UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025  >  UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 for UPSC 2024 is part of Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 preparation. The UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 questions in English are available as part of our Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 for UPSC & UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 solutions in Hindi for Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 1

With reference to the Sayyid dynasty of Medieval India, consider the following statements:

  1. It was founded by Khizr Khan.
  2. It was succeeded by the Khalji dynasty.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 1
  • Statement 1 is correct: Before his departure from India, Timur appointed Khizr Khan as the governor of Multan. He captured Delhi and founded the Sayyid dynasty in c.1414 CE. Khizr Khan was said to be a descendant of the prophet by the author of the Tarikh-i-Mubarak Shahi, Yahya Sirhindi. He was succeeded by his son, Mubarak Shah.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Alauddin Alam Shah (Reign: 1443–51 CE) proved to be an incompetent Sultan and the weakest of the Sayyid princes. Alam Shah’s Wazir, Hamid Khan, invited Bahlol Lodhi to take charge of the army, and after realising that it would be difficult to continue as Sultan, Alam Shah left for Badaun. The Lodis were the last ruling family of the Sultanate period and the first to be headed by the Afghans, who were ruling over Sirhind when the Sayyids were in India.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 2

A record must satisfy which of the following criteria to count as a Guinness World Record?

  1. It should be verifiable.
  2. It cannot be something so unique that only one person can do it.
  3. It should be objectively measurable.
  4. It should bestandardisablewith a possibility to create a set of parameters and conditions.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 2

Today, GWR has over 75 adjudicators across the world, who determine whether a record has been broken or not. There is even an application process – one can apply to invite an adjudicator to witness a record being broken. However, there are some strict criteria that make a Guinness World Record.

A record must satisfy all of the following criteria to count.

  • It should be objectively measurable.
  • It should be breakable– it cannot be something so unique that only one person can do it.
  • Similarly, it should also be standardisablewith a possibility to create a set of parameters and conditions that all challengers can follow.
  • It should be verifiable.
  • It should be based ononly one variable.
  • It should be the best in the world. For any new record, GWR sets a minimum standard that has to be met for the record to be broken.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 3

The places Kapilvastu and Lumbini are located in 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 3

Kapilvastu is in southern Nepal, near the Indian border. Lumbinī is a Buddhist pilgrimage site in Nepal. It is the place where, according to Buddhist tradition, queen Maya gave birth to Siddhartha Gautama at around 566 BCE.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding direct seeding of rice (DSR) versus conventional transplanting method.

  1. In direct seeding of rice (DSR), Paddy is sown directly in the field without any nursery preparation or flooding.
  2. In transplanting, the flooded fields basically deny oxygen to the weed seeds in the soil, preventing their germination.
  3. In DSR, water is replaced with chemical herbicides.
  4. DSR is effective against weeds and saves water compared to transplanting.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 4

In all, the conventional transplanting route requires some 28 irrigations. It can go up if high temperatures force more frequent watering, and go down if there is enough rain.

Direct seeding versus transplanting

That’s where direct seeding of rice (DSR) comes in. Paddy here is sown directly in the field without any nursery preparation, puddling or flooding. In transplanting, the flooded fields basically deny oxygen to the weed seeds in the soil, preventing their germination. Water, thus, acts as a natural herbicide. In DSR, water is replaced with chemical herbicides.

DSR is effective against weeds and saves water compared to transplanting.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding bots.

  1. A bot is a software application that is programmed to do certain tasks over the Internet.
  2. Bots often imitate or replace a human user’s behaviour.
  3. Bots can be malicious as well, that can break into user accounts, scan the web for contact information for sending spam.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 5

A bot is a software application that is programmed to do certain tasks. Bots are automated, which means they run according to their instructions without a human user needing to manually start them up every time. Bots often imitate or replace a human user’s behaviour. Typically, they do repetitive tasks, and they can do them much faster than human users could.

Bots usually operate over a network; more than half of Internet traffic is bots scanning content, interacting with webpages, chatting with users, or looking for attack targets. Some bots are useful, such as search engine bots that index content for search or customer service bots that help users. Other bots are “bad” and are programmed to break into user accounts, scan the web for contact information for sending spam, or perform other malicious activities. If it’s connected to the Internet, a bot will have an associated IP address.

Bots can be:

  • Chatbots: Bots that simulate human conversation by responding to certain phrases with programmed responses
  • Web crawlers (Googlebots): Bots that scan content on webpages all over the Internet
  • Social bots: Bots that operate on social media platforms
  • Malicious bots: Bots that scrape content, spread spam content, or carry out credential stuffing attacks
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding cumin seeds, commonly known as jeera.

  1. Jeera is an extremely weather-sensitive crop, which requires a moderately cool and dry climate.
  2. India accounts for less than 10% of the world’s production of this seed spice.
  3. In India, it is mainly grown in the northern parts of Gujarat and adjoining districts of western Rajasthan.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 6

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Jeera is an extremely weather-sensitive crop. It requires a moderately cool and dry climate sans any humidity, which is conducive for fungal infestation during the crop’s flowering and seed development stages. That naturally limits the area of cultivation to Saurashtra, Kutch and the northern parts of Gujarat and adjoining districts of western Rajasthan such as Jalore, Barmer, Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Pali and Nagaur. Unjha, enjoying the strategic advantage of being in the centre of the country’s jeera cultivation belt, has become the price-setting market for the crop.
  • India accounts for some 70% of the world’s production of this seed spice. Other countries such as Syria, Turkey, UAE and Iran make up the balance 30%.
  • India’s jeera production is meant for both its domestic market as well as for export. The top export destinations include China, Bangladesh, US, UAE, Pakistan, Saudi Arabia and Turkey. China has been importing Indian cumin aggressively.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 7

With reference to the ancient Indian history, consider the following statements about ‘Kutagarashala’:

  1. A place where the travelling mendicants halted.
  2. A place where discussions were held on several philosophies.
  3. A place where the monastic rules of Buddhism were recited on a full-moon day.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 7
  • The teachers travelled from place to place, trying to convince one another, as well as the laypersons, about the validity of their philosophy or the way they understood the world.
  • Debates took place in the Kutagarashala – literally, a hut with a pointed roof – or in groves where the travelling mendicants halted. If a philosopher succeeded in convincing one of his rivals, the followers of the latter also became his disciples. Many of these teachers, including Mahavira and the Buddha, questioned the authority of the Vedas. They also emphasised individual agency – suggesting that men and women could strive to attain liberation from the trials and tribulations of the worldly existence. This was in marked contrast to the Brahmanical position, wherein an individual’s existence was thought to be determined by his or her birth in a specific caste or gender.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 8

Isotopes have the same atomic number but different atomic masses. Which among the following are the uses of radioactive isotopes?

  1. Treatment of cancer
  2. Fuel in nuclear reactors
  3. Treatment of goitre

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 8
  • A major characteristic of an atom is its atomic number, which is defined as the number of protons. The chemical properties of an atom are determined by its atomic number. The total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) in an atom is the atomic mass number. Atoms with the same atomic number but with different atomic masses are called isotopes. Isotopes have identical chemical properties, yet have very different nuclear properties. For example, there are three isotopes of hydrogen. Two of these isotopes are stable (not radioactive), but tritium (one proton and two neutrons) is unstable. Most elements have stable isotopes.
  • Radioactive isotopes can also be created for many elements. An isotope of uranium (Uranium-235) is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors. An isotope of cobalt (Cobalt-60) is used in the treatment of cancer. An isotope of iodine (Iodine-131) is used in the treatment of goitre.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 9

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  1. When aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply, it can result in infl ationary pressures.
  2. If aggregate supply surpasses aggregate demand, it can lead to unemployment and deflationary pressures.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 9

Aggregate Supply (AS)

  • It’s important to note that changes in aggregate demand and aggregate supply can lead to economic fluctuations.
  • When aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply, it can result in infl ationary pressures.
  • Conversely, if aggregate supply surpasses aggregate demand, it can lead to unemployment and deflationary pressures.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

1. The National Perspective Plan for Women (1988-2000) recommended the constitution of a Commission for Women in India.
2. The National commission for Women (NCW) deals with the issues of NRI martial disputes.
3. Suo Motu cognizance can be taken for information received by the NCW related to violence against women.
4. Legal Cell of NCW reviews the constitutional and legal safeguards provided to the Women.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 10

National commission for Women (NCW)

  • The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards for women; recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate redressal of grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.

Functions of Women Safety Cell:

  • Work relating to Project – Violence free homes set up in Delhi and seven other States including monitoring the working of special cells, release of funds for project execution and institutionalization and takeover of the project by the State
  • Monitoring of cases of acid attack and matters relating to payment of compensation in such cases in all States and UTs and providing inputs for formulation of Victim Compensation Schemes.
  • MIS for Acid Attack Victims

Women Welfare and Capacity Building Cell:

  • Formally setup in 2019, WW&CB Cell works on the needs of womencentric interventions to address the most pressing challenges affecting empowering of women at economic, social, cultural and political level.
  • The Cell has been conducting various Awareness programs, Workshops, Conferences, Seminars, Competitions, Legal Awareness Programmes, Gender sensitization workshops, capacity building, women empowerment and personality developments programs, etc. for holistic growth of women, individually and also in collaboration with multiple stakeholders.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 11

Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife Sanctuary : State

  1. Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary : Goa
  2. Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary : Assam
  3. Hastinapur Sanctuary : Haryana

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 11
  • Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Mhadei sanctuary is located in the North-east of Goa, in the taluka of Sattari. The town of Valpoi which is famous for white water rafting in the monsoons, lies fairly close to this area. Its official declaration as a wildlife preserve came in 1999. The formation of this sanctuary has made Goa the only state in all of India that has completely protected the Western Ghats that are located within its boundaries. The Western Ghats are known for their extremely high level of biodiversity both in terms of flora and fauna.
  • Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Pakhui/Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary is bounded to the north and west by the River Bhareli (known as Kameng in Arunachal Pradesh), to the east by the River Pakke and to the south by the Nameri National Park of Assam (an IBA). Doimara Reserve Forest (RF) lies to the west of Pakhui in the Kameng distrct, while Papum RF lies to the east of the Sanctuary in East Kameng district. Pakhui has been recently declared as Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger. Pakhui is criss-crossed by a number of small rivers and perennial tributaries of Bhareli and Pakke rivers, both of which join the Brahmaputra river.
  • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The Hastinapur Wild Life Sanctuary, lies alongside the Northern tip of the River Ganga, flowing through the districts of Muaffarnagar and Bijnore. The sanctuary extends all the way to the districts of Hapur and Amroha . The regions of Khadar, Khola and Bangar are also assimilated in the total spread of the sanctuary. The older route of the River Ganga , which is now just a swampy area is well known for the inhabitation of the Twelve – Horned Deers or the "Baara Singha" as famously known.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya.

  1. Adi Shankaracharya and Sri Ramanujacharya are contemporaries.
  2. While Adi Shankaracharya propounded Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, Sri Ramanujacharya propounded Advaita Vedanta.
  3. Both argued that the ultimate reality is Brahman.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 12

Only Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 13

Which of the following are types of bioplastics?

  1. Poly hydroxy alkanoate
  2. Polylactic acid
  3. Polyethylene terephthalate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 13
  • Bioplastic refers to plastic made from plants like maize, wheat or sugarcane or other biological material instead of petroleum. Bio-plastics are biodegradable and compostable plastic materials.
  • Polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs) are polyesters produced in nature by numerous microorganisms, including through bacterial fermentation of sugars or lipids. These plastics are biodegradable and are used in the production of bioplastics. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Polylactic acid (PLA) is a thermoplastic polyester formally obtained by condensation of lactic acid with loss of water. PLA has become a popular material due to it being economically produced from renewable resources and in 2021, had the highest consumption volume of any bioplastic of the world. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Polyethylene terephthalate (PET or PETE) is a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of the polyester family of polymers. Hence option 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding the speed of sound:

  1. The speed of sound decreases as it moves from solid to liquid medium.
  2. As temperature increases, the speed of sound increases.
  3. At any given temperature, the speed of sound in oxygen is greater than the speed of sound in an air medium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 14


Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The speed of sound in a medium depends on the temperature of the medium. The speed of sound decreases when we go from a solid to a gaseous state. In any medium, as we increase the temperature the speed of sound increases. For example, the speed of sound in air is 331 m s–1 at 0 ºC and 344 m s–1 at 22 ºC. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • In the case of gases, sound travels faster in gases with low density. Since the speed of sound in air is 346 m/s and in oxygen 316 m/s at 25 ºC. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding Snow leopard

  1. International Snow Leopard Day came into being with the adoption of the Bishkek Declaration.
  2. It is the National Heritage Animal of Pakistan and Afghanistan.
  3. Hemis National Park is the Snow Leopard capital of the world.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 15

Snow leopard

  • International Snow Leopard Day came into being with the adoption of the Bishkek Declaration.
  • It is the National Heritage Animal of Pakistan and Afghanistan.
  • Hemis National Park is the Snow Leopard capital of the world.
  • India has been conserving snow leopard and its habitat through the Project Snow Leopard (PSL).
  • India is also party to the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Programme since 2013.
  • In India, it inhabits the higher Himalayan and trans-Himalayan landscape in the five states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding ‘electoral bonds’:

Statement I: The Electoral Bond Scheme allows Indian citizens or entities incorporated or established in India, as well as outside India, to purchase Electoral Bonds.

Statement II: A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 16
  • Statement i is incorrect: because the Electoral Bond Scheme does not allow entities outside India to purchase Electoral Bonds. It only allows Inchan citizens or entities incorporated or established in Incha to do so.
  • Statement II is correct: A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals

Electoral Bond Scheme

  • The Government of India issued the Electoral Bond Scheme on 2nd January 2018.
  • Electoral Bonds are available for purchase by individuals who are citizens of India or entities incorporated or established in India.
  • Individuals have the option to buy Electoral Bonds either individually or jointly with other individuals.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Pandrethan temple of Kashmir is constructed on a plinth built in the middle of a tank.
  2. During the Karkota period, most of the Buddhist and Hindu temples were destroyed in Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 17

The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. One of the most important temples is Pandrethan, built during the eighth and the ninth centuries. In keeping with the tradition of a water tank attached to the shrine, this temple is built on a plinth built in the middle of a tank. Although there are evidences of both Hindu and Buddhist followings in Kashmir, this temple is a Hindu one, possibly dedicated to Shiva.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 18

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 18

To determine which pairs are correctly matched, we need to check the production site of each enzyme listed:

1. Pepsin: Produced by the stomach.
2. Lipase: Produced by the pancreas.
3. Lactase: Produced by the intestine.

Given this information, the correct pairs are:
- Pepsin: Stomach (not Pancreas, so Pair 1 is incorrect)
- Lipase: Pancreas (not Stomach, so Pair 2 is incorrect)
- Lactase: Intestine (Pair 3 is correct)

So, the only correctly matched pair is "3 only," which corresponds to Option B.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

  1. The G4 nations primarily focus on economic cooperation and trade agreements within the Asia-Pacific region.
  2. The G4 nations are exclusively European countries seeking closer integration within the European Union.
  3. The G4 nations emerged as a coalition to combat climate change and promote sustainable development globally.

How many of the above statements about the G4 nations are true?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 19
  • The G4 nations are a group composed of Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan, which aim to support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. These countries seek reform in the composition of the Security Council to reflect contemporary global power dynamics.
  • S1 is incorrect because the G4 nations’ main focus is not limited to economic cooperation within the Asia-Pacific region; rather, it’s centered around UN reform.
  • S2 is incorrect as the G4 nations include Brazil and India, which are not European countries.
  • S3 is incorrect because while the G4 nations might have interests in combating climate change and promoting sustainable development, this is not their primary purpose as a group.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 20

Consider the following pairs:
Types of Eclipse : Reason

  1. Annular Eclipse: The moon passes between the Earth and the Sun but is not perfectly aligned
  2. Partial Eclipse : Only a small ring-like sliver of light is seen from the sun's disc
  3. Hybrid Eclipse : Caused by the curvature of the earth's surface

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 20

Ningaloo Eclipse:

  • It is a rare ‘hybrid solar eclipse’, caused by the curvature of the earth's surface and a shift from annular to total eclipse. The last one was seen in 2013, and the next one will appear in 2031.
  • Its uniqueness is such that it has already been named Ningaloo, a part of western Australia from which the eclipse was most visible. The Ningaloo region is also designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • Types of Solar Eclipse:
    • Total Solar Eclipse: A total eclipse happens when the Moon completely blocks out the Sun while passing between the Earth and the Sun. The Baily's Beads effect, also known as the diamond ring effect, is a phenomenon that occurs during a total solar eclipse or annular solar eclipse.
    • Annular Eclipse: It happens when the Moon is at its farthest point from the Earth. The sun is covered in such a way that only a small ring-like sliver of light is seen from the sun's disc. This ring is known as the ring of fire. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
    • Partial Eclipse: It occurs when the Moon passes between the Earth and the Sun but is not perfectly aligned. Hence, only a part of the Sun appears covered. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
    • Hybrid Eclipse: A hybrid solar eclipse occurs when the eclipse is total from some locations on Earth and annular from others, due to the viewer's position relative to the Moon's shadow. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
    • It means that for some observers, the Moon appears to fully cover the Sun, resulting in a total solar eclipse, while for others, the Moon only partially covers the Sun, resulting in an annular solar eclipse.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: The black soil retains the moisture for a very long time.
  • Statement-II: The black soil contain high amount of clay minerals.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 21
  • Black soil is known for its high moisture retention capacity. This is due to the presence of clay minerals, which have a large surface area that can bind water molecules. As a result, black soil can store a significant amount of water even during dry periods. This is particularly beneficial for rain-fed crops, which rely on stored soil moisture to survive during the dry season.
  • Slow absorption and loss of moisture are indeed distinctive characteristics of black soil. The clay minerals in black soil tend to swell and become sticky when wet, which can impede the absorption of water. Additionally, the clay minerals can bind water molecules so tightly that it becomes difficult for plants to extract them. This combination of factors contributes to the slow absorption and loss of moisture in black soil.
  • The high moisture retention capacity of black soil is directly related to its slow absorption and loss of moisture. The clay minerals in black soil are responsible for both of these characteristics.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 22

Consider the following pairs in the context of vertebrates:

Select the correct option using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 22


Vertebrates

  • Vertebrates are animals that have a backbone or vertebral column. They are a subgroup of the larger animal kingdom and include animals with well-developed internal skeletons. Here are some examples of vertebrates:
    • Fish: Examples include goldfi sh, salmon, tuna, sharks, and seahorses.
    • Amphibians: Examples include frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts.
    • Reptiles: Examples include turtles, snakes, lizards, crocodiles, and alligators.
    • Birds: Examples include sparrows, eagles, penguins, owls, and fl amingos.
    • Mammals: Examples include humans, dogs, cats, cows, elephants, whales, and bats.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 23

Arrange the following regions into the decreasing order of the floral endemism:

  1. Eastern Himalaya and north-eastern region
  2. North-western Himalaya 
  3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
  4. Peninsular India including Western and Eastern Ghats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 23

Floral Endemism in India

  • Floral Endemism is the phenomenon of flower species being unique to a defined geographical area. Its measure defines the diversity of species at any location.
  • In India, the sequence of floral endemism is (in decreasing order):
    • Peninsular India including western and Eastern Ghats (about 2,600 species).
    • Eastern Himalaya and north-eastern region (about 2,500 species).
    • North-western Himalaya (about 800 species).
    • Andaman & Nicobar Islands (about 250 species).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with reference to Sovereign Gold Bonds:

  1. They are government securities denominated in grams of gold.
  2. A minor cannot invest in these bonds.
  3. An individual investor can buy only 4 kg worth of gold every year.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is correct: Sovereign Gold Bonds are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The Bond is issued by the Reserve Bank on behalf of the Government of India.The quantity of gold for which the investor pays is protected since he receives the ongoing market price at the time of redemption/ premature redemption. The SGB offers a superior alternative to holding gold in physical form. The risks and costs of storage are eliminated.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: A minor can invest in these bonds. The application on behalf of the minor has to be made by his/her guardian.
    Persons resident in India as defined under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 are eligible to invest in SGB. Eligible investors include individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities, and charitable institutions. Individual investors with subsequent change in residential status from resident to non-resident may continue to hold SGB till early redemption/maturity.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Bonds are issued in denominations of one gram of gold and in multiples thereof. The minimum investment in the Bond shall be one gram with a maximum limit of subscription of 4 kg for individuals, 4 kg for Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities notified by the government from time to time per fiscal year (April – March). In the case of joint holding, the limit applies to the first applicant.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 25

With reference to the reserve tranche, consider the following statements:

  1. The reserve tranche is an emergency account that IMF members can access without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. 
  2. The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of last resort.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 25
  • Statement 1 is correct: The IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions. The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. In other words, a portion of a member country’s quota can be withdrawn free of charge at its own discretion.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of first resort, meaning they will tap into the reserve tranche before seeking a formal credit tranche.
    In theory, members can borrow over 100% of their quota. However, if the amount being sought by the member nation exceeds its reserve tranche position (RTP), then it becomes a credit tranche that must be repaid in three years with interest.
    Initially, member nations’ reserve tranches are normally 25% of their quota. However, their RTP can change according to any lending that the IMF does with its holdings of the member’s currency.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 26

“Sorbitol” has applications in which of the following?

  1. used as a sugar substitute in confectionaries
  2. used as a natural anti-diarrheal
  3. used in the preparation of synthetic Vitamin-C
  4. used as an ingredient in toothpaste

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 26
  • Sorbitol, also called D-sorbitol is a type of carbohydrate. It falls into a category of sugar alcohols called polyols. It is a water-soluble compound and is found naturally in some fruits, including apples, apricots, dates, berries, peaches, plums, and figs.
  • It is also commercially manufactured from corn syrup for use in packaged foods, beverages, and medications.
  • Applications of Sorbitol:
    • Sorbitol is a starch sweetener often used as a substitute for traditional sugar in diet foods (including diet drinks) and confectionary items (cakes, biscuits, etc.) Hence option 1 is correct.
    • Sorbitol along with glycerol helps to hold the toothpaste together, and it's also a sweetening agent. Hence option 4 is correct.
    • Anti-diarrheal medication is used to treat sudden diarrhea (including traveler's diarrhea). It works by slowing down the movement of the gut and works in a manner opposite to the laxatives. It is used on its own as a laxative to combat constipation. It’s hyperosmotic, meaning it draws water into the colon from surrounding tissues to promote bowel movements. Hence option 2 is not correct.
    • Used as a humectant and thickener in making cosmetic creams and milky lotions
    • It is used in the preparation of synthetic vitamin C. It is also used as a stabilizer in pharmaceutical products.

Hence option 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 27

With reference to the temple architecture of the hills, consider the following statements:

  1. They are famous for their unique tradition of wooden buildings with pitched roofs.
  2. Kashmir’s temple architecture was largely influenced by the Gandhara style.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 27
  • The hills had wooden buildings with pitched roofs. At several places in the hills, therefore, we will find that while the main Garbhagriha and the Shikhara are made in a Rekha-Prasada or Latina style, the Mandapa is of an older form of wooden architecture. Sometimes, the temple itself takes on a Pagoda shape.
  • A unique form of architecture developed in the hills of Kumaon, Garhwal, Himachal and Kashmir. Kashmir’s proximity to prominent Gandhara sites (such as Taxila, Peshawar and the north-west frontier) lent the region a strong Gandhara influence by the fifth century CE.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The concept of equality before the law is embodied in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.
Statement-II: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 28

Equality before law

  • Equality before the law and equal opportunity of the law are fundamental principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
  • These principles ensure that every citizen is treated equally and fairly under the law, without any discrimination based on caste, religion, gender, race, or place of birth.
  • The Constitution of India guarantees these principles through various provisions and safeguards.
  • The concept of equality before the law is embodied in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, which states that “the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.”
  • This provision ensures that all individuals, irrespective of their background, are subject to the same laws and receive equal treatment from the legal system.
  • One signifi cant example of equality before the law can be seen in the criminal justice system. In criminal cases, all individuals are entitled to a fair trial, regardless of their social or economic status.
  • The principle of equality before the law ensures that both the accused and the victim are provided with an equal opportunity to present their case before the court. This principle protects individuals from arbitrary arrests, discriminatory practices, and ensures that justice is served impartially.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 29

With reference to the Indian economy, which of the following are correct with respect to Additional Tier 1 (AT1) Bonds?

  1. If a Bank makes huge losses, AT1 Bonds liability may be written off but cannot be converted into shares.
  2. They do not have a maturity period.
  3. Banks issuing AT1 bonds have no obligation to pay back Principal amount to investors.
  4. They cannot be traded in secondary markets.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 29
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: If or when a bank makes huge losses, AT1 Bonds’ liability may be A. written off OR  B. converted into shares (process called ‘Bail-In’).  
  • Statement 2 is correct: It is true that AT1 bonds are perpetual and carry no maturity date. Instead, they carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or 10 years. However, banks are not obliged to use  this call option and can opt to pay only interest on these bonds for eternity.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It is true that banks issuing AT1 bonds have no obligation to pay back Principal amount to investors. However, investors will receive interest rates on these bonds until the bonds will be written off by the banks. If the RBI feels that a bank is on the brink of collapse and needs a rescue, it can simply ask the bank to cancel its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: AT1 bonds can be traded in secondary markets which means AT1 bond holders can sell these bonds to others in the stock market to raise money.  

Supplementary Notes:
Additional Tier 1 (AT1) Bonds

  • Additional Tier 1 (AT1) bonds appeared in the news as the Bombay High Court recently invalidated the write off of additional Tier-1 (AT1) bonds issued by private lender Yes Bank.
  • These bonds are a type of perpetual securities which offer higher risk and reward.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 30

Which of the following are the terms and conditions of the Subsidiary Alliance?

  1. The British would be responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats.
  2. In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
  3. The ally could enter into agreements with other rulers only with the permission of the British.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 30
  • The Subsidiary Alliance played a significant role in the expansion of British rule in India, and many Indian states, including Mysore, Hyderabad, and Awadh, were forced to accept it. The policy remained in effect until the Indian Rebellion of 1857, which led to the end of the British East India Company's rule in India and the beginning of direct British rule under the British Crown. The Subsidiary Alliance was a policy introduced by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805, during the British colonial rule in India.
  • British were responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats under the terms of the Subsidiary Alliance. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Indian rulers who accepted the Subsidiary Alliance were required to pay for the maintenance of British troops stationed in their territories, and in return, the British promised to protect the Indian ruler from external aggression and internal rebellion. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The stationing of a British armed contingent in the territory of the ally was a key feature of the Subsidiary Alliance. Under this policy, Indian rulers were required to accept the presence of British troops in their territories. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Under this policy, Indian rulers were required to accept British control over their foreign policy and were not allowed to make treaties or alliances with other powers without British permission. This condition of the Subsidiary Alliance was intended to prevent Indian rulers from forming alliances that could potentially threaten British interests in India.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 31

Which of the following regions in India have alluvial soils in a significant amount?

  1. Deltas of the east coast
  2. River valleys of Peninsular region
  3. Western Ghat
  4. Brahmaputra Plains
  5. Deccan Plateau

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 31
  • Option 1 is correct: Deltas of the east coast: Alluvial soils are found in the deltas of rivers along the east coast of India, such as the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Godavari. These areas receive sediments carried by rivers, contributing to the formation of alluvial soils.
  • Option 2 is correct: River valleys of the Peninsular region: Alluvial soils are also present in the river valleys of the Peninsular region, particularly in regions where rivers deposit sediments over time. This contributes to the formation of alluvial soils in these valleys
  • Option 3 is incorrect: Western Ghats: The Western Ghats are not known for a significant presence of alluvial soils. The Western Ghats are characterised by laterite soils, which are formed by the leaching of soils in high rainfall areas, leading to the removal of soluble constituents.
  • Option 4 is correct: Brahmaputra Plains: Alluvial soils are found in the plains of the Brahmaputra region, particularly in the areas where the river deposits sediments. This contributes to the development of alluvial soils in the Brahmaputra Plains.
  • Option 5 is incorrect: Deccan Plateau: The Deccan Plateau is primarily known for red and black soils. Alluvial soils are not typically found in the Deccan Plateau in significant quantities, as its formation is influenced by different geological processes.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 32

Match the following pairs:

  1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) - Total value of fin al goods and services produced
  2. Gross National Product (GNP) - Adjusts for depreciation
  3. Net National Product (NNP) - Incorporates income generated by domestic and foreign entities

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 32
  • Pair 1 is correct: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) - Total value of fin al goods and services produced
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Gross National Product (GNP) - Incorporates income generated by domestic and foreign entities
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Net National Product (NNP) - Adjusts for depreciation

Supplementary Notes:
Concepts of National Income

  • National income refers to the total monetary value of all goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a given time period, typically a year.
  • It serves as a vital measure of a nation’s economic performance and helps gauge its overall well-being.
  • National income encompasses various concepts, including Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which calculates the total value of fin al goods and services produced; Gross National Product (GNP), which incorporates income generated by domestic and foreign entities; and Net National Product (NNP), which adjusts for depreciation.
  • These concepts provide insights into a country’s production, income distribution, economic growth, and overall economic health, aiding policymakers and economists in formulating effective strategies.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 33

With reference to the ancient Indian society, consider the following statements:

  1. Fa Xian's description of the 5th-century CE Indian society did not include any mention of the practice of untouchability.
  2. The concept of kingship being dependent on ‘human choice’ can be traced back to a story mentioned in the Sutta Pitaka.
  3. Manusmriti stated that women were prohibited from possessing any gifts or inheriting the paternal property.
  4. Unlike the Jains, the Buddhists believed that there were no distinctions or divisions within the society.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 33
  • While the Brahmanas considered some people as being outside the system, they also developed a sharper social divide by classifying certain social categories as the “untouchables”. In sharp contrast to the purity aspect, some activities were regarded as particularly “polluting”. These included handling the corpses and the dead animals. Those who performed such tasks, designated as the Chandalas, were placed at the very bottom of the hierarchy. The Manusmriti laid down the “duties” of the Chandalas. They had to live outside the village, use discarded utensils, and wear clothes of the dead and ornaments of iron. Much later, the Chinese Buddhist monk Fa Xian (c. fifth century CE) wrote that the “untouchables” had to sound a clapper in the streets, so that the people could avoid seeing them. Another Chinese pilgrim, Xuan Zang (c. seventh century CE), observed that the executioners and the scavengers were forced to live outside the city. They had to dispose of the bodies of those who had no relatives, and serve as the executioners.
  • According to the Manusmriti, the paternal estate was to be divided equally amongst the sons after the death of the parents, with a special share for the eldest. Women could not claim a share of these resources. However, women were allowed to retain the gifts they received on the occasion of their marriage as Stridhana (literally, a woman’s wealth). This could be inherited by their children, without the husband having any claim on it. At the same time, the Manusmriti warned women against hoarding family property, or even their own valuables, without the husband’s permission. At another level, even as the Brahmanical view of the society was codified in the Dharmasutras and the Dharmashastras, other traditions developed critiques of the Varna order. Some of these best-known were developed within early Buddhism (c. sixth century BCE onwards). The Buddhists recognised that there were differences in the society, but did not regard these as natural or inflexible.
  • They also rejected the idea of claims to status on the basis of birth. The Buddhists also developed an alternative understanding of social inequalities and the institutions required to regulate social conflict. In a myth found in a text known as the Sutta Pitaka, they suggested that originally the human beings did not have fully evolved bodily forms, nor was the world of plants fully developed. All beings lived in an idyllic state of peace, taking from nature only what they needed for each meal. However, there was a gradual deterioration of this state as the human beings became increasingly greedy, vindictive and deceitful. This led them to wonder : “What if we were to select a certain being who should be wrathful when indignation is right, who should censure that which should rightly be censured and should banish him who deserves to be banished? We will give him in return a proportion of the rice … chosen by the whole people, he will be known as the Mahasammata, the great elect.” This suggests that the institution of kingship was based on human choice, with taxes as a form of payment for the services rendered by the king. At the same time, it reveals recognition of human agency in creating and institutionalizing economic and social relations.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 34

Consider the following statements regarding the Zeeman Effect :

  1. It describes the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer moving relative to the source of the wave.
  2. Its principles are used in the working of Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 34
  • The Zeeman Effect is a phenomenon in atomic and molecular physics that describes the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic field. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • This effect was first observed by the Dutch physicist Pieter Zeeman in 1896 and later confirmed by Hendrik Lorentz. The Zeeman Effect provides valuable information about the magnetic properties of atoms and molecules.
  • The Zeeman Effect occurs when an external magnetic field is applied to atoms or molecules. It influences the energy levels of electrons and the corresponding spectral lines.
  • In the absence of a magnetic field, spectral lines in the atomic or molecular spectrum appear as single lines. However, when a magnetic field is applied, each spectral line is split into multiple components.
  • Applications
    • Astronomy: The Zeeman Effect is used in astronomy to study the magnetic fields of stars. The splitting of spectral lines provides information about the strength and direction of the magnetic field. 
    • Plasma Physics: It is applied in plasma diagnostics to measure magnetic fields within plasmas.
    • Materials Science: Used to study the magnetic properties of materials.
    • Magnetic Resonance Imaging Scanners
      • MRI relies on the magnetic properties of certain atomic nuclei, primarily hydrogen nuclei (protons), present in the body's tissues.
      • A strong static external magnetic field is applied to the patient within the MRI scanner. This magnetic field aligns the magnetic moments of the hydrogen nuclei in the body along the direction of the field.
      • The signals detected by the MRI scanner are processed to generate detailed images of the internal structures of the body. Different tissues exhibit varying signal intensities, allowing for the differentiation of structures in the images.
      • Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Doppler effect : The Doppler Effect is a phenomenon observed in waves, including sound waves and electromagnetic waves, such as light. It describes the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer moving relative to the source of the wave. The Doppler Effect is named after the Austrian physicist Christian Doppler, who first proposed it in 1842.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 35

With reference to Indian Insurance sector, consider the following statements:

  1. At present, the Government of India permits 100% Foreign Direct Investment in insurance sector.
  2. The Government mandates that all the members of the Board of Directors of all insurance companies must be Indian residents.
  3. At least 50 percent of Directors must be Independent.

How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 35
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Recently the Government of India increased the foreign direct investment (FDI) limit in the insurance sector to 74% from 49%, so 100% FDI so far is not allowed in India.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The increase in the foreign direct investment (FDI) limit in the insurance sector comes with safeguards such as majority (at least 50%) directors on the Board in health and general insurance companies would be resident Indians. Further at least 50% of directors will be independent directors.  
  • Statement 3 is correct: At least 50% of Directors must be Independent directors.

Supplementary Notes:
Insurance Companies in India

  • Insurance Companies in India are recognized by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, the statutory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance. It is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and reinsurance industries in India. 
  • IRDAI prepares a list of big insurance companies that are “too big to fail” i.e. they feel it will create very great economic distress for India - IRDAI labels them as D-SIIs & imposes additional rules/ monitoring/supervision on them  - Latest List of such D-SIIs is :  
    • Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)     
    • General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC)
    • The New India Assurance Co. Ltd. (NIACL)    
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 36

Consider the following:

1. Violation of basic human rights of the poor
2. Content or conduct of government policy
3. Compel municipal authorities to perform a public duty
4. Violation of religious rights or other basic fundamental rights

In how many of the above matters the Public interest litigation (PIL) can be fi led?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 36

Public interest litigation (PIL)

  • In Indian law, means litigation for the protection of public interest. It is litigation introduced in a court of law, not by the aggrieved party but by the court itself or by any other private party.
  • It is not necessary, for the exercise of the court’s jurisdiction, that the person who is the victim of the violation of his or her right should personally approach the court.
  • Public Interest Litigation is the power given to the public by courts through judicial activism.
  • Such cases may occur when the victim does not have the necessary resources to commence litigation or his freedom to move court has been suppressed or encroached upon.
  • The court can itself take cognisance of the matter and proceed suo motu or cases can commence on the petition of any publicspirited individual. In simple words, means, litigation fi led in a court of law, for the protection of Public Interest, such as pollution, Terrorism, Road safety, constructional hazards etc.
  • Public interest litigation is not defi ned in any statute or in any act. It has been interpreted by judges to consider the intent of public at large.
  • Although, the main and only focus of such litigation is only Public Interest there are various areas where Public interest litigation can be fi led. For e.g.
    • Violation of basic human rights of the poor
    • Content or conduct of government policy Compel municipal authorities to perform a public duty.
    • Violation of religious rights or other basic fundamental rights
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 37

Consider the following statements:

  1. Sacred groves fall under protected areas, along with national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and conservation reserves, according to the Wild Life (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972.
  2. Sacred groves are identified as protected areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities if part of the lands are privately owned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 37
  • Both statements 1 and 2 are related to Community reserves.
  • Context: Villagers in Rajasthan oppose the state government’s proposal to classify sacred groves known as orans as deemed forests, fearing loss of access and livelihood. The notification, released on February 1, 2024, aims to give orans the status of deemed forests as per Supreme Court directives.
  • Sacred groves are relic forest patches traditionally protected by communities in reverence of a deity. They are important repositories of forest biodiversity, providing refuge to many plant and animal species of conservation significance. India has over 13,000 documented sacred groves. These groves are known by different names in different regions, such as Kavu/Sarpa Kavu in Kerala, Devarakadu/Devkad in Karnataka, and Deorai/Devrai in Maharashtra.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 38

Consider the following statements:

  1. The GST Council consists of the Union Finance Minister and representatives from all States and Union Territories.
  2. The GST council makes decisions on various aspects of GST, including tax rates, exemptions, and administrative procedures.
  3. GST Council Secretariat is responsible for conducting meetings and setting up the agenda for those meetings.
  4. The Finance Minister is the ex-offi cio Secretary of GST Council.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 38

GST Council and Working

  • On July 1, 2017, GST laws were implemented, replacing a complex web of Central and State taxes. Under the Indian GST, goods and services are categorized into different tax slabs, including 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%.
  • Some essential commodities are exempted from GST, Gold and job work for diamond attract low rate of taxation. Compensation cess is being levied on demerit goods and ceratin luxury items.
  • To prepare for the implementation of GST, extensive efforts were made to build the necessary technological infrastructure and train tax offic ials and businesses. GST Network (GSTN), a not-for-profi t company, was created to provide the IT backbone for the GST system, including taxpayer registration, return fi ling, and tax payments.
  • Since its implementation, the Indian GST has undergone various amendments and refi nements based on feedback from businesses and the evolving economic scenario. While the GST implementation initially posed challenges for businesses in terms of understanding the new compliance requirements and adapting to the changes, it has gradually settled into the Indian tax landscape.
  • It can be said that the history of GST in India showcases a monumental shift in the country’s tax structure, aiming to create a more unifi ed, effi cient, and transparent indirect tax regime for the benefi t of businesses and the economy as a whole.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 39

Which type of activity is/are allowed in the Core Zone of a Biosphere Reserve?

  1. Research and educational activities
  2. Forestry
  3. Sampling for scientific investigations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 39

The Core Zone

  • A core zone secures legal protection and management and research activities (such as sampling) that do not affect natural processes and wildlife are allowed.
  • Destructive sampling for scientific investigations is prohibited.
  • Strict nature reserves and wilderness portions of the area are designated as core areas of BR. The core zone is to be kept free from all human pressures external to the system.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 40

Consider the following statements regarding decomposition.

  1. The decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in nitrogen and watersoluble substances like sugars.
  2. Bio-Digester toilets are based on decomposition mechanized toilet systems.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 40
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The rate of decomposition is controlled by the chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors. In a particular climatic condition, the decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin and quicker if detritus is rich in nitrogen and watersoluble substances like sugars.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Bio-Digester Toilet is a decomposition mechanized toilet system by means of which the sludge (Human Waste), the fecal matter is decomposed to bits in the digester tank using a specific  high graded bacteria further converting them into methane and water, discharged further to the desired surface.
  • The decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is considered an exothermic reaction because the decomposition process, which is carried out by microbes, requires energy to break down of bonds of vegetables. As a result of the reaction, energy is released in the form of light.

Decomposition

  • The decomposers break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water, and nutrients and the process is called decomposition.
  • Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers, and dead remains of animals, including fecal matter, constitute detritus, which is the raw material for decomposition.
  • The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification, and mineralization.
  • Decomposition is largely an oxygenrequiring process.
  • Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that regulate decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil microbes. A warm and moist environment favours decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition resulting in build-up of organic materials. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 41

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Association:

  1. Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose founded the Indian Association.
  2. There was no membership fee for the Indian Association to make it a mass organization.
  3. The membership was open only to the residents of Bengal.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 41

The Indian Association (1876) : Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose founded the Indian Association in 1876. The Indian Association aimed to create strong public opinion in the country on political questions and the unification of the Indian people under a common political programme. It had a low membership fee for attracting large number of poor people. Many branches of the India Association were opened in Bengal and in towns outside Bengal.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 42

Consider the following statements:

  1. The First Five-Year Plan of India was launched in 1951 and was based on the Harrod-Domar model.
  2. The main focus of the First Five-Year Plan was the development of the secondary sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 42
  • Statement 1 is correct: With the Partition as a backdrop, the country reeling with the influx of refugees, severe food shortage and mounting inflation, the First FiveYear Plan was introduced in 1951. The plan was based on the Harrod–Domar model, which suggested that growth was dependent on two things. First, a high level of savings since higher savings enabled greater investment and second, a low capital-output ratio that ensured efficient investment and a higher growth rate.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It focused primarily on the development of the primary sector, specifically agriculture and irrigation. The plan aimed at improving the country’s food production levels to reduce dependence on imports and achieve self-sufficiency. The secondary sector, which includes industries, was not the primary focus during this period.
    If the First Five-Year Plan focused on agriculture and energy, the Second FiveYear Plan focused on the development of the public sector and rapid industrialisation. Drafted by statistician P.C. Mahalanobis, the Second Plan was also called the Mahalanobis Plan.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 43

Which of the following statements regarding Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) in India are correct?

  1. Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) are allowed to invest in the primary and secondary capital markets in India through the portfolio investment scheme (PIS) of Reserve Bank of India.
  2. The ceiling for overall investment for FIIs is 24 per cent of the paid up capital of the Indian company.
  3. Securities and Exchange Board of India monitors the ceilings on FII investments in Indian companies on a daily basis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 43

Statement 3 is incorrect: RBI monitors the ceilings on FII investments in Indian companies on a daily basis.
Foreign Institutional Investment (FII)

  • A foreign institutional investor (FII) is an investor or investment fund investing in a country outside of the one in which it is registered or headquartered.
  • Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs), NonResident Indians (NRIs), and Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) are allowed to invest in the primary and secondary capital markets in India through the portfolio investment scheme (PIS) of Reserve Bank of India. 
  • Under this scheme, FIIs/NRIs can acquire shares/debentures of Indian companies through the stock exchanges in India.
  • The ceiling for overall investment for FIIs is 24 per cent of the paid up capital of the Indian company and 10 per cent for NRIs/ PIOs.
  • The limit is 20 per cent of the paid up capital in the case of public sector banks, including the State Bank of India.
  • The ceiling of 24 per cent for FII investment can be raised up to sectoral cap/statutory ceiling, subject to the approval of the board.
  • The ceiling for FIIs is independent of the ceiling of 10/24 per cent for NRIs/PIOs.
  • All FIIs in India must register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to participate in the market.
  • The Reserve Bank of India monitors the ceilings on FII /NRI/PIO investments in Indian companies on a daily basis.
  • Once the aggregate net purchases of equity shares of the company by FIIs/NRIs/PIOs reach the cut-off point, which is 2% below the overall limit, the Reserve Bank cautions all designated bank branches so as not to purchase any more equity shares of the respective company on behalf of FIIs/NRIs/ PIOs without prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 44

Consider the following statements:

  1. Renunciation of citizenship can be rejected by the central government while Indian is at war.
  2. The Central government can deprive a person of his/her citizenship for any fraud committed outside the territory of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 44
  • Statement 1 is correct: When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central Government, if: the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud in acquiring the citizenship certificate or during Citizenship by registration.

Citizenship Act (1955)

  • The Citizenship Act (1955) prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination and deprivation:
    • By Renunciation:  Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a citizen of India.
    • However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government.
    • Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 45

With reference to the religious practise in India, the ‘Terapanthi’ sect belongs to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 45

The Svetambara School of Jainism has three sub-sects:

  • Sthanakavasi: They believe in praying to saints rather than to an idol in a temple. The saints wear a muhapatti near their mouth to cover it, unlike Murtipujakas
  • Murtipujaka (Deravasi): They keep idols of the tirthankaras at their temples and worship them, and the saints do not wear a muhapatti. 
  • Terapanthi: They pray to saints rather than to an idol in a temple, like Sthanakavasi. Terapanthi saints also wear a muhapatti near their mouth to cover it.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 46

With reference to the structure of the atmosphere, consider the following statements:

  1. In the Mesosphere, temperature increases with increasing altitude.
  2. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by the Ionosphere.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 46

The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying density and temperature. Density is highest near the surface of the earth and decreases with increasing altitude. The column of the atmosphere is divided into five different layers depending upon the temperature condition.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere which extends up to a height of 80 km. In this layer, temperature decreases with increasing altitude and can drop down up to minus 100°C at the height of 80 km. The upper limit of the mesosphere is known as the mesopause.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The ionosphere is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer. The temperature here starts increasing with height.

The uppermost layer of the atmosphere above the thermosphere is known as the exosphere.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding the Photoelectric effect :

  1. It is a phenomenon where electrons are absorbed when a material is exposed tolight.
  2. Solar panels utilize the photoelectric effect to convert sunlight into electricalenergy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 47

The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon in physics where electrons are emitted from a material when it is exposed to light or electromagnetic radiation. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • When light (composed of photons) strikes the surface of a material, the energy of the photons can be transferred to electrons in the material.
  • In the photoelectric effect, the energy of the incident photons must be above a certain threshold for electrons to be emitted. This threshold energy is specific to the material.
  • If the incident photons have sufficient energy to overcome the threshold, they transfer their energy to electrons in the material. This can lead to the ejection of electrons from the material.
  • The photoelectric effect supports the idea that light has both wave-like and particle-like properties. In the context of the photoelectric effect, the particle-like properties of light are emphasized. Each photon carries a specific amount of energy, and it behaves as a discrete particle in the interaction with electrons.
  • One significant aspect of the photoelectric effect is that the emission of electrons is nearly instantaneous once the incident light reaches the threshold energy.

Solar panels utilize the photoelectric effect to convert sunlight into electrical energy. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Solar panels are composed of semiconductor materials, usually silicon. When photons from sunlight strike the surface of the solar panel, they are absorbed by the semiconductor material.
  • The absorbed photons transfer their energy to electrons in the semiconductor atoms. This energy is sufficient to excite electrons from their normal energy levels to higher energy levels, or in some cases, completely release them from the atoms.
  • As a result of this process, electron-hole pairs are generated in the semiconductor material. An electron is excited to a higher energy level, leaving behind a "hole" in the lower energy level.
  • The movement of these excited electrons (and the corresponding movement of holes) creates an electric current. This flow of electrons can be harnessed as electrical energy.
  • The electrical energy generated by the solar panel is typically in the form of direct current (DC).

The photoelectric effect is crucial in solar panels because it allows the conversion of sunlight directly into usable electrical power. This technology has become a cornerstone of renewable energy systems, providing a clean and sustainable source of electricity for various applications, including residential and industrial use.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 48

Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding Non-ionising radiations?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 48

Two types of radiations with regard to the mode of their action on cells

  • Radiation in the ultraviolet band and at lower energies (to the left of ultraviolet) is called non-ionizing radiation, while at the higher energies to the right of the ultraviolet band is called ionizing radiation.

Non-ionising radiations

  • Examples include Radiofrequency (RF) radiation, Microwaves, Infrared radiation, and Ultraviolet (UV).
  • They have low penetrating power and affect the cells and molecules which absorb them.
  • They damage eyes which may be caused by reflections from coastal sand, snow (snow blindness) directly looking towards the sun during an eclipse.
  • They injure the cells of skin and blood capillaries producing blisters and reddening called sunburns.

Ionizing radiations

  • They include X-rays, cosmic rays and atomic radiations (radiations emitted by radioactive elements).
  • Ionizing radiations have high penetration power and cause breakage of macromolecules.
  • The molecular damage may produce shortrange (immediate) or long-range (delayed) effects.
  • Short-range effects include burns, impaired metabolism, dead tissues and death of the organisms.
  • Long-range effects are mutations that increased the incidence of tumours and cancer, shortening of life-span and developmental changes.
  • The mutated gene can persist in living organisms and may affect their progeny.
  • The actively dividing cells such as Embryo, foetus, cells of the skin, intestinal lining, bone marrow, and gamete forming cells are more sensitive to radiations.
  • Some species of animals and plants preferentially accumulate specific radioactive materials. For example, oysters deposit 65Zn, fish accumulate 55Fe, and marine animals selectively deposit 90Sr.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 49

Consider the following:

  1. Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998)
  2. Law Commission Report on Reform of the Electoral Laws (1999)
  3. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2001)
  4. Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2008)

How many of the above committees/ Commissions agreed with or recommended ‘Partial state funding’ or partial public funding of elections?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 49
  • Option (c) is correct.
  • Following committees/Commissions agreed with or recommended ‘Partial state funding’ or partial public funding of elections:
  • Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998)
  • Law Commission Report on Reform of the Electoral Laws (1999)
  • Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2008)
  • In contrast to the aforementioned reports, the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution in 2001 did not endorse state funding of elections

Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998)

  • The Indrajit Gupta Committee, formed in 1998, supported the idea of state funding for elections as it believed it would provide a fair playing fi eld for parties with limited financial resources.
  • Considering the economic situation of the country at the time of the report, the Indrajit Gupta Committee acknowledged that full state funding of elections might not be feasible. As a result, it advocated for partial state funding as a practical solution.

Law Commission Report on Reform of the Electoral Laws (1999)

  • The 1999 Law Commission of India report supported the idea of total state funding of elections on the condition that political parties are prohibited from accepting funds from other sources. However, it also recognized the prevailing economic constraints and concurred with the Indrajit Gupta Committee’s stance on partial state funding being more viable at that time.
  • Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2008)
  • The Second Administrative Reforms Commission’s “Ethics in Governance” report (2008) echoed the support for partial state funding of elections. The commission recommended that
  • “A system for partial state funding should be introduced in order to reduce the scope of illegitimate and unnecessary funding of expenditure for elections.” The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2001)
  • In contrast to the aforementioned reports, the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution in 2001 did not endorse state funding of elections. However, it agreed with the 1999 Law Commission report’s stance that the regulatory framework for political parties must be implemented first before considering state funding as a viable option.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 50

Consider the following pairs regarding Capital and Revenue Budget:

  1. Borrowing through the RBI: Capital receipt
  2. Surplus transfer from RBI: Revenue receipt
  3. Expenditure for Central Sector Scheme: Capital expenditure
  4. Loan interest repayment: Revenue expenditure

Which of the pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 50

Borrowing through the RBI: Capital receipt

  • Correct: Borrowing increases the government's liabilities and is considered a capital receipt.

Surplus transfer from RBI: Revenue receipt

  • Correct: Surplus transfers from the RBI to the government are considered revenue receipts as they are non-recurring in nature and do not create any liabilities.

Expenditure for Central Sector Scheme: Capital expenditure

  • Incorrect: Central Sector Schemes can include both capital and revenue expenditure. Capital expenditure typically refers to spending on the creation of assets, while many Central Sector Schemes are for operational expenses and hence are revenue in nature.

Loan interest repayment: Revenue expenditure

  • Correct: Repayment of interest on loans is a revenue expenditure as it is a recurring expense and does not result in the creation of any assets.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 51

Regarding the Biodiversity conservation, consider the following pairs:

  1. In situ conservation - When we conserve and protect the entire forest to save the tiger.
  2. Ex situ conservation - When there are situations where an animal or plant is endangered or threatened and needs urgent measures to save it.

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 51

Biodiversity Conservation

  • When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is protected - we save the entire forest to save the tiger. This approach is called in situ (on site) conservation.
  • However, when there are situations where an animal or plant is endangered or threatened (organisms facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future) and needs urgent measures to save it from extinction, ex situ (off site) conservation is the desirable approach.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 52

Consider the following statements about Banni grassland:

  1. Banni Grassland is the largest in Asia and is situated near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
  2. It was formed from uncontrolled grazing and widespread ingress of exotic tree species. 
  3. The vegetation in Banni is dominated by forbs and graminoids.
  4. Maldhari tribal community resides in these grasslands.

Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 52
  • Statement 1 is correct: Banni Grassland is situated near the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. It is considered to be the largest Grassland in Asia.
  • The grassland spreads over 2,618 kilometers and accounts for almost 45% of the pastures in Gujarat.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The word ‘Banni’ comes from the Hindi word ‘banai’, meaning made. The land here was formed from the sediments that were deposited by the Indus and other rivers over thousands of years.
    • Two ecosystems, wetlands and grasslands are juxtaposed in Banni.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The vegetation in Banni is sparse and highly dependent on rainfall. It is dominated by low-growing forbs and graminoids, many of which are halophiles (salt-tolerant), as well as scattered tree cover and scrub. The grasslands were traditionally managed by a system of rotational grazing. Graminoid refers to a herbaceous plant with a grasslike morphology, i.e. elongated culms with long, blade-like leaves. They are contrasted to forbs which are herbaceous plants without grass-like features.
    • In 1955, the court notified the grassland will be a reserve forest. In, 2019, the NGT ordered to demarcate the boundaries of the Banni grassland and restricted nonforest activities.
    • Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has identified this grassland reserve as one of the last remaining habitats of the cheetah in India. Also, a possible reintroduction site for the species.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Maldharis are a tribal herdsmen community in Gujarat, India. The literal meaning of Maldhari is a keeper (dhari) of the animal stock (mal). The Maldharis have lived in the Gir National Park, in the Banni Grasslands Reserve area, for the past thousand years.
    • They have co-existed with the lions which the Gir National Park was created to preserve, for these thousand years.
    • Maldhari community breeds Banni Buffaloes, a species endemic to the region. The buffaloes are adaptive to Kutch’s hot weather conditions.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 53

Consider the following statements with reference to the determinants of India's climate:

  1. India's climate is exclusively influenced by its geographical location and topography.
  2. Upper air circulation plays a crucial role in shaping India's local climates.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 53
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: India's climate is influenced not only by geographical location and relief but also by air pressure and wind patterns. Factors related to Location and Relief include Latitude, The Himalayan Mountains, Distribution of Land and Water, Distance from the Sea, Altitude, Relief, etc. All these factors work together to create the diverse climatic conditions observed across the country, indicating that climate determination is not solely dependent on location and topography.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Upper air circulation, driven by global weather phenomena and the movement of different air masses and jet streams, is a key mechanism influencing India's local climates. Understanding these upper air circulation patterns is essential to comprehend the variations in climate across different regions of India during both winter and summer seasons.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 54

Consider the following statements:

  1. They are the smallest sea turtles of India.
  2. An event, known as the arribada, is exhibited by these species on the Indian Coast.
  3. They are listed as endangered under the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and CITES.

Which of the following species is being described above? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 54

Olive Ridley Turtles

  • India’s coastal waters contain 4 species of sea turtles, all listed as endangered under the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and CITES.
  • These include the green, hawksbill, leatherback and olive ridley, with the ridleys being the smallest in size.
  • The olive ridleys are also the only species exhibiting the phenomena of mass nesting in India and the Indian mass nesting population of olive ridleys is globally the largest rookery.
  • In a nocturnal spectacle spanning a few nights, tens of thousands of Olive Ridley turtles lay over a million eggs ashore in the event known as the arribada.
  • These turtles undertake a long distance migration from the offshore waters of Sri Lanka via Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh to nest in large numbers along the beaches of Odisha.
  • However, while direct threats like poaching for trade or consumption have largely been eliminated for the species in India, they continue to face indirect threats from fisheries (bycatch mortality), coastal development (loss of nesting beaches), climate change (altered physiology and habitat) and marine debris (entrapment, ingestions, infiltration in food chain).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test -14 - Question 55

Consider the following statements regarding Coral reefs.

  1. Coral reefs cover more than 25% of the earth’s surface.
  2. Coral reefs help in substantially reducing coastal flooding and erosion.
  3. Increased ocean temperature causes reefs to expel the symbiotic algae responsible for their colour.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?