the rich Raichur doab and also the seaports of Goa, Honavar, etc., on the west coast, which were the supply points of the horses needed for their army.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Initially, the capital was in or near Anegondi on the north bank of the Tungabhadra River. But soon, it was shifted to the Hoysala town Hosapattana (near Hampi) on the south bank. The capital was expanded and renamed Vijayanagara, the city of Victory. Thereafter, they proclaimed themselves the rulers of Vijayanagara or Karnata-Vijayanagara.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Vijayanagara rulers adopted the emblem of the Chalukyas, the boar, or Varaha, as their royal insignia. The Chola dynasty's emblem was the tiger. The tiger was depicted on coins, seals, and banners. The Cholas chose the tiger as their royal emblem because of its symbolic qualities of strength, power, and fearlessness.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 41

Consider the following countries:

  1. Mexico
  2. Peru
  3. Chile
  4. Bolivia
  5. Argentina

How many of the above are members of the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 41
  • The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) is a separate treaty that incorporates, by reference, the provisions of the TransPacific Partnership (TPP) Agreement (signed but not yet in force), with the exception of a limited set of suspended provisions. It is a free trade agreement (FTA) between Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, Peru, New Zealand, Singapore and Vietnam.
  • Bolivia and Argentina are not members of the partnership.
  • The CPTPP recognises the challenges facing Small and Medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) in establishing export markets and includes outcomes to help make this task easier in the CPTPP region.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 42

With reference to the religious practices in India, the term "Anantashayana" refers to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 42

The shore temple, built by Narasimhavarman II, also known as Rajasimha, is dedicated to Shiva in the form of ‘Somaskanda’. The complex consists of three temples. Sandwiched between two Shiva temples is a Vishnu temple where you can see Vishnu as ‘Anantashayana’. Vishnu is known as Anantashayana when he is recumbent on the king of the Nagas (serpents), Anantashesha.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with reference to the cultural history of India:

  1. ‘Yashti’ and ‘Harmika’ are the terms associated with women mendicants in Jainism. 
  2. The inscriptions at several Stupas bear the evidence of donations made by the ‘Bhikkhunis’ to the construction of these structures.
  3. The present elaborate structures at the Sanchi Stupa were commissioned during the reign of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 43
  • The inscriptions found on the railings and pillars of the Stupas record donations made for building and decorating them. Some donations were made by the kings, such as the Satavahanas, while others were made by the guilds, such as that of the ivory workers who financed part of one of the gateways at Sanchi. Hundreds of donations were made by women and men who mention their names, sometimes adding the name of the place from where they came, as well as their occupations and names of their relatives. The Bhikkhus and the Bhikkhunis also contributed towards building these monuments. The Stupa originated as a simple semicircular mound of earth, later called Anda. Gradually, it evolved into a more complex structure, balancing round and square shapes. Above the Anda was the Harmika, a balcony like structure that represented the abode of the gods.
  • Arising from the Harmika was a mast called the Yashti, often surmounted by a Chhatri or an umbrella. Around the mound was a railing, separating the sacred space from the secular world.
  • The early Stupas at Sanchi and Bharhut were plain, except for the stone railings, which resembled a bamboo or wooden fence, and the gateways, which were richly carved and installed at the four cardinal points.
  • The monuments at Sanchi today comprise a series of Buddhist monuments starting from the Mauryan Empire period (3rd century BCE), continuing with the Gupta Empire period (5th century CE), and ending around the 12th century CE. The oldest, and also the largest monument, is the Great Stupa, also called Stupa No. 1, initially built under the Mauryans, and adorned with one of the Pillars of Ashoka. During the following centuries, especially under the Shungas and the Satavahanas, the Great Stupa was enlarged and decorated with gates and railings. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 44

In the context of recent judgement of the Supreme Court in Bilkis Bano case, consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's power to review its own order or judgement.

  1. Article 142 of the Constitution of India gives Supreme Court the power to review any of its own order or judgement.
  2. Only the parties to the case can seek a review of the judgement on it.
  3. The review petition is heard only by a larger and distinct bench to uphold the principle of natural justice.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 44
  • In a landmark judgment on January 8, 2024, the Supreme Court nullified the remission orders in the Bilkis Bano case.
  • As per Article 141 of Indian Constitution, a judgment of the Supreme Court becomes the law of the land. It is final because it provides certainty for deciding future cases. However, as per article 137 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court can review any of its judgments or orders. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Supreme Court in 2013 laid down grounds for seeking review petition of its order or judgement - the discovery of new and important matter or evidence which was not within the knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him, mistake or error apparent on the face of the record; or any other sufficient reason.
  • It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. However, the Supreme Court has discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Review petitions are also heard, as far as practicable, by the same combination of judges who delivered the order or judgment that is sought to be reviewed. If a judge has retired or is unavailable, a replacement is made keeping in mind the seniority of judges. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 45

To qualify a region as a biodiversity hotspot:

  1. It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics.
  2. It must have lost over 70 % of the original habitat.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 45

Biodiversity Hotspots

  • Norman Myers, a British Ecologist, developed the concept of Hot spots in 1988 to designate priority areas for in situ conservation. According to him, the hot spots are the richest and the most threatened reservoirs of biodiversity on the earth.
  • To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria:
    • It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics — which are to say, it must have a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable.
    • It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. In other words, it must be threatened.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 46

In the context of Indian defence, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly  matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 46
  • Anti-radiation missiles (ARM) are guided missiles designed to detect radio frequencies emitted from radar systems. As a crucial component of electronic warfare and defense strategies today, counter-radar missiles rely on electromagnetic radiation from enemy radar systems during combat. DRDO successfully tested indigenously manufactured RUDRAM, the new generation anti radiation missile (NGARM). Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • The MoD has given approval for the production of long-range guided-bomb ‘Gaurav’. This bomb which has a maximum gliding range of 80 km, will be launched exclusively launched by Su-30MKIs. The ‘Gautham’ glide-bomb, with a maximum range of 30 km, shares this exclusivity, and both bombs have a circular error probable of less than 15 meters. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • While BRAHMOS continues to maintain its forward trajectory as the world's best and fastest cruise missile system, rapid revolution in military technology worldwide has paved the way for the development of yet another futuristic supersonic cruise missile weapon - BRAHMOS-NG (Next Generation). BRAHMOS-NG promises to become one of the most potent weapon systems in future, carrying forward the excellent lineage of the existing world-class BRAHMOS. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 47

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Buddhist Chaitya situated at Kushinagar is associated with the ‘Dharmachakrapravartana’ stage of Gautama Buddha’s life.
  2. The Mauryan emperor Ashoka erected a pillar at Lumbini to mark the commencement of the Third Buddhist Council at the place.
  3. The emergence of ‘Stupas’ during ancient times in India initiated the practice of idol worship within Buddhism.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 47
  • The Dharmacakrapravartana Sutta is a Buddhist scripture that is considered by the Buddhists to be a record of the First Sermon given by Gautama Buddha, the Sermon in the Deer Park at Sarnath.
  • Sarnath is where, circa 528 BCE, at 35 years of age, Gautama Buddha taught his First Sermon after attaining enlightenment at Bodh Gaya.
  • According to the Mahaparinibbana Sutta, the Buddha mentioned Sarnath as one of the four places of pilgrimage his devout followers should visit and look upon with feelings of reverence. The other three sites are Lumbini (the birthplace of the Buddha); Bodh Gaya (where the Buddha achieved enlightenment); and Kushinagar (where the Buddha attained Parinirvana).
  • About 200 years after the time of the Buddha, Ashoka erected a pillar at Lumbini to mark the fact that he had visited the place. The Third Buddhist Council was convened in about 250 BCE in Pataliputra, under the patronage of Emperor Ashoka. It was presided over by the elder monk Moggaliputta Tissa. The Council is recognized and known to both the Theravada and the Mahayana schools,  though its importance is central only to the Theravada.
  • The Buddhist Stupas were originally built to house the earthly remains of the historical Buddha and his associates, and are almost invariably found at the sites sacred to Buddhism.
  • The concept of idol worship in Buddhism came much later with the establishment of the Mahayana sect within Buddhism. Mahayana Buddhism developed in ancient India (c. 1st century BCE onwards).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 48

With reference to Jainism and Buddhism in ancient India, consider the following statements:

  1. Jainism believes that monastic life is necessary for salvation, whereas Buddhism does not believe in such extremism.
  2. Buddhism spread far and wide in different parts of the world, but Jainism never spread beyond the boundaries of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is correct: Both Buddhism and Jainism differ in fundamental conceptions about salvation. According to Jainism, salvation is possible only by abandoning all possessions and following a long course of fasting, self'mortification, study and meditation. Hence, the monastic life is essential for salvation.
    The moral doctrines preached by Buddha were quite simple. Buddha advocated "The Middle Path," in which extremes are avoided. Man should avoid both extremes, viz., a life of comfort and luxury and a life of severe asceticisrn- the middle path was the best.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It may be said that within five hundred years, Buddha spread far and wide in different parts of the world. However, Jainism never spread beyond the boundaries of India. On the other hand , while Buddhism declined considerably in the land of its birth Jainism is stilI a living force in India, and has a stronghold upon a large and influential section of the people.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 49

Consider the following statements regarding stratification of ecological community:

  1. The gradients in the physical environment of the community cause horizontal zonation as well as vertical stratification.
  2. The animals living in geographically separated but similar substratum are called Ecological Equivalent.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 49
  • The ecological communities are arranged in different layer or strata forms, a phenomenon called stratification.
  • For example in a natural forest community, as per the height of the plants the community is arranged into number of strata or layers such as herbaceous layer consisting of herbaceous plants followed by shrubs, smaller trees and tall trees.
  • This fractionation in the community is caused by the gradations in the external environmental factors like water levels, temperature and light.
  • The gradients in the physical environment of the community cause horizontal layering or patterns among species.
  • Differences in the amount of factors such as nutrients and water can significantly alter the distribution of plant and animal species over a region.
  • Various growth form have different mode of arrangement classifying community into Horizontal Zonation and Vertical stratification, i.e. Populations assembled to form communities and these populations are dispersed into definite vertical or horizontal strata.

Horizontal Zonation

  • The spatial arrangement of community species exhibit patterns and based on these patterns the community is divided into subcommunities which are ecologically related.
  • If the distribution pattern is horizontal it’s called zonation layering in community.
  • For example in lakes or deep ponds majorly three zones are recognised i.e. littoral, limnetic (Photic or openwater) and profondal zone (Aphotic or Deep-water). The organism varies in each zone of zonation pattern.
  • Another example include mountain associated vegetation, altitudinal and latitudinal variations of vegetation in relation to climate of the existing region.

Vertical Stratification

  • Vertical change in the pattern of community structure is called stratification.
  • Vertical Stratification is as simple as the horizontal zonation community of pond, where each zone has different vertical storey, or complex stratification.
  • For example in grassland communities distinct floor with different yet characteristics growth forms are exhibited.
  • The lowest vertical sub-division is called Subterranean-beneath the soil.
  • Subterranean, which includes roots of plants, debris and living organisms like soil bacterium, protozoas or fungi etc.
  • Herbaceous substratum- Above the soil with roots of growth forms: The herbaceous substratum includes upper parts of growth forms.
  • Forest animals’ lives in different substrata and many of them may shift between substratums.
  • The properties (requirement and adjustments) of one stratum can be similar to the same stratum of different community somewhere else in the world. For example forest floor of one community in country 1 share common requirements and adjustments to the community in country 2 although these countries are geographically separated.
  • The animals living in such geographically separated but similar substratum are called Ecological Equivalent.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 50

Consider the following statements with reference to Government Securities (G-Secs):

  1. Individuals cannot buy G-Secs in the primary market.
  2. Non-scheduled Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) cannot buy G-Secs in the primary market.
  3. Government issues only debt securities.
  4. G-Secs are issued through Auctions conducted by RBI. 

How many of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 50
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Opening a Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account will allow individuals to buy
  • Government securities directly in the primary market (auctions) as well as buy/ sell in the secondary   market. For the retail investor, Government securities offer an option for long term investment.  
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: All non-E-Kuber members including non-scheduled UCBs can participate in the primary auction through scheduled commercial banks or PDs (called as Primary Members-PMs) to buy Government Securities. For this purpose, the UCBs need to open a securities account with a bank / PD – such an account is called a Gilt Account. A Gilt Account is a dematerialized account maintained with a scheduled commercial bank or PD.  
  • Statement 3 is correct: Govt. issues only debt securities.  
  • Statement 4 is correct: G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI. Auctions are conducted on the electronic platform called the E-Kuber, the Core Banking Solution (CBS) platform of RBI. So, basically e-Kuber is a platform where primary market transaction happens.  

Supplementary Notes:
Government Securities (G-Secs)

  • Government Securities G-secs are debt instruments issued by the government to borrow money.
  • The two  key categories are treasury bills – short-term instruments which mature in 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days, and dated securities – long-term instruments, which mature anywhere between 5 years and 40 years. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 51

With reference to the coagulation of blood in human beings, consider the following statements:

  • Haemostasis leads to cessation of bleeding from a blood vessel which is the first stage of wound healing.
  • Haemophilia is a genetic disorder in which the blood does not clot properly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 51
  • Blood coagulation or clotting is an important phenomenon to prevent excess loss of blood in case of injury or trauma. The blood stops flowing from a wound in case of injury. The blood clot or ‘coagulum’ is formed by a network of fibrin threads.
  • In this network, deformed and dead formed elements (erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets) get trapped.
  • Prothrombin is the inactive form of thrombin that is present in the plasma. Thrombokinase converts prothrombin to active thrombin which in turn activates fibrinogen to fibrin. All these clotting factors help in blood coagulation.
  • An injury stimulates platelets or thrombocytes to release various factors that initiate the blood clotting cascade. Calcium ions play an important role in blood coagulation.
  • The process of blood coagulation leads to haemostasis, i.e. prevention of bleeding or haemorrhage.
    Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • Primary haemostasis involves platelet aggregation and formation of a plug at the site of injury, and
    • Secondary haemostasis involves strengthening and stabilisation of platelet plug by the formation of a network of fibrin threads.
    • Haemophilia is the main blood clotting disorder.
    • Haemophilia is characterised by excessive bleeding.
    • It is due to the absence of some of the factors required in the blood clotting cascade. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • It is usually an inherited bleeding disorder in which the blood does not clot properly.
    • This can lead to spontaneous bleeding as well as bleeding following injuries or surgery. Blood contains many proteins called clotting factors that can help to stop bleeding.
    • People with hemophilia have low levels of either factor VIII (8) or factor IX (9). The severity of hemophilia that a person has is determined by the amount of factor in the blood.
    • The lower the amount of the factor, the more likely it is that bleeding will occur which can lead to serious health problems.

Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot inside the blood vessel. It blocks the flow of blood. Thrombosis can occur in arteries as well as veins. Arterial thrombosis affects the blood supply and leads to the damage of tissue, i.e. ischemia or necrosis. The clot may sometimes break free and circulate in the body and lead to embolism.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 52

DNA is the molecule that carries genetic information for the development and functioning of an organism. Consider the following statements with respect to DNA:

  1. DNA molecule is a double helix consisting of two strands of DNA linked by ionic bonds.
  2. In a DNA molecule, there are four nucleotides present in equal amounts.
  3. Among the four bases in DNA, Adenine always pairs with Guanine and Cytosine always pairs with Thymine.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 52
  • DNA is a polynucleotide, a macromolecule (macro = large) made of units callednucleotides. Each nucleotide consists of three subunits.
    • a pentose (5 carbon) sugar called deoxyribose
    • 4 nitrogenous bases Adenine (A), and Guanine (G) are purine bases and Thymine (T) and Cytosine (C) are pyrimidine bases
    • a phosphate group (PO4) positioned on the sugar
  • Chargaff’s rule: The four nucleotides are not present in equal amounts in a DNA molecule. But the amount of purines (A + G) and that of pyrimidines (T + C) is always equal. In other words, A = T and G = C. This is called Chargaff’s rule. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • A DNA molecule is three-dimensional and made of two strands helically coiled around each other. Franklin and Wilkins first showed through X-ray diffraction studies of DNA that it is a double helix. According to the Watson and Crick model
    • DNA molecule is a double helix consisting of two strands of DNA
    • The arrangement of the two strands is antiparallel, which means that the sequence of nucleotides goes up in 5′ to 3′ direction in one strand and the other strand comes down in 3′ to 5′ direction.
    • The bases of the two strands are linked by hydrogen bonds. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Base pairing is very specific as per Chargaff’s rule. Adenine, a purine base always pairs with thymine, a pyrimidine base. The purine base Guanine pairs with the pyrimidine, Cytosine. These pairs of bases are called complementary bases. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • There are two hydrogen bonds between A and T and three hydrogen bonds between G and C. A and T are complementary bases and so are G and C.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 53

Consider the following statements regarding the upper air circulation and jet streams in the atmosphere:

  1. Upper air circulation is exactly the same as that of the near surface circulation.
  2. Jet streams in Western and Central Asia blow in a west-to-east direction.
  3. Tibetan highlands split jet streams from Central & Western Asia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 53

Statement 1 is incorrect: The pattern of air circulation near the Earth's surface is witnessed only at the lower level of the atmosphere near the surface of the earth. Higher up in the lower troposphere, about three km above the surface of the earth, a different pattern of air circulation is observed. The variations in the atmospheric pressure closer to the surface of the earth have no role to play in the making of upper air circulation.

Statement 2 is correct: All of Western and Central Asia remains under the influence of westerly winds along the altitude of 9-13 km from west to east. These winds blow across the Asian continent at latitudes north of the Himalayas roughly parallel to the Tibetan highlands These are known as jet streams.
Statement 3 is correct: Tibetan highlands act as a barrier in the path of jet streams from Central and Western Asia. As a result, jet streams get bifurcated. One of its branches blows to the north of the Tibetan highlands, while the southern branch blows in an eastward direction, south of the Himalayas. It has its mean position at 25°N in February at 200-300 mb level.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 54

Consider the following:

1. Preponderance of tribal population
2. Compactness and reasonable size of the area
3. Viability as an administrative entity, such as a district, block, or taluk
4. Economic backwardness in comparison to neighbouring areas

How many of the above statements is/are criteria for declaring any area as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 54

Criteria for Declaring Schedule Areas

  • The criteria followed for declaring an area as Scheduled Area are:
    • Preponderance of tribal population
    • Compactness and reasonable size of the area
    • Under-developed nature of the area
    • Marked disparity in economic standard of the people
  • These criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution of India but have become well established. They embody principles followed in declaring ‘Excluded’ and ‘Partially-Excluded’ Areas under the Government of India Act 1935, Schedule B of recommendations of the Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas Sub Committee of Constituent Assembly and the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes Commission 1961
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 55

Consider the following statements in the context of the Pollution:

  • Statement-I: Pollution is any undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air, land, water or soil.
  • Statement-II: The Environment (Protection) Act of 1986 was enacted to safeguard and improve the quality of air, water, and soil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 55

Pollution

  • Pollution is any undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air, land, water or soil. Agents that bring about such an undesirable change are called as pollutants.
  • In order to control environmental pollution, the Government of India has passed the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to protect and improve the quality of our environment (air, water and soil).
  • Statement-II explains Statement-I. The Environment (Protection) Act of 1986 aims to address the issues described in Statement-I by providing a legal framework for preventing and controlling pollution.

Correct option is B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 56

Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of Health sector policies in India:

  1. Government of India Act of 1919 decentralized public health to provincial governments and established the Central Advisory Board of Health.
  2. Health Survey and Development Committee 1943 was led by Sir Joseph Bhore.
  3. Bhore Committee report included the state of preventive healthcare, indigenous systems and the quality of medical education.
  4. First Five-Year plan recommended that at least 10 percent of the plan outlay be devoted to health
  5. pecent of the plan outlay be devoted to health.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 56
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India Act of 1935 decentralized public health to provincial governments and established the Central Advisory Board of Health.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: It was recommended that at least 10 percent of the plan outlay be devoted to health; it received less than five percent.

Evolution of Health sector policies in India

  • The enactment of the Government of India Act of 1919 and the submission of Mont– Ford Reforms report ushered in steps – the creation of the department of public health, sanitation and medical administration.
  • The Government of India Act of 1935 decentralized public health to provincial governments and then in June 1937 it established the Central Advisory Board of Health, which appointed committees and received recommendations.
  • Towards the end of World War II, on 25 October 1943, the Government of India announced the appointment of the Health Survey and Development Committee ‘to make a broad survey of the present position in regard to health conditions and health organizations in British India and to make recommendations for future development’.
  • Emphasizing that ‘a drive to improve health conditions must necessarily be at the forefront of any programme directed towards improving the standards of living’, the committee with twenty-three members, including health practitioners, was led by Sir Joseph Bhore.
  • The report of the Bhore Committee is perhaps the most comprehensive documentation with extensive recommendations covering every aspect that has a causal effect on the quality and quantity of healthcare.
  • The principle underlining the Bhore Committee report was, and should continue to be, ‘No individual should fail to secure adequate medical care because of an inability to pay for it.’ So thorough was the Bhore Committee report that it included the state of preventive healthcare, indigenous systems and the quality of medical education down to the syllabus in its three volumes spread across 1,111 pages.
  • The template of India’s healthcare system was based on the Bhore Committee report and it influenced India’s Five-Year Plans with at least the intent to provide healthcare.
  • In 1952, the First Five-Year Plan listed the provision of water supply and sanitation, control of malaria, preventive healthcare for rural areas through centres and mobile units, health services for mothers and children, education and training, selfsuffic iency in drugs and equipment and family planning as its priorities.
  • It was recommended that at least 10 percent of the plan outlay be devoted to health; it received less than five percent.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 57

With reference to solid waste management consider the following statements:

  1. Incineration is the method of waste management that reduces the volume of waste up to 20 or 30% of the original volume.
  2. Pyrolysis is a method of solid waste management whereby solid wastes are chemically decomposed by heat in the presence of oxygen.
  3. Industries, crop farms, institutions, and hospitals are some of the sources of solid waste.

How many of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 57
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Pyrolysis is a method of solid waste management whereby solid wastes are chemically decomposed by heat without the presence of oxygen.

Solid-waste management

  • Solid-waste management, the collecting, treating and disposing of solid material that is discarded because it has served its purpose or is no longer useful. Improper disposal of municipal solid waste can create unsanitary conditions, and these conditions, in turn, can lead to pollution of the environment and outbreaks of vector-borne disease—that is, diseases spread by rodents and insects.
  • Incineration is the method that involves the burning of solid wastes at high temperatures until the wastes are turned into ashes. Incinerators are made in such a way that they do not give off extreme amounts of heat when burning solid wastes.
  • Pyrolysis is a method of solid waste management whereby solid wastes are chemically decomposed by heat without the presence of oxygen. It usually occurs under pressure and at temperatures of up to 430 degrees Celsius. The solid wastes are changed into gasses, solid residue of carbon and ash, and small quantities of liquid.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - Question 58

With reference to Civil Disobedience Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. Owing to physical constraints in making salt, a no-chaukidari tax agitation was orga