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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 1

What does the term "annealing" refer to in the context of glass manufacturing?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 1
  • Glass manufacturing is a complex process that involves transforming raw materials into a wide range of glass products, from everyday items like bottles and windows to specialized materials used in electronics. The key steps in the glass manufacturing process include:
  • Raw Materials: The primary raw materials for glass production include silica (sand), soda ash, and limestone. Additional materials may be added to achieve specific properties or colors.
  • Melting: The raw materials are mixed and melted in a furnace at high temperatures (typically around 1700°C or 3092°F) to form molten glass. This molten glass is a viscous liquid that can be shaped and molded.
  • Forming: The molten glass is shaped into the desired form through various processes: Blown Glass: The glassblower gathers molten glass on the end of a blowpipe and shapes it by blowing air into the pipe.
  • Float Process: Molten glass is poured onto a pool of molten tin, creating a smooth, flat surface. Pressed Glass: Molten glass is pressed into molds to achieve specific shapes.
  • Annealing: The formed glass is slowly cooled in an annealing oven. This controlled cooling process helps relieve internal stresses, ensuring the glass's strength and durability.
  • Cutting and Finishing: Once the glass has cooled and solidified, it is cut, polished, and finished to achieve the desired dimensions and surface qualities. Tempering (Optional): In some cases, glass may undergo a tempering process to increase its strength.
  • Tempered glass is heated and then rapidly cooled, creating a strong outer layer. Coating and Decoration (Optional): Glass products may be coated or decorated for specific purposes, such as UV protection, insulation, or aesthetics.
  • Quality Control: Rigorous quality control measures are applied throughout the manufacturing process to ensure that the glass meets specified standards for strength, clarity, and other properties. • Recycling: Glass is highly recyclable. Used glass products can be collected, crushed, and melted to create new glass, reducing the demand for raw materials.
  • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. A ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air for combustion.

2. A scramjet is a type of ramjet airbreathing jet engine where combustion occurs in supersonic airflow.

3. Ramjets work most efficiently at hypersonic speeds.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 2
  • A ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air for combustion without a rotating compressor. Fuel is injected in the combustion chamber where it mixes with the hot compressed air and ignites. A ramjet-powered vehicle requires an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 (three times the speed of sound) and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6. However, the ramjet efficiency starts to drop when the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • A scramjet is a type of ramjet airbreathing jet engine where combustion occurs in supersonic airflow. A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet. Hence statement 2 is correct
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 3

The color of the sun appears reddish during sunset.

Which of the following is the reason behind this phenomenon?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 3

  • As sunlight travels through the earth’s atmosphere, it gets scattered (changes its direction) by the atmospheric particles. Light of shorter wavelengths is scattered much more than light of longer wavelengths. (The amount of scattering is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the wavelength. This is known as Rayleigh scattering). At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass through a larger distance in the atmosphere. Most of the blue and other shorter wavelengths are removed by scattering. The least scattered light reaching our eyes, therefore, the sun looks reddish. This explains the reddish appearance of the sun and full moon near the horizon.
  • This is also the reason that the sky appears blue during the day, as blue has a shorter wavelength than red and is scattered much more strongly. In fact, violet gets scattered even more than blue, having a shorter wavelength. But since our eyes are more sensitive to blue than violet, we see the sky blue.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 4

In a nuclear fission reactor, what is the purpose of the control rods?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 4
  • A nuclear reactor is a complex system designed for the controlled release of nuclear energy. Its basic components include
    • Fuel Assemblies: The core of a nuclear reactor contains fuel assemblies, which are clusters of fuel rods. The fuel rods typically contain uranium-235 or plutonium-239 isotopes.
    • Control Rods: Control rods are inserted or withdrawn from the reactor core to control the rate of the nuclear reaction. They are typically made of materials that can absorb neutrons, such as boron or cadmium. Adjusting the position of control rods regulates the reactor power.
    • Coolant: Coolant circulates through the reactor core to transfer heat away from the fuel assemblies. Common coolants include water, heavy water (deuterium oxide), or liquid sodium. The coolant absorbs the heat generated during fission reactions.
    • Steam Generator: In pressurized water reactors (PWRs), the coolant transfers heat to a secondary loop, which generates steam. The steam is then used to turn turbines connected to generators, producing electricity.
    • The turbine converts the kinetic energy of steam into mechanical energy, which is then used to drive a generator. The generator converts this mechanical energy into electrical energy. These components work together to maintain a controlled and sustainable nuclear reaction, extract heat from the system, and generate electricity safely and efficiently. The specific design and configuration of nuclear reactors can vary based on the reactor type (e.g., pressurized water reactor, boiling water reactor) and the intended application. Hence option (a) is the correct answer
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 5

Consider the following statements with reference to biocredits:

1. Biocredits are similar to carbon credits and they are designed to offset actions with negative impacts on biodiversity.

2. To promote biocredits, the Biodiversity Credit Alliance was launched at CoP15 of UNFCCC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 5
  • Recent Context: Biodiversity credits or biocredits are increasingly being pushed as a means for financing work on the various targets set under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) adopted in 2022 at the 15th Conference of Parties (CoP15) of Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Through 2023, efforts were made to promote them at different fora. They were discussed at CoP28 of the UNFCCC in Dubai in December 2023. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • While biocredits are similar to carbon credits used to control greenhouse gas emissions. But they are not designed to offset or compensate for actions with negative impacts on biodiversity. Instead, proceeds from the sale of bio credits are used to protect and restore biodiversity where it exists. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 6

In the field of forensic science, which chemical is commonly used to detect the presence of blood at crime scenes?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 6
  • Luminol is a chemical compound with the molecular formula C8H7N3O2. It contains carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen atoms.
  • Luminol exhibits chemiluminescence, a phenomenon where a chemical reaction produces light. The reaction involves the oxidation of luminol, typically catalyzed by the presence of iron or other catalysts found in blood.
  • Hemoglobin, the iron-containing protein in red blood cells, acts as a catalyst for the reaction. When luminol comes into contact with blood, the iron in hemoglobin catalyzes the oxidation of luminol, resulting in the release of energy in the form of light. 
  • The emitted light is in the blue part of the spectrum and is often faint. However, even small amounts of blood can produce a detectable glow. The chemiluminescent reaction enhances the visibility of bloodstains, especially in low-light or dark conditions.
  • Luminol is particularly useful in crime scene investigations where investigators need to identify and locate potential bloodstains that may not be visible under normal lighting. This includes situations where attempts have been made to clean or conceal blood.
  • The use of luminol raises ethical considerations related to the potential destruction of evidence. The chemiluminescent reaction involves the oxidation of blood, which could hinder subsequent DNA analysis. Therefore, its application is carefully considered in conjunction with other forensic techniques.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 7

Which polymer is used in making non-stick cookware, such as Teflon?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 7
  • Teflon coating, also known by the brand name Teflon®, is a synthetic polymer coating applied to various surfaces to create a non-stick, hydrophobic (water-repellent), and low-friction surface. It's widely used in cookware, kitchen appliances, textiles, and numerous other industrial applications.
  • Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is specifically chosen for non-stick cookware due to its unique properties, which include: o Low Friction: PTFE has an extremely low coefficient of friction, making it an excellent material for non-stick surfaces. This property prevents food from sticking to the cookware, allowing for easy release and cleaning.
    • Chemical Inertness: PTFE is highly resistant to chemicals and does not react with most substances. This chemical inertness ensures that the material remains stable and does not release harmful substances when exposed to cooking temperatures.
    • Thermal Stability: PTFE can withstand high temperatures without degradation. This is crucial for cookware, as it needs to endure the heat generated during cooking without losing its non-stick properties or releasing harmful fumes.
    • Non-Toxic: PTFE is considered non-toxic when used in cookware under normal cooking conditions. However, it is important to avoid overheating the cookware, as extreme temperatures can lead to the release of fumes that may be harmful to birds and can cause flu-like symptoms in humans (a phenomenon known as polymer fume fever).
  • The other polymers mentioned (Polyethylene, Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride - PVC) do not possess the combination of low friction, high chemical inertness, and thermal stability that make PTFE ideal for non-stick cookware. Hence option (d) is the correct answer
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 8

The terms 'Centimorgan' and 'Transposon' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 8
  • Genetic engineering is a set of technologies used to change the genetic makeup of cells, including the transfer of genes within and across species boundaries to produce improved or novel organisms. Genome mapping describes the methods used to identify the location of a gene on a chromosome and the distances between genes.
  • Rate of crossing over (also referred to as recombination frequency) between two or more genes or loci has been successfully used to measure the relative genetic distance between them. One map unit is equal to one percent of observed cross-over (recombinants). The unit centimorgan (cM) is used to denote the genetic distance between genes based on offspring phenotype frequency.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the Tea Board of India:

1. It is a statutory body set up under Tea Act 1953.

2. It comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

3. Its head office is located in the Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 9
  • Recent Context: Tea Board has mandated all tea producers to limit generation of tea waste not exceeding 0.2% of production for quality produce.
    • Presently, tea waste is being used for producing instant tea, bio-fertiliser and caffeine.
    • Board is in process of allowing tea waste being used only for production of instant tea.
  • About Tea Board India o Nature: Statutory body set up under Tea Act 1953. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Head Office: Kolkata. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
    • Functions: Financial and technical assistance for cultivation, manufacture and marketing of tea, export promotion etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 10

With reference to phenomena of formation of the rainbow, consider the following statements:

1. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.

2. The sunlight undergoes refraction and dispersion in the water droplets to form the colors of a rainbow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 10
  • Statement 1 is correct: A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower. It is caused by the dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colors reach the observer's eye.
  • Since it involves the total internal reflection of sunlight, the light is reflected back in the direction it originally came from. Hence you can only see a rainbow if your back is facing the sun.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 11

With reference to the Rig Vedic period, consider the following statements:

1. The Rig Vedic people were predominantly called the nomadic people.

2. ‘Gavisthi’, a term often mentioned, is associated with the sowing and harvesting practices.

3. The Rig Vedic people had very little knowledge about agriculture and were mainly dependent on hunting and gathering.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 11

The Rig Vedic people had a superior knowledge of agriculture. The ploughshare is mentioned in the earliest part of the Rig Veda, though some consider it to be an interpolation, and was possibly made of wood. They were acquainted with sowing, harvesting and threshing, and knew about the different seasons. Agriculture was also well known to the pre-Aryans, who lived in the area associated with the Vedic people, but was perhaps used primarily to produce fodder.

However, there are so many references to the cow and the bull in the Rig Veda that the Rig Vedic people can be called the predominantly pastoral people. Most of their wars were fought over cows. The term for war in the Rig Veda is Gavishthi, or search for cows, and cow seems to have been the most important form of wealth.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 12

With reference to the Rig Vedic period, consider the following statements:

1. The King’s post had become hereditary during the Rig Vedic period.

2. The Sabha, the Samiti and the Vidatha were the kin-based assemblies, which exercised deliberative, military and religious functions.

3. The King appointed an officer for administration of justice, consultation with the priests.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 12

The administrative machinery of the Aryans in the Rig Vedic period functioned with the tribal chief, for his successful leadership in war, at the centre. He was called above Rajan. It seems that in the Rig Vedic period, the King’s post had become hereditary. Several tribal or kin-based assemblies, such as the Sabha, the Samiti, the Vidatha and the Gana are mentioned in the Rig deliberative, Veda. They exercised military and religious functions. The Rig Veda does not mention any officer for administration of justice. It was not, however, an ideal society, but one in which there were cases of theft and burglary, and the people stole cows. Spies were employed to keep an eye on such anti-social activities.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 13

With reference to the Later Vedic period, consider the following statements:

1. In the later Vedic times, the Rig Vedic tribal assemblies lost importance and royal power increased at their cost.

2. Women were not permitted to sit in the assemblies.

3. The King’s post remain hereditary during this period and there were no traces of election.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 13

Traces of the election of the King appear in later Vedic texts. The individual considered to have the best in physical and other attributes was elected the Raja. In the later Vedic times, the Rig Vedic tribal assemblies lost their importance and royal power increased at their cost. The Sabha and the Samiti continued to hold their ground, but their character changed. They were now controlled by the chiefs and the rich nobles, and women were no longer permitted to sit in the Sabha, which was now dominated by the warriors and the Brahmanas.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 14

With reference to the Later Vedic period, consider the following statements:

1. During this period, the society came to be divided into four Varnas.

2. The Shudras were deprived of the sacred thread ceremony and the recitation of the Gayatri mantra.

3. The position of women improved during the Later Vedic period and they were allowed to recite the Gayatri Mantra.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 14

The later Vedic society came to be divided into four Varnas, called the Brahmana, Rajanya or Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudra. The growing cult of sacrifices enormously added to the power of the Brahmanas. All the three higher Varnas shared one common feature: They were entitled to Upanayana, or investiture with the sacred thread according to the Vedic Mantras. Upanayana heralded the beginning of education in the Vedas. The fourth Varna (Shudra) was deprived of the sacred thread ceremony and the recitation of the Gayatri Mantra. The Gayatri was a Vedic Mantra that could not be recited by a Shudra, thereby depriving him of the Vedic education. Similarly, women were also denied both the Gayatri and the Upanayana. Thus, the imposition of disabilities on the Shudras and women began towards the end of the Vedic period.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 15

With reference to the ancient Indian period of the 6th century BCE, consider the following statements:

1. Mahapadma Nanda, from the Nanda dynasty, expanded the Magadha empire towards the north-western region of the Indian sub-continent.

2. The 6th century BCE is renowned for its ochre coloured pottery ware culture.

3. In this era, the republic of Vajji implemented a democratic structure that allowed both women and the "Kammakaras" to participate in the assemblies.

4. By the end of his rule, Mahapadma Nanda successfully subjugated all the Ganas/republics.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 15

Magadha became the most important Mahajanapada in about two hundred years. Many rivers, such as the Ganga and the Son, flowed through Magadha. This was important for transport, water supplies and making the land fertile. Parts of Magadha were forested. Elephants, which lived in the forests, could be captured and trained for the army. Magadha had two very powerful rulers, Bimbisara and Ajatasattu, who used all possible means to conquer other Janapadas. Mahapadma Nanda was another important ruler. He extended his control up to the north-west part of the sub-continent. Rajagriha (the present-day Rajgir) in Bihar was the capital of Magadha for several years. Later, the capital was shifted to Pataliputra (the present-day Patna). Vajji: While Magadha became a powerful kingdom, Vajji, with its capital at Vaishali (Bihar), was under a different form of government, known as Gana or Sangha (Republic). 

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 16

“People perform a variety of rituals when they fall ill, when their children get married, when children are born, or when they go on a journey. These rituals are not useful. If instead, people observe other practices, this would be more fruitful, like treating all creatures with compassion.” The above statements, reflecting belief in humanity, are associated with which of the following ancient figures?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 16

Ashoka was one of the greatest rulers known to the history, and on his instructions inscriptions were inscribed on pillars, as well as on rock surfaces. The empire that Ashoka ruled was founded by his grandfather, Chandragupta Maurya, more than 2,300 years ago. Ashoka’s Dhamma: It did not involve the worship of a god, or the performance of a sacrifice. He felt that just as a father tries to teach his children, he had a duty to instruct his subjects. He was also inspired by the teachings of the Buddha. He appointed officials, known as the Dhamma Mahamatta, who went from place to place teaching people about Dhamma. Ashoka also sent messengers to spread ideas about Dhamma to other lands, such as Syria, Egypt, Greece, and his son Mahendra and daughter Sanghmitra to Sri Lanka.

Ashoka’s message to his subjects: “People perform a variety of rituals when they fall ill, when their children get married, when children are born, or when they go on a journey. These rituals are not useful. If instead, people observe other practices, this would be more fruitful. What are these other practices? These are: being gentle with slaves and servants. Respecting one’s elders. Treating all creatures with compassion. Giving gifts to brahmins and monks.” “It is both wrong to praise one’s own religion or criticise another’s.

Each one should respect the other’s religion. If one praises one’s own religion while criticising another’s, one is actually doing greater harm to one’s own religion. Therefore, one should try to understand the main ideas of another’s religion, and respect it.”

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 17

Consider the following pairs with reference to the architecture of the Mauryan period: 

 How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 17

Jagayyapetta,  Andhra Pradesh: Archaeological excavations conducted in the vicinity of Jagayyapetta have uncovered Buddhist Stupas dating back to 200 BC. have been discovered in the surrounding areas of the town. According to the Buddhist tradition, Allakappa was among the eight republics chosen to receive the relics of the Buddha after his passing, known as Parinirvana. The inhabitants of Allakappa, known as the Bulayas or the Bulis, resided in the region of Bihar, which holds significant historical significance in relation to the life of the Buddha. Pippalivana, situated between Rummindei in the Nepali Tarai and Kasia in the Kushinagar district of Uttar Pradesh, holds historical significance. It was one of the Buddhist sites visited by Xuan Zang (A Chinese pilgrim) in 636 AD. The renowned Indian emperor, Chandragupta Maurya, hailed from the Moriya clan, a Kshatriya (warrior) lineage associated with the ancient republic of Pippalivana.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 18

Regarding the ‘Bharhut Stupa’ situated in Madhya Pradesh, consider the following statements:

1. One of the sculptures found here depicts a story from the ‘Ruru Jataka’, where the Boddhisattva deer is rescuing a man on his back.

2. The construction of the Stupa commenced in the 2nd century BCE, during the rule of the Shunga dynasty.

3. The sculptures and reliefs at the Stupa were completely financed by the imperial court.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 18

Narrative reliefs at Bharhut show how the artisans used the pictorial language very effectively to communicate stories. In one such narrative, showing Queen Mayadevi’s (mother of Siddhartha Gautam) dream, a descending elephant is shown. The queen is shown reclining on the bed whereas an elephant is shown on the top heading towards the womb of Queen Mayadevi.

On the other hand, the depiction of a Jataka story is very simple—narrated by clubbing the events according to the geographical location of the story, like the depiction of the Ruru Jataka, where the Boddhisattva deer is rescuing a man on his back. https://upscpdf.com/ Stupa, narratives gain further intricacy, while the depiction of the dream episode remains simple, featuring the reclining image of the queen and the elephant at the top.

Historical events, such as the siege of Kushinara, Buddha's visit to Kapilavastu, and Ashoka's visit to the Ramgrama Stupa are portrayed with meticulous details. The Bharhut Stupa is believed to have been initially constructed by the Maurya king Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE.

However, numerous artistic elements, including the gateway and the railings, were likely added during the Shunga period, featuring reliefs dating back to the 2nd century BCE or later. In contrast to the imperial art of the Mauryas, the railings of the Bharhut Stupa display inscriptions indicating that the reliefs and the figures were donated by the lay-people, monks and nuns. This aspect makes it one of the earliest examples of popular art during the Maurya period.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 19

With reference to the architectural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Sanchi Stupa in Madhya Pradesh deviates from the common feature of depicting Buddhism through the Jataka stories in the Stupa architecture.

2. The decorated gateways of the Sanchi Stupa are attributed to the rulers of the Satavahana period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 19

The Sanchi Stupa, with its upper and lower circumambulatory paths, has four exquisitely adorned Toranas that depict various events from the life of the Buddha and the Jatakas. The figure compositions are in high relief, utilizing the entire space, while achieving a naturalistic posture devoid of stiffness. The narratives become more elaborate, showcasing advanced carving techniques, as compared to Bharhut. Symbols representing the Buddha continue to be used. At the Sanchi Stupa, narratives gain further intricacy, while the depiction of the dream episode remains simple, featuring the reclining image of the queen and the elephant at the top.

Historical events, such as the siege of Kushinara, Buddha's visit to Kapilavastu, and Ashoka's visit to the Ramgrama Stupa are portrayed with meticulous details. The Satavahana Empire, under Satakarni II, gained control over eastern Malwa from the Shungas, providing them access to the Buddhist site of Sanchi. They are accredited with the construction of decorated gateways around the original Mauryan and Sunga Stupas. The highly embellished gateways, along with the balustrade, were adorned with colours. The later gateways, or Toranas, are generally attributed to the 1st century CE. The Siri Satakani inscription, written in the Brahmi script, records the gift of one of the top architraves of the Southern Gateway by the artisans of the Satavahana king Satakarni II.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 20

Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Gandhara School of Art’:

1. The Gandhara School of Art was closely associated with the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

2. The Gandhara School drew inspiration from the Greco-Roman sculptural art, showing a distinct absence of indigenous Indian influence.

3. The Stupa sculptures discovered at Sanghol (Punjab) belong to the Gandhara School of Art.

How many statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 20

The Gandhara School of Art, which flourished during the reign of the Kushana emperor Kanishka, was one of ancient India's significant artistic schools. It emerged through the amalgamation of the Greco-Roman and the Indian ideas, incorporating influences from foreign traditions, such as China and Iran.

The central theme of the Gandhara School of Art revolved around Lord Buddha and the Bodhisattvas, reflecting its close association with Mahayana Buddhism. This suggests that while the concept behind this style was Indian, its execution showcased foreign influences. The Bamiyan Buddha statues serve as notable examples of the Gandhara style of art. The flourishing of this art form primarily occurred in Afghanistan and present-day north-western India, with prominent sites, including Taxila, Peshawar, Begram and Bamiyan.

The Gandhara School of Art thrived from the 1st century BCE to the 4th century CE. Sanghol (Punjab) has its roots dating back to the Harappan Civilization. Excavations conducted at the site have yielded coins and seals associated with Toramana and Mihirakula from Central Asia. A Buddhist Stupa was excavated and the archaeologists unearthed a treasure trove of exquisitely carved stone slabs, including pillars.

The scholars have identified these artistic creations as Kushan sculptures, belonging to the Mathura School of the 1st and the 2nd centuries AD.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

1. Francois Bernier, a Frenchman, was closely associated with the Mughal court, as a physician to Prince Dara Shukoh.

2.  The Italian doctor, Manucci, never returned to Europe and settled down in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 21

Francois Bernier, a Frenchman, was a doctor, political philosopher and historian. Like many others, he came to the Mughal Empire in search of opportunities. He was in India for twelve years, from 1656 to 1668, and was closely associated with the Mughal court, as a physician to Prince Dara Shukoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan, and later as an intellectual and scientist, with Danishmand Khan, an Armenian noble at the Mughal court.

Bernier often travelled with the army. Bernier travelled to several parts of the country and wrote accounts of what he saw, frequently comparing what he saw in India with the situation in Europe. He dedicated his major writing to Louis XIV, the king of France, and many of his other works were written in the form of letters to the influential officials and ministers. In virtually every instance Bernier described what he saw in India as a bleak situation in comparison to the developments in Europe. Other foreign writers: Jesuit Roberto Nobili, translated the Indian texts into European languages. The Portuguese writer, Duarte Barbosa, who wrote a detailed account of trade and society in south India.

 

The French jeweller, Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, travelled to India at least six times. He was particularly fascinated with the trading conditions in India, and compared India to Iran and the Ottoman Empire. The Italian doctor, Manucci, never returned to Europe and settled down in India.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

1. An increase in the GDP always leads to the welfare of people.

2. Negative externalities are not taken into account while calculating GDP

3. Non-monetary exchanges are not registered as part of economic activities in GDP calculation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 22
  • If the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare may not rise as a consequence. This is because the rise in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firms. For the rest, the income may in fact have fallen. In such a case the welfare of the entire country cannot be said to have increased. the GDP is not taking into account such negative externalities. Therefore, if we take GDP as a measure of the welfare of the economy we shall be overestimating the actual welfare. This was an example of a negative externality. There can be cases of positive externalities as well. In such cases, GDP will underestimate the actual welfare of the economy. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Because of development, there will be pollution of rivers and air. This may cause harm to the people who use the water of the river. Hence their well-being will fall. Pollution may also kill fish or other organisms of the river on which fish survive. As a result, the fishermen of the river may be losing their livelihood. Such harmful effects that the project is inflicting on others, for which it will not bear any cost, are called externalities. In this case, the GDP is not taking into account such negative externalities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms. For example, the domestic services women perform at home are not paid for. The exchanges which take place in the informal sector without the help of money are called barter exchanges. In barter exchanges, goods (or services) are directly exchanged against each other. But since money is not being used here, these exchanges are not registered as part of economic activity. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 23

Which of the following is not a flow variable?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 23
  • A variable is a measurable quantity that varies (changes). There are two types of variables i.e. stocks and flows. The basis of distinction is measurability at a point of time or period of time.
  • A flow is a quantity that is measured with reference to a period of time. Thus, flows are defined with reference to a specific period (length of time), i.e. weeks, months, or years. For example, National income is a flow, as it describes and measures the flow of goods and services which become available to a country during a year.
  • Other examples of flow variables are expenditure, savings, depreciation, exports, imports, change in inventories (not mere inventories), change in money supply, output, rent, profit, etc. because the magnitude (size) of all these are measured over a period of time. A stock is a quantity that is measurable at a particular point in time.
  • For example, capital is a stock variable as capital goods continue to serve us through different cycles of production. The buildings or machines in a factory are there irrespective of the specific time period. There can be an addition to or deduction from, these if a new machine is added or a machine falls in disuse and is not replaced. A flow shows change during a period of time whereas a stock indicates the quantity of a variable at a point in time.
  • Thus, wealth is a stock since it can be measured at a point in time, but income is a flow because it can be measured over a period of time. Other examples of stock are foreign debts, loans, inventories (not change in inventories), population, etc. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 24

Consider the following statements:

1. The real effective exchange rate (REER) is the relative price of the goods of two countries.

2. The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is the relative price of the currencies of two countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 24
  • Types of Exchange Rates
    • Nominal Exchange Rate is the relative price of the currencies of two countries. For example, if the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Indian Rupee is Rs. 60 per dollar, then you can exchange one dollar for 60 Rupees in world markets for foreign currency. When people refer to “the exchange rate’’ between two countries, they usually mean the nominal exchange rate.
      • Nominal exchange rates are established on currency financial markets called "forex markets", which are similar to stock exchange markets.
    • Real Exchange Rate is the relative price of the goods of two countries. That is, the real exchange rate tells us the rate at which we can trade the goods of one country for the goods of another. The real exchange rate is sometimes called the terms of trade.
    • Thus, the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is the weighted average value of the nominal exchange rate of the rupee against the currencies of major trading partners of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • On the other hand, the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is the weighted average of the Real Exchange Rates of the Rupee against the currencies of major trading partners of India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The weights are determined by the importance that a home country places on all other currencies traded within the pool, as measured by the balance of trade.
    • Unlike NER and RER, NEER and REER are not determined for each foreign currency separately.
    • There is a concept of Effective Exchange Rate which describes the relative strength of a currency relative to a basket of other currencies.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 25

With reference to 5th cycle of India’s Tiger Census in India, consider the following statements:

1. The only landscape in India where the tiger population has gone down is the Eastern Ghats.

2. The National Tiger Conservation Authority, is the nodal authority to conduct the estimation of tiger census.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 25
  • The Prime Minister released the figures of the 5th cycle of India’s Tiger Census revealing that tiger numbers have once again increased in the country and now stand at 3,167 in the wild as of 2022. The 2018 Tiger Census, released in July 2019, established the presence of 2,967 tigers in India. The animal population in the country has increased by 200 or 6.7 percent in the past four years.  While the tiger numbers in the country stood at 1,411 in 2006, it increased to 1,706 in 2010 and 2,226 in the 2014 cycle of evaluations.
  • PM released the Tiger Census while inaugurating the International Big Cat Alliance in Karnataka’s Mysuru, the first of its kind in the country, organised to mark 50 years of Project Tiger. The three day conference will focus on the protection and conservation of seven major big cats of the world – tigers, lions, leopards, snow leopards, pumas, jaguars and cheetahs.
  • Being the 50th year of Project Tiger, it is notable that governments, since 1973, have consistently devoted attention to ensuring that tigers — generally vulnerable to environmental degradation and extinct in several countries — continue to populate India’s forests. However, this does not mean that tiger numbers are ordained to grow in perpetuity. The ‘Status of Tiger’ report warns that all of India’s five main tiger zones, while largely stable, face challenges of deforestation and loss of tiger habitat.
  • The only landscape in India where the tiger population has gone down is the Western Ghats, where declaring of an ecologically sensitive zone has been hanging since 2010, according to the latest tiger estimation report. The estimation was done in five landscapes. Population increase is substantial in Shivalik & Gangetic flood plain which is followed by Central India, North Eastern Hills and Brahmaputra flood plains and Sundarbans while Western Ghats population showed decline with major populations being stable. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The overlap between “wildlife and humans” because of developmental activities has led to a fall in the tiger population in the areas under the World Heritage Western Ghats landscape, which is the “most biodiverse” in the country, according to the report.
  • The Western Ghats tiger landscape is 1,600 km long and covers an area of about 1,40,000 square km. It spans six states --- Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana -- and contains 12 Tiger Reserves, 20 National Parks, and 68 Wildlife Sanctuaries and is home to several endemic species such as lion-tailed macaque, the Malabar giant squirrel, and the Nilgiri tahr.
  • From nine tiger reserves in 1973 to 53 today, the increase in numbers has not translated to all of these reserves becoming suitable habitats for tigers. Serious conservation efforts are needed to help, for instance, tiger population recovery in Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh. Experts have said India’s reserves, in their present state, ought to be able to sustain populations of up to 4,000, and with expanded efforts at improving fledgling reserves, these numbers can increase.
  • The National Tiger Conservation Authority, which conducts the estimation, has not released state or tiger reserve-wise tiger estimation but has provided some state-specific insight in the overall report. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the Wholesale price index (WPI):

1. It is published by the Economic Advisor in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

2. Fuel and power are given highest weightage in it.

3. It tracks inflation at the producer level only.

4. It does not capture changes in the prices of services.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 26
  • The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) reflects changes in the average prices of goods at the wholesale level — that is, commodities sold in bulk and traded between businesses or entities rather than goods bought by consumers.
    • WPI captures the price changes at the point of bulk transactions and may include some taxes levied and distribution costs up to the stage of wholesale transactions. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • There are certain limitations in using WPI as a measure for inflation, as WPI does not consider the price of services, and it does not reflect the consumer price situation in the country. The wholesale market is only for goods, you cannot buy services on a wholesale basis. So WPI does not include services. Hence statement 4 is correct.
  • WPI is released by the Economic Advisor in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The purpose of WPI is to inspect movement in prices of goods that reflect supply and demand in industry, construction and manufacturing. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The index basket of WPI categorises commodities under three groups — primary articles, fuel and power & manufactured products. The biggest basket is Manufactured Goods. It spans across a variety of manufactured products such as Textiles, Apparels, Paper, Chemicals, Plastic, Cement, Metals, and more. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • In April 2017, the government revised the base year for WPI from 2004-05 to 2011-12. WPI is extensively used for short-term policy intervention as it is the only index that is available on a weekly basis.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 27

Which of the following are included in the quota formula for Special Drawing Rights in International Monetary Fund (IMF) finances?

1. Population Size

2. Weighted average of GDP

3. Openness

4. Economic Variability

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 27
  • International Monetary Fund (IMF) Finances: The money for lending comes from the member countries primarily through their payment of quotas. Each member country of the IMF is assigned a quota, based broadly on its relative position in the world economy.
  • Quotas are denominated in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s unit of account.
  • The current quota formula is a weighted average of GDP (50%), Openness (30%), Economic Variability (15%) and International Reserves (5%). Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
  • The capital subscriptions or quota is now made up of 25 p.c. of its quota in SDRs or widely accepted currencies (such as the US dollar, euro, the yen or the pound sterling) instead of gold and 75 p.c. in the country’s own currency.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 28

It refers to the time lag between jobs when an individual is searching for a new job or is switching between jobs. Which types of unemployment have been referred to above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 28
  • Frictional Unemployment:
    • Frictional Unemployment, also called Search Unemployment, refers to the time lag between jobs when an individual is searching for a new job or is switching between jobs. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
    • In other words, an employee requires time for searching for a new job or shifting from the existing one to a new job, this inevitable time delay causes frictional unemployment.
    • It is often considered voluntary unemployment because it is not caused due to the shortage of jobs, but in fact, the workers themselves quit their jobs in search of better opportunities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 29

Recently, which of the following organisations has launched 'The Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats' (PRET) Initiative?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 29
  • The World Health Organization (WHO) has launched the 'Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats' (PRET) to better prepare for future outbreaks of a similar scale and devastation as the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • It aims to provide “guidance on integrated planning for responding to any respiratory pathogen such as influenza or coronaviruses”.
  • The initiative was announced at the Global Meeting for Future Respiratory Pathogen Pandemics held on 24-26 April 2023 in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 30

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the contribution of Jagdish Chandra Bose?

1. He was one of the pioneers in wireless communication in India.

2. He invented the crescograph for measuring the growth of plants.

3. He was the first to demonstrate radio communication with millimeter wavelengths.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 30
  • Jagdish Chandra Bose:
  • Recent context: In April month, a group of researchers from Tel Aviv University in Israel reported that they had been able to pick up distress noises made by plants. The researchers said these plants had been making very distinct, high-pitched sounds in the ultrasonic range when faced with some kind of stress, like when they were in need of water. This was the first time that plants had been caught making any kind of noise.
    • Jagadish Chandra Bose (1858 – 1937) was an Indian physicist and plant physiologist.
    • He earned a B.Sc. from University College London, which was connected with the University of London in 1883, and a BA (Natural Sciences Tripos) from the University of Cambridge in 1884.
    • Contributions
      • In 1917, he established Bose Institute – Asia’s first modern research center devoted to interdisciplinary studies.
      • He discovered wireless communication and was named Father of Radio Science by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineering. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
      • He invented the crescograph, a device for measuring the growth of plants. He for the first time demonstrated that plants have feelings. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
      • He was the first to demonstrate radio communication with millimeter wavelengths, which fall in the 30GHz to 300GHz spectrum. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
      • Bose is considered the father of Bengali science fiction. A crater on the moon has been named in his honor.
      • In 1896, he published Niruddesher Kahini, the first work of science fiction in the Bengali language
      • Bose was the first Asian to be awarded a US patent. In 1904, he was awarded a patent for his invention of a detector for electrical disturbances.
      • Books: Response in the Living and Non-Living, The Nervous: Mechanism of Plants, etc
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 31

Which of the following indices are published by the World Bank?

1. World Economic Outlook

2. Global Economic Prospect (GEP) Report

3. World Development Report

4. Global Financial Stability Report

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 31
  • Ease of doing business is an index published by the World Bank. It is an aggregate figure that includes different parameters which define the ease of doing business in a country.
  • World Economic Outlook - A Survey by the IMF staff usually published twice a year. It presents IMF staff economists' analyses of global economic developments during the near and medium term. It gives an overview as well as a more detailed analysis of the world economy; considers issues affecting industrial countries, developing countries, and economies in transition to market; and addresses topics of pressing current interest. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
  • Global Economic Prospects (GEP) is a flagship report of the World Bank Group, which examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on emerging markets and developing economies, on a semi-annual basis (in January and June).Each edition includes analytical pieces on topical policy challenges faced by these economies. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • The World Development Report (WDR) is an annual report published since 1978 by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) or World Bank. Each WDR provides an in-depth analysis of a specific aspect of economic development. Past reports have considered such topics as agriculture, youth, equity, public services delivery, the role of the state, transition economies, labour, infrastructure, health, the environment, risk management, and poverty. The reports are the Bank's best-known contribution to thinking about development. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • The Global Financial Stability Report by IMF provides an assessment of the global financial system and markets and addresses emerging market financing in a global context. It focuses on current market conditions, highlighting systemic issues that could pose a risk to financial stability and sustained market access by emerging market borrowers. Hence, option 4 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 32

“Ricardian Equivalence” is associated with which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 32
  • Ricardian equivalence:
    • This theory was developed by David Ricardo in the early 19th century and later was elaborated upon by Harvard professor Robert Barro.  For this reason, Ricardian equivalence is also known as the Barro-Ricardo equivalence proposition.
    • It is an economic theory that says that financing government spending out of current taxes or future taxes (and current deficits) will have equivalent effects on the overall economy.  Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
    • This means that attempts to stimulate an economy by increasing debt-financed government spending will not be effective because investors and consumers understand that the debt will eventually have to be paid for in the form of future taxes.
    • The theory argues that people will save based on their expectation of increased future taxes to be levied in order to pay off the debt and that this will offset the increase in aggregate demand from the increased government spending.   This also implies that Keynesian fiscal policy will generally be ineffective at boosting economic output and growth.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 33

The idea of Five Year Plans was taken from which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 33
  • India has adopted the five-year plan model which was practiced in the earlier communist Soviet Union. The Five-Year Plan exercise is a detailed work plan. To begin with an Approach Paper is prepared to identify the growth target and the sectors to be prioritised in the five year plan. After the Approach Paper is discussed and finalised in the highest policy making body viz; the National Development Council, the subject divisions in Planning Commission representing the different Central Ministries set up Working Groups wherein subject experts, state government officials and central government officials are Members and they discuss and chart out the course of action to be implemented in the next five years. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Our plan documents upto the year 2017 not only specify the objectives to be attained in the five years of a plan but also what is to be achieved over a period of twenty years. This long-term plan is called ‘perspective plan’. The five year plans were supposed to provide the basis for the perspective plan. The goals of the five year plans were: growth, modernisation, self-reliance and equity. This does not mean that all the plans have given equal importance to all these goals. Due to limited resources, a choice has to be made in each plan about which of the goals is to be given primary importance.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 34

Consider the following statements with respect to masala bonds:

1. They are bonds issued in the Indian capital market.

2. In masala bonds, the currency risk lies with the investor and not the issuer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 34
  • Masala Bonds: They are Indian rupee-denominated bonds issued in offshore capital markets. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    • They are issued to offshore investors settled in dollars and, therefore, the currency risk lies with the investor and not the issuer, unlike external commercial borrowings – where Indian companies raise money in foreign currency loans. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Benefits of Masala Bonds:
    • Companies do not have to worry about rupee depreciation.
    • Masala bonds help protect corporate balance sheets from exchange rate risks, however, their issuance should be used in moderation.
    • Masala bonds can have implications for the rupee, interest rates, and the economy as a whole.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 35

In the context of external sector, 'Special Drawing Rights' (SDR) is an international reserve asset to supplement its member countries’ official reserves. It is created by which of the following institutions?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 35
  • The Special Drawing Rights (SDR) is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves. The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged for these currencies. The SDR serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations. The currency value of the SDR is determined by summing the values in US dollars, based on market exchange rates, of a SDR basket of currencies.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 36

Which of the following are direct taxes?

1. Wealth tax

2. Gift tax

3. Excise duty

4. Corporation tax

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 36
  • Direct Taxes:
    • Direct taxes are levied on an individual’s property or company's property and revenue. Direct taxes are levied on businesses and individuals and are paid directly to the government.
    • Direct taxes have an impact on people's income levels as well as their purchasing power. It also aids in the adjustment of the economy's aggregate demand. Direct taxation can be proportional, progressive, or regressive.
    • Tax revenues, an important component of revenue receipts, comprise direct taxes – which fall directly on individuals (personal income tax) and firms (corporation tax), and indirect taxes like excise taxes (duties levied on goods produced within the country), customs duties (taxes imposed on goods imported into and exported out of India) and service tax.
    • Other direct taxes are wealth tax, gift tax, and estate duty (now abolished). Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 37

Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the " PSLV Orbital Experimental Module " often seen in the news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 37
  • Recent context: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle C55 (PSLV C55) mission was launched on 22 April 2023. This was a dedicated commercial mission through NSIL with TeLEOS-2 as the primary satellite and Lumelite-4 as a co-passenger satellite weighing 741 kg and 16 kg respectively. 22 The PSLV-C55 mission has the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM), where the spent PS4 of the launch vehicle would be utilised as an orbital platform to carry out scientific experiments through non separating payloads.
  • This is the third time that PS4 will be used after satellite separation as a platform for experiments. According to the space agency, POEM has seven experimental non-separable payload.
  • PSLV Orbital Experimental Module, Poem is the spent fourth stage of the launch vehicle that would be used as an orbital platform to carry out scientific experiments through non-separating payloads. PSLV is a four-stage rocket, and while the first three stages are jettisoned into the ocean after they push the mission to desired orbit, the four-stage remains in orbit and becomes space junk.
  • Isro is now repurposing this fourth stage to use an experimental platform. The mission will carry seven non-separable payloads from Isro, Bellatrix, Dhruva Space, and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics neatly packed on this fourth stage. The fourth stage or the orbital experimental platform, Poem, is powered by solar panels and is fitted with its own Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system, which helps in attitude stabilization. This is not the first time that Isro is repurposing the fourth stage to use for in-house experiments, it has done that a couple of times in the past as well. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
    • A reusable launch vehicle has parts that can be recovered and reflown, while carrying payloads from the surface to outer space.
    • A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System is a warhead delivery system that uses a low earth orbit towards its target destination. Just before reaching the target, it deorbits through a retrograde engine burn.
    • 'Project NETRA' is an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 38

Consider the following statements with respect to National Adaptation Fund For Climate Change (NAFCC):

1. It was launched in 1992 as a result of the earth summit negotiations.

2. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 38
  • National Adaptation Fund on Climate Change (NAFCC) was launched in 2015 with an initial outlay of Rs. 350 crores to meet the cost of adaptation to climate change for the State and Union Territories of India that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The overall aim of the fund is to support concrete adaptation activities which are not covered under ongoing activities through the schemes of the State and National Governments that reduce the adverse effects of climate change facing communities, sectors, and states. The Scheme has been taken as Central Sector Scheme with National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) as the National Implementing Entity (NIE). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Objectives of NAFCC include:
    • Funding concrete adaptation projects/programs aligned with the relevant Missions under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) and the State Action on Climate Change (SAPCCs) in agriculture, horticulture, agro-forestry, environment, allied activities, water, forestry, urban, coastal and low-lying system, disaster management, human health, marine system, tourism, habitat sector and other rural livelihood sectors to address climate change related issues.
    • Preparing and updating climate scenarios, assessing vulnerability, and climate impact assessment
    • Capacity building of various stakeholders on climate change adaptation and project cycle management and developing a knowledge networkMainstreaming the approaches/ learnings from project/program implementation through knowledge Management
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 39

Gomphonema rajaguruii, which is recently seen in news is a type of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 39
  • Recent Context: Researchers at the Pune-based Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) have discovered a new species of single-cell algae, known as diatoms, from the northern Western Ghats — and named it after a veteran geo-archaeologist from the city, the late Professor S N Rajaguru.
  • About Diatoms:
    • Diatoms can be found in freshwater and brackish water, and are commonly traced in lakes, rivers, streams, rivulets and the sea. 
    • Similar to plants and trees that produce oxygen during the process called photosynthesis, diatoms, too, supply oxygen to the atmosphere.
  • About Professor S N Rajaguru.
    • Rajaguru was a former faculty member of Deccan College and known for his attempts to link biological and archaeological remains during excavations.
    • It was through Rajaguru’s extensive studies that researchers today have a clear time-frame of India’s paleo-environment.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 40

Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSC):

1. PSCs are readily formed in the extreme cold winters of the Antarctic atmosphere.

2. Ozone is destroyed in Antarctica at the maximum rate during the winters due to the abundance of PSCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 40
  • Although ozone depletion is occurring widely in the stratosphere, the depletion is particularly marked over the Antarctic region. This has resulted in the formation of a large area of the thinned ozone layer, commonly called the ozone hole. It is only under certain meteorological conditions that ozone holes form. The conditions required to form the ozone hole are:
    • Cold temperatures during the polar winter
    • Ice cloud formation
    • Special meteorological conditions to form the polar vortex
    • Followed by the polar sunrise in the spring
  • The ozone hole occurs during the Antarctic spring, from September to early December, as strong westerly winds start to circulate around the continent and create an atmospheric container. Within this polar vortex, over 50% of the lower stratospheric ozone is destroyed during the Antarctic spring.
  • Reactions that take place on polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs) dramatically enhance ozone depletion. PSCs form more readily in the extreme cold of the Arctic and Antarctic stratosphere. Sunlight-less polar winters contribute to a decrease in temperature and the polar vortex traps and chills air. These low temperatures form cloud particles. These clouds provide surfaces for chemical reactions whose products will, in the spring lead to ozone Destruction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The role of sunlight in ozone depletion is the reason why the Antarctic ozone depletion is greatest during spring. During winter, even though PSCs are at their most abundant, there is no light over the pole to drive chemical reactions. During the spring, however, the sun comes out, providing energy to drive photochemical reactions and melt the polar stratospheric clouds, releasing considerable ClO, which drives the whole mechanism. Warming temperatures near the end of spring break up the vortex around mid- December. As warm, ozone and NO2-rich air flows in from lower latitudes, the PSCs are destroyed, the enhanced ozone depletion process shuts down, and the ozone hole closes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 41

With reference to food chains, consider the following statements:

1. All food chains begin with autotrophs.

2. In an aquatic ecosystem, Detritus Food Chain (DFC) is the major conduit for energy flow as Grazing Food Chain (GFC) is totally absent.

3. Saprotrophs form an important part of Detritus Food Chains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 41
  • The grazing food chain begins with autotrophs. In this, energy and nutrients move from plants to the herbivores consuming them, and to the carnivores or omnivores preying upon the herbivores. The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain (GFC) is the major conduit for energy flow. As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. The Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels: some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • In a natural ecosystem, some animals like cockroaches, crows, etc., are omnivores. An omnivore is an animal that has the ability to eat and survive on both plant and animal matter. Thus, Omnivores can occupy two trophic levels in the food chain first as primary consumer feeding on grass/plants and as carnivores feeding on insects.
  • The detritus food chain (DFC) is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi, and bacteria. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs (sapro: to decompose). Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that break down dead and waste materials into simple, inorganic materials, which are subsequently absorbed by them. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 42

Consider the following compounds:

1. Chlorofluorocarbons

2. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons

3. Methyl Bromide

4. Hydrofluorocarbons

How many compounds given above are ozone-depleting?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 42

The main source of halogen atoms in the stratosphere that break ozone molecules is the photo- dissociation of man-made halocarbon refrigerants, solvents, propellants, and foam-blowing agents (CFCs, HCFCs, freons, halons) – popularly called as ODS (Ozone Depleting Substance). Apart from these, Carbon tetrachloride, Methyl Bromide, and Methyl Chloroform are also potent ozone- depleting substances.

These compounds are transported into the stratosphere by winds after being emitted at the surface. UV rays act on them releasing Chlorine atoms. Cl degrades ozone releasing molecular oxygen, with these atoms acting merely as catalysts. Thus Cl atoms are not consumed in the reaction. Hence, whatever CFCs are added to the stratosphere, they have permanent and continuing effects on Ozone levels.

Hydrofluorocarbons, though included in the Montreal Protocol for curbing Ozone-depleting substances, are not Ozone-depleting substances. It is a potent greenhouse gas. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 43

Which of the following are the methods of carbon sequestration?

1. Iron fertilization of oceans

2. Subterranean injection of carbon dioxide

3. Growing seaweeds

4. Wetland restoration

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 43
  • Carbon sequestration – the practice of removing carbon from the atmosphere and storing it – is one of the many approaches being taken to tackle climate change.
  • It can be done in the following ways: o Afforestation: Plants remove carbon dioxide from the air naturally, and trees are especially good at storing CO2 removed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis. Expanding, restoring and managing tree cover to encourage more carbon uptake can leverage the power of photosynthesis, converting carbon dioxide in the air into carbon stored in wood and soils.
    • Wetland Restoration: Wetlands are vital natural assets, capable of taking up atmospheric carbon and restricting subsequent carbon loss to facilitate long-term storage. They can be deliberately managed to provide a natural solution to mitigate climate change, as well as to help offset direct losses of wetlands from various land-use changes and natural drivers.
    • Sustainable Agriculture: Soils naturally sequester carbon, but agricultural soils are running a big deficit due to frequent plowing and erosion from farming and grazing, all of which release stored carbon.
    • Growing Seaweed: Kelp is a type of seaweed that grows in the ocean. globally, seaweeds (including kelp) are thought to sequester nearly 200 million tonnes of carbon dioxide every year o Biochar: Biochar produced by pyrolysis of biowaste. It can be used as a landfill and increase soil fertility.
    • Subterranean injection: It involves injecting CO2 into depleted oil and gas reservoirs and other geological features, or into the deep ocean.
    • Iron Fertilization: Iron fertilization of Oceans encourages the growth of plankton and thus helps in capturing CO2.
    • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 44

Consider the following statements in relation to Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK):

1. It is a central sector scheme.

2. Its objective is to enhance the basic infrastructure facilities and socio- economic amenities for the minority communities.

3. Projects under it are implemented and managed by the concerned State/ Union Territory government.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 44
  • Recently, the Ministry of Minority Affairs (MoMA) has approved a grant under Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK) to support the upgradation of Unani Medicine facilities at Hyderabad, Chennai, Lucknow, Silchar, and Bengaluru.
  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • It is being implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, with the objective to develop infrastructure projects in identified areas, for the socio-economic development of said areas for the minority communities. The priority sectors under PMJVK are education, health, skill development, women- centric projects etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Projects under PMJVK are implemented and managed by the concerned State/ UT Government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The proposals under PMJVK are sent by the States/Union Territories (UTs) as per demand for infrastructure in the identified areas, which are considered and approved by the Empowered Committee (EC) of PMJVK, after due consultation with the concerned Central Ministries.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 45

Consider the following statements about the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):

1. It is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change.

2. It was formed under the Air (Prevention and Control Pollution) Act 1981.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 45
  • The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is responsible for monitoring India’s Air and Water Quality and pollution-related issues. It is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Board was established in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control Pollution) Act 1974 (Not Air Act). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Later on, it was entrusted with the functions and powers of the Air (Prevention and Control Pollution) Act 1981. Hence it also aims to enhance air quality and prevent or control air pollution apart from the prevention and control of water pollution in India.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Debt for Climate Swaps is an agreement where a creditor forgoes a portion of the debtor's foreign debt or provides debt relief in exchange for the debtor's commitment to invest in a specific environmental project.

Statement-II: Many developing nations are facing issues of rising debt loads, climate change, and nature loss due to such agreements.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 46
  • Recent Context: In recent years, debt-for-climate swaps have gained popularity among low- and middle- income countries as a debt-relief tool. Multilateral development banks and organizations like the UNDP have been promoting this approach to ease the burden of debt for these nations. 
  • Debt-for-climate swaps are a financial approach that helps alleviate this problem by freeing up funds for climate investments. They are a form of debt relief that transforms debt into a grant committed to undertaking climate-related investments. Hence statement-I is correct.
    • Both commercial and official bilateral debts can be included in such swaps, with the latter allowing for redirected debt service payments towards projects mutually agreed upon by both parties, such as those related to climate action.
  • Debt-for-climate swaps originated from debt-for-nature swaps, which were introduced in the 1980s to promote biodiversity conservation and tropical forest protection in exchange for debt relief.
    • Bolivia and Conservation International executed the first debt-for-nature swap in 1987. Debt-for- climate swaps became a more extensive concept in the 2000s, encompassing not only nature conservation but also climate change mitigation and adaptation.
    • In 2006, Germany and Indonesia implemented the first debt-for-climate swap, with the latter pledging to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) initiatives in return for debt relief.
  • Debt-for-climate swaps provide benefits for both creditors and debtors. Creditors can advance their development cooperation and climate finance goals, improve their chances of debt recovery, and strengthen their diplomatic ties with debtor nations
  • Steps in Debt-for-climate swaps:
    • Suppose a developing country is indebted to a bilateral creditor that wants to offer debt relief and encourage the developing country to pursue climate-friendly policies or projects.
    • The creditor agrees that the developing country no longer needs to service its debt.
    • In return, the developing country agrees with the lender either (i) to spend the money that would have been spent on debt service on climate-friendly projects or (ii) to adopt climate-friendly policies.
  • Benefits of such agreements.
    • International organisations and multilateral development banks exercise multiple types of measures to help highly vulnerable countries survive financial catastrophes caused by climate change impacts.
    • However, in the past decade, debt-for-climate swaps has grown relatively popular among low- and middle-income countries.
    • They offer an innovative way to make climate investments while creating the much-needed fiscal space.
    • At the same time, they support climate investment by committing a country to swing their spending from debt service to an agreed public investment. Hence statement II is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 47

The Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific (IF-CAP) which is recently seen in news, is an initiative of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 47
  • The Asian Development Bank unveiled a new flagship initiative called Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific (IF-CAP). Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
    • The IF-CAP is a multi-donor facility that provides guarantees for parts of the Bank’s sovereign portfolios to enable it to free up capital and increase loans for climate investment.
  • Features of Innovative Finance Facility:
    • IF-CAP's initial partners are Denmark, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
    • The reduced risk exposure created by the guarantees will allow ADB to free up capital to accelerate new loans for climate projects.
    • With a model of ‘$1 in, $5 out’, the initial ambition of $3 billion in guarantees could create up to $15 billion in new loans for much-needed climate projects across Asia and the Pacific. 
    • A leveraged guarantee mechanism for climate finance has never before been adopted by a multilateral development bank.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 48

With regard to the functioning of the National Green Tribunal, consider the following statements:

1. It has been established under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.

2. The tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 48
  • The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
  • NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to forests, tree preservation, etc.
  • The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Further, NGT is also not bound by the rules of evidence as enshrined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Thus, it will be relatively easier (as opposed to approaching a court) for conservation groups to present facts and issues before the NGT, including pointing out technical flaws in a project or proposing alternatives that could minimize environmental damage but which have not been considered.
  • While passing Orders/decisions/awards, the NGT will apply the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principles.
  • However, it must be noted that if the NGT holds that a claim is false, it can impose costs including lost benefits due to any interim injunction.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 49

Consider the following places:

1. Three Mile Island

2. Chernobyl

3. Fukushima

4. Deepwater Horizon (Gulf of Mexico)

How many of the above given places are associated with nuclear accidents?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 49
  • Initially, nuclear energy was hailed as a non-polluting way for generating electricity. Later on, it was realised that the use of nuclear energy has two very serious inherent problems. The first is accidental leakage, as occurred in the Three Mile Island and Chernobyl incidents and the second is safe disposal of radioactive wastes.
  • Three Mile Island, Pennsylvania, United States o Loss of coolant and partial core meltdown due to operator errors and technical flaws. There was a small release of radioactive gases.
  • Chernobyl, Kiev Oblast, Ukraininan SSR, Soviet Union A flawed reactor design and inadequate safety procedures led to a power surge that damaged the fuel rods of reactor no. 4 of the Chernobyl power plant. This caused an explosion and meltdown, necessitating the evacuation of 300,000 people and dispersing radioactive material across Europe.
  • Fukushima, Japan The Fukushima nuclear disaster was triggered by a tsunami that flooded and damaged the 3 active reactors at the Fukushima Daiichi nuclear power plant, drowning two workers. Loss of backup electrical power led to overheating, meltdowns, and evacuations.
  • Deepwater Horizon oil spill, also called Gulf of Mexico oil spill o It is largest marine oil spill in history, caused by an April 20, 2010, explosion on the Deepwater Horizon oil rig—located in the Gulf of Mexico, approximately 41 miles (66 km) off the coast of Louisiana—and its subsequent sinking.
  • Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 50

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Ocean acidification is detrimental to coral reefs.

Statement-II: An increase in acidification slows the rate at which calcium carbonate is generated.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 50
  1. Increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is one of the recognized causes of our changing climate and it is also problematic for coral reefs. The ocean absorbs approximately one-third of the atmosphere’s excess carbon dioxide, resulting in a more acidic ocean. In order for a coral reef to grow, it must produce limestone (or calcium carbonate) at a rate that is faster than the reef is being eroded. Ocean acidification slows the rate at which coral reefs generate calcium carbonate, thus slowing the growth of coral skeletons.
  2. Climate change can cause sea level rise; changes in the frequency, intensity, and distribution of tropical storms; and altered ocean circulation. All of these impacts can have negative consequences for the health and diversity of reefs around the world. Hence, statement-I and statement II are correct. Also, statement II is the correct explanation for statement-I.
  3. A 20 percent increase above current carbon dioxide levels, which could occur within the next two decades, could significantly reduce the ability of corals to build their skeletons and some could become functionally extinct within this timeframe.
  4. In real terms, this does not just mean corals grow more slowly, but also that they will be less able to overcome typical pressures. Tropical coral reefs are constantly engaging in a battle to grow. Many reef dwellers actually break apart pieces of the corals’ skeletons, either to feed upon or to create homes.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 51

Consider the following statements in the context of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate:

1. Any woman can open a Mahila Samman account that can be opened for herself or on behalf of a minor girl.

2. The minimum investment amount is Rs 5,000 and the maximum investment is Rs 10 lakhs.

3. There is tax exemption available on the interest earned from the scheme.

4. The account holder may withdraw up to 40% of the balance after the first year from the date of account opening.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 51
  • Recently, a new small savings scheme called Mahila Samman Savings Certificate was launched specifically for female investors to promote investment among women. Accounts opened under this scheme will be single-holder accounts that can be opened at the Post Office or any registered bank.
  • Any woman can open a Mahila Samman account that can be opened for herself or on behalf of a minor girl. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • An account can be opened with a one-time deposit of a minimum of Rs. 1,000 and any sum in multiples of Rs. 100 in multiple accounts. However, the aggregate deposit amount across all accounts cannot exceed Rs. 2 lakhs for an individual. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Government has not mentioned any tax benefits for the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • An interest of 7.5% p.a. will be paid on deposits under this scheme. The interest will be compounded quarterly and credited to the account. 
  • An account holder can make a partial withdrawal from the account of up to 40% of the eligible balance after the expiry of one year from the date of account opening. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 52

Which of the following mechanisms have been formulated under the Kyoto Protocol?

1. Clean Development Mechanism

2. Joint Implementation

3. Intended Nationally Determined Contributions

4. International Emission Trading

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 52
  • The Kyoto Protocol is an agreement made under the UNFCCC. Countries that ratify this protocol commit to reduce their emissions of carbon dioxide and five other greenhouse gases (Methane, Nitrous Oxide, Sulphur Hexafluoride, Hydrofluorocarbons and Perfluorocarbons), or engage in emissions trading if they maintain or increase emissions of these gases.
  • Under the protocol, Governments are separated into two general categories: countries among the developed nations, referred to as Annex 1 countries (who have accepted GHG emission reduction obligations and must submit an annual greenhouse gas inventory); and countries among developing or least developed nations, referred to as Non-Annex 1 countries (who have no GHG emission reduction obligations but may participate in the Clean Development Mechanism).
  • The Kyoto Protocol introduced three mechanisms in order to achieve its goals: the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), Joint Implementation (JI), and Emissions Trading (ET).
    • The CDM allows countries with commitments under the Kyoto Protocol to invest in emission- reduction projects in developing countries. These projects can involve, for example, a rural electrification project using solar panels or the installation of more energy-efficient boilers. Hence option 1 is correct.
    • JI mechanism allows a country with a Kyoto Protocol emission reduction target to invest in a project to reduce emissions in any other country with a commitment (as opposed to a developing country). Hence option 2 is correct.
    • The Emissions Trading (The International Emission Trading) scheme under the Kyoto Protocol set up a platform where carbon units, or units generated by projects registered under the JI or the CDM, or from removals through forestry activities, can be exchanged, i.e. sold and purchased, according to a country’s needs. The scheme made carbon a commodity and created a carbon market. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Nationally determined contributions (NDCs) are at the heart of the Paris Agreement and the achievement of its long-term goals. NDCs embody efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change. Article 4 of the Paris Agreement requires each party to prepare, communicate and maintain successive nationally determined contributions (NDCs) that it intends to achieve. Parties shall pursue domestic mitigation measures, with the aim of achieving the objectives of such contributions. Hence, INDCs are not the market mechanisms under the Kyoto Protocol. Hence option 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 53

Consider the following factors:

1. Natality

2. Mortality

3. Immigration

How many of the above factors contribute to an increase in the population density of a species in a region?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 53
  • The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter. It keeps changing in time, depending on various factors including food availability, predation pressure, and adverse weather. The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period fluctuates due to changes in four basic processes, two of which (natality and immigration) contribute to an increase in population density and two (mortality and emigration) to a decrease.
  • Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period. Hence option 2 is not correct
  • Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Emigration is the number of individuals in the population who left the habitat and went elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 54

Consider the following pairs with referenceto Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 54
  • In September 2015, the heads of nations agreed to set the world on a path toward sustainable development through the adoption of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. This agenda includes 17 Sustainable Development Goals, or SDGs, which set out quantitative objectives across the social, economic, and environmental dimensions of sustainable development all to be achieved by 2030.
  • The 17 SDGs are integrated—they recognize that action in one area will affect outcomes in others, and that development must balance social, economic, and environmental sustainability. There are 169 targets under the 17 goals.
  • Image showing 17 SDGs

Thus, only pair 4 is correctly matched. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 55

With reference to the Mohenjo Daro in ancient Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. It was entirely built of unbaked bricks.

2. It was inscribed as World Heritage Sites of Outstanding Universal Value by UNESCO.

3. It was the first site to be discovered in the Indus Valley Civilization.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 55

Statement 1 is correct:

  • Mohenjo Daro (Mound of the dead) was built entirely of unbaked brick in the 3rd millennium B.C. and lies in the Indus Valley, in Larkana district of Sindh (Pakistan), about 5 km away from the River Indus.

Statement 2 is correct:

  • It was inscribed as World Heritage Sites of Outstanding Universal Value by UNESCO in 1980.

Statement 3 is not correct:

  • Although Mohenjodaro is the most well-known site, the first site to be discovered was Harappa.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 56

Consider the following pairs of Intangible Cultural Heritage of India with their regions/states:

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 56

Pairs 2 and 3 are incorrect.

  • The popular dance form Garba is the 15th cultural item from India to make it to the UNESCO list.
    • The 14 other elements from India are:
      • Ramlila;
      • yoga;
      • vedic chanting;
      • Kutiyattam, 
      • Sanskrit theatre of Kerala;
      • Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas;
      • Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala;
      • Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan;
      • Chhau dance of eastern India;
      • Buddhist chanting of Ladakh;
      • Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur;
      • traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making in Punjab;
      • Nowruz;
      • Kumbh Mela and
      • Durga Puja in Kolkata
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 57

With reference to Poona Pact, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. BR Ambedkar in 1930.

2. The pact provided a separate electorate for the depressed class in the regional legislative assemblies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 57

Both the statements are not correct.

Poona Pact

  • In 1932 on behalf of untouchables, Dr BR Ambedkar signed the Poona Pact with Mahatma Gandhi, who was representing Congress. The pact provided the provisions for reserved seats for the depressed class in the regional legislative assemblies and Central Council of States.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 58

The Reserve Bank of India recently retained the stance of the monetary policy as ‘withdrawal of accommodation’.

What does it mean?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 58
  • When the central bank retains the stance of the monetary policy as ‘withdrawal of accommodation’, it will be focused on curbing money supply in the economy.
  • An accommodative stance of the RBI means the central bank is prepared to expand the money supply to boost economic growth while withdrawal of accommodation means reducing the money supply in the system to control inflation in the economy.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 59

Consider the following statements about the defense expenditure in India:

1. The defence budget of India is around 6 percent of its GDP.

2. India’s defence budget has witnessed a steady increase in the past decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 59

Both the Statements are not correct.

  • India spends around 2.5% of GDP on defense (2022) and 60% of which is spent on imports of arms and ammunition.
  • India’s defense budget, as a percentage of CGE (Central Government Expenditure), has witnessed a steady decline in the past decade, from nearly 13 percent in 2012–13 to 9.6 per cent in 2021–22.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 2 - Question 60