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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 1

Consider the following statements with reference to the Fragile X syndrome (FXS):

  1. It is the most prevalent inherited cause of mild-to-severe intellectual disability.
  2. There is no cure for the disease.
  3. It is an X-linked dominant condition with variable expressivity and reduced penetrance.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is correct: Fragile X syndrome (FXS), also known as MartinBell syndrome in the past, is a nonMendelian trinucleotide repeat disorder. FXS is the most prevalent inherited cause of mild-to-severe intellectual disability and the most common monogenic cause of autism spectrum disorder. It accounts for about one-half of cases of X-linked intellectual disability and is the most common cause of mental impairment after trisomy 21. Physical features include a long, narrow face with a prominent jaw and forehead, hyperflexible fingers, and large ears.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Molecular genetic tests, rather than cytogenetics, are now used to diagnose FXS. The number of cytosineguanine-guanine (CGG) repeats is measurable using polymerase chain reaction (PCR); methylation status is detected by Southern blot analysis. There is no cure for the disease, but early diagnosis and intervention can improve patients' and families' prognosis and quality of life and aid them in their future reproductive decisions.
  • Statement 3 is correct: FXS is an Xlinked dominant condition with variable expressivity and reduced penetrance.
    One reason is the differing number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene in affected individuals. Those without the disorder have 5 to 44 CGG repeats. However, individuals with abnormal alleles are classified according to their expanded number of CGG repetitions. Individuals with intermediate expansion have 45 to 54 CGG repeats, individuals with premutation expansion have 55 to 200 repeats, and those with a full mutation have >200 repeats.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 2

Consider the following statements.

  1. India’s External commercial borrowings in rupees helps to promote the internationalisation of the rupee.
  2. For a currency to be considered a reserve currency, it needs to be fully convertible, readily usable, and available in sufficient quantities.
  3. India permits full capital account convertibility, without any constraints on the exchange of its currency with others.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 2

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • India has taken some steps to promote the internationalisation of the rupee (e.g., enable external commercial borrowings in rupees), with a push to Indian banks to open Rupee Vostro accounts for banks from Russia, the UAE, Sri Lanka and Mauritius and measures to trade with ~18 countries in rupees instituted.
  • For a currency to be considered a reserve currency, the rupee needs to be fully convertible, readily usable, and available in sufficient quantitiesIndia does not permit full capital account convertibility (i.e., allowing free movement of local financial investment assets into foreign assets and vice-versa), with significant constraints on the exchange of its currency with others — driven by past fears of capital flight (i.e., outflow of capital from India due to monetary policies/lack of growth) and exchange rate volatility, given significant current and capital account deficits.
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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 3

The joint statement — ‘Horizon 2047, marks the 25th Anniversary of the Strategic Partnership between 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 3

The joint statement — ‘Horizon 2047: 25th Anniversary of the India-France Strategic Partnership, Towards A Century of India-France Relations’ — lays out a roadmap for the bilateral relationship till 2047.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Guillain-Barré Syndrome.

  1. Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a rare neurological disorder where the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own peripheral nerve cells.
  2. It often develops shortly after a person gets an infectious disease.
  3. A person with this syndrome will have difficulty speaking, walking, or performing other normal functions of the body.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 4
  • Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a rare neurological disorder where the body’s immune system — which normally protects it from infections and other foreign bodies — mistakenly attacks its own peripheral nerve cells.
  • A person with this syndrome will have difficulty speaking, walking, swallowing, excreting or performing other normal functions of the body. The condition can get progressively worse. Thus, the peripheral nerves — the nerves that branch out from the brain and the spinal cord — get damaged as a result, and the muscles can become weak or paralyzed.
  • The exact reasons for Guillain-Barré Syndrome are not yet understood. However, it often develops shortly after a person gets an infectious disease. Rarely, vaccinations can cause it. Guillain-Barré Syndrome, or GBS, also was linked to the cytomegalovirus, Epstein Barr virus, Zika virus and even the COVID-19 pandemic.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 5

Which of the following are identified as indirect farm subsidies provided by the Government?

  1. Minimum Support Price
  2. Subsidy on fertilizers and seeds
  3. Farm loan waivers

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 5

Statements:

  1. Minimum Support Price (MSP):

    • The MSP is a price guarantee provided by the government to ensure farmers receive a minimum price for their produce. This is a form of direct support rather than an indirect subsidy.
  2. Subsidy on fertilizers and seeds:

    • Subsidies on fertilizers and seeds are financial aids provided by the government to reduce the cost of inputs for farmers. This is a direct subsidy.
  3. Farm loan waivers:

    • Farm loan waivers are the government's way of providing relief to farmers by forgiving their loans. This is considered a direct subsidy.

Analysis:

None of the listed items (MSP, subsidy on fertilizers and seeds, farm loan waivers) are indirect subsidies; they are all forms of direct subsidies provided to farmers.

Hence, the correct answer is: None

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Lothal.

  1. Lothal was one of the southernmost sites of the Indus Valley civilization.
  2. It is declared as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  3. Lothal was one of the landlocked sites of the Indus Valley civilization.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 6

Only Statement 1 is correct.

  • Lothal was one of the southernmost sites of the Indus Valley civilization, located in the Bhāl region of what is now the state of Gujarat. The port city is believed to have been built in 2,200 BC.
  • Lothal was nominated in April 2014 as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and its application is pending on the tentative list of UNESCO. As per the nomination dossier submitted to UNESCO, “The excavated site of Lothal is the only port-town of the Indus Valley Civilisation. A metropolis with an upper and a lower town had in on its northern side a basin with vertical wall, inlet and outlet channels which has been identified as a tidal dockyard.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the Electoral Bonds with reference to a political party?

  1. The Electoral Bonds shall be encashed by an eligible Political Party only through a Bank account with any nationalised Bank.
  2. The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fi fteen months from the date of issue.
  3. If the Electoral Bond is deposited after expiry of the validity period, payment shall be made to payee Political Party after deducting 20% penalty.
  4. The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible Political Party in its account shall be credited on the same day.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 7
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Electoral Bonds can be encashed by an eligible Political Party only through a Bank account with the Authorized Bank, not necessarily a nationalized bank.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fi fteen days from the date of issue, not fi fteen months.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: If the Electoral Bond is deposited after the expiry of the validity period, no payment shall be made to any payee Political Party. The bond becomes invalid after the validity period.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible Political Party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
  • Electoral bonds have been proposed as an alternative to cash donations given to political parties, aiming to enhance transparency in political funding.
  • SBI is the sole authorized bank to issue electoral bonds.
  • A list of authorized SBI branches, comprising Bengaluru, Lucknow, Shimla, Dehradun, Kolkata, Guwahati, Chennai, Patna, New Delhi, Chandigarh, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Bhopal, Raipur, and Mumbai, have been designated to handle electoral bond transactions.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 8

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Henley Passport Index?

  1. It is published by Henley and Partners.
  2. India was ranked 80th in the 2023 edition of the report.
  3. Japan dropped to the third place for the first time in last five years

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 8
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Henley Passport Index is the ranking of all the world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa. The index includes 199 different passports and 227 different travel destinations. The Index is brought out by Henley and Partners.
  • Statement 2 is correct: India has climbed seven places on Henley Passport Index 2023 to 80th rank from 87 last year though the number of countries allowed visa-free access to Indian passport holders remain unchanged. In 2014, India ranked 76 with 52 countries allowing Indian passport holders visa free access but its performance has not been linear. It ranked 88 in 2015 (visa free access to 51 countries), 85 in 2016, 87 in 2017, 81 in 2018, 82 in 2019 and 2020, and 81 in 2021.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Japan, which occupied the top position on the Henley Passport Index for five years, dropped to the third place. It was replaced by Singapore, which is now officially the most powerful passport in the world, with its citizens able to visit 192 travel destinations out of 227 around the world visa-free. Germany, Italy, and Spain occupy the second place. Alongside Japan at the third position are Austria, Finland, France, Luxembourg, South Korea, and Sweden
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 9

Consider the following statements about ‘Cantonment’ boards:

  1. It is a purely military area where only military personnel and their families reside.
  2. It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 9
  • Context: The Ministry of Defence has denotified civil areas of 10 cantonments, including ones in Uttarakhand, UP, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, and Rajasthan. The process involves merging these areas with state municipalities. Himachal Pradesh, with seven cantonments, is also undergoing this process, with Khas Yol already denotified.
  • S1: Cantonments are civilian areas that are under the control of the military, and they usually have a civilian population living in them as well. Military stations, on the other hand, are purely military areas where only military personnel and their families reside.
  • S2: Cantonment administration falls under the purview of the Union Government (Ministry of Defence), as outlined in the Cantonments Act, 2006, following the guidelines set by the 74th Constitutional Amendment. While the Union Government holds administrative authority, State Governments have the prerogative to implement schemes within Cantonment areas.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 10

Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is related to additional liquidity protection for member-nations of which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 10
  • The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is related to additional liquidity protection for member nations of the New Development Bank (NDB).
  • The New Development Bank is also known as the BRICS Bank, was established by the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) countries to finance infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies.
  • The CRA is one of the mechanisms created by the NDB to provide financial support to its member countries in case of balance of payments problems or other financial crises. The CRA is being funded 41 per cent by China, 18 per cent each from Brazil, India, and Russia, and 5 per cent from South Africa.
  • CRA is ‘a framework for the provision of currency swaps in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures.’
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 11

In the context of Individual Satyagraha, who among the following was the first satyagrahi?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 11
  • In the late 1940s, Gandhiji decided to initiate a limited satyagraha on an individual basis. The aims were:
    • To show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness;
    • to express that Indians made no distinction between Nazism and autocracy that ruled India; and
    • to give another opportunity to the government to accept Congress’s Demands peacefully.
  • The carefully chosen Satyagrahis — Vinoba Bhave was to be the first Satyagrahi on 17 October 1940 and Jawaharlal Nehru the second — were surrounded by huge crowds when they appeared on the platform, and the authorities could often arrest them only after they had made their speeches. And if the Government did not arrest a Satyagrahi, he or she would not only repeat the performance but move into the villages and start a trek towards Delhi, thus participating in a movement that came to be known as the ‘Delhi Chalo’ (onwards to Delhi) movement.
  • Third Satyagrahi was Brahma Datt, one of the inmates of the Gandhi’s Ashram.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 12

With reference to the Foreign travellers who visited India, consider the following pairs:
Foreign Travellers : Visited in the reign of

  1. Abdul Razzaq : Deva Raya II
  2. Domingo Pae : Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
  3. Marco Polo : Queen Rudramadevi

How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 12
  • Pair 1 is correct: Abdul Razzaq was a Persian chronicler who visited the Vijayanagara Kingdom during the reign of Deva Raya II. His writings provide valuable historical insights into the Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccan region during that time. He came to the court of King Zamorin of Calicut as an ambassador of Shah Rukh.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Domingo Paes was a foreign traveller who visited the Vijayanagara Empire in South India during the early 16th century. He is well-known for his detailed observations of the Vijayanagara city, its society, and the reign of King Krishnadevaraya of the Tuluva dynasty under the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • Pair 3 is correct: Marco Polo was an Italian merchant. He has chronicled his travels in the book ‘ The travels of Marco Polo’. He visited the Kakatiya kingdom in India during the reign of Queen Rudramadevi. He also wrote other manuscripts such as Travels in the Land of Serpents and Pearls, The customs of the Kingdom of India etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Disposable income is derived by subtracting personal income tax payments from personal income.
Statement-II: It represents the income availableo individuals for consumption or saving after annual expenditure.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 13

Statement 2 is incorrect: It represents the income available to individuals for consumption or saving after taxes.
Supplementary Notes:
Disposable Income

  • Disposable income is derived by subtracting personal income tax payments from personal income. It represents the income available to individuals for consumption or saving after taxes.
  • For example, if a person’s personal income is $65,000 and they pay $10,000 in taxes, their disposable income would be $55,000.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

  1. The gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using cryopreservation techniques.
  2. The plants can be propagated using tissue culture methods.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 14

Let's analyze the given statements about cryopreservation and tissue culture:

1. The gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using cryopreservation techniques.
   - Cryopreservation is a well-established method used to preserve gametes (sperm and eggs) and other biological tissues at extremely low temperatures. This technique ensures that the gametes remain viable and fertile for long periods. Therefore, this statement is correct.

2. The plants can be propagated using tissue culture methods.
   - Tissue culture is a method used to propagate plants in a controlled environment by growing plant cells, tissues, or organs on nutrient culture media under sterile conditions. This technique is widely used for cloning and preserving plant species. Therefore, this statement is also correct.

Since both statements are correct, the incorrect option is:

4. Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 15

Regarding the Buddhist texts, consider the following statements:

  1. Buddha's teachings were first transmitted orally and none of his speeches were written during his lifetime. 
  2. The ort hodsfx Buddhist texts were compiled in chaste Sanskrit language.
  3. Vinaya Pitaka, which contains the monastic rules, was compiled during the Second Buddhist Council at Vaishali. 

How many of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 15
  • The Buddha (and other teachers) taught orally – through discussion and debate. Men and women (perhaps children as well) attended these discourses and discussed what they heard.
  • None of the Buddha’s speeches were written down during his lifetime. After his death (c. fifth-fourth century BCE), his teachings were compiled by his disciples at a council of the “elders” or the senior monks at Vesali (Pali for Vaishali in present-day Bihar). These compilations were known as Tipitaka – literally, three baskets to hold different types of texts. They were first transmitted orally, and then written and classified according to the length, as well as the subject matter.
  • The orthodox Buddhist scripture is referred to as the Tripitaka (or Tipitaka in Pali), also known as the Pali Canon due to its composition in the Pali language. This ancient Indian language closely resembles the language spoken by the Buddha himself.
  • The Vinaya Pitaka included rules and regulations for those who joined the Sangha or the monastic order. The Buddha’s teachings were included in the Sutta Pitaka, and the Abhidhamma Pitaka dealt with the philosophical matters.
  • The First Buddhist Council was conducted under the patronage of king Ajatasatru of the Haryanka dynasty. The Council was established in order to arrive at a consensus on how the teachings of the Buddha could be spread further. It was held in 483 BC, just after Buddha’s demise. It was held at the Sattapani caves (Sattaparnaguha) in Rajagriha. The monk who presided over the First Council was Mahakassapa. At this Council, Ananda composed the Sutta Pitaka (Buddha’s Teachings) and Mahakassapa composed the Vinay Pitaka (The Monastic Code).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

  1. It deals with grammar and poetics.
  2. It was composed between first century BCE and fourth century CE
  3. It was part of sangam corpus
  4. It was composed by Tholkappiyar

How many of the above statements are correct regarding Tolkappiyam ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 16
  • Statement 1 is correct: The "Tolkappiyam" is one of the most important classical Tamil texts, and it primarily deals with the subjects of grammar and poetics. It is considered the earliest extant work on Tamil grammar and is an essential text for the study of the Tamil language and literature.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct:The Classical Sangam corpus consists of Tholkappiyam, the eight anthologies (Ettuththokai), and Paththuppattu. According to Nadarajah Devapoopathy, the earliest layer of the Tolkappiyam was composed between the 2nd and 1st centuries BCE, and the extant manuscript versions were fixed by about the 5th century CE.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Tholkappiyam, attributed to Tholkappiyar, is the earliest extant Tamil grammatical text dealing not only with poetry but also the society and culture of the times The other epic, Manimekalai, was written by a grain merchant from Madurai. It deals with the adventures of the daughter born of the union of Kovalan and Madhavi. However, this epic is of greater religious than literary interest.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 17

Which of the following statements regarding UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) program is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 17

UNESCO MAB program

  • Launched in 1971, UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) is an Intergovernmental Scientific Programme that aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
  • MAB combines the natural and social sciences, economics and education to improve human livelihoods and the equitable sharing of benefits, and to safeguard natural and managed ecosystems, thus promoting innovative approaches to economic development that are socially and culturally appropriate, and environmentally sustainable.
  • MAB is funded through the regular budget of UNESCO and mobilizes fundsin-trust granted by Member States, bilateral and multilateral sources, and extra-budgetary funds provided by countries, the private sector and private institutions.
  • MAB-related activities are nationally financed. The Programme can grant seed funding to assist countries in developing projects and/or to secure appropriate partnership contributions.
  • The World Network of Biosphere Reserves currently counts 701 sites in 124 countries all over the world, including 21 transboundary sites.
  • The first biosphere reserve of the world was established in 1979.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 18

The Madhuban, Sonepath and Banskhera inscriptions are associated with which one of the following rulers?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 18
  • The Madhuban Copper Plate Inscription: It is a valuable historical artefact that provides a glimpse into the social, cultural, and political conditions of ancient India during the Harsha dynasty. The inscription is a copper plate grant that was issued by King Harsha in the 7th century CE, and it contains information about land grants and tax exemptions given to a group of Brahmins.
  • Banskhera inscription: Banskhera is situated in the Shahjahanpur district of Uttar Pradesh. An inscription dated 22 Harsha Samvata i.e., A.D 628, was found in 1894 here. The inscription says that Harsha had granted Market Sagar village to two Brahmins, Balachandra and Bhatta Swami. This also speaks of the victory of Rajyavardhana over Malwa King Devgupta and the murder of Devgupta by the king of Gaud named Sasanka Sonpat inscription on a copper seal: Two seals of Harsha have been found in Nalanda and Sonepath. One is of clay, while the other is of copper. The seal of Sonepath consists of the full name of Harsha. Some seals are found in Bhitora village; they are made of silver and contain the name Shri Shaldutta.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 19

In 1510, Goa was captured from the Sultan of Bijapur by which of the following Portuguese viceroys?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 19
  • Alfonso de Albuquerque, who succeeded Almeida as the Portuguese governor in India, was the real founder of Portuguese power in the East, a task he completed before his death.
  • He secured for Portugal the strategic control of the Indian Ocean by establishing bases overlooking all the entrances to the sea.
  • There were Portuguese strongholds in East Africa, off the Red Sea, at Hormuz; in Malabar; and at Malacca. They had strongholds over the entire Asian coast from Hormuz in the Persian Gulf to Malacca in the Malaya.
  • The Portuguese, under Albuquerque, bolstered their stranglehold by introducing a permit system for other ships and exercising control over the major ship-building centers in the region.
  • The nonavailability of timber in the Gulf and Red Sea regions for ship-building also helped the Portuguese in their objectives.
  • Albuquerque acquired Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 with ease; the principal port of the Sultan of Bijapur became “the first bit of Indian territory to be under the Europeans since the time of Alexander the Great”. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • In the words of James Mill, the famous British historian of the 19th century: “The Portuguese followed their merchandise as their chief occupation, but like the English and the Dutch of the same period, had no objection to plunder when it fell in their way.”
  • The Portuguese were intolerant and fanatical in religious matters. Their approach in this respect was particularly hateful to the people of India where religious tolerance was the rule.
  • They also indulged in inhuman cruelties and lawlessness. In spite of their barbaric behavior their possessions in India survived for a century because they enjoyed control over the high seas, their soldiers and administrators maintained strict discipline.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 20

Arrange the following events in chronological order of their occurence.

  1. Passing of Pakistan Resolution by Muslim League
  2. Launch of Individual Satyagraha movement to affirm the rights to speech
  3. Proposal of August Offer

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 20
  • March,1940: Pakistan Resolution was passed by Muslim League. The All India Muslim League met in Lahore in March 1940 and adopted a resolution that came to be known as the Lahore Resolution or Pakistan Resolution. Its the first hand demand was partition of the country and creation of Muslim nation named Pakistan. The Muslim League demanded that the areas in which the Muslims are numerically in a majority as in the North-Western and Eastern Zones of India should be grouped to constitute Independent autonomous States.
  • August,1940: August offer promising Dominion Status. On 8 August 1940, early in the Battle of Britain, the Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow, made the so-called "August Offer" at Simla, a fresh proposal promising the expansion of the Executive Council to include more Indians, the establishment of an advisory war council, giving weight to minority opinion, and the recognition of Indians' right to frame their own constitution (after the end of the war). In return, it was hoped that all parties and communities in India would cooperate in Britain's war effort.
  • October, 1940: Individual Satyagraha movement was launched to affirm the rights to speech. Individual Satyagraha was the result of August offer. It was started with the mass Civil Disobedience Movement by M.K Gandhi on Individual Satyagraha. This was movement for not only to seek independence but also to affirm the right of Speech. The demand of the Satyagrahi was using freedom of Speech against the war through an anti-war declaration. If government did not arrest the Satyagrahi, he or she will move repeating it in villages and start march towards Delhi (“Delhi Chalo Movement”).

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 21

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the steel industry in India?

  1. India is among the largest producers of steel in the world.
  2. India is home to the seventh largest reserves of iron ore in the world.
  3. Rajasthan is the largest producer of steel in the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 21
  • Statement 1 is correct: India is the world’s second-largest producer of crude steel, with an output of 125.32 MT of crude steel and finished steel production of 121.29 MT in FY23. India’s steel production is estimated to grow 4-7% to 123-127 MT in FY24. The growth in the Indian steel sector has been driven by the domestic availability of raw materials such as iron ore and cost-effective labour. Consequently, the steel sector has been a major contributor to India's manufacturing output.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The easy availability of low-cost manpower and the presence of abundant iron ore reserves make India competitive in the global setup.
    India is home to the seventh-largest reserves of iron ore in the world.
    In October 2021, the government announced guidelines for the approved speciality steel production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme. Under the Union Budget 2023-24, the government allocated Rs. 70.15 crore to the Ministry of Steel.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Rajasthan is not the largest producer of steel in the country. States with the Highest Steel-Producing Capacity in India include:
    • Odisha
    • Chhattisgarh
    • Jharkhand
    • Karnataka

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

  1. Gross domestic product (GDP) in purchasing power standards measures the volume of GDP of countries.
  2. It is calculated by dividing GDP by the corresponding purchasing power parity (PPP) that is an exchange rate that removes price level differences between countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 22

Purchasing Power Parity on GDP

  • Gross domestic product (GDP) in purchasing power standards measures the volume of GDP of countries or regions.
  • It is calculated by dividing GDP by the corresponding purchasing power parity (PPP), which is an exchange rate that removes price level differences between countries.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 23

Consider the following:

  1. Carbonation
  2. Frost action
  3. Oxidation
  4. Mass wasting

How many of the above are examples of chemical weathering?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 23
  • Chemical change in the rocks through the formation of new compounds or the formation of new substances is called chemical weathering. Chemical processes include oxidation, hydrolysis, and acid solution. It involves four major processes: Carbonation: This is the process by which various types of carbonates are formed. Some of these carbonates are soluble in water. For example, when rainwater containing carbon dioxide passes through pervious limestone rocks, the rock joints enlarge due to the action of carbonic acid. The joints enlarge in size, and lime is removed in solution. This type of breakdown of rocks is called carbonation. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Oxidation: This is the process in which atmospheric oxygen reacts with the rock to produce oxides. The process is called oxidation. The greatest impact of this process is observed on ferrous minerals. Oxygen present in humid air reacts with iron grains in the rocks to form a yellow or red oxide of iron. This is called rusting of the iron. Rust decomposes rocks completely with the passage of time. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Mechanical weathering is the physical disintegration of a rock by the actual rising apart of separate particles. The most important physical weathering process in cold climates is frost action, the alternate freezing and melting of water inside the joints of the rocks, splits them into fragments. Hence, Option 2 is incorrect.
  • Disintegrated and fragmented material due to the mechanism of weathering processes (mechanical, chemical, or biological) is called debris or rock-wastes. Generally, the movement of this waste material down the hill slope under the influence of gravity is called mass movement or mass wasting. Hence, Option 4 is incorrect.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 24

With reference to the Tribunals, consider the following statements:

1. These are governed by specifi c laws, each defi ning their jurisdiction, composition, powers, and functions.
2. They are typically headed by a chairperson, who is usually a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court. 3. Tribunals have quasi-judicial powers.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 24

Tribunals

  • Tribunals in India are specialized bodies established to handle specific  types of disputes and legal matters outside the traditional court system.
  • They were set up to alleviate the burden on regular courts and provide quicker and more effi cient resolution of disputes.
  • Tribunals are governed by specifi c laws, each defi ning their jurisdiction, composition, powers, and functions.

Types of Tribunals in India:

  • Administrative Tribunals: These tribunals deal with disputes related to recruitment, service conditions, and other administrative matters concerning public servants and employees of the central and state governments.
  • Income Tax Appellate Tribunals (ITAT): ITAT handles appeals against income tax assessments and decisions made by the Income Tax Department.
  • National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT deals with environmental issues and violations concerning air and water pollution, environmental clearances, and conservation of natural resources.
  • Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT): COMPAT hears appeals against decisions of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) related to anticompetitive practices and unfair trade practices. Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT): The AFT handles disputes and matters related to the armed forces personnel, including grievances, promotions, and disciplinary actions. Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT): SAT hears appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in matters related to securities markets and investors’ protection.

Composition of Tribunals:

  • Tribunals are typically headed by a chairperson, who is usually a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court.
  • The members of the tribunal could include judicial members and technical experts, depending on the nature of disputes they handle.
  • For example, administrative tribunals may have members with expertise in administrative law, while environmental tribunals may include members with expertise in environmental science or conservation.

Power and Functions of Tribunals:

  • Quasi-judicial Powers: Tribunals have quasi-judicial powers, meaning they can conduct hearings, summon witnesses, and examine evidence to arrive at a decision on disputes before them.
  • Adjudication: They adjudicate matters related to their respective domains and provide legally binding decisions on the disputes presented. Speedy Disposal: One of the primary purposes of creating tribunals is to ensure faster resolution of disputes than the regular court system, which can often be time-consuming.
  • Expertise: Tribunals bring in subject matter experts who possess specialized knowledge relevant to the issues at hand, ensuring informed decision-making. Appeal Mechanism: In some cases, the decisions of the tribunals can be appealed in higher courts, depending on the laws governing specifi c tribunals.
  • Autonomy: Tribunals are designed to function independently of the executive branch, providing a level of autonomy in their operations.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 25

Consider the following statements regarding the rule of law in India:

1. All laws and government activities may or may not be consistent with the provisions of the Constitution.
2. The rule of law guarantees that all individuals are equal before the law.
3. Judiciary acts as a check on the other branches of government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 25

Rule of Law

  • The rule of law in India is a fundamental principle that governs the country’s legal system and ensures that all individuals, including the government, are subject to the law and are treated equally under it. The concept of the rule of law is enshrined in the Indian Constitution and is essential for the functioning of a democratic society.

Key aspects of the rule of law in India include:

  • Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution of India is the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the governance of the country. All laws and governmental actions must be in conformity with the provisions of the Constitution.
  • Equality before the law: The rule of law guarantees that all individuals are equal before the law and are entitled to equal protection and treatment. Discrimination on the basis of religion, caste, gender, or any other grounds is prohibited.
  • Independence of the judiciary: India has a separate and independent judiciary that plays a crucial role in upholding the rule of law. The judiciary is responsible for interpreting laws, resolving disputes, and ensuring that constitutional rights are upheld. It acts as a check on the other branches of government.
  • Fair and impartial legal system: The rule of law requires a fair and impartial legal system that treats all individuals equally and provides them with a fair opportunity to present their case. It includes access to legal representation, fair trial procedures, and timely justice.
  • Legal accountability: The rule of law holds all individuals, including public offi cials and government authorities, accountable for their actions. No one is above the law, and everyone is subject to legal consequences if they violate the law.
  • Protection of fundamental rights: The rule of law protects fundamental rights and freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution, such as the right to life, liberty, and equality. It ensures that these rights are not arbitrarily violated by the government or any other entity.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 26

Who among the following rulers of the Pallava Empire constructed a temple oriented to the east, facing the ocean, and housing two Shiva shrines and one Vishnu shrine?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 26

The shore temple at Mahabalipuram was built in the reign of Narasimhavarman II, also known as Rajasimha, who reigned from 700 CE to 728 CE. Now it is oriented to the east, facing the ocean, but if you study it closely, you will find that it actually houses three shrines, two to Shiva, one facing east and the other west, and a middle one to Vishnu. This is unusual, because the temples generally have a single main shrine and not three areas of worship.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental rights in India:

1. They aim to eliminate historical inequalities and promote a more inclusive society.
2. These rights act as a check on the abuse of power by the government and its agencies.
3. They refl ect the principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and other international conventions, reaffi rming India’s commitment to upholding human rights.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 27

Fundamental rights in India

  • Fundamental rights in India are of paramount importance as they protect individual liberties, promote social justice, ensure equality, prevent abuse of power, foster democracy, and uphold human rights standards. They form the cornerstone of a just and inclusive society and are integral to the democratic fabric of India.
  • Social justice: Fundamental rights play a crucial role in promoting social justice by prohibiting discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. They aim to eliminate historical inequalities and promote a more inclusive society.
  • Right to equality: Fundamental rights ensure the right to equality by prohibiting discrimination and promoting equal opportunity. They seek to eliminate social and economic disparities and provide equal protection of the law to all citizens.
  • Protection against abuse of power: Fundamental rights act as a check on the abuse of power by the government and its agencies. They provide safeguards against arbitrary actions, ensure due process of law, and protect citizens from any violation of their rights.
  • Promotion of democracy: Fundamental rights are essential for the functioning of a democratic society. They empower citizens to participate in the political process, express their opinions, and hold the government accountable. These rights encourage a vibrant civil society and help in the overall development of democracy.
  • Human rights standards: Fundamental rights in India align with international human rights standards and commitments. They refl ect the principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and other international conventions, reaffi rming India’s commitment to upholding human rights.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 28

The terms such as vanikan, chattan and nigama that appear in the Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions during the sangam age refer to :

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 28

The terms vanikan, chattan, and nigama that appear in Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions during the Sangam Age refer to Trade activities. Salt merchants, called umanar, travelled in bullock carts along with their families for trade activities. Chattu referred to the itinerary or mobile merchants. These inscriptions often mention various social and economic aspects of that period, and these terms are associated with trade and commerce, indicating the importance of merchants in Sangam society.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In order to address the welfare and progress of the scheduled tribes, each state with scheduled areas is required to establish a Tribes Advisory Council.
Statement-II: In states where scheduled tribes exist but scheduled areas are absent, the President can direct the establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 29

Scheduled Tribes Advisory Council

  • In states with scheduled areas, the establishment of a Tribes Advisory
  • Council is mandatory to provide guidance on the welfare and progress of the scheduled tribes.
  • This council will comprise 20 members, with three- fourths of the seats reserved for representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
  • Additionally, in states with scheduled tribes but no scheduled areas, the President may direct the formation of a similar council.
  • There shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein, a Tribes Advisory Council consisting of not more than twenty members of whom, as nearly as may be, three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State:
  • It shall be the duty of the Tribes Advisory Council to advice on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor.
  • Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) has been constituted in Scheduled Area States of Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana.
  • Though Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand and West Bengal do not have any scheduled area, they have also constituted TAC.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 30

Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Refugee Convention, 1951:

  1. Non - refoulment is the core principle of the 1951 Convention.
  2. India has recently signed the convention.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 30
  • Statement 1 is correct: The 1951 Convention provides the internationally recognized definition of a refugee and outlines the legal protection, rights and assistance a refugee is entitled to receive. The core principle of the 1951 Convention is non-refoulement, which asserts that a refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom. The document outlines the basic minimum standards for the treatment of refugees, including the right to housing, work and education while displaced so they can lead a dignified and independent life. It also defines a refugee’s obligations to host countries and specifies certain categories of people, such as war criminals, who do not qualify for refugee status.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol and does not have a national refugee protection framework. However, it continues to grant asylum to a large number of refugees from neighbouring States and respects UNHCR’s mandate for other nationals, mainly from Afghanistan and Myanmar. While the Government of India deals differently with various refugee groups, in general, it respects the principle of forholders of UNHCR documentation.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 31

Consider the following:

1. Secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India
2. Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
3. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

How many of the above is/are incorrect about the liberal-Intellectual Principles of DPSP?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 31

Liberal-Intellectual Principles of Directive Principles of State Policy

  • Uniform civil code for the citizens: Under Article 44, the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
  • Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years: Under Article 45, the State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
  • Promotion of international peace and security: Under Article 51, the State shall endeavour to -
    • Promote international peace and security
    • Maintain just and honourable relations between nations
    • Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised peoples with one another
    • Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 32

With reference to the term Discretionary fiscal stimulus, consider the following statements:

  1. It refers to an increase in the fiscal deficit caused by slowing growth.
  2. It acts as an automatic stabilizer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 32
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Discretionary fiscal stimulus’ refers to an increase in the fiscal deficit caused by government policy as distinct from an increase caused by slowing growth. The government’s focus thus so far has been on reassuring the financial markets that the fiscal will not spin out of control. It has kept the ‘discretionary fiscal stimuli down to 1% of GDP, a figure that is most modest about that of many other economies especially developed economies.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Discretionary fiscal policies are different from automatic fiscal stabilizers. Automatic stabilizers occur wherein in a recession a government automatically spends more because there are more claiming unemployment benefits. However, the government may feel these automatic stabilizers are insufficient and so they decide to increase public work spending schemes too.

Supplementary Notes
Discretionary fiscal stimulus

  • Discretionary fiscal policy refers to government policy that alters government spending or taxes. Its purpose is to expand or shrink the economy as needed. For instance, when the UK government cut the VAT in 2009, this was intended to produce a boost in spending. The output is determined by the level of aggregate demand (AD), so a discretionary fiscal policy can be used to increase aggregate demand and thus also increase the output. This measure would help to close the deflationary gap.
  • Discretionary fiscal policy is a demandside policy that uses government spending and taxation policy to influence aggregate demand.
  • Discretionary fiscal policy differs from automatic fiscal stabilizers. These automatic stabilizers take place when, during a recession, a government automatically spends more because the economy forces more people to claim unemployment benefits. However, the government may find these automatic stabilizers to be inadequate to deal with major issues, imbalances, and instabilities in the economy. This will lead them to intentionally increase public works spending schemes as well.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

  1. Solar radiation is the main driving force of the all the ecosystems including the deep-sea hydrothermal ecosystem.
  2. The energy flow in an ecosystem in unidirectional and it flows from higher trophic level to the lower trophic levels.
  3. At every level there is about 90% loss of energy and the energy transferred from one trophic level to the other is only about 10%.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 33
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Solar radiation is the main driving force of all the ecosystems on earth and the solar energy is trapped by green plants through the process of photosynthesis. Solar energy is the primary source of energy for all ecosystem except the deep-sea hydrothermal ecosystem.
  • The deep-sea ecosystem is considered to be below a depth of 200 metres, where solar energy cannot support primary productivity through photosynthesis.
  • These hydrothermal vents are the geysers and hot springs of the oceans. They occur in volcanically active areas such as the midocean ridges where there is movement of tectonic plates. Here magma rises up close beneath the sea floor. The cracks in the porous rocks allow ocean water to percolate down and get heated by the underlying magma. A series of chemical reactions results as the heated fluids pouring out of the vent meet the cold ocean water. These reactions cause several materials such as sulphur, iron, zinc and copper to precipitate and form metal-rich towers, which is the classic image of a hydrothermal vent.
  • The organisms thriving at deep sea vents and seeps are termed extremophiles because their living conditions are dark and freezing cold with high pressures and toxic chemicals.
  • A unique gas-based ecosystem driven by chemosynthetic bacteria thrives around these vents. These are symbiotic bacteria that reside within or on the surfaces of the wide variety of living organisms—clams, mussels, shrimps and giant tubeworms— found around the vents. These bacteria use hydrogen sulphide to produce energy for the metabolic processes of these organisms.
  • These chemosynthetic bacteria derive their energy from the methane hydrate present in the seeps.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The flow of energy is unidirectional and non-cyclic.
  • The green plants obtain energy from the sun and it is transformed into chemical energy by the process of photosynthesis.
  • This energy is stored in plant tissues and transformed into heat energy during metabolic activities which then passes to next trophic level in the food chain.
  • The solar energy captured by green plants (autotrophs) never revert back to sun, however, it passes to herbivores and that which passes to herbivores does not go back to autotrophs but passes to consumers.
  • Thus, in biological systems, the energy flows from the sun to green plants and then to all heterotrophic organisms.
  • Thus, energy flows from lower trophic level- i.e., primary producers (autotrophs) to higher trophic levels (herbivores & carnivores).
  • Statement 3 is correct: As energy flows through the food chain, there occurs dissipation of energy at every trophic level.
  • The loss of energy takes place through respiration, loss of energy in locomotion, running, hunting and other activities.
  • At every level there is about 90% loss of energy and the energy transferred from one trophic level to the other is only about 10%.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 34

Consider the following countries:

  1. Cambodia
  2. Thailand
  3. Vietnam
  4. India
  5. Singapore

How many of the above are part of Mekong Ganga Cooperation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 34

The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries:

  • India
  • Cambodia
  • Lao PDR
  • Myanmar
  • Thailand
  • Vietnam

It was meant for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications. It was launched in 2000 at Vientiane, Lao PDR. Both the Ganga and the Mekong are civilizational rivers, and the MGC initiative aims to facilitate closer contacts among the people inhabiting these two major river basins. The MGC is also indicative of the cultural and commercial linkages among the member countries of the MGC down the centuries.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 35

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 35
  • Pair 1 is correct: Konkan 2023, the annual bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the United Kingdom. The exercise yielded excellent training value to personnel of both navies.
  • Pair 2 is correct: The Joint Military Exercise FRINJEX-23 was held between the Indian Army and the French Army. It is for the first time armies of both nations are engaging in this format, with each contingent comprising of a Company Group each from the Thiruvananthapuram based Indian Army troops and French 6th Light Armoured Brigade.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: The 4th edition of joint military exercise ‘DUSTLIK’ between the Indian Army and Uzbekistan Army took place in Foreign Training Node, Pithoragarh (Uttarakhand).

Latest Military Exercises of India 2023:

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 36

Which of the following statements regarding the sewage management steps is/are correct?

  1. Primary treatment is done to remove solid matters to prevent the grit from causing damage to the equipment.
  2. Aeration creates a suitable environment for natural bacteria to digest the waste in water and form activated sludge.
  3. The tertiary treatment stage has the ability to remove up to 99 percent of the impurities from the wastewater.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 36

Sewage Treatment Stages

  • Primary treatment is done by pouring the wastewater into big tanks for the solid matter to settle at the surface of the tanks. The sludge, the solid waste that settles at the surface of the tanks, is removed by large scrapers and is pushed to the center of the cylindrical tanks and later pumped out of the tanks for further treatment. It is done to remove metals to prevent the grit from causing damage to the equipment. The remaining water is then pumped for secondary treatment.
  • The secondary treatment stage involves adding seed sludge to the wastewater to ensure that it is broken down further. Air is first pumped into huge aeration tanks which mix the wastewater with the seed sludge which is basically a small amount of sludge, which fuels the growth of bacteria that uses oxygen and the growth of other small microorganisms that consume the remaining organic matter. This process leads to the production of large particles that settle down at the bottom of the huge tanks.
  • The tertiary treatment stage has the ability to remove up to 99 percent of the impurities from the wastewater. This produces effluent water that is close to drinking water quality. Unfortunately, this process tends to be a bit expensive as it requires special equipment, well trained and highly skilled equipment operators, chemicals and a steady energy supply. All these are not readily available.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 37

In which of the following region the sacred groves are the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened plants?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 37
  • Option (c) is correct: In Meghalaya, the sacred groves are the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened plants.

Sacred Groves: Rare and threatened Plants

  • In Meghalaya, a state in northeastern India, the sacred groves play a crucial role in the conservation of rare and threatened plant species. Sacred groves are patches of forests that are protected and preserved by local communities due to their cultural, religious, and traditional significance. These groves are considered sacred and are often associated with deities or ancestral spirits.
  • Meghalaya’s sacred groves are known for their rich biodiversity and serve as important habitats for a wide variety of plant species, including many rare and endangered ones. These groves have been protected for generations, and the local communities have implemented strict rules and taboos to ensure their conservation.
  • The unique combination of climatic conditions, diverse topography, and traditional conservation practices has allowed these sacred groves to become sanctuaries for numerous plant species. Many of these plants may be rare or threatened outside these groves due to habitat destruction, deforestation, and other human activities.
  • By preserving the sacred groves, the local communities in Meghalaya contribute significantly to the conservation of biodiversity and the protection of rare and threatened plant species. These groves also serve as living laboratories for studying ecological processes and understanding the importance of traditional conservation practices.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 38

Consider the following statements about revolutionary terrorism:

  1. Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki successfully assassinated Kingsford at Muzaffarpur.
  2. Rash Behari Bose threw a bomb to assassinate Lord Hardinge in Calcutta.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 38

In 1908, Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki threw a bomb at a carriage which they believed was occupied by Kingsford, the unpopular judge at Muzaffarpur. Magistrate Kingsford, however, was seated in a different carriage, and the throwing of the bombs resulted in the death of two British women. Prafulla Chaki shot himself dead, while Khudiram Bose was tried and hanged.
In 1912, the revolutionaries threw a bomb at the Viceroy, Lord Hardinge, while he was riding an elephant in a state procession at Chandni Chowk in Delhi. The Viceroy was wounded. Basant Kumar Biswas, a revolutionary from Nadia village, threw the bomb. The conspiracy was planned by Rash Behari Bose. 

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 39

‘He was the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate to clearly put forward the view that the state should be based on the willing support of the governed and that since the large majority of the people in India were Hindus, the state in India could not be a truly Islamic state. He tried to win the goodwill of the nobility by a policy of tolerance.’
The above description refers to which one of the following rulers of the Delhi Sultanate?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 39

Jalaluddin Khalji (c.1290–1296 CE): He laid the foundation of the Khalji dynasty. He ascended the throne at the age of 70 years. Although Jalaluddin retained the earlier nobility in his administration, but the rise of Khaljis to power ended the monopoly of nobility of slaves to high offices. Jalaluddin ruled only for a short span of six years. He tried to mitigate some of the harsh aspects of Balban’s rule. He was the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate to clearly put forward the view that the state should be based on the willing support of the governed, and that since the large majority of the people in India were Hindus, the state in India could not be a truly Islamic state. Jalaluddin tried to win the goodwill of the nobility by a policy of tolerance. He avoided harsh punishments, even to those who revolted against him. He not only forgave them but at times even rewarded them to win their support.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 40

Consider the following statements with respect to Black Carbon:

  1. Black Carbon (BC) has emerged as a major contributor to global climate change.
  2. It is highly effective in absorbing solar energy and can absorb energy much more times than Carbon Dioxide.
  3. Lifetime of black carbon in the atmosphere is only a few weeks.
  4. It was first identified in the Arctic haze aerosols and the Arctic snow.

How many of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 40

Black Carbon

  • Black Carbon (BC) has recently emerged as a major contributor to global climate change, possibly second only to CO2 as the main driver of change. BC particles strongly absorb sunlight and give soot its black color.
  • BC is produced both naturally and by human activities as a result of the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass. Primary sources include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires. 
  • Reducing CO2 emissions is essential to avert the worst impacts of future climate change, but CO2 has such a long atmospheric lifetime that it will take several decades for CO2 concentrations to begin to stabilize after emissions reductions begin. In contrast, BC remains in the atmosphere for only a few weeks, so cutting its emissions would immediately reduce the rate of warming, particularly in the rapidly changing Arctic. Moreover, reduced exposure to BC provides public health cobenefits, especially in developing countries. Technologies that can reduce global BC emissions are available today.
  • Being the strongest absorbent of light amongst all the components of particulate matter. It has the ability to reduce albedo when deposited on snow. It thus warms the region by reflecting less solar energy. Main Properties of Black Carbon
  • It is directly emitted in the atmosphere as fine particles (PM5.)
  • It is highly effective in absorbing solar energy and can absorb million times more energy than Carbon Dioxide.
  • It is formed of pure carbon in several linked forms.
  • It is emitted in two forms-anthropogenic and soot. It is a major component of soot.
  • Climatologically, it is highly active and is known as a climate forcing agent. It adds to global atmospheric heating by reducing the albedo which is the property of snow and ice to reflect sunlight.
  • BC emissions are largely done from automobile sources like diesel engines and other vehicles. This comprises 52% of total BC emissions. Other sources include burning of biomass, residential processes, industrial heating etc.
  • Largest contributors of BC in the world are Asia, some parts of the African continent and Latin America. China and India together contribute 25-30% of the total global black carbon emissions. These emissions are more intense in the source regions which include: Indo-Gangetic plains of India, Eastern China, Southeast Asia and Indonesia, Equatorial Africa, Latin America etc.  A large part of people live in these hotspots.
  • It was first identified in the Arctic haze aerosols and the Arctic snow.
  • It comprises about 30% of the total carbon component of soils. It serves a major reservoir of nutrients for tropical soils.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 41

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: If someone is sentenced to at least two years in prison, they will be disqualifi ed from holding membership of Parliament or the State Legislature.

Statement II: The Person is permanently disqualifi ed as a MP or MLA.

Which of the option given below is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 41
  • Statement 1 is correct: If someone is found guilty of a crime and sentenced to at least two years in prison (except for certain offenses), they can't hold any position in Parliament or the State Legislature. This disqualification starts from the conviction date and lasts for six more years after their release.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The person is disqualified from the date of the conviction until his release from that conviction.

Disqualification of MPs and MLAs

  • If the convicted person is already a Member of Parliament or the State Legislature, the disqualification won’t happen right away.
  • It will only start three months after the conviction or after the court decides their appeal or revision application, whichever is later.
  • Section 8(3) of the 1951 Representation of the People Act disqualifies a convicted person who has been sentenced to imprisonment, for not less than two years.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 42

Consider the following statements :

  1. Chola king offered a huge amount of gold coins to poets to glorify their name and fame
  2. Chera kings issued copper and lead coins imitating Roman coins.
  3. Pandya coins have elephant on one side and image of fish on the other.

How many of the above are correct regarding coins issued during sangam dynasties ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 42
  • Statement 1 is correct: The patronization of bards and poets and entertaining them in their courts (avaiyam) was probably a step undertaken by the kings to glorify their name and fame, as well as their territories and towns. For example, the Chola king Karikalan is said to have offered a huge amount of gold coins to Uruttirankannanar, who composed Pattinappalai.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Cheras issued copper and lead coins with Tamil-Brahmi legends, imitating Roman coins. There are many other Chera coins with their bow and arrow emblem but without any writing on them.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Pandyas ruled from Madurai. Korkai was their main port, located near the confluence of Thampraparani with the Bay of Bengal. It was famous for the pearl fishery and chank diving. Korkai is referred to in the Periplus as Kolkoi. Fish was the emblem of the Pandyas. Their coins have an elephant on one side and a stylized image of a fish on the other.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 43

Consider the following statements regarding the MAHARISHI Initiative:

  1. It aims to promote research and awareness about Ayurveda and traditional medicine.
  2. The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences will be the secretariat for this initiative.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 43

MAHARISHI Initiative:

  • It will focus on Research and Awareness about agro-biodiversity, food security, and nutrition aligning with the International Year of Millets 2023. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Secretariat: Indian Institute of Millets Research (IIMR), Hyderabad. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Technical Support: International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), One CGIAR Centres, and other international organizations
  • Millets are known as nutri-cereals or superfoods, mainly grown on marginal land in dry areas of temperate, sub-tropical, and tropical regions.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 44

Consider the following statements about the formation of the Indian National Congress:

  1. The first Session of the Indian National Congress took place at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
  2. 2Kadambini Ganguly was the first female to address a Congress Session.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 44

The Indian National Congress: The first Session of the Indian National Congress was organized at Bombay in December, 1885. It was presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee and attended by 72 delegates. This was organized at the Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay.
In 1890, Kadambini Ganguly, the first woman graduate of the Calcutta University, addressed the Congress Session. This was symbolic of the fact that India‘s struggle for freedom would raise the Indian women from the degraded position to which they had been reduced for past many centuries.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 45

Which of the following fields do nuclear radiations have applications in?

  1. Agriculture
  2. Medical diagnostics
  3. Oil drilling
  4. Treatment of cancer
  5. In the measurement of the movement of pollutants

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 45
  • Nuclear applications in agriculture rely on the use of isotopes and radiation techniques to combat pests and diseases, increase crop production, protect land and water resources, ensure food safety and authenticity, and increase livestock production. The nuclear-derived sterile insect technique (SIT) involves mass-rearing and sterilizing male insects before releasing them over pest-infested areas. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Common uses of nuclear medicine for diagnosis include, scans of the heart, lungs, kidneys, gallbladder, and thyroid Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Radioactive sources are used for logging formation parameters. Radioactive tracers, along with the other substances in hydraulic-fracturing fluid, are sometimes used to determine the injection profile and location of fractures created by hydraulic fracturing. there is wide use of isotopes for measuring the steam quality before infusion into almost obsolete wells of oil to force out residual supplies. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Nuclear medicine therapy uses a small amount of radioactive material combined with a carrier molecule. This is called a radiopharmaceutical. Nuclear medicine therapies treat cancer and other conditions.
    Radiopharmaceuticals attach to specific cells and then deliver a high dose of radiation, destroying them. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Radioactive isotopes can greatly be utilized for the accurate measurement of pollutants in the environment including groundwater and river. Radioactive isotopic and nuclear tools use to monitor their pathways through the atmosphere, predict their distribution and estimate their impact on ecosystems. Hence option 5 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 46

Consider the following statements with reference to the British type climate:

  1. British type climate is primarily influenced by the Easterlies throughout the year.
  2. In North America, the British-type climate is confined mainly to the coastlands of British Columbia.
  3. British-type climate is characterised by minimal oceanic influence.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 46
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The cool temperate western margins are under the permanent influence of the Westerlies all round the year. They are also regions of much cyclonic activity, typical of Britain, and are thus said to experience the British type of climate.
  • Statement 2 is correct: In North America, the high Rockies prevent the on-shore Westerlies from penetrating far inland and the British type of climate is confined mainly to the coastlands of British Columbia.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The British-type climate is characterised by significant oceanic influence. There is so much oceanic influence on both the temperature and the precipitation that the climate is also referred to as the North-West European Maritime Climate.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 47

Consider the following statements:

  1. National Parks enjoy a greater degree of protection than the wildlife sanctuaries.
  2. A national park can be created for a particular species whereas the wildlife sanctuary is not primarily focused on a particular species. 
  3. National parks are declared by the Central Government whereas, wildlife sanctuaries are declared by the state governments.

How many of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 47
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular species whereas the national park is not primarily focused on a particular species.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for the declaration of National Parks by the State Government in addition to wildlife sanctuaries but Central Government may also declare, under certain conditions.

Wildlife Sanctuaries and National Parks

  • National parks and wildlife sanctuaries are protected natural habitats, declared by the government of a country according to the regulations from the IUCN (The World Conservation Union) to preserve the wildlife through the conservation of ecosystems. It is important for people to understand the differences and similarities between a national park and a wildlife sanctuary.
  • The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for the establishment of Protected Areas in India. There are different categories of protected areas which are managed with different objectives for the larger motive of conservation.
  • The Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of National Parks by the State Government in addition to the declaration of wildlife sanctuaries.
  • National Parks are declared in areas that are considered to be of adequate ecological, geomorphological and natural significance although within the law, the difference in conservation value of a National Park from that of a sanctuary is not specified in the WPA 1972.
  • The Central Government may also declare, Wild Life Sanctuary and National Park under certain conditions.

Differences

  • National Parks enjoy a greater degree of protection than sanctuaries.
  • Certain activities which are regulated in sanctuaries, such as grazing of livestock, are prohibited in National Parks.
  • Wildlife sanctuary can be created for a particular species whereas the national park is not primarily focused on a particular species.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 48

Consider the following statements with reference to the Indus Water Treaty:

  1. It was signed between India and Pakistan and brokered by the World Bank.
  2. The treaty gave the waters of river Ravi to be used by the Pakistan
  3. The treaty required the creation of a Permanent Indus Commission with a commissioner from each country.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is correct: Indus Waters Treaty was signed on September 19, 1960, between India and Pakistan and brokered by the World Bank. The treaty fixed and delimited the rights and obligations of both countries concerning the use of the waters of the Indus River system. The Indus River rises in the southwestern Tibet Autonomous Region of China and flows through the disputed Kashmir region and then into Pakistan to drain into the Arabian Sea. It is joined by numerous tributaries, notably those of the eastern Punjab Plain—the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The treaty gave the waters of the western rivers—the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab—to Pakistan and those of the eastern rivers—the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej—to India. It also provided for the funding and building of dams, link canals, barrages, and tube wells—notably the Tarbela Dam on the Indus River and the Mangla Dam on the Jhelum River. These helped provide water to Pakistan in the amounts that it had previously received from the rivers now assigned to India’s exclusive use.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The treaty required the creation of a Permanent Indus Commission, with a commissioner from each country, in order to maintain a channel for communication and to try to resolve questions about implementation of the treaty. In addition, a mechanism for resolving disputes was provided. Numerous disputes were peacefully settled over the years through the Permanent Indus Commission.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 49

Consider the following statements with reference to sound waves:

  1. Sound is an electromagnetic wave that can travel both with and without a material medium.
  2. Sound waves are longitudinal waves in which particles oscillate to and fro about their mean position.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 49
  • Sound is produced by vibrating objects.
  • The matter or substance through which sound is transmitted is called a medium.
  • Sound is a mechanical wave and needs a material medium like air, water, steel, etc., for its propagation. It cannot travel through a vacuum.
  • Electromagnetic waves differ from mechanical waves in that they do not require a medium to propagate. This means that electromagnetic waves can travel not only through the air and solid materials but also through the vacuum. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • In longitudinal waves, particles do not move from one place to another but they simply oscillate back and forth about their position of rest. This is exactly how a sound wave propagates, hence sound waves are longitudinal waves. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • In a transverse wave, particles do not oscillate along the line of wave propagation but oscillate up and down about their mean position as the wave travels. Thus a transverse wave is one in which the individual particles of the medium move about their mean positions in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 50

There are many petitions filed in the Supreme Court of India which is related to the preamble of the Indian Constitution. In this context, consider the following pairs:

  1. Excel Wear v. Union of India - State ownership of an industry
  2. D.S. Nakara v. Union of India - Decent standard of life to the working people

How many pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 50

Socialism

  • Socialism is implicit in the Preamble and the directive principle of the Constitution. The term “economic justice” in the Preamble denotes nothing but India’s resolve to bring socio-economic revolution.
  • The Directive Principles, particularly Article 39 (b) and (c) of Constitution are charters of social and economic liberties of the people. The word ‘socialism’ has, however, no definite meaning. It has been invariably used in both types of Constitutions- democratic and communistic.
  • Generally, the term implies a system of government in which the means of production is wholly or partially controlled by the State. India’s socialism is, however, a democratic socialism and not a ‘communistic socialism’. For this purpose, the preamble has combined both the words, Socialism and Democracy in the Preamble.
  • In Excel Wear v. Union of India, the S.C. considered the effect of the word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble. The Court held that addition of the word “Socialist” might enable the courts to lean more in favor of nationalization and state ownership of an industry.
  • In D.S. Nakara v. Union of India, the S.C. held that the basic framework of socialism is to provide a decent standard of life to the working people and especially provide security form cradle to grave. This amongst others are on economic side envisaged economic equality and equitable distribution of income.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 51

Consider the following statements:

  1. Hydrogenation increases the melting point of fats.
  2. The hydrogenation process is used to prepare vegetable ghee from vegetable oil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 51
  • Hydrogenation is a chemical process in which hydrogen is added to unsaturated fats, typically vegetable oils, to convert them into semi-solid or solid fats at room temperature. This process is commonly used in the food industry to produce products like margarine and shortening. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • Vegetable oils like Cottonseed oil, groundnut oil, etc. have double or triple bonds in their molecule. They are converted to ghee by Hydrogenation in the presence of Nickel
  • Hydrogenation increases the melting point of fats. Unsaturated fats, which are usually liquid at room temperature, become more saturated and solid after hydrogenation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • This occurs because the addition of hydrogen leads to the saturation of double bonds in the fatty acid chains. Saturated fats have a higher melting point than unsaturated fats.
    • The process converts some of the cis-unsaturated fatty acids into trans-unsaturated fatty acids, contributing to the increased stability and higher melting point.
  • Unsaturated fats have kinks in their molecular structure due to double bonds, preventing them from packing tightly. This results in lower melting points.
  • Hydrogenation removes these kinks by saturating the double bonds, allowing the fatty acids to pack more closely together. The increased molecular order contributes to a higher melting point.
  • Hydrogenated fats, with their higher melting points, provide a firmer texture to food products. This is desirable in applications where a solid fat is needed, such as in the production of margarine or certain baked goods.
  • It's important to note that complete hydrogenation can lead to the formation of trans fats, which have been associated with health concerns. Trans fats are known to increase LDL cholesterol levels while decreasing HDL cholesterol, increasing the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 52

Consider the following statements with reference to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI):

  1. It is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament.
  2. SIPRI was established by the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 52
  • Statement 1 is correct: Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament. Established in 1966, SIPRI provides data, analysis, and recommendations, based on open sources, to policymakers, researchers, media, and the interested public.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: SIPRI was established on the basis of a decision by the Swedish Parliament and receives a substantial part of its funding in the form of an annual grant from the Swedish Government. The Institute also seeks financial support from other organisations in order to carry out its research.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 53

Consider the following statements with reference to indigenously manufactured Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) 'Drishti 10':

  1. It is developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
  2. It is entirely built with 100% indigenously made components.
  3. It is a medium-altitude, low-endurance UAV.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 53
  • Drishti 10 Starliner Unmanned Aerial Vehicle is an advanced intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) platform, developed by Adani Defence and Aerospace. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Drishti 10 UAV, equipped with state-of-the-art sensors, enhanced endurance, advanced communication capabilities, and cutting-edge technologies. The UAV would play a pivotal role in shaping future naval operations and safeguarding India’s national maritime interests.
  • It is an indigenously built version of Hermes-900 UAV of Elbit Systems of Israel and has over 70% indigenous content. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • In terms of its abilities, it’s a medium-altitude, low-endurance machine designed for a 1000-mile operational range.The Drishti 10 UAV has 36 hours of endurance and a substantial 450 kg payload capacity. It stands out as the only all-weather military platform certified with NATO’s STANAG 4671 (standardized agreement 4671) for airworthiness, allowing it to operate in both segregated and unsegregated airspace. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 54

Consider the following pairs[Wildlife Sanctuary: State]:

  1. Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary: Karnataka
  2. Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary: Odisha
  3. Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary: Goa

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 54

Only 2 and 3 pairs are correctly matched

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 55

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 55

Just as there are many sub-divisions of the main types of the Nagara temples, there are sub-divisions also of the Dravida temples. These are basically of five different shapes:

  1. Square, usually called Kuta, and also Caturasra;
  2. Rectangular or Shala or Ayatasra;
  3. Elliptical, called Gaja-Prishta or elephant backed, or also called Vrittayata, deriving from wagon vaulted shapes of apsidal Chaityas with a horse-shoe shaped entrance facade, usually called a Nasi;
  4. Circular or Vritta; and
  5. Octagonal or Ashtasra.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 56

Consider the following statements regarding Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) Regulation:

  • Statement-I: These aim at lowering fuel consumption of vehicles by lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions.
  • Statement-II: The norms are applicable for petrol and diesel vehicles exempting LPG and CNG passenger vehicles.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 56
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The norms are applicable for petrol, diesel, and LPG and CNG passenger vehicles.

Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) Regulation

  • Carmakers from the Society of India Automobile Manufacturers (SIAM) recently requested Ministry for Road Transport to postpone implementation of BS VI CAFE Phase II regulations since the industry is still recovering from the impact of COVID.
  • CAFE norms aim at lowering fuel consumption of vehicles.
  • It is achieved by lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions.
  • Corporate Average refers to salesvolume weighted average for every auto manufacturer.
  • The norms are applicable for petrol, diesel, and LPG and CNG passenger vehicles.
  • Upgrading to stricter fuel standards is one way to tackle air pollution.
  • CAFE norms assume importance in the light of their ability to reduce the carbon footprint.
  • Stricter CAFE targets can also lead to manufacturers moving to electric or strong hybrid.
  • Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) norms are embedded in BS-VI emission regulations and are part of the government’s efforts to reduce vehicular carbon footprint.
  • CAFE norms require average corporate CO2 emissions to be less than 130 gm/km. In Phase II (2022 onwards), emissions need to be further reduced to less than 113 gm/ km.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 57

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Independence Act of 1947:

  1. It declared India as an independent state from August 15, 1947.
  2. It abolished the office of Viceroy and established the office of Governor General.
  3. It abolished the office of the secretary of state for India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 57

Some of the features of the Indian Independence Act of 1947:

  • It ended British rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It abolished the office of viceroy and provided, for each dominion, a governor-general, who was to be appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet. His Majesty’s Government in Britain was to have no responsibility with respect to the Government of India or Pakistan. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • It abolished the office of the secretary of state for India and transferred his functions to the secretary of state for Commonwealth Affairs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 58

In the context of rising drone attack on commercial vessel in Red Sea, consider the following statements regarding Red Sea:

  1. The Red Sea lies in the tropical belt.
  2. Israel through its Port of Eilat has access to the Red Sea via Gulf of Aqaba.
  3. Gulf of Suez connects the Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea.

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 58
  • Red Sea was in the news recently because of the drone attacks.
  • The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed, inlet of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia.
    • It connects with Indian Ocean through Gulf of Aden and Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.
    • To its North lies the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez.
      • The Gulf of Suez connects the Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea whereas the Gulf of Aden is in between the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean. So, the Gulf of Suez lies west to the Gulf of Aden. Hence statement 3 is correct.
      • Further, the Red Sea is the world’s northernmost tropical sea and is also one of the most heavily traveled waterways. Hence statement 1 is correct.
      • A total of 6 countries of Asia and Africa, border the Red Sea.
      • The countries of Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east. The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west, and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west.
      • Besides these 6 countries, some other areas including Somalia are also often recognized as Red Sea Territories, due to their proximity to the sea and the geographical similarities with the countries that border the Red Sea.
      • The Israel and the Jordan have access to Red Sea via the Gulf of Aqaba.The port of Eilat is the only Israeli port on the Red Sea, located at the northern tip of the Gulf of Aqaba. Hence statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 59

Which of the statements given below most accurately explains the term ‘Hagiographies’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 59

Hagiography is a biography of a saint or a religious leader. Hagiographies often praise the saint’s achievements, and may not always be literally accurate. They are important because they tell us about the beliefs of the followers of that particular tradition. These have been reconstructed by carefully editing, translating and analysing the Buddhist texts. The historians have also tried to reconstruct the details of his life from hagiographies. Many of these were written down at least a century after the time of the Buddha, in an attempt to preserve the memories of the great teacher.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 60

With reference to acid rain, consider the following statements:

  1. The gases mainly responsible for acid rain are sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.
  2. Acid rain has high pLI levels ranging between 8-9.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 60
  • Acid rain is made up of highly acidic water droplets due to air emissions, most specifically the disproportionate levels of sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen. emitted by vehicles and manufacturing processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Sulfur and Nitrogen particles which get mixed with water are found in two ways either man-made i.e as the emissions that are given out from industries or by natural causes like lightning strikes in the atmosphere releasing nitrogen oxides and volcanic eruptions releasing sulfur oxide.
  • The pH scale measures how acidic an object is. The scale has values ranging from zero (the most acidic) to 14 (the most basic). Pure water has a pH value of 7, this value is considered neutral—neither acidic nor basic. However, when rain combines with sulfur dioxide or nitrogen oxides—\—the rain becomes much more acidic. Typical acid rain has a pH value of 4. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - Question 61

The Electoral Bond Scheme allows which of the following parties to receive electoral bonds?

  1. Political parties registered under the Representation of the People Act, 1951
  2. Political parties with a minimum of 10 years of existence
  3. Political parties secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State.

How many of the above is/are correct rega