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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 for UPSC 2024 is part of Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 preparation. The UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 below.
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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

1. She started the first indigenously-run school for girls in Pune in 1848.

2. She set up Balyata Pratibandak Gruha, a childcare centre for the protection of pregnant widows and rape victims.

3. Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar ("The Ocean of Pure Gems") was one of her famous literary works.

The above statements describes which of the following personalities?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 1
  • Recent Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently paid tribute to Savitribai Phule on her birth anniversaries, saying she inspired society with her compassion and courage.
  • Savitribai Jyotirao Phule (3 January 1831 – 10 March 1897) was an Indian social reformer and poet. Along with her husband, Jyotirao Phule, she played an important role in improving women's rights in India during British rule. The couple founded the first women's school at Bhide Wada in Pune in 1848.
  • She established Balyata Pratibandak Gruha, a home for widowed mothers and children born out of wedlock.
  • She authored  "Kavya Phule" which was published in 1854, when she was only 23. This includes 41 poems on nature, social issues and teaching. The second "Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar" appeared in 1892.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. Chloroplasts are green-colored plastids, which comprise pigments called chlorophyll.

2. Chloroplasts are found in all green plants and algae.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 2
  • Chloroplasts: They are green-colored plastids, which comprise green-colored pigments within the plant cell and are called chlorophyll. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Chloroplast is an organelle that contains the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll that captures sunlight and converts it into useful energy, thereby, releasing oxygen from water.
  • Chloroplasts are found in all green plants and algae. They are the food producers of plants. These are found in the guard cells located in the leaves of the plants. They contain a high concentration of chlorophyll that traps sunlight. This cell organelle is not present in animal cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Chloroplast has its DNA and can reproduce independently, from the rest of the cell. They also produce amino acids and lipids required for the production of chloroplast membranes.
  • Functions of Chloroplast: Following are the important chloroplast functions:
    • The most important function of the chloroplast is to synthesize food by the process of photosynthesis.
    • Absorbs light energy and converts it into chemical energy.
    • Chloroplast has a structure called chlorophyll which functions by trapping solar energy and is used for the synthesis of food in all green plants.
    • Produces NADPH and molecular oxygen (O2) by photolysis of water.
    • Produces ATP – Adenosine triphosphate by the process of photosynthesis.
    • The carbon dioxide (CO2) obtained from the air is used to generate carbon and sugar during the Calvin Cycle or dark reaction of photosynthesis.
    • Where does the photosynthesis process occur in the plant cell?
    • In all green plants, photosynthesis takes place within the thylakoid membrane of the Chloroplast

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 3

Consider the following statements with reference to XPoSat mission:

1. XPoSat is the world’s first satellite based mission dedicated to making X ray polarimetry measurements.

2. POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X rays) which is the main payload will serve as an X-ray Polarimeter.

3. It is placed in geostationary earth orbit which is approximately 36000 km above the Earth equator.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 3
  • X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) is India’s maiden mission dedicated to analysing the polarisation of X-rays emanating from bright celestial sources in the medium frequency band.
  • X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) is India’s first and world's second mission dedicated to analyzing the polarization of X-rays emanating from bright celestial sources in the medium frequency band (8 to 30keV). In 2021, NASA launched Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE). It has been designed to operate and perform X-ray polarisation measurements within the soft X-ray band (2 to 8 keV energy band).Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • XPoSat comprises primarily two payloads, including Indian X-ray Polarimeter (POLIX) and X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing (XSPECT).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 4

With respect to lentils production in India, consider the following statements:

1. In India, Madhya Pradesh is the largest  producer of lentils.

2. India is the largest producer of lentils in the world.

3. India is the net exporter of lentils in the world because production of surplus lentil

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 4
  • Recent Context: As per fourth advanced estimate from Directorate of Economics and Statistics Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Govt. of India, In  2022 Uttar Pradesh is the leading lentil producing state in India (0.47 million tonnes from 0.49 ha. acreage, 36.43 % of national production), followed by Madhya Pradesh (0.44 million tonnes from 0.49 million ha. acreage. 34.55% of national production), West Bengal (10.53%), Bihar (8.84%) and Jharkhand (4.50%). Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
  • India is the second largest producer of Lentils after Canada. India is set to become the world’s largest producer of lentil (masoor) during the 2023-24 crop year on account of higher acreage.Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • India, despite being among the world’s top five lentil growers, second only to Canada, depends on imports to meet its domestic demands. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 5

Consider the following pairs :

How many of the pairs given above are  correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 5
  • Lactic acid is produced through the fermentation of lactose (milk sugar) by bacteria, primarily Lactobacillus, during the process of curd formation. It gives curd its characteristic sour taste.
  • Vinegar contains acetic acid, not methanoic acid. Acetic acid is the primary component of vinegar, which is produced through the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria.
  • Tamarind - Tartaric acid: Tamarind contains tartaric acid. Tartaric acid is a naturally occurring organic acid found in various plants, including tamarind.
  • Others
    • Orange - Citric acid
    • Ant sting - Methanoic acid
    • Lemon - Citric acid
    • Malic Acid: Present in apples and other fruits
    • Hydrochloric Acid: Found in the stomach as gastric acid, aiding in digestion
    • Oxalic Acid: Found in spinach, rhubarb, and beet greens.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 6

Consider the following:

1. Oxytocin

2. Serotonin

3. Endorphin

4. Dopamine

How many of the above are feel good hormones that promote pleasure while reducing depression in human beings?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 6
  • Hormones are body’s chemical messengers. Once released by glands into the bloodstream, they act on various organs and tissues to control everything from the way the body functions to how you feel.
  • One group of hormones are nicknamed the "feel-good hormones" because of the happy and, sometimes, euphoric feelings they produce. They're also considered neurotransmitters, which means they carry messages across the spaces between nerve cells. They are Dopamine, Serotonin, Endorphins, and Oxytocin. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
    • Dopamine: Dopamine is most notably involved in helping us feel pleasure as part of the brain’s reward system. Sex, shopping, smelling cookies baking in the oven — all these things can trigger dopamine release, or a "dopamine rush." Neurons in the region at the base of the brain produce dopamine in a two-step process. First, the amino acid tyrosine is converted into another amino acid, called L-dopa. Then L-dopa undergoes another change, as enzymes turn it into dopamine.
    • Serotonin: This hormone is responsible for boosting mood, as well as a host of other functions. An area in the center of the brainstem produces serotonin, which then acts on many different parts of the brain to affect a variety of functions and behaviors, including memory, fear, the stress response, digestion, addiction and sexuality.
    • Endorphin: Endorphins are the body’s natural painkillers. Endorphins are released by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland in response to pain or stress, this group of peptide hormones both relieves pain and creates a general feeling of well-being.
    • Oxytocin: Oxytocin is a hormone that's produced in the hypothalamus and released into the bloodstream by the pituitary gland. Its main function is to facilitate childbirth, which is one of the reasons it is called the "love drug" or "love hormone." Oxytocin, like endorphinsor serotonin, is a type of hormone in your body that promotes positive feelings.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding radiocarbon dating:

1. Radioactive isotope commonly used in radiocarbon dating is C-14.

2. It can measure age of fossils up to 100 million years old.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 7
  • Radiocarbon dating, also known as carbon-14 dating, is a widely used method for determining the age of organic materials by measuring the radioactive decay of Carbon-14 (14C). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Radiocarbon dating relies on the radioactive isotope Carbon-14 (C-14), a naturally occurring isotope of carbon. Carbon-14 is produced in the atmosphere through the interaction of cosmic rays with nitrogen-14.
    • Living organisms take in carbon, including the radioactive C-14, through processes such as photosynthesis or consumption of other organisms.
    • When an organism dies, it stops taking in carbon, and the C-14 in its tissues undergoes radioactive decay.
    • By measuring the remaining C-14 in a sample, scientists can estimate the time that has elapsed since the death of the organism. Radiocarbon dating has limitations on its effective dating range. The half-life of Carbon-14 is approximately 5,730 years. As a result, radiocarbon dating is most effective for dating materials up to around 50,000 years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Beyond this timeframe, the amount of remaining Carbon-14 becomes too small to provide accurate measurements.
  • For dating fossils or materials that are millions of years old, other dating methods based on different isotopes, such as uranium-series dating or potassium-argon dating, are more appropriate
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with reference to the Fast Breeder Reactor:

Statement-I: Fast Breeder reactors can help extract up to 70 percent more energy than traditional reactors and are safer than traditional reactors.

Statement-II: The spent fuel from this reactor cannot be fed back into the reactor.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 8
  1. The Department of Atomic Energy is getting ready to commission its ultra-modern indigenously designed fast breeder reactor. The world’s only commercially operating fast breeder reactor is situated in the Ural Mountains of Russia at the Beloyarsk Nuclear Power Plant.
  2. A ‘Fast Breeder Reactor’, these are a special kind of nuclear reactor that generate more atomic fuel than they consume as they work. A fast breeder reactor can help extract up to 70 per cent more energy than traditional reactors and are safer than traditional reactors while reducing long lived radioactive waste by several fold. Hence Statement-I is correct.Electricity generated by FBR would be a source of green energy as the waste from the first stage nuclear programme is reprocessed and used as fuel in FBR.
  3. The spent fuel from this reactor can be fed back into the reactor core several times, till the spent fuel contains only short lived fission products. This is the concept of FBR with closed fuel cycle. Hence, there is no need of large quantity of fuel materials for the annual external feed and thus eliminates the need for large capacity waste storage spaces with complex construction features.Hence Statement-II is not correct.
  4. Hence option (c) is the correct answer
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 9

Daily, as the sun dawns on your landscape, the crop management system takes charge. Soil sensors embedded in the fields transmit real-time data to the central hub. The algorithm analyzed moisture, nutrient levels, and weather forecasts. Automated irrigation systems are activated, precisely delivering water. Drones soared, mapping crop health and detecting pests. The system ensured optimal conditions, maximizing yield and minimizing environmental impact.

Which of the following technologies is best described in the passage given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 9
  • The Internet of Things refers to the rapidly growing network of connected objects that are able to collect and exchange data in real time using embedded sensors. Smart agriculture is mostly used to denote the application of IoT solutions in agriculture. By using IoT sensors to collect environmental and machine metrics, farmers can make informed decisions, and improve just about every aspect of their work – from livestock to crop farming.
  • Some of the applications of IoT in agriculture:
    • Monitoring of climate conditions: Probably the most popular smart agriculture gadgets are weather stations, combining various smart farming sensors. Located across the field, they collect various data from the environment and send it to the cloud.
    • Greenhouse automation: The use of IoT sensors enables them to get accurate real-time information on greenhouse conditions such as lighting, temperature, soil condition, and humidity. In addition to sourcing environmental data, weather stations can automatically adjust the conditions to match the given parameters. Specifically, greenhouse automation systems use a similar principle.
    • Cattle monitoring and management: Just like crop monitoring, there are IoT agriculture sensors that can be attached to the animals on a farm monitoring their health and log performance. Livestock tracking and monitoring help collect data on stock health, well-being, and physical location. Crop management: Just like weather stations, they should be placed in the field to collect data specific to crop farming; from temperature and precipitation to leaf water potential and overall crop health. You can monitor your crop growth and any anomalies to effectively prevent any diseases or infestations that can harm your yield.
    • Precision farming: Also known as precision agriculture, precision farming is all about efficiency and making accurate data-driven decisions. It’s also one of the most widespread and effective applications of IoT in agriculture. By using IoT sensors, farmers can collect a vast array of metrics on every facet of the field microclimate and ecosystem: lighting, temperature, soil condition, humidity, CO2 levels, and pest infections. This data enables farmers to estimate optimal amounts of water, fertilizers, and pesticides that their crops need, reduce expenses, and raise better and healthier crops.
    • Agricultural drones: Perhaps one of the most promising agritech advancements is the use of agricultural drones in smart farming. Also known as UAVs (unmanned aerial vehicles), drones are better equipped than airplanes and satellites to collect agricultural data.
    • Predictive analytics for smart farming: Precision agriculture and predictive data analytics go hand in hand. While IoT and smart sensor technology are a goldmine for highly relevant real-time data, the use of data analytics helps farmers make sense of it and come up with important predictions: crop harvesting time, the risks of diseases and infestations, yield volume, etc.
    • End-to-end farm management systems: A more complex approach to IoT products in agriculture can be represented by the so-called farm productivity management systems. They usually include a number of agriculture IoT devices and sensors, installed on the premises as well as a powerful dashboard with analytical capabilities and in-built accounting/reporting features.
    • Thus, The passage describes the applications of IoT in farm management. Hence, option (c) is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Nanotubes (CNTs):

1. CNTs can be coated on cotton yarns of clothes to power wearable devices.

2. CNTs can be useful in carbon capture and storage technologies.

3. The easy uptake of CNTs in different cell types makes them significant in drug and gene delivery.

4. CNTs have no toxic effects making them the most sought in various industries.

How many statements were given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 10
  • Nanomaterials have always attracted researchers due to their size, which are comparable to most of the biological macromolecules such as DNA, enzymes and antibodies. Rapid advancements in nanotechnology and the discovery of carbon nanotubes (CNTs) in 1991 opened up new vistas in material sciences. These carbon allotropic tubes have a unique array of electronic, magnetic and chemical properties. The uniqueness of CNTs is attributed to the presence of strong bonding pattern which exists between the atoms and their extreme aspect ratio.
  • A CNT can be as thin as a few nanometers and as long as hundreds of microns. The structure, length and number of layers vary in different CNTs’ forms. Single-walled carbon nanotubes (SWCNTs) and multi walled carbon nanotubes (MWCNTs) are the two major classifications of CNTs depending upon their side walls configuration. Due to its unique properties, it has many applications in wearable technology, drug delivery, climate action, etc.
  • Devices embedded in the clothes we wear are en route to become the order of the day for applications like health-care monitoring, point-of-care diagnostics, military defense and homeland security. The major hurdle for these devices is suitable systems for instantaneously charging them. Indian scientists have developed carbon nanotube-coated cotton yarns (CNT-wires) that convert the electrical insulating yarn into a metallic conductor thereby behaving like a flexible and pliable electrode. They combined the electrode (CNT-wire) with the electrolyte sheet by a simple and elegant approach of interweaving the CNT wire across the electrolyte to create junctions. These junctions are super capacitive in nature and can store electrical energy. Since the supercapacitors are created by sewing, they are referred it to as “sewcap”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Carbon nanotubes (CNT) are the front-running candidates owing to their classical performance as adsorbents. CNTs are pure carbon cylinders with a radius of a few nm and variable lengths (100 nm to mm). CNTs are extraordinarily light and highly porous and very suitable for gas storage applications due to their high surface area. CNTs also have elevated conductivity (thermal and electrical) and are rich in chemistry. The properties mentioned above make them a competent candidate for CO2 adsorption and desorption, efficiently and selectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The easy uptake of CNTs into many different cell types enables these nanomaterials to be desirable for biomedical applications such as drug and gene delivery. CNTs can be directly penetrated through the cell membrane as well as through passive uptake, which allows them to be suitable candidates for drug and gene delivery. CNTs can be utilized in drug and gene delivery through functionalization, which allows specific cell types to be targeted for the gene or drug to be delivered effectively, enabling medical intervention for many types of diseases. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • With the development and application of nanotechnology, large amounts of nanoparticles will be potentially released to the environment and possibly cause many severe health problems. Pulmonary exposure to CNTs leads to lung inflammation, the pathological condition that has been linked to the development of lung fibrosis and cancer. Animal studies demonstrated the involvement of various inflammatory cytokines and growth factors. Numerous data and reports have been reported to determine the nature of toxicity arising due to the applications of CNTs in living systems, precisely during the drug delivery process. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 11

With reference to the societal structure of the ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. ‘Kadaisiyar’ and ‘Adimai’ were the terms used for landless labourers and slaves.

2. The position of 'Bhojaka', the village headman, was passed down through generations, making it a hereditary role.

3. The 'Grihapatis' were prominent landowners who held the dual responsibilities of serving as judges and policemen.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 11

In the Tamil region, large landowners were known as Vellalar, ordinary ploughmen were known as Uzhavar and landless labourers, including slaves, were known as Kadaisiyar and Adimai. In the northern part of the country, the village headman was known as the Grama Bhojaka. Usually, men from the same family held the position for generations. In other words, the post was hereditary. The Grama Bhojaka was often the largest landowner. Generally, he had slaves and hired workers to cultivate the land. Besides, as he was powerful, the king often used him to collect taxes from the village. He also functioned as a judge, and sometimes as a policeman. Apart from the Grama Bhojaka, there were other independent farmers, known as Grihapatis, most of whom were smaller landowners. There were men and women, such as the Dasa Karmakara, who did not own land and had to earn a living working on the fields owned by others.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

1. The Prashasti provides information regarding the rulers of Aryavarta, the rulers of Dakshinapatha and the lineage of the Shakas in the north-west.

2. The Prashasti portrays that the patron king as a skilled warrior and a knowledgeable poet.

The statements given above are sourced from which of the following ‘Prashastis’, belonging to the ancient Indian period?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 12

Samudragupta’s Prashasti, inscribed on the Ashokan pillar at Allahabad / Prayagraj. It was composed as a Kavya by Harishena, who was a poet and a minister at the court of Samudragupta. This inscription is of a special kind, known as a Prashasti, a Sanskrit word, meaning ‘in praise of’. The poet praised the king in glowing terms – as a warrior, as a king who won victories in battle, who was learned, and the best of poets. He is also described as equal to the gods. “Samudragupta the warrior, whose body was most charming, being covered with the plenteous beauty of the marks of hundreds of scars caused by battle-axes, arrows, spikes, spears, barbed darts, swords, iron clubs, javelins, barbed arrows, long arrows, and many other weapons”. Harishena, in the Prashasti, also describes four different kinds of rulers, and tells us about Samudragupta’s policies towards them:

1. The rulers of Aryavarta. There were nine rulers who were uprooted, and their kingdoms were made a part of Samudragupta’s empire.

2. The rulers of Dakshinapatha. There were twelve rulers, who surrendered to Samudragupta after being defeated and he then allowed them to rule again.

3. The neighbouring states, including Assam, coastal Bengal, Nepal, and a number of Gana Sanghas in the north-west. They brought tribute, followed his orders and attended his court.

4. The rulers of the outlying areas, perhaps the descendants of the Kushanas and the Shakas, and the ruler of Sri Lanka, who submitted to him and offered daughters in marriage.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 13

At which of the following locations, the Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka were found?

1. Shahbazgarhi

2. Maneshra

3. Siddapura

4. Rupnath

5. Maski

How many of the above mentioned locations are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 13

There are fourteen Major Rock Edicts, seven Pillar Edicts and some Minor Rock Inscriptions, which give us this information. The Major Rock Edicts are located at Shahbazgarhi and Maneshra near Peshawar, Kalsi near Dehra Dun, Sopara in Thana district, Girnar near Junagarh in Kathiawar, Dhauli near Bhubaneshwar and Jaugada in Ganjam district of Odisha. In Karnataka, the Minor Rock Edicts appear among other places at Siddapura, Jatinga-Rarneshwara and Brahmagiri. Other Minor Rock Edicts are found at Rupnath near Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh, Sahasram in Bihar, Bairat near Jaipur in Rajasthan and Maski in Karnataka.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 14

Who of the following officer was in-charge of land revenue department in the Mauryan administrative system ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 14

Option 3 : Samaharta
 

  • Mauryan administration was highly centralized.
  • The Emperor was the supreme power and source of all authority.
  • He was assisted by a Council of Ministers. It was called ‘Mantriparishad’. The ministers were called ‘Mantris.’
  • The council was headed by ‘mantriparishad-adhyakshya’ akin to the Prime Minister of today.
  • Tirthas: the Highest category of officials in the administration. There were 18 Tirthas.
  • Registration of births and deaths, foreigners, industries, trade, manufacture and sale of goods, sales tax collection were under the administration’s control.
  • The smallest unit of administration was the village.
  • Head of a village: Gramika Villages had a lot of autonomy.
  • Pradeshika was the provincial governor or district magistrates.
  • The commander-in-chief of the entire military was called Senapati and his position was next to the Emperor. He was appointed by the Emperor.
  • The revenue department chief was called Samaharta
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 15

With reference to the important centres of art production, consider the following statements:

1. In the Mathura School of Art, the images of ‘Ayudhas’ are associated with Vishnu and Shiva.

2. The site of ‘Devnimori’ is the earliest site in the Gangetic Valley, where sculptures from the Mathura School have been found.

3. The halo surrounding the Buddha in the Sarnath School is heavily decorated, drawing inspiration from the Mathura School.

4. ‘Red sandstone’ is the primary material used in the sculptures of the Mathura School of Art.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 15
  • Mathura became India's most important artistic production centre in the second century BCE, with its highly recognizable red sandstone statues being admired and exported all over India. In particular, it was in Mathura that the distinctive Indian convention of giving sacred figures multiple body parts, especially heads and arms, first became common in art around the 4th century CE, initially exclusively in the Hindu figures, as it derived from the Vedic texts. The Buddha image at Mathura is modelled on the lines of the earlier Yaksha images, whereas in Gandhara, it has Hellenistic features.
  • The images of Vaishnava (mainly Vishnu and his various forms) and Shaiva (mainly the Lingas and the Mukhalingas) faiths are also found at Mathura, but Buddhist images are found in large numbers. It may be noted that the images of Vishnu and Shiva are represented by their Ayudhas (weapons). Among the important Stupa sites outside the Gangetic Valley is Devnimori in Gujarat. In the subsequent centuries sculptures had little variations, while slender images with transparent drapery remained a dominant aesthetic sensibility. In this period, two important schools of sculptures in northern India are worth noting.
  • The traditional centre, Mathura, remained the main art production site, whereas Sarnath and Kosambi also emerged as important centres of art production. Many Buddha images in Sarnath have plain transparent drapery, covering both shoulders, and the halo around the head has very little ornamentation, whereas the Mathura Buddha images continue to depict folds of the drapery in the Buddha images and the halo around the head is profusely decorated.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 16

Regarding the Amaravati School of Art, consider the following statements:

1. The rulers of the Rashtrakuta dynasty were the first patron of the Amaravati School of Art.

2. The sculptural form in Amravati art is distinguished by its portrayal of dynamic movements and depiction of bodies in the ‘Tribhanga postures’.

3. The narrative art of the Amaravati School showcases influences from the Gandhara School of Art.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 16

The Amaravati School of Art refers to a significant artistic tradition that flourished in Amaravati, an ancient town in present day Andhra Pradesh. It developed from the 2nd century BCE to the 3rd century CE. The Amaravati School of Art is renowned for its exquisite sculptures and relief works, primarily focused on the Buddhist themes. The sculptural form at the Amaravati site is characterised by intense emotions. Figures are slender, have a lot of movement, bodies are shown with three bents (i.e., Tribhanga), and the sculptural composition is more complex than at Sanchi.

The idea of creating three-dimensional space in the relief sculpture is devised by using pronounced volume, angular bodies and complex overlapping. However, absolute attention has been paid to the clarity of form despite its size and role in the narrative. Narratives are profusely depicted, which include events from the life of the Buddha and the Jataka stories.

The Amaravati style of art experienced a self contained development and flourishing within India for around six centuries, devoid of external influences. The Satavahanas were the earliest patrons of this artistic tradition, which developed and thrived in the lower valleys of the Krishna and the Godavari rivers in Andhra Pradesh. This School of Art encompassed both religious and secular images.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 17

Consider the following pairs: 

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 17

1. Kiratarjuniya is an epic poem by Bharavi written in Sanskrit. It describes the combat between Arjuna and Lord Shiva.
2. Hammira Mahakavya is a 15th century Indian Sanskrit epic poem written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri. It is a legendary biography of the 13th century Chahamana king Hammira.
3. Gaudawaho is an 8th century Prakrit language epic poem written by Vakpatiraja. It narrates the story of king Yashovarman, who was the patron of the poet. The poem deifies the king as an incarnation of God Vishnu and credits him with several military achievements, including slaying of the Gauda king.
4. Dasakumaracharita is a prose romance in Sanskrit written by Dandin, believed to have flourished in 7-8th centuries AD. It describes the adventures of 10 young men, the Kumaras, all of whom are either princes or sons of the royal ministers, as narrated by the men themselves.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 18

Consider the following statements about Vijayanagar:

1. The Virupaksha temple existed before the founding of the Vijayanagar Empire.

2. The Tungabhadra River divided the city of Vijayanagar into the Sacred Centre and the Urban Core.

3. The city of Vijayanagar had no mosques during the Vijayanagar Empire.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 18

The Architecture of Hampi: 
The Tungabhadra flows on the left bank of the city of Vijayanagar. The Sacred Centre and 
the Royal Centre are separated by river-fed canals. 

 Zones of Vijayanagar: The city of Vijayanagar was divided into two halves, i.e., the Sacred Centre and the Royal Centre.  

The Sacred Centre: It was located on the southern bank of the Tungabhadra River. The Sacred Centre was composed of many massive temple complexes separated by fort like walls.  

The Urban Core: It is a walled area of settlement, separated from the Sacred Centre by a small granite mountain and an irrigated valley with intensive agricultural zone irrigated by river-fed canals. This area reflects the religious diversity, as it had Jain temples, Shaivite temples, Vaishnavite temples and a Muslim Quartet.  

The Royal Centre: This was an area contained within the Urban Core containing areas where the royalty and higher classes stayed and numerous walled enclosures protecting monumental structures. The Royal Centre contained palaces, elephant stables, many audience halls and platforms, and also temples (including large temples like the Ramachandra temple).  

Fortified City: Hampi was a well-fortified city and was enclosed by great fortress walls. No mortar or cementing agent was used in the construction of these walls. The walls were made by wedge the blocks of rocks by inter-locking. According to Abdur Razzaq (A Persian traveller), there were seven lines of forts surrounding the city, which encircled not only the city, but also its agricultural hinterlands and forests.  

The oldest historical settlement at Vijayanagar is a Hindu Tirtha, where the local goddess Pampa and her consort Virupaksha, a form of Shiva, are worshipped. Virupaksha cult at Hampi has been in existence since the 8-9th centuries. It survived down to present day as the most important pilgrimage spot in the city of Vijayanagar.  

The Urban Core of Vijayanagar had a block, known as the Islamic Quarters. This enclosure had a mosque, a tomb, an octagonal hall, watch tower and a band-stand tower. The mosque in the complex was built by Ahmad Khan, a military officer under Devaraya in 1439.

 

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 19

‘Chauchala’ and ‘Dochala’ are the styles of architecture associated with which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 19

Bengal witnessed a temple building spree from the late 15th century. Temple architecture in Bengal got inspired from the double roofed (Dochala) or the four-roofed (Chauchala) structure of thatched huts in the villages, which housed the local deities. The temples were usually built on a square platform. The interior of the temples was relatively plain, but the outer walls of these temples were decorated with paintings, ornamental tiles or teracotta tablets. In the Vishnupur group of temples in Bankura district of West Bengal, such decorations reached a high degree of excellence. This style incorporated elements of dome and multi-lobe arch of the Islamic architecture. The elements of Bengal temple architecture were outside Bengal as well. There are two prominent styles of Bengal temples:

1. Dochala (two-roofed style)

2. Chauchala (four-roofed style): This was a comparatively more complex structure. Here, four triangular roofs placed on four walls move up to converge on a curved line or a point.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

1. The Lakshmana temple of Khajuraho is dedicated to Shiva.

2. The temples at Khajuraho are primarily of the Buddhist origin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 20
  • The Lakshmana temple of Khajuraho, dedicated to Vishnu, was built in 954 by the Chandela king, Dhanga. A Nagara temple, it is placed on a high platform accessed by stairs. There are four smaller temples in the corners, and all the towers or the Shikharas rise high, upward in a curved pyramidal fashion, emphasizing the temple’s vertical thrust ending in a horizontal fluted disc, called an Amalak topped with a Kalash or vase. Khajuraho’s temples are also known for their extensive erotic sculptures.
  • The erotic expression is given equal importance in human experience as spiritual pursuit, and it is seen as part of a larger cosmic whole. There are many temples at Khajuraho, most of them devoted to the Hindu gods. There are some Jain temples, as well as a Chausanth Yogini temple, which is of interest. Predating the tenth century, this is a temple of small, square shrines of roughly hewn granite blocks, each dedicated to the Devis or the goddesses associated with the rise of the Tantric worship after the seventh century.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

1. Ibn Battuta described Delhi as a vast city with a great population, the largest in India.

2.  Ibn Battuta informs us about certain varieties of fine muslin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 21
  • Ibn Battuta found cities in the sub continent full of exciting opportunities for those who had the necessary drive, resources and skills. They were densely populated and prosperous, except for the occasional disruptions caused by wars and invasions. It appears from Ibn Battuta’s account that most cities had crowded streets, and bright and colourful markets that were stacked with a wide variety of goods. Ibn Battuta described Delhi as a vast city, with a great population, the largest in India. Daulatabad (in Maharashtra) was no less, and easily rivalled Delhi in size.
  • According to Ibn Battuta, the bazaars were not only the places of economic transactions, but also the hub of social and cultural activities. Most bazaars had a mosque and a temple, and in some of them at least, spaces were marked for public performances by dancers, musicians and singers.
  • Ibn Battuta found Indian agriculture very productive because of the fertility of the soil, which allowed the farmers to cultivate two crops a year. He also noted that the sub-continent was well integrated with inter-Asian networks of trade and commerce, with the Indian manufactures being in great demand in both West Asia and South-east Asia, fetching huge profits for the artisans and the merchants. Indian textiles, particularly cotton cloth, fine muslins, silks, brocade and satin, were in great demand. Ibn Battuta informs us that certain varieties of fine muslin were so expensive that they could be worn only by the nobles and the very rich.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 22

Consider the following documents:

1. Finance Bill

2. Outcome Budget

3. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement

4. Economic Survey

5. Demands for Grants

How many of the above documents comprise the Budget presented in the Parliament?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 22
  • The Budget can also be presented to the House in two or more parts and when such presentation takes place, each part shall be dealt with as if it were the budget. Further, there shall be no discussion of the budget on the day on which it is presented to the House.. The finance minister presents the budget with a speech known as the ‘budget speech’. At the end of the speech in the Lok Sabha, the budget is laid before the Rajya Sabha, which can only discuss it and has no power to vote on the demands for grants. The budget documents presented to the Parliament comprise of the following :
    • Budget Speech
    • Annual Financial Statement
    • Demands for Grants
    • Appropriation Bill
    • Finance Bill
    • Statements mandated under the FRBM Act:
      • Macro-Economic Framework Statement
      • Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
      • Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
    • Expenditure Budget
    • Receipts Budget
    • Expenditure Profile
    •  Memorandum Explaining the Provisions in the Finance Bill (xi) Budget at a Glance
    • Outcome Budget
  • Earlier, the Economic Survey also used to be presented to the Parliament along with the budget. Now, it is presented one day or a few days before the presentation of the budget. This report is prepared by the finance ministry and indicates the status of the national economy. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 23

The term ‘Rules of Origin’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 23
  • Rules of origin are the rules to attribute a country of origin to a product in order to determine its "economic nationality". The need to establish rules of origin stems from the fact that the implementation of trade policy measures, such as tariffs, quotas, trade remedies, in various cases, depends on the country of origin of the product at hand.
  • Rules of origin are used:
    • to implement measures and instruments of commercial policy such as anti-dumping duties and safeguard measures;
    • to determine whether imported products shall receive most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment or preferential treatment;
    • for the purpose of trade statistics;
    • for the application of labelling and marking requirements; and
    • for government procurement.
  • General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) has no specific rules governing the determination of the country of origin of goods in international commerce. Each contracting party was free to determine its own origin rules, and could even maintain several different rules of origin depending on the purpose of the particular regulation.
  • During international trade, an exporting country needs to show a certificate under norms of "rules of origin" to prove that the commodity or a product originates there. Rules of origin norms help in containing dumping of goods. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 24

With reference to Olive Ridley Turtles, consider the following statements:

1. They are the largest of all sea turtle species in the world and are categorized as vulnerable by the International Union for Conservation of Nature.

2. Generally, an Olive Ridley turtle lays 100-150 eggs.

3. Rushikulya Beach is a notified wildlife sanctuary for Olive Ridley Turtles in the state of Odisha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 24
  • Millions of baby Olive Ridley sea turtles crawled towards the Bay of Bengal after emerging from eggshells along Odisha’s Rushikulya beach in Ganjam district, recording one of the most successful mass nesting and hatchings in the past few decades.
  • Usually, mass nesting takes place for three to four days. However, turtles had come to lay their eggs over a period of nine days this year. After laying eggs, they disappeared into the sea.
  • After 50 days, baby turtles have emerged from eggs themselves, without mother turtles, and started their journey towards an unknown destination using a vast seawater route.
  • Generally, an Olive Ridley turtle lays 100-150 eggs in a cavity created by them with their front flippers. They scoop out sand for hours to create the void. After laying eggs in one go, these creatures cover it again with sand. Before sunrise, the turtles return to the sea, leaving behind the eggs to hatch after 40-60 days. Sometimes, a turtle lays eggs in a pit at a place which was previously used by another turtle, leading to the loss of thousands of eggs.  Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The Rushikulya beach is a unique phenomenon, which is not a wildlife sanctuary, yet turtles feel safe to carry out mass nesting. Baby turtles started coming out from eggshells in the second week of April this year.  Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • Once a turtle finds the right spot, it settles down to make a shallow nest where it will lay about 100 eggs on average. A turtle uses its flippers to scoop out sand to create a cavity 30 cm to 50 cm deep to lay eggs.
  • Growing to about half a metre and 50 kg in weight, the Olive Ridley turtle gets its name from its green grey carapace (top shell). It is the smallest of all the sea turtle species. Olive Ridley turtles, a vulnerable species according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature, come ashore to the Rushikulya river mouth in Odisha to lay eggs.  Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Olive Ridley turtles do not wait to see the eggs hatch but come back next season to lay eggs again. They spend their lives in the ocean, inhabiting the tropical and subtropical waters of the Pacific, Indian, and Atlantic oceans.
  • Turtles also arrive at Gahirmatha Beach in Odisha’s Kendrapara district, known as the world’s largest rookery. Besides, Puri and Devi river mouth beaches too host Olive Ridley turtles this time around.
  • As part of a long-term study, researchers of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) continued tagging of Olive Ridley turtles at three mass nesting sites – Gahirmatha, Devi river mouth, and Rushikulya. The metal tags affixed to turtles are non-corrosive and they do not harm their body. The metal can be removed later. The tags are uniquely numbered containing details such as the name of the organization, country code, and email address.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 25

Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 25
  • Recently, West Bengal notified Char Balidanga (Nadia), Namthing Pokhari (Darjeeling), Amkhoi Wood Fossil Park (Birbhum) and State Horticulture Research and Development Station (Nadia) as the four latest Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) making it the state with the highest number of BHS in India.
  • Biodiversity Heritage Sites are well-defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems with a high diversity of wild and domesticated species, the presence of rare and threatened species, and keystone species.
  • The State Government, in cooperation with local bodies, may designate sites of biological importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites under the Biological Diversity Act of 2002.
    • Gandhamardan Hill Range is located in Bargarh and Balangir districts, Odisha. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
      • This is the third BHS of Odisha after Mandasuru Gorge in the Kandhamal district and Mahendragiri Hill Range in the Gajapati district.The Gandhamardan Hill, located in both Balangir and Bargarh, is considered as the treasure trove of medicinal plants and an Ayurvedic paradise of Odisha. This ecologically fragile ecosystem is rich in floral and faunal diversity having diverse socio-economic, ecological and biological significance for the people of Odisha.As per the government, the floral diversity of the hill comprises 1,055 plant species that include 849 angiosperms, 56 pteridophytes, 40 bryophytes, 45 lichens and two gymnosperms and 63 species of macrofungi. Moreover, the faunal diversity comprises 500 species of animals that include 43 mammals, 161 birds, 44 reptiles, 16 amphibians, 118 butterflies, 27 dragonflies and 7 damselflies, and 83 species of spiders. One angiosperm, Ficus conccina var dasycarpa and one spider, Peucetia harishankarensis, are endemic to this hill. Besides, two historical monuments such as the Nrusinghanath Temple located on the northern slope and the Harishankar Temple situated on the southern slope of the foothills of Gandhamardan, have immense cultural significance.The two hill shrines are major pilgrimage sites of Odisha. In his chronicles, Hiuen Tsang had described the hill shrine as a Buddhist heritage site named Parimalagiri.In the 1980s, then public sector Bharat Aluminium Company Limited (BALCO), now under the control of Vedanta Group, had almost started mining of bauxite from Gandhamardan. o Arittapatti is located in Madurai district, Tamil Nadu. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
      • Arittapatti village, known for its ecological and historical significance, houses around 250 species of birds including three important raptors - birds of prey, namely the Laggar Falcon, the Shaheen Falcon and Bonelli’s Eagle.Arittapatti village of Melur block in Madurai. It is also home to wildlife such as the Indian Pangolin, Slender Loris and pythons. The area is surrounded by a chain of seven hillocks or inselbergs that serve as a watershed, charging “72 lakes, 200 natural springs and three check dams,” the notification said. The Anaikondan tank, built during the reign of Pandiyan kings in the 16th century is one among them. Several megalithic structures, rock-cut temples, Tamil Brahmi inscriptions and Jain beds add to the historical significance of the region.
    • Namthing Pokhari is located in Darjeeling, West Bengal. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
      • Titled as the natural habitat of the rare endangered species of Himalayan Salamander, Namthing Pokhari is the only place except for Jorpokhari in Darjeeling to inhabit these rarest species in the world. The Himalayan Salamander in Namthing Pokhari is cited to fall under the Tylototriton verrucosus species which is found only in Darjeeling. Therefore, this unique amphibian is conserved under Schedule II Part I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The Himalayan Salamander found in Namthing Pokhari is a keystone species of the lentic zones in the Eastern Himalayas. This endangered species belongs to an offshoot of the ancient family Salamandridae, which is known to have existed in Europe during the Miocene age, that is, between 13-25 million years ago. These salamanders are now entirely vanished in the other part of the world. Fortunately, they are still surviving in the solitary Namthing Lake of Shelpu Hills.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 26

Dakar Declaration, recently seen in the news, is related to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 26
  • Dakar Declaration
    • ‘Dakar Declaration’ was adopted by 21 African countries committing to strengthening reporting on road crash fatalities, enhancing data capture, analysis, sharing, and coordination to shape better road safety policies. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
    • It is being conducted at the first African sub-regional conference on implementing the Global Plan for Road Safety in Dakar, Senegal.
    • Other treaties on road safety:
      • The decade of Action for road safety 2021–2030 (target of preventing at least 50% of road traffic deaths and injuries by 2030);
      • Stockholm Declaration on Road Safety 2020;
      • National Road Safety Policy 2010;
      • Delhi Declaration on Road Safety 2021
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index (CPI):

1. It measures the change in prices paid by consumers for goods and services both.

2. It is measured by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation with base year 2012.

3. The weightage of food and beverages in the CPI is close to 50%.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 27
  • Consumer Price Indices (CPI) measures change over time in the general level of prices of goods and services that households acquire for the purpose of consumption. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • In India, CPI measured by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation with Base Year 2012. In India, there are four consumer price index numbers, which are calculated, and these are as follows:
    • CPI for Industrial Workers (IW)
    • CPI for Rural Labourers (RL) and
    • CPI for Urban Non-Manual Employees (UNME). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • While the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation collects CPI (UNME) data and compiles it, the remaining three are collected by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour.
  • Inflation is measured using CPI. The percentage change in this index over a period of time gives the amount of inflation over that specific period, i.e. the increase in prices of a representative basket of goods consumed.
  • CPI is calculated for a fixed list of items including food, housing, apparel, transportation, electronics, medical care, education, etc. The weightage of food and beverages in the CPI is close to 50%. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 28

Which of the following spacecraft has operated outside the heliosphere, considered to be the border of our solar system?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 28
  • Recently, the Voyager 2 spacecraft, which is now travelling in interstellar space, has gotten a new lease of life after mission engineers developed a new plan to keep its instruments running for longer till 2026.
  • Voyager 2 was launched by NASA in 1977, with its initial mission objective of probing space. Currently, it is so far away from Earth that radio signals from the spacecraft take 18 hours to reach us.
  • Voyager 2 and Voyager 1 are the only spacecraft that has ever operated outside the heliosphere, which is considered to be the border of our solar system. The heliosphere is a bubble of particles and magnetic fields generated by the Sun.
  • NASA's New Horizons spacecraft was the first spacecraft to explore Pluto up close; Cassini-Huygens, commonly called Cassini, was a space-research mission by NASA, the European Space Agency, and the Italian Space Agency to send a space probe to study the planet Saturn; Juno is a NASA space probe orbiting the planet Jupiter.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 29

Which of the following are the main items of capital receipts?

1. Market borrowings

2. Profits of public enterprises

3. National Savings Certificate

4. Provident funds

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 29
  • The Capital Account: The Capital Budget is an account of the assets as well as liabilities of the central government, which takes into consideration changes in capital. It consists of capital receipts and capital expenditure of the government. This shows the capital requirements of the government and the pattern of their financing.
    • Capital Receipts: The main items of capital receipts are loans raised by the government from the public which are called market borrowings, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank and commercial banks and other financial institutions through the sale of treasury bills, loans received from foreign governments and international organizations, and recoveries of loans granted by the central government. Other items include small savings (Post-Office Savings Accounts, National Savings Certificates, etc), provident funds, and net receipts obtained from the sale of shares in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
    • Capital Expenditure: This includes expenditure on the acquisition of land, buildings, machinery, equipment, investment in shares, and loans and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, PSUs, and other parties. Capital expenditure is also categorized as plan and non-plan in the budget documents.
      • Plan capital expenditure, like its revenue counterpart, relates to the central plan and central assistance for state and union territory plans.
      • Non-plan capital expenditure covers various general, social, and economic services provided by the government.
    • Note: Revenue receipts are current income receipts from all sources such as taxes, profits of public enterprises, grants, etc. Revenue receipts neither create any liability nor cause any reduction in the assets of the government. Capital receipts, on the other hand, are the receipts of the government that either create liability or cause any reduction in the assets of the government. e.g., borrowings, recovery of loans, and disinvestment, etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 30

In the context of banking reforms for strengthening the financing system in rural India, the year 1982 is important because

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 30
  • National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was set up in 1982 as an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system.  It was established in 1982 under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • NABARD  is a development bank in India that focuses on providing financial and other support to the agriculture and rural development sectors. It offers a range of financial products and services, including various funds, to meet the needs of its clients.
  • NABARD is responsible for supervising and providing financial assistance to the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India. RRBs are public sector banks that were established to provide banking and financial services to the rural and semi-urban areas of the country.
  • Some of the funds managed by NABARD include:
    • Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF),
    • Dairy Processing and Infrastructure Development Fund (DIDF),
    • Rural Innovation Fund (RIF)
  • The origins of priority sector (PS) lending can be traced back to 1966 when Morarji Desai saw a need for increasing credit to agriculture and small industries. However, the definition of PS was only formalized based on a Reserve Bank of India (RBI) report in the National Credit Council in 1972. The Priority Sector norms are applicable to apply to every Commercial Bank [including Regional Rural Bank (RRB), Small Finance Bank (SFB), and Local Area Bank], and Primary (Urban) Co-operative Bank (UCB) other than Salary Earners’ Bank. As per the PSL norms, the Domestic commercial banks (excluding RRBs & SFBs) & foreign banks with 20 branches and above are mandated to allocate 40 percent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the priority sectors.
  • Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975), and after the legislation of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976. The first Regional Rural Bank “Prathama Grameen Bank” was set up on October 2, 1975.
  • The first phase of the nationalization of banks took place in 1969. 14 banks were nationalized that year.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding the inflation targeting in Indian economy:

1. Inflation targeting is a statutory and institutionalised framework under the RBI Act, 1934.

2. Inflation target is set up by the RBI in consultation with the central government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 31
  • In 2016, the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) was amended to provide for a statutory and institutionalised framework for a Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). The Preamble in the RBI Act, as amended by the Finance Act, 2016, now provides that the primary objective of the monetary policy is to maintain price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth, and to meet the challenge of an increasingly complex economy. RBI would, accordingly, operate a Monetary Policy Framework. Thus, now there is a statutory basis for a Monetary Policy Framework and the MPC. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • A Committee-based approach will add lot of value and transparency to monetary policy decisions. Out of the six Members of MPC, three Members will be from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), including the Governor, RBI, who will be the ex-officio Chairperson, the Deputy Governor, RBI and one officer of RBI. The other three Members of MPC will be appointed by the Central Government, on the recommendations of a Search-cum-Selection Committee. These three Members of MPC will be experts in the field of economics or banking or finance or monetary policy and will be appointed for a period of 4 years and shall not be eligible for re-appointment. The meetings of the MPC shall be held at least 4 times a year and it shall publicise its decisions after each such meeting.
  • Under the new statutory framework, the central government would, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), set an inflation target based on the consumer price index (CPI) once every five years. The RBI was entrusted with the responsibility of meeting this target (“accountability”), for which it would be given “independence” in the conduct of monetary policy. Hence statement 2 is not correct. The inflation target of the Reserve Bank of India is 4 percent, with a 2 per cent extension in the upper bound and 2 per cent in the lower bound.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 32

Consider the following:

1. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement

2. Macroeconomic Framework Statement

3. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement

Under the FRBM Act, how many of the above are mandatory for the government to place along with the Union Budget documents in the Parliament annually?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 32
  • The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM Act), 2003, establishes financial discipline to reduce fiscal deficit. The FRBM Act aims to introduce transparency in India's fiscal management systems. The Act’s long-term objective is for India to achieve fiscal stability and to give the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) flexibility to deal with inflation in India. The FRBM Act was enacted to introduce more equitable distribution of India's debt over the years.
  • Key features of the FRBM Act:
    • The FRBM Act made it mandatory for the government to place the following along with the Union Budget documents in Parliament annually:
      • Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
      • Macroeconomic Framework Statement
      • Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
  • The FRBM Act proposed that revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, tax revenue and the total outstanding liabilities be projected as a percentage of gross domestic product (GDP) in the medium-term fiscal policy statement. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • On grounds of national security, calamity, etc, the set targets of fiscal deficits and revenue could be exceeded.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 33

Consider the following statements with reference to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):

1. Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975).

2. The equity of a regional rural bank is completely owned by the state government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 33
  • Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are financial institutions that ensure adequate credit for agriculture and other rural sectors. Regional Rural Banks were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975), and after the legislation of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976. The first Regional Rural Bank “Prathama Grameen Bank” was set up on October 2, 1975. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • At present, there are around 40 RRBs in India (43 as of 2020). The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, the concerned State Government, and the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • The RRBs combine the characteristics of a cooperative in terms of familiarity with rural problems and a commercial bank in terms of its professionalism and ability to mobilize financial resources. Each RRB operates within the local limits as notified by Government.
  • The main objectives of RRBs are to provide credit and other facilities‚ especially to the small and marginal farmers‚ agricultural laborers artisans and small entrepreneurs in rural areas with the objective of bridging the credit gap in rural areas, checking the outflow of rural deposits to urban areas and reduce regional imbalances and increase rural employment generation.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 34

In the context of economy, which of the following best describes the term "official reserve sale"?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 34
  • Balance of Payments Surplus and Deficit
    • The essence of international payments is that just like an individual who spends more than her income must finance the difference by selling assets or by borrowing, a country that has a deficit in its current account (spending more than it receives from sales to the rest of the world) must finance it by selling assets or by borrowing abroad. Thus, any current account deficit must be financed by a capital account surplus, a net capital inflow.
    • In this case, in which a country is said to be in balance of payments equilibrium, the current account deficit is financed entirely by international lending without any reserve movements.
    • Alternatively, the country could use its reserves of foreign exchange in order to balance any deficit in its balance of payments. The reserve bank sells foreign exchange when there is a deficit. This is called an official reserve sale. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
    • The decrease (increase) in official reserves is called the overall balance of payments deficit (surplus). The basic premise is that the monetary authorities are the ultimate financiers of any deficit in the balance of payments (or the recipients of any surplus).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 35

Which of the following statements best describes the term inflationary gap?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 35
  • An inflationary gap measures the difference between the current real GDP and the GDP of an economy operating at full employment. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • The current real GDP must be higher than the potential GDP for the gap to be considered inflationary.
  • Policies that reduce an inflationary gap include reductions in government spending, tax increases, bond and securities issues, interest rate increases, and transfer payment reductions. H
  • An inflationary gap exists when the demand for goods and services exceeds production due to factors such as higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities, or elevated government expenditure. The real GDP can exceed the potential GDP, resulting in an inflationary gap. The inflationary gap is named as such because the relative rise in real GDP causes an economy to increase its consumption, leading prices to climb in the long run.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 36

With reference to PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme to facilitate street vendors' access to collateral-free capital loans.

2. It facilitates an initial working capital loan of up to 10 lakhs at a subsidized rate of interest.

3. Street vendors/ hawkers of both the urban and rural areas are covered under it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 36
  • PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi):
    • A total of 42.7 lakh loans amounting to ₹5,152.37 crore had been disbursed to street vendors under the PM SVANidhi scheme
    • This is a Central Sector Scheme to facilitate street vendors to access affordable working capital loans for resuming their livelihood activities, after the easing of the lockdown. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The COVID-19 pandemic and consequent lockdowns have adversely impacted the livelihoods of street vendors. They usually work with a small capital base, which they might have consumed during the lockdown. Therefore, credit for working capital to street vendors will be helpful to resume their livelihoods.
    • To facilitate an initial working capital loan of up to 10,000 at a subsidized rate of interest. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • To incentivize regular repayment of loans; and o To reward digital transactions.
      • Initial working capital of up to `10,000/- rupees
      • Interest subsidy on timely/ early repayment@ 7%
      • Monthly cash-back incentive on digital transactions
      • Higher loan eligibility on timely repayment of the first loan. o Street vendors/ hawkers vending in urban areas, as on or before March 24, 2020, including the vendors of surrounding peri-urban and rural areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • No collateral security is required.
    • The interest subsidy amount will be credited directly to the beneficiary account on a quarterly basis. In case of early payment, the admissible amount of subsidy will be credited in one go.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 37

Which of the following statements is correct about the Balance of Payments?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 37
  • Balance of Payments (BoP) of a country is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of one country and the rest of the world during a given period of time. It summarizes all transactions that a country's individuals, companies and government bodies complete with individuals, companies and government bodies outside the country.
  • These transactions consist of imports and exports of goods, services and capital, as well as transfer payments such as foreign aid and remittances. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 38

Consider the following statements about the Biodiversity Heritage Site:

1. The Central Government in consultation with local bodies may notify the official gazette, of areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) under the Biological Diversity Act of 2002.

2. NallurTamarind Grove in Bengaluru, Karnataka, was designated as India's first Biodiversity Heritage Site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 38
  • “Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well-defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems - terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components:
    • the richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories,
    • high endemism,
    • presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species or their varieties,
    • past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and having significant cultural, ethical, or aesthetic values are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them.
  • Under Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (BDA) the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify the official gazette, of areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • State Government in consultation with the Central Government may frame rules for the management and conservation of BHS.
  • State Governments shall frame schemes for compensating or rehabilitating any person or section of people economically affected by such notification.
  • Nallur Tamarind Grove in Bengaluru, Karnataka was the first Biodiversity Heritage Site of India, declared in 2007. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 39

Consider the following types of ecological pyramids:

1. Pyramids of number

2. Pyramid of biomass

3. Pyramids of energy

How many of the pyramids given above can never be inverted in shape?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 39
  • An ecological pyramid is a graphical representation of the relationship between different organisms in an ecosystem.
  • Types of Ecological Pyramids:
  • The pyramid of Numbers is the graphic representation of the number of individuals per unit area of various trophic levels.
    • Upright Pyramid of Numbers: In an upright pyramid of numbers, the number of individuals decreases from the lower level to the higher level. This type of pyramid is usually found in the grassland ecosystem and the pond ecosystem. The grass in a grassland ecosystem occupies the lowest trophic level because of its abundance.
    • Inverted Pyramid of Numbers: Here, the number of individuals increases from the lower level to the higher trophic level. For example, the tree ecosystem. Thus, the Pyramid of Numbers can be inverted and Upright. Hence option 1 is not correct.
  • Pyramid of Biomass as the name suggests shows the amount of biomass (living or organic matter present in an organism) present per unit area at each trophic level.
  • Upright Pyramid of Biomass: Ecosystems found on land mostly have pyramids of biomass with large bases of primary producers with smaller trophic levels perched on top, hence the upright pyramid of biomass.
    • Inverted Pyramid of Biomass: A reverse pyramidal structure is found in most aquatic ecosystems. Here, the pyramid of biomass may assume an inverted pattern. This is because, in a water body, the producers are tiny phytoplankton that grow and reproduce rapidly. In this condition, the pyramid of biomass has a small base, with the producer biomass at the base providing support to consumer biomass of large weight. Hence, it assumes an inverted shape. The pyramid of Biomass can be inverted and Upright. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
  • The pyramid of Energy is a graphical structure representing the flow of energy through each trophic level of a food chain over a fixed part of the natural environment. An energy pyramid represents the amount of energy at each trophic level and the loss of energy at each is transferred to another trophic level.
  • The energy pyramid, sometimes called the trophic pyramid or ecological pyramid, is used in quantifying the energy transfer from one organism to another along the food chain. Energy decreases as one moves through the trophic levels from the bottom to the top of the pyramid. Thus, the energy pyramid is always upright. Hence, option 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 40

Consider the following nutrient cycles:

1. Nitrogen cycle

2. Sulfur cycle

3. Carbon cycle

4. Phosphorus cycle

How many of the above are gaseous nutrient cycles?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 40
  • The movement of nutrient elements through the various components of an ecosystem is called nutrient cycling. Another name for nutrient cycling is biogeochemical cycles (bio: living organism, geo: rocks, air, water). Nutrient cycles are of two types: (a) gaseous and (b) sedimentary.
  • The reservoir for the gaseous type of nutrient cycle (e.g., nitrogen, carbon cycle) exists in the atmosphere and for the sedimentary cycle (e.g., sulphur and phosphorus cycle), the reservoir is located in Earth’s crust. Environmental factors, e.g., soil, moisture, pH, temperature, etc., regulate the rate of release of nutrients into the atmosphere. The function of the reservoir is to meet the deficit which occurs due to an imbalance in the rate of influx and efflux. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
  • Carbon Cycle: Carbon enters the living world in the form of carbon dioxide through the process of photosynthesis as carbohydrates. These organic compounds (food) are then passed from the producers to the consumers (herbivores & carnivores). This carbon is finally returned to the surrounding medium by the process of respiration or decomposition of plants and animals by the decomposers.
  • Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is present in the atmosphere in an elemental form and as such it cannot be utilized by living organisms. This elemental form of nitrogen is converted into a combined state with elements such as H, C, and O by certain bacteria so that it can be readily used by plants. Nitrogen is continuously expelled into the air by the action of microorganisms such as denitrifying bacteria and finally returned to the cycle through the action of lightening and electrification.
  • Sulphur Cycle: Sulphur occurs in all living matter as a component of certain amino acids. It is abundant in the soil in proteins and, through a series of microbial transformations, ends up as sulphates usable by plants. Sulphur-containing proteins are degraded into their constituent amino acids by the action of a variety of soil organisms. The sulphur of the amino acids is converted to hydrogen sulphide (H2S) by another series of soil microbes. In the presence of oxygen, H2S is converted to sulphur and then to sulphate by sulphur bacteria. Eventually, the sulphate becomes H2S.
  • Phosphorus cycle: Phosphorus is a major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids and cellular energy transfer systems. Many animals also need large quantities of this element to make shells, bones and teeth. The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock, which contains phosphorus in the form of phosphates. When rocks are weathered, minute amounts of these phosphates dissolve in soil solution and are absorbed by the roots of the plants. Herbivores and other animals obtain this element from plants. The waste products and the dead organisms are decomposed by phosphate-solubilising bacteria releasing phosphorus. Unlike the carbon cycle, there is no respiratory release of phosphorus into the atmosphere.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 41

Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth is currently believed to be undergoing the sixth mass extinction.

2. The current species extinction rates are estimated to be several times faster than in pre-human times.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 41
  • A mass extinction is a short period of geological time in which a high percentage of biodiversity, or distinct species—bacteria, fungi, plants, mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, fish, invertebrates—dies out. In this definition, it’s important to note that, in geological time, a ‘short’ period can span thousands or even millions of years.
  • The planet has experienced five previous mass extinction events, the last one occurring 65.5 million years ago which wiped out the dinosaurs from existence. Experts now believe we are in the midst of a sixth mass extinction. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The ‘Sixth Extinction’ is presently in progress different from the previous episodes. The difference is in the rates; the current species extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to 1,000 times faster than in pre-human times and our activities are responsible for the faster rates. Ecologists warn that if the present trends continue, nearly half of all the species on Earth might be wiped out within the next 100 years. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Unlike previous extinction events caused by natural phenomena, the sixth mass extinction is driven by human activity, primarily (though not limited to) the unsustainable use of land, water and energy use, and climate change.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 42

Consider the following:

1. Carbon dioxide

2. Hydrofluorocarbons

3. Methane

4. Nitrous oxide

Which of the gases given above are greenhouse gases?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 42
  • Greenhouse Gases (GHGs) are the gases that lead to the warming of the Earth. Even though these are naturally present in the Earth's atmosphere, their quantity is increasing exponentially due to the burning of Fossil Fuels, Crop/Biomass Residue, etc.
  • The following are examples of GHGs-
    • Carbon Monoxide- Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas.- It is formed as a result of incomplete combustion of carbon-containing materials.
    • Methane- Methane (CH4) is a potent greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming.- Methane is produced by the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter.
    • Carbon Dioxide: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas.- It is formed as a natural outcome of combustion of carbon-containing materials.
    • Hydrofluorocarbons: Potent greenhouse gases (GHG) that have global warming potentials that range from hundreds to thousands of times that of carbon dioxide.
    • Nitrous oxide molecules stay in the atmosphere for an average of 121 years before being removed by a sink or destroyed through chemical reactions.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 43

Consider the following statements regarding Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in International Commerce (TRAFFIC):

1. It is a wildlife trade monitoring network established jointly by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

2. It is concerned with the monitoring of both the legal as well as illegal trade in wildlife across the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 43

International Organizations for Control of Wildlife Trafficking:

  • TRAFFIC: Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in International Commerce (TRAFFIC) established in 1976, is a wildlife trade monitoring network and a joint programme of WWF and IUCN. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • It works closely with the National and State Governments and various agencies to help study, monitor and influence action to curb illegal wildlife trade and bring wildlife trade within sustainable levels.
  • CITES (the Washington Convention): CITES signed in 1973 provides a mechanism to regulate the trade in wildlife. Under its guidance, governments all over the world have taken steps to prevent this illegal trade and bring it under control. 
    • The CITES is concerned with the international co-operation to control only the illegal trade in endangered species whereas the TRAFFIC is concerned with the monitoring of both the legal as well as the illegal trade in wildlife across the world. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 44

The term 'Goldilocks economy' was recently seen in the news. It best describes which of the following scenarios in the economy?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 44
  • Recent Context: In Monetary Policy Committee's (MPC) latest policy review the RBI decided to maintain the status quo. In other words, it changed nothing. This gave the economists to think whether India has reached its Goldilocks Scenario.
  • What Is a Goldilocks Economy?
    • A Goldilocks economy is not too hot or too cold but just right ie. describing situations that are "just right" amid two extremes —to steal a line from the popular children's story Goldilocks and the Three Bears.
    • The term describes an ideal state for an economic system. In this perfect state, there is full employment, economic stability, and stable growth. The economy is not expanding or contracting by a large margin. Hence statement (b) is the correct answer.
    • A Goldilocks state is also ideal for investing because as companies grow and generate positive earnings growth, stocks perform well.
    • Goldilocks economies are temporary in nature, as seen by the boom and bust cycles.
  • Inflation in Goldilocks Economy:
    • A Goldilocks economy has steady economic growth, preventing a recession, but not so much growth that inflation rises by too much.
    • The inflation in such a scenario will neither be too hot (implying high inflation) nor too cold (referring to faltering GDP growth).
    • It implies idle inflation i.e. not too low nor too high.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 45

Which of the following statements best describes the Chemical Oxygen Demand of a water body?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 45
  • The amount of pollution in a water body can be quantified by the amount of oxygen required to decompose the pollutants. For this, two parameters are considered- The Biological Oxygen Demand and the Chemical Oxygen Demand.
  • Chemical oxygen demand or COD is the amount of oxygen required to break down organic and inorganic material via oxidation. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • It is frequently stated as the mass of oxygen consumed over the volume of the solution, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L), in SI units. Quantifying the number of oxidizable contaminants present in surface water (such as lakes and rivers) or wastewater is the most typical application of COD. Chemical Oxygen Demand is helpful for assessing the quality of water by providing a metric to assess how an effluent will affect the receiving body.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 46

Consider the following statements with respect to wildlife sanctuaries:

1. It is a protected area where rare and endangered species are encouraged to breed in human-controlled environments with restricted settings.

2. Human activities like harvesting or timber collection of minor forest products and private ownership rights are allowed in these sanctuaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 46
  • Wildlife Sanctuary: A Sanctuary is a protected area where wild animals and birds are kept and encouraged to increase their population. Presently, there are more than 551 sanctuaries in India covering a total area of 1,19,775.80 sq km.
  • In wildlife sanctuaries, rare and endangered species are encouraged to breed in human controlled environments with restricted settings. This is called as captive breeding. This is a successful technique to increase the populations of rare and endangered species of animals. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Human activities like harvesting or timber collection of minor forest products and private ownership rights are allowed. Hence statement 2 is correct.The examples are:1. Periyar (Kerala)2. Ranipur (Uttar Pradesh)3. Chilka Lake (Orissa)4. Sariska (Rajasthan).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 47

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 47
  • Measuring the diversity of a species generally incorporates estimates of "richness". Also referred to as alpha-diversity, species richness is a common way of measuring biodiversity and involves counting the number of individuals - or even families - in a given area. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • At the ecosystem-level, measures of biodiversity are often used to compare two ecosystems or to determine changes over time in a given region. Describing changes in biodiversity within or between ecosystems is called beta-diversity. Measures of beta-diversity indicate the difference in species richness between two different habitats or within a single community at different points in time. The resulting number indicates to researchers whether there is any overlap in the species found in each group. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Gamma-diversity, on the other hand, estimates the total biodiversity within an entire region. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 48

With reference to the radioactive pollution, consider the following statements:

1. Radioactive wastes can be in gaseous, liquid, or solid form and can vary in their level of radioactivity.

2. Radioactive wastes can remain radioactive for a few hours to hundreds of thousands of years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 48
  • Radioactive Pollution
    • Radioactive wastes are generated during various operations of the nuclear fuel cycle. Mining, nuclear power generation, and various processes in industry, defence, medicine and scientific research produce by-products that include radioactive wastes. They cause Radioactive Pollution and expose people living nearby to radiation hazards.
    • Radioactive waste can be in gas, liquid or solid form, and its level of radioactivity can vary. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The waste can remain radioactive for a few hours or several months or even hundreds of thousands of years. Depending on the level and nature of radioactivity, radioactive wastes can be classified as exempt waste, Low & Intermediate level waste and High-Level Waste. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 49

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘spring shock’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 49
  • Acidification of a water body is a phenomenon where there is a decrease in the pH level of the water body which is harmful to the biodiversity residing in it. Ocean acidification refers to a reduction in the pH of the ocean over an extended period of time, caused primarily by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.
  • A sudden increase in the level of acidity of surface waters (lakes, streams, and rivers) in mid‐ latitude areas, caused by the melting in spring of snow that has accumulated through the winter, and stored dry fallout of acidic precipitation is called spring shock. An acid shock can cause significant damage to freshwater species and habitats. Also known as the acid surge.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 50

Which of the following regulatory bodies in India is responsible for formulating standards and guidelines to control noise pollution?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 50
  • Regulations for Noise Pollution
    • The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has laid down the permissible noise levels in India for different areas. Noise pollution rules have defined the acceptable level of noise in different zones for both daytime and night time.
    • In industrial areas, the permissible limit is 75 dB for daytime and 70 dB at night.
    • In commercial areas, it is 65 dB and 55 dB, while in residential areas it is 55 dB and 45 dBduring daytime and night respectively.
    • Additionally, state governments have declared ‘silent zones’ which includes areas that lie within 100 meters of the premises of schools, colleges, hospitals and courts. The permissible noise limit in this zone is 50 dB during the day and 40 dB during the night.
    • Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 51

Consider the following statements about photochemical smog:

1. It is an oxidizing smog.

2. It is made up of secondary pollutants like ozone.

3. It can be formed even in the absence of sunlight.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 51
  • Smog is a combination of smoke and fog (smoky fog) caused by the burning of large amounts of coal, vehicular emission, and industrial fumes. It usually contains particulates like smoke, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, and other components.
  • At least two distinct types of smog are recognized: Sulfurous smog and Photochemical Smog.
    • The Sulfurous smog or “London smog,” results from a high concentration of sulfur oxides in the air caused by the use of sulfur-bearing fossil fuels, particularly coal (Coal was the mains source of power in London during the 19th century, the effects of which started becoming evident in the early twentieth century).
    • The Photochemical smog or “Los Angeles smog”
      • It is sometimes called Oxidizing smog as it contains high concentrations of oxidizing agents like Ozone, HNO3 whereas Classical Smog is called Reducing as it contains high concentrations of sulphur dioxide, which is a reducing agent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
      • It occurs most prominently in urban areas with anthropogenic air pollutants, including ozone, nitric acid, and organic compounds. Such pollutants are the large numbers of automobiles. These are "Secondary pollutants" which occur as a result of the reaction between primary pollutants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
      • Primary pollutants: It is any pollutant emitted directly from a source]
      • It is caused by the action of solar ultraviolet radiation on polluted air. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 52

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 52
  • Recently, The sea phase of bilateral exercise 'Al Mohed Al Hindi 23', between the Indian Navy and Royal Saudi Naval Force (RSNF) was held from 23 - 25 May 23 off Al Jubail, Saudi Arabia. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
  • The fourth edition of the Indo-Indonesia bilateral Exercise Samudra Shakti-23 concluded in the South China Sea in May 2023. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • The 4th edition of a joint military exercise, “Ex Dharma Guardian ”, between India and Japan was conducted at Camp Imazu in Shiga province, Japan in February 2023. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 53

With reference to Dhruv advanced light helicopter, consider the following statements:

1. It is designed and developed indigenously by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

2. It is capable of operating in all-weather conditions.

3. It is certified for both civil and military roles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 53
  • After a spate of helicopter crashes in recent times, a government regulatory body has called for a safety upgrade of the Dhruv Helicopter. 
  • The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited's (HAL) indigenously designed and developed Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH-DHRUV) is a twin-engine, multi-role, multi-mission new generation helicopter in the 5.5-ton weight class. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Features of Dhruv:
    • Capable of operating in all weather conditions with a high degree of reliability & survivability. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • Powered with twin Shakti engines for exceptional high-altitude performance.
      • Twin Shakti engines are 12 % Higher power than TM 333 2B2 engines; have dual centrifugal compressor assembly and single crystal blades.
    • Equipped with glass cockpit and advanced avionics for enhanced mission effectiveness including night flying capability.
    • Dhruv is incorporated with state of art technologies such as Hingeless Interchangeable Main Rotor Blades, Bearingless Tail Rotor Blades, Anti resonance vibration isolation system,s and redundancies built in for critical systems.
    • Dhruv is an ideal platform for operating at various altitudes from sea level to high altitudes of the Himalayas as well as in Desert and saline atmospheric conditions at extreme temperature ranges.
    • Dhruv has evolved from basic utility version to a weaponized platform called Rudra in the 5.8-ton class with the fitment of Mission and Weapon systems.
    • Weapon fitted on Rudra comprises of 20 mm Turret Gun, 70 mm Rocket, Air to Air Missile, and Anti-Tank Guided Missiles.
    • It is incorporated with other systems such as Digital Moving Map On Board Inert Gas Generation System etc.,
  • It is a multi-role, multi-mission new generation helicopter certified for both civil and military roles. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 54

In the context of sustainable development, consider the following statements regarding the Malthusian theory of population:

1. It states that while the human population grows in a geometric progression, subsistence can only grow in an arithmetic progression.

2. The theory was proposed for the first time in the Limits to Growth report by the Club of Rome in 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 54
  • Thomas Robert Malthus was an influential British economist who is best known for his theory on population growth, outlined in his 1798 book ‘An Essay on the Principle of Population’.
  • In it, Malthus argued that populations inevitably expand until they outgrow their available food supply, causing the population growth to be reversed by disease, famine, war, or calamity. He states that while the human population grows in a geometric progression, subsistence can only grow in an arithmetic progression. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • ‘Limits to Growth’ was published was commission by the Club of Rome. Published 1972 – The message of this book still holds today: The earth’s interlocking resources – the global system of nature in which we all live – probably cannot support present rates of economic and population growth much beyond the year 2100, if that long, even with advanced technology. An international team of researchers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology began a study of the implications of continued worldwide growth. They examined the five basic factors that determine and, in their interactions, ultimately limit growth on this planet-population increase, agricultural production, nonrenewable resource depletion, industrial output, and pollution generation. The Malthusian theory was developed in the 19th century. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 55

Regarding the types of Parliamentary forms of Government, consider the following statements:

1. In the Westminster, the executive branch is formed by the political party or coalition that holds the majority of seats in the parliament.

2. The semi-presidential system combines elements of both parliamentary and presidential systems.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 55
  • Statement 1 is correct: In the Westminster, the executive branch is formed by the political party or coalition that holds the majority of seats in the parliament.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The semipresidential system combines elements of both parliamentary and presidential systems. France, Russia, and South Korea are examples of countries with a semipresidential system.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 56

Match the following:

1. Indian Councils Act of 1909 - Increased the size of the (Central and provincial) legislative councils 

2. Charter Act of 1793 - System of double government

3. Pitt’s India Act of 1784 - Extension of Powers to Governor-General

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 56
  • Pair 1 is correct: Indian Councils Act of 1909 - Increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Charter Act of 1793 - Extension of Powers to Governor-General
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Pitt’s India Act of 1784 - established a system of double government.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 57

With reference to provision of ‘Dual Citizenship’ in India, consider the following statements:

1. It is mandatory for all Indian passport holders to surrender their last Indian passport immediately after acquisition of foreign nationality.

2. It is an offence for foreign nationals to hold Indian passports under the Citizenship Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 57

Citizenship

  • Indian Citizenship Act does not provide for dual citizenship.
  • As per the Passport Act, it is mandatory for all Indian passport holders to surrender their last Indian passport to the Consulate immediately after acquisition of foreign nationality.
  • It is an offence under the Citizenship Act and the Passports Act for foreign nationals to hold Indian passports.
  • Once Indian passport is surrendered, The Embassy of India, The Hague will cancel and return it to the Passport holder along with Renunciation/Surrender certifi cate.
  • The Embassy will not be in a position to render services like OCI, Visa etc. until Renunciation Certifi cate is submitted.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 58

Consider the following statements regarding the making of Indian Constitution:

1. Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the first Indian to join Viceroy Executive Council under Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.

2. Montagu-Chelmsford reforms for the first time authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 58

Making of Indian Constitution

  • The Act of 1861 was important in the constitutional history because it enabled the Governor-General to associate the people of the land with work of legislation. And by vesting legislative powers in the Governments of Bombay and Madras which ultimately culminated in grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in the 1937.
  • However, the legislative councils were merely talk shops with no power to criticize the administration or ask for some information.
  • Their scope was fixed in legislation purpose alone; they had no right to move some kind of vote of no confid ence. Further, there was no statutory / specific provision for the nomination of Indians.
  • This nomination power of the Viceroy could be used only to placate the princes who could help the British to keep their stronghold.
  • Further, the ordinance making power of the Governor General allowed him to make laws it his own whim. In summary, the Indian Councils Act 1861 failed to satisfy the aspirations of the people of India.
  • Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the first Indian to join viceroy executive council under Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.
  • Montagu-Chelmsford reforms for the first time authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 59

Consider the following:

1. Public Service Commissions

2. Federal Scheme

3. Emergency Powers

4. Co-operative Societies

5. Three-tier Government

How many of the above are the administrative sources of the Indian Constitution are drawn from the Government of India Act, 1935?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 59

Option (a) is correct: The Federal Scheme, Judiciary, Governors, Emergency Powers, the Public Service Commissions and most of the administrative details are drawn from this Act.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 60

Consider the following statements:

1. Citizenship act 1955 provides for acquisition and determination of Indian citizenship.

2. For acquiring Indian citizenship, he/she has to be resided in India throughout the period of twelve months immediately before making an application for registration.

3. A person migrated from Bangladesh, who is not registered under the voter’s list of the area, is not eligible to acquire the Indian citizenship.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 60
  • Statement 1 is correct:  Citizenship Act, 1955 was enacted to provide for the acquisition and determination of Indian citizenship.
  • Statement 2 is correct: For the purposes of acquisition of citizenship via registration in India an applicant shall be deemed to be ordinarily resident in India if―
    • He has resided in India throughout the period of twelve months immediately before making an application for registration; and
    • He has resided in India during the eight years immediately preceding the said period of twelve months for a period of not less than six years.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Subject to the provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955, and such other conditions and restrictions as may be prescribed, the Central Government may register as a citizen of India if he/she is not being an illegal migrant who is not already such citizen by virtue of the Constitution.
  • Hence, a person migrated from Bangladesh without being registered in the voter list of that area is considered as illegal migrant.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 61

With respect to the Indian Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements:

1. The members were elected through indirect elections by the provincial assemblies.

2. The Constituent Assembly aimed to ensure the participation of all sections of society.

3. The Assembly failed to establish a quasifederal structure.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 61
  • Statement 1 is correct: The members were elected through indirect elections by the provincial assemblies.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Constituent Assembly aimed to ensure the participation of all sections of society.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Assembly aimed to establish a balance between a strong central government and the autonomy of states, resulting in a quasifederal structure.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 62

The Indian Constituent Assembly played a pivotal role in shaping the Constitution of India. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

2. Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.

3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect regarding member of drafting committee?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 62
  • Statement 1 is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 63

Consider the following:

1. Right to freedom of Speech and Expression

2. Right to Life

3. Right to freedom of Religion

4. Cultural and Educational Rights

How many of the following Fundamental Rights are not enjoyed by the aliens?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 63

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 64

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 64
  • Pair 1 is incorrect: Japanese Constitution - Procedure established by Law
  • Pair 2 is correct: French Constitution - Ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity
  • Pair 3 is correct: Australian Constitution - joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
  • Pair 4 is incorrect: Russia Constitution - Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and political)
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 65

The amendment added three new words, “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity,” to the Preamble of Indian constitution under which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 65
  • Option (b) is correct: The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 added three new words, “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity,” to the Preamble.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 66

Consider the following statements:

1. Renunciation of citizenship can be rejected by the central government while Indian is at war.

2. The Central government can deprive a person of his/her citizenship for any fraud committed outside the territory of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 3 - Question 66