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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 1

The lowest amount of water in the soil that a plant requires to maintain its turgidity is known as:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 1
  • Permanent wilting point (PWP) or wilting point (WP) is defined as the minimum amount of water in the soil that the plant requires not to wilt. If the soil water content decreases to this or any lower point a plant wilts and can no longer recover its turgidity when placed in a saturated atmosphere for 12 hours. Turgidity is the state of being turgid or swollen, especially due to high fluid content. Turgidity is essential in plant cells to make them keep standing upright. Plant cells that lose much water have less turgor pressure and tend to become flaccid.
  • The matric potential at this soil moisture condition is commonly estimated at -15 bar. Most agricultural plants will generally show signs of wilting long before this moisture potential or water content is reached (more typically at around -2 to -5 bars) because the rate of water movement to the roots decreases and the stomata tend to lose their turgor pressure and begin to restrict transpiration.
  • This water is strongly retained and trapped in the smaller pores and does not readily flow. The volumetric soil moisture content at the wilting point will have dropped to around 5 to 10% for sandy soils, 10 to 15% in loam soils, and 15 to 20% in clay soils.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding Koraput Kala Jeera Rice.

  1. It is the black-coloured rice variety known for its aroma, texture and nutritional value.
  2. It is mainly grown in controlled environment with monitored sunlight and moisture.
  3. The rice grains resemble cumin seeds.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 2

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Koraput Kala Jeera Rice

  • The black-coloured rice variety, also known as the ‘Prince of Rice’, is famous for its aroma, taste, texture and nutritional value. Tribal farmers of the Koraput region have preserved the rice variety for around 1,000 years. As the rice grains resemble cumin seeds, it is also called Kala Jeera. Consumption of the rice variety helps in increasing haemoglobin levels and improves metabolism in the body.
  • The farmers and producers of Koraput Kala Jeera rice have followed the traditional knowledge and practices in cultivation. Ancient tales also speak about the physical, mental and spiritual delights resulting from the consumption of the rice variety.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding Square Kilometer Array.

  1. Square Kilometer Array is a single large telescope.
  2. Some of the SKA Square Kilometer Array facilities would be located in India.
  3. The intellectual properties generated by the project would be accessible to all the member countries.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 3

Only Statement 3 is correct.

  • The Square Kilometer Array will not be a single large telescope, but a collection of thousands of dish antennas operating as a single unit. The name, Square Kilometer Array, comes from the original intention to create one square kilometre (one million square metre) of effective area for collecting radio waves. This was meant to be achieved by installing thousands of smaller antennas in a specific array design that would make them function like a single radio telescope.
  • The antennas, about 200 of them in South Africa and more than 130,000 in Australia, are being installed in sparsely populated locations, chosen to ensure they are as far away from human activities as possible. This has been done in order to minimise signal interference from undesirable Earth-based sources.
  • Though none of the SKA facilities would be located in India, there are immense science and technology gains for the country by participating in the project as a full member.
  • The intellectual properties generated by the project, though owned by the SKA Observatory, would be accessible to all the member countries. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

The State of the World’s Forests Report is released by 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 4

According to the latest report on “The State of the World’s Forests” by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations (FAO), forests cover 31% of the Earth’s land surface (4.06 billion hectares) out of which approximately one-third (34%) are primary forests.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 5

Consider the following statements.

  1. India has decided to build a gravitational wave detector to join the international LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory) network.
  2. India is a full member of the ITER project, which is working to harness energy from nuclear fusion reactions.
  3. India has a strong participation in the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 5

India has already decided to build a gravitational wave detector to join the international LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory) network, and is a full member of the ITER project, which is working to harness energy from nuclear fusion reactions. India also has a strong participation in the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator that is running some of the most exciting experiments in particle physics.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

The Tarapore Committee constituted by the Reserve Bank of India, was 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 6

The Committee on Capital Account Convertibility (CAC) or Tarapore Committee was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India for suggesting a roadmap on full convertibility of Rupee on Capital Account. 

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding bases:

1. Bases often have a bitter taste.

2. Bases turn red litmus paper blue.

3. All bases are insouble in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 7
  • Bases are a class of chemical substances that exhibit certain characteristic properties.
    • Taste and Feel:
      • Bases often have a bitter taste. Hence statement 1 is correct.
      • Many bases have a slippery or soapy feel when touched.
      • This is especially noticeable with concentrated solutions.
    • pH:
      • Bases have pH values greater than 7 on the pH scale.
      • The pH scale is a measure of the acidity or basicity of a solution, with 7 being neutral, values below 7 indicating acidity, and values above 7 indicating alkalinity (basicity).
    • Turns Litmus Paper Blue:
      • Bases turn red litmus paper blue. Hence statement 2 is correct.
      • Litmus paper is a commonly used indicator that changes color depending on whether a substance is acidic or basic.
    • Electrolyte Properties:
      • Bases typically dissociate or ionize in water to produce hydroxide ions (OH⁻).
      • This makes them electrolytes, as they conduct electricity in solution.
    • Reaction with Acids:
      • Bases react with acids in a chemical reaction known as neutralization.
      • In this reaction, a base and an acid combine to form water and a salt.
    • Feeling of Coolness:
      • Some dilute bases give a cooling sensation when applied to the skin.
      • This property is commonly observed with substances like antacids.
    • Solubility:
      • Many bases are soluble in water, forming aqueous solutions. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
      • However, some bases, especially those containing heavy metal cations, may be less soluble.
    • Corrosive Properties:
      • Concentrated bases can be corrosive and may cause damage to living tissues.
      • Caution is necessary when handling strong bases.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 8

What is the primary application of electrochemical machining (ECM) in industry?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 8
  • Electrochemical Machining (ECM) is a non-traditional machining process that involves the controlled removal of metal from a workpiece through the process of electrochemical dissolution. The primary application of ECM in the industry is removing metal from surfaces through controlled dissolution.
  • In ECM, a conductive workpiece (anode) and a tool (cathode) are immersed in an electrolyte solution. When a voltage is applied between the workpiece and the tool, metal ions from the workpiece are selectively dissolved into the electrolyte, leading to the removal of material from the workpiece surface.
  • ECM is particularly effective for machining complex shapes, intricate patterns, and areas that are difficult to reach with traditional machining methods.
  • It is a precise and efficient process that allows for the machining of high-strength and heat-resistant materials.
  • ECM is often used in the aerospace, medical, and automotive industries for applications such as turbine blade machining, the production of complex molds, and the creation of intricate components.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 9

Arrange the melting points of the following metals in decreasing order:

1. Tungsten

2. Titanium

3. Gold

4. Zinc

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 9

The melting point of a metal is the temperature at which it changes from a solid to a liquid state. Here's a brief overview of the melting points of some common metals.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding a catalyst in chemical reactions:

1. A catalyst is a substance that gets completely consumed in a reaction and increases the rate of the reaction.

2. Platinum is commonly used as a catalyst in chemical reactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 10
  • A catalyst is a substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction by providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy, without itself undergoing any permanent change or being consumed in the reaction. o In other words, a catalyst increases the reaction rate by lowering the energy barrier (activation energy) for the reaction to occur, facilitating the conversion of reactants into products.
  • Key points about catalysts:
    • Speeding up Reactions: Catalysts accelerate the rate of chemical reactions by providing an alternative reaction pathway that requires less energy for the formation of products.
    • Remains Unchanged: A catalyst is not consumed in the reaction, and at the end of the reaction, it is regenerated and can be used again in subsequent reactions. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • Specific to Reactions: Catalysts are specific to particular reactions or types of reactions. They do not alter the equilibrium position of a reaction but influence the kinetics, making the reaction proceed faster.
    • Not a Reactant or Product: A catalyst is not a reactant, and it does not appear in the stoichiometry of the balanced chemical equation for the reaction. It is not a part of the final products formed.
    • Can be Homogeneous or Heterogeneous: Catalysts can be in the same phase as the reactants (homogeneous catalysis) or in a different phase (heterogeneous catalysis).
  • Examples: Common catalysts include transition metals (such as platinum, palladium, and nickel), enzymes in biological systems, acid or base catalysts, and various solid materials with catalytic properties.
  • Platinum is indeed a commonly used catalyst in various chemical reactions, particularly in heterogeneous catalysis where the catalyst is in a different phase from the reactants. Platinum's catalytic properties are utilized in reactions such as hydrogenation and dehydrogenation reactions in the chemical industry. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 11

In the context of astronomy, what is the phenomenon of gravitational lensing?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 11
  • Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon in which the gravitational field of a massive object, such as a galaxy or a black hole, bends the light coming from a more distant object behind it. This bending of light is a consequence of Einstein's theory of General Relativity.
  • When a massive object, like a galaxy or a black hole, is situated between a distant light source (e.g., another galaxy or a quasar) and an observer, its gravitational field acts as a lens.
  • The massive object's gravitational field warps the spacetime around it. As light travels through this curved spacetime, it bends, following the curvature caused by the massive object's gravity.
  • Depending on the alignment of the observer, the massive object, and the distant light source, gravitational lensing can result in multiple images of the background object. These images may appear as distorted arcs, rings, or even multiple copies of the same object.
  • Gravitational lensing has been observed and confirmed through various astronomical observations. One famous example is the gravitational lensing effect around massive galaxy clusters, where the lensing can magnify and distort background galaxies.
  • In some cases, individual stars within a galaxy can act as gravitational lenses. This phenomenon, known as microlensing, can be used to detect objects like exoplanets, which might otherwise be challenging to observe directly.
  • Gravitational lensing provides a powerful tool for astronomers to study the distribution of mass in the universe, including dark matter, and to investigate distant objects that might otherwise be too faint or distant to observe directly.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 12

Consider the following statements with respect to viruses:

1. A virus cannot reproduce by itself and needs to enter an organism for its reproduction.

2. The genetic material inside the virus consists of RNA only.

3. A virus which infects and replicates within a bacteria is called a viroid.

4. The diseases of Herpes and Hepatitis are caused by viruses.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 12
  • Viruses are non-living and made up of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat. They can replicate. However, they cannot reproduce on their own. They reproduce when inside a living cell. Therefore viruses pose a special classification problem. Viruses are extremely small and can be seen only under the electron microscope. They are smaller than the smallest bacteria. They can pass through fiters which retain bacteria.
  • Virus has a simple structure consisting of a core and a cover. The core particle is the genetic material, either DNA or RNA. The cover is a protein coat called capsid. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • A virus cannot reproduce by itself. For its reproduction it needs to enter the cell of some organism. From the host cell, it uses the raw material and enzymes and energy generating machinery of the host cell to produce its own DNA. A number of virus particles are thus formed inside the host cell. The host cell bursts to release the new virus particles. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • Viruses are known to attack bacteria, plants or animals. Viruses which invade bacteria are called bacteriophages. Viruses are highly specific in their relationship with the host and tissue.
    • Viroids are circular RNA molecules, consisting of several hundred nucleotides. They infect plants and even kill them. In plants, they use enzymes of the plant cells to replicate like the viruses do. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Viruses are responsible for causing many diseases, including:
    • AIDS, Common cold, Ebola, Herpes, Influenza, Measles, Chickenpox and shingles, Coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19), Hepatits, Small Pox, Dengue etc. Antibiotics designed for bacteria have no effect on viruses. Hence statement 4 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 13

Which one of the following statements best describes the purpose of 'Site Directed Nuclease (SDN)'?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 13
  • SDN or sequence specific nuclease (SSN) refers to the practice of cleaving DNA strands to affect the subsequent genome editing. SDN technology takes advantage of targeted DNA break and host’s natural repair mechanisms to introduce specific small changes at the site of the DNA break.
  • The basis of current targeted genome editing applications is the capacity to induce a DNA double strand break (DSB) at a selected location in the genome where the modification is intended. Directed repair of the DSB allows for targeted genome editing. Such applications can be applied to generate mutations (targeted mutations or precise native gene editing) as well as precise insertion of genes (cisgenes, intragenes, or transgenes).
  • Different approaches can be used to achieve targeted DNA breaks, including Meganucleases (MN), Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs), Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases (TALENs) and the Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR)-associated proteins (CRISPR/Cas) etc. Collectively, these are often discussed under the acronym site directed nucleases (SDNs), pointing out to the general principle of the technology to use a DNA cutting enzyme (nuclease) for the generation of the targeted (or site directed) DNA break. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • Variants of SDN applications are often categorized as SDN-1, SDN-2 and SDN-3 depending on the outcome of the DNA double strand break repair.
    • SDN-1: When the SDN is used in the absence of a DNA repair template (see SDN-2/-3), the outcome is a targeted, non-specific genetic deletion mutation. In this case, the position of the DNA DSB is precisely selected, but the DNA repair by the host cell is random and results in small nucleotide deletions, additions or substitutions. 
    • SDN-2: Is used to generate gene editing mutations. In this case, a SDN is used to generate a targeted DSB and a DNA repair template (a short DNA sequence identical to the targeted DSB DNA sequence except for one or a few nucleotide changes) is used to repair the DSB. The outcome is a targeted and predetermined point mutation in the desired gene of interest.
    • SDN-3: When the SDN is used along with a DNA repair template that contains new DNA sequence (e.g.gene), the outcome of the technology would be the integration of that DNA sequence into the plant genome. The most likely application illustrating the use of SDN-3 would be the insertion of cisgenic, intragenic, or transgenic expression cassettes at a selected genome location.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 14

Consider the following statements with respect to plant physiology:

1. C3 plants are twice as efficient as C4 plants in terms of fixing carbon.

2. The direction of movement in the xylem is always unidirectional.

3. Mycorrhizae represent a symbiotic association of rhizobacteria and plant roots.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 14
  • An actively photosynthesizing plant has an insatiable need for water. Photosynthesis is limited by available water which can be swiftly depleted by transpiration. The humidity of rainforests is largely due to this vast cycling of water from root to leaf to the atmosphere and back to the soil. The evolution of the C4 photosynthetic system is probably one of the strategies for maximizing the availability of CO2 while minimizing water loss. C4 plants are twice as efficient as C3 plants in terms of fixing carbon (making sugar). However, a C4 plant loses only half as much water as a C3 plant for the same amount of CO2 fixed. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Food, primarily sucrose, is transported by the vascular tissue phloem from a source to a sink. Sugar stored in roots may be mobilized to become a source of food in the early spring when the buds of trees, act as a sink; they need energy for growth and development of the photosynthetic apparatus. Since the source-sink relationship is variable, the direction of movement in the phloem can be upwards or downwards, i.e., bi-directional. This contrasts with that of the xylem where the movement is always unidirectional, i.e., upwards. Hence, unlike the one-way flow of water in transpiration, food in phloem sap can be transported in any required direction so long as there is a source of sugar and a sink able to use, store, or remove the sugar. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Mycorrhizae are a symbiotic association between plant roots and fungi. The fungal filaments form a network around the young root or they penetrate the root cells. The hyphae have a very large surface area that absorbs mineral ions and water from the soil a much larger volume of soil that perhaps a root cannot do. The fungus provides minerals and water to the roots, in turn, the roots provide sugars and Ncontaining compounds to the mycorrhizae. Some plants have an obligate association with the mycorrhizae. For example, Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the presence of mycorrhizae. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to Project Cheetah:

1. Project Cheetah has led to translocation of 20 cheetahs from the countries of Sahel Region of Africa in Kuno National Park.

2. It has been implemented by National Tiger conservation authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 15
  • Recent Context: A Namibian cheetah gave birth increasing the population amid deaths of Cheetahs at Kuno National Park.
  • Project Cheetah, India's ambitious attempt to introduce African cheetahs in the wild in the country was launched in September 2022.
    • The cheetah was declared extinct in India by 1952, the only large carnivore species that went extinct in Independent India. So, its objective was to establish viable cheetah metapopulation in India that allows cheetahs to perform its functional role as top predator.
  • Under Project Cheetah, a total of 20 animals were relocated from Namibia and South Africa to Kuno National Park (KNP) in two batches under the government's Project Cheetah. The first batch came in September 2022 and the second in February 2023. As of now, 13 of the original 20 are alive. 20 Cheetah were translocated from Namibia and South Africa. Whereas, Sahel region is defined as the North-Central African semi-arid region between the Sahara Desert and savanna regions. It includes the countries of Burkina Faso, Cameroon, Chad, The Gambia, Guinea Mauritania, Mali, Niger, Nigeria and Senegal. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Out of 6 criteria for assessing short-term success, the project has already met four criteria namely:50% survival of introduced cheetahs, Establishment of home ranges, Birth of cubs in Kuno, and Revenue to local communities.
  • Implementing Agency of Project Cheetah is National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Funding of project Cheetah is from Project Tiger as well as Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authority (CAMPA).
  • Cheetah is protected under Appendix 1 of CITES. The IUCN status of African cheetah is Vulnerable and Asiatic cheetah is Critically endangered. Till now, there were 15 cheetahs at KNP and the tally now stands at 18.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 16

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 16

A famous Tamil epic, Silappadikaram, was composed by a poet named Ilango, around 1,800 years ago. It is the story of a merchant named Kovalan, who lived in Puhar and fell in love with a courtesan named Madhavi, neglecting his wife Kannagi. Later, he and Kannagi left Puhar and went to Madurai, where he was wrongly accused of theft by the court jeweller of the Pandya king. The king sentenced Kovalan to death. Kannagi, who still loved him, was full of grief and anger at this injustice, and destroyed the entire city of Madurai.
The Manimekalai was composed by Sattanar around 1,400 years ago. This describes the story of the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi.
Kalidasa’s best-known poem, the ‘Meghaduta’, in which a monsoon cloud is imagined to be a messenger between the lovers who are separated from one another. Ayurveda is a well-known system of health science that was developed in ancient India. The two famous practitioners of Ayurveda in ancient India were Charak (lst-2nd centuries CE) and Sushruta (c. 4th century CE). Charak Samhita, written by Charak, is a remarkable book on medicine.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 17

In ancient India, the term "Shamans" referred to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 17

Shamans are men and women who claimed magical and healing powers, as well as an ability to communicate with the other world.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

1. The early Buddhist teachings had given great importance to self-effort in achieving Nibbana.

2. The supporters of Mahayana regarded other Buddhists as the followers of Hinayana.

3. The worship of the images of the Buddha and the Bodhisattas became an important part of the Mahayana tradition.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 18

The early Buddhist teachings had given great importance to self-effort in achieving Nibbana. Besides, the Buddha was regarded as a human being who attained enlightenment and Nibbana through his own efforts. The concept of the Bodhisatta also developed. The Bodhisattas were perceived as deeply compassionate beings, who accumulated merit through their efforts, but used this not to attain Nibbana and thereby abandon the world, but to help others. The worship of the images of the Buddha and the Bodhisattas became an important part of this tradition. This new way of thinking was called Mahayana -literally, the “great vehicle”. Those who adopted these beliefs described the older tradition as Hinayana or the “lesser vehicle”.

The followers of the older tradition described themselves as the Theravadins, that is, those who followed the path of old, respected teachers, the Theras.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 19

Consider the following statements with reference to the administration during the Mauryan period:

1. Pradeshta, Rajuka and Yukta were the officers at the district level.

2. Gopa and Sthanika acted as the intermediaries between the district and the village level administrative units.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 19

About the Mauryan Period: Gopa and two types of officers, acted as the .intermediaries between the district and the village level administrative units.
The administrative units included a set up at the district level, consisting of a number of villages and, at the same time, each village had its own administrative unit. The officials listed at the level of district during this period were Pradeshta, Rajuka and Yukta, the former being the overall in charge of the district.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 20

With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. The Sudarshan Lake was constructed during the reign of the Saka ruler Rudradaman.

2. An inscription written in Pali has described about the lake.

3. The lake was once repaired during the period of the Gupta rulers.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 20

The Sudarshan Lake was an artificial reservoir. We know about it from a rock inscription (c. second century CE) in Sanskrit, composed to record the achievements of the Saka ruler Rudradaman. The inscription mentions that the lake, with embankments and water channels, was built by a local Governor during the rule of the Mauryas. However, a terrible storm broke the embankments and water gushed out of the lake. Rudradaman, who was then ruling in the area, claimed to have got the lake repaired using his own resources, without imposing any tax on his subjects. Another inscription on the same rock (c. fifth century) mentions how one of the rulers of the Gupta dynasty got the lake repaired once again.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 21

With reference to ancient India, which of the following were the contemporary towns of Pataliputra during the period of the Mahaj anapadas?

1. Shravasti

2. Ujjayani

3. Puhar

4. Bagh

5. Shishupalgarh

How many of the cities given above is/are the contemporary towns of Pataliputra?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 21

Except Bagh, all the cities were contemporary to the city of Pataliputra during the period of the Mahajanapadas. Bagh in Madhya Pradesh is known for the Gupta period caves.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 22

Witl^ reference to the ancient Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. Kodumanal town of Tamil Nadu was well known for bead-making industry.

2. Tortoise shells, sapphires, silk cloth and diamonds were exported from the Malabar coast.

3. Major trade between India and the Roman empire was through the Persian Gulf.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 22

Here is an excerpt from Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, composed by an anonymous Greek sailor (c. first century CE): ‘They (i.e., the traders from abroad) send large ships to the Indian markettowns on account of the great quantity and bulk of pepper and Malabathrum (possibly cinnamon, produced in these regions). There are imported here, in the first place, a great quantity of coin; topaz … antimony (a mineral used as a colouring substance), coral, crude glass, copper, tin, lead … There is exported pepper, which is produced in quantity in only one region near these markets … Besides this there are exported great quantities of fine pearls, ivory, silk cloth, … transparent stones of all kinds, diamonds and sapphires, and tortoise shells.’ Archaeological evidence of a bead-making industry, using precious and semi-precious stones, has been found in Kodumanal (Tamil Nadu). It is likely that the local traders brought the stones mentioned in the Periplus from sites, such as these to the coastal ports. Majority of the sea trade share between India and the Roman empire was through the Red Sea or the Erythraean Sea.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

1. The inscription at Mandagapattu mentions Rajendra I with numerous titles, such as Vichitrachitta and Chitrakarapuli.

2. The Tirumalaipuram caves and the Jaina caves at Sittanvasal were patronized by the Pandyas.

3. The temple of Darasuram in Tamil Nadu was built during the reign of Rajaraja Chola.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 23
  • The Pallava kings, who succeeded the Chalukya kings in parts of South India, were also the patrons of art. Mahendravarma I, who ruled in the seventh century, was responsible for building temples at Panamalai, Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram. The inscription at Mandagapattu mentions Mahendravarman I with numerous titles, such as Vichitrachitta (curious-minded), Chitrakarapuli (tiger among artists) and Chaityakari (temple builder), which show his interest in art activities.
  • The paintings in these temples too were done at his initiative, though only fragments remain. When the Pandyas came to power, they too patronized art. The Tirumalaipuram caves and the Jaina caves at Sittanvasal are some of the surviving examples.
  • A few fragmented layers of paintings can be seen in Tirumalaipuram. In Sittanavasal, the paintings are visible on the ceilings of the shrines, in the verandas, and on the brackets. The tradition of building temples and embellishing them with carvings and paintings continued during the reign of the Chola kings, who ruled over the region from the ninth century to the thirteenth century. But it was in the eleventh century, when the Cholas reached their zenith of power, that masterpieces of the Chola art and architecture began to appear.
  • The temples of Brihadeswara at Thanjavur, Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Darasuram in Tamil Nadu were built during the reigns of Rajaraja Chola, his son, Rajendra Chola and Rajaraja Chola II, respectively.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 24

Consider the following statements:

1. The Lakshmana temple of Khajuraho is dedicated to Shiva.

2. The temples at Khajuraho are primarily of the Buddhist origin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 24
  • The Lakshmana temple of Khajuraho, dedicated to Vishnu, was built in 954 by the Chandela king, Dhanga. A Nagara temple, it is placed on a high platform accessed by stairs. There are four smaller temples in the corners, and all the towers or the Shikharas rise high, upward in a curved pyramidal fashion, emphasizing the temple’s vertical thrust ending in a horizontal fluted disc, called an Amalak topped with a Kalash or vase.
  • Khajuraho’s temples are also known for their extensive erotic sculptures. The erotic expression is given equal importance in human experience as spiritual pursuit, and it is seen as part of a larger cosmic whole.
  • There are many temples at Khajuraho, most of them devoted to the Hindu gods. There are some Jain temples, as well as a Chausanth Yogini temple, which is of interest. Predating the tenth century, this is a temple of small, square shrines of roughly hewn granite blocks, each dedicated to the Devis or the goddesses associated with the rise of the Tantric worship after the seventh century.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 25

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 25
  • Sheshashayana is a form of Vishnu, where he is shown reclining on the Sheshanaga, called Ananta.
  • Nara-Narayan shows the discussion between the human soul and the eternal divine.
  • Gajendramoksha is the story of achieving Moksha, symbolically communicated by Vishnu’s suppression of an Asura, who had taken the form of an elephant.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the Sun temple at Modhera:

1. It was built by Raja Bhimdev I of the Chalukya dynasty.

2. Surya Kund is a massive rectangular stepped tank located at the front of the temple.

3. At the time of the summer solstice, the Sun shines directly into the central shrine of the temple.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 26
  • The Sun temple at dodhera dates back to the ^arly eleventh century and was built by Raja Bhimdev I of the Solanki dynasty.
  • There is a massive rectangular stepped tank, called the Surya Kund, in front of it. Proximity of sacred architecture to a water body, such as a tank, a river or a pond, has been noticed right from the earliest times. By the early eleventh century, they had become a part of many temples. This hundred-square-metre rectangular pond is perhaps the grandest temple tank in India.
  • The walls of the central small shrine are devoid of carving and are left plain, as the temple faces the east and, every year, at the time of the equinoxes, the Sun shines directly into this central shrine.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 27

With reference to the Kamakhya temple of Assam, consider the following statements:

1. It is built at the Nilachal hills in Guwahati and is famous for the Tantric practices.

2. It is the centre of the Kulachara Tantra Marga and the site of the Ambubachi Mela.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 27
  • By the; twelfth to the fourteenth centuries, a distinct regional style developed in Assam. The style that came with the migration of the Tais from Upper Burma, mixed with the dominant Pala style of Bengal, and led to the creation of what was later known as the Ahom style in and around Guwahati.
  • The Kamakhya temple, a Shakti Peeth, is dedicated to Goddess Kamakhya and was built in the seventeenth century. The Kamakhya temple at the Nilachal hills in Guwahati (Assam) is one of the oldest and the most revered centres of the Tantric practices, dedicated to the Goddess Kamakhya. The temple is the centre of the Kulachara Tantra Marga and the site of the Ambubachi Mela, an annual festival that celebrates the menstruation of the Goddess.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 28

“It is one of the greatest and most beautiful bazaars, called Tarababad and the marketplace for male and female singers. The shops are decorated with carpets and at the centre of the shop there is a swing on which sits the female singer. In the middle of the marketplace, there stands a large cupola, which is carpeted and decorated and in which the chief of the musicians takes his place every Thursday after the dawn prayers, accompanied by his servants and slaves.” The above statements reflect the features of the market of which one of the following cities of medieval India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 28
  • Ibn Battuta’s description of Daulatabad: In Daulatabad there is a marketplace for male and female singers, which is known as Tarababad. It is one of the greatest and most beautiful bazaars. It has numerous shops and every shop has a door which leads into the house of the owner.
  • The shops are decorated with carpets and at the centre of the shop there is a swing on which sits the female singer. She is decked with all kinds of finery and her female attendants swing her. In the middle of the market place, there stands a large cupola, which is carpeted and decorated and in which the chief of the musicians takes his place every Thursday after the dawn prayers, accompanied by his servants and slaves.
  • The female singers come in successive crowds, sing before him, and dance until dusk after which he withdraws. In this bazaar, there are mosques for offering prayer. One of the Hindu rulers alighted at the cupola every time he passed by this marketplace, and the female singers would sing before him. Even some Muslim rulers did the same.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 29

With reference to medieval India, Uluq and Dawa were well-known as

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 29

Ibn Battuta was amazed by the efficiency of the postal system. He describes the postal system: “In India, the postal system is of two kinds. The horse post, called Uluq, is run by the royal horses stationed at a distance of every four miles. The footpost has three stations per mile. It is called Dawa.”

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 30

With reference to an excerpt from Francois Bernier’s description of the landownership, consider the following statements:

1. According to him, one of the fundamental differences between Mughal India and Europe was the lack of private property in land in the former.

2. He was a firm believer in the virtues of private property and saw crown ownership of land as being harmful to both the state and its people.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 30
  • According to Francois Bernier (a Frenchman, who was a doctor, political philosopher and historian), one of the fundamental differences between Mughal India and Europe was the lack of private property in land in the former. He was a firm believer in the virtues of private property and saw crown ownership of land as being harmful for both the state and its people. He thought that in the Mughal Empire, the emperor owned all the land and distributed it among his nobles, and that this had disastrous consequences for the economy and the society.
  • This perception was not unique to Bernier, but is found in most travellers’ accounts of the sixteenth and the seventeenth centuries. Owing to crown ownership of land, argued Bernier, the landholders could not pass on their land to their children. So, they were averse to any long-term investment in the sustenance and expansion of production. The absence of private property in land had, therefore, prevented the emergence of the class of “improving” landlords (as in the Western Europe) with a concern to maintain or improve the land.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding currency convertibility in India:

1. India has full convertibility in its current account.

2. Individuals in India are allowed to invest an unlimited amount in foreign assets, shares, etc.

3. The S.S. Tarapore Committee's recommendations in 1997 led to full capital account convertibility in India.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 31
  • Statement 1 is correct: India achieved full convertibility in its current account on August 19, 1994. It means that the full amount of the foreign exchange required by someone for current purposes will be made available to him at the official exchange rate, and there could be an unprohibited outflow of foreign exchange.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Individuals in India are allowed to invest in foreign assets, shares, etc., but there is a limit of USD 2,50,000 per annum. It is not an unlimited amount. Indian corporations are allowed full convertibility in the automatic route of up to USD 500 million in overseas ventures.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: After the recommendations of the S.S. Tarapore Committee (1997) on Capital Account Convertibility, India has been moving in the direction of allowing full convertibility in this account, but with the required precautions. India is still a country of partial convertibility (40:60) in the capital account.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 32

Consider the following:

1. Exchange rate regulation

2. Purchasing short-term foreign currency liabilities of the member nations

3. Allotting special drawing rights (SDRs) to the member nations

How many of the above are the main functions of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 32

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) came up in 1944, and its articles came into force on December 27, 1945, with the main functions as:

  • The exchange rate regulation.
  • Purchasing short-term foreign currency liabilities of the member nations from around the world,
  • Allotting special drawing rights (SDRs) to the member nations
  • The bailout for the member economies in the event of any BoP crisis.
  • To facilitate international monetary cooperation, To promote exchange rate stability and orderly exchange arrangements,
  • To assist in the establishment of a multilateral system of payments and the elimination of foreign exchange restrictions;
  • To assist member countries by temporarily providing financial resources to correct maladjustment in their balance of payments (BoPs).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

1. Insurance penetration is the ratio of premium underwritten in a given year to the total population.

2. Insurance density is the ratio of premiums underwritten in a given year to the gross domestic product (GDP).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 33

The growth in the insurance sector is internationally measured based on the standard of insurance penetration.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Insurance penetration is defined as the ratio of premiums underwritten in a given year to the gross domestic product (GDP). It is one of the parameters used to assess the level of development of the insurance sector in a country. In 2021-22, insurance penetration in India stood at 4.2 per cent (life insurance penetration at 3.2 percent and general insurance, including health, at 1 percent). This is quite low when compared to other developed economies such as the US and Canada (11.4 per cent) and advanced Europe, Middle-east and African regions.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Insurance density is another well-recognised benchmark and is defined as the ratio of premiums underwritten in a given year to the total population (measured in US dollars for convenience of comparison). In India, insurance penetration has grown from 2.3 per cent (life 1.8 per cent and nonlife 0.7 per cent) in 2000 to 3.9 per cent (life 3.1 per cent and non-life 0.8 per cent) in 2013. In the comparable period, insurance density has improved from US$ 11 to US$ 52.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 34

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 34
  • Though the planned economic development in India began in 1951 with the inception of the First Five-Year Plan, theoretical efforts had begun much earlier, even prior to independence.
  • Pair 1 is correct: After the reports of the National Planning Committee (NPC) were published and the government was set to go for the Five-Year plans, a lone blueprint for the planned development of India was formulated by the famous socialist leader Jaiprakash Narayan— the Sarvodaya Plan published in January 1950. Central ideas of the plan were highly similar to the Gandhian Plan, like emphasis on agriculture, agro-based small and cottage industries, self-reliance and almost no dependence on foreign capital and technology, land reforms, self-dependent villages and decentralised participatory form of planning and economic progress, to name the major ones.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: Espousing the spirit of Gandhian economic thinking, Sriman Narayan Agarwal formulated this plan in 1944. This plan laid more emphasis on agriculture. Even if he referred to industrialisation, it was to the level of promoting cottage and village-level industries, unlike the NPC and the Bombay Plan, which supported a leading role for the heavy and large industries. The plan articulated a ‘decentralised economic structure’ for India with ‘self-contained villages’.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: In 1945, the Peoples Plan was formulated by the radical humanist leader M.N. Roy, chairman of the Post-War Reconstruction Committee of the Indian Trade Union. The plan was based on Marxist socialism and advocated the need to provide the people with the ‘basic necessities of life’.
  • Pair 4 is correct: Bombay Plan was the popular title of ‘A Plan of Economic Development for India’, which was prepared by a cross-section of India’s leading capitalists. The eight capitalists involved in this plan were Purshottamdas Thakurdas, J.R.D. Tata, G.D. Birla, Lala Sri Ram, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, A.D. Shroff, Ardeshir Dalal and John Mathai. The Plan was published in 1944— 45. Out of these eight industrialists, Purshottamdas Thakurdas was one among the 15 members of the National Planning Committee (1938) The remaining three J.R.D. Tata, G.D. Birla and Lala Sri Ram were the members of the sub-committees (29 in total) of the National Planning Committee.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 35

Extended Fund Facility (EFF) and Financial Transactions Plan (FTP) is often used in the context of which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 35

The terms Extended Fund Facility (EFF) and Financial Transactions Plan (FTP) are associated with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

  • Extended Fund Facility (EFF): The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a service provided by the IMF to its member countries which authorizes them to raise any amount of foreign exchange from it to fulfil their BoP crisis but on the conditions of structural reforms in the economy put by the body. It is the first agreement of its kind. India signed this agreement with the IMF in the financial year 1981– 82.
  • Financial Transactions Plan (FTP): It is the mechanism of the IMF through which it finances/repays its operations. Member nations contribute money to it from their 'quota resources’ on which they get 'interest'..
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 36

With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in the Insurance sector, consider the following statements:

1. The insurance sector was opened up for the private sector in 1982.

2. Currently foreign investment ceiling in the insurance sector is set at 49%.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 36
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The insurance sector was opened up for private sector in 2000 after the enactment of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (IRDA Act, 1999), which had increased the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit to 26% as the sector was facing a severe shortage of funds. The IRDAI was incorporated as a statutory body in April 2000. The key objectives of the IRDAI include the promotion of competition so as to enhance customer satisfaction through increased consumer choice and lower premiums while ensuring the financial security of the insurance market.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Govt., in February 2015, raised the foreign investment ceiling in the insurance sector from 26% to 49% under the automatic route, and then in 2021, it has again been increased to 74%.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 37

Consider the following institutions:

1. The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)

2. The International Finance Corporation (IFC)

3. The International Development Agency (IDA)

4. The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)

How many of the above institutions have India as a member?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 37
  • The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), set up in 1988, encourages foreign investment in developing economies by offering insurance (guarantees) to foreign private investors against losses caused by noncommercial (i.e., political) risks such as currency transfer, expropriation, war and civil disturbance. India became a member of MIGA in January 1994.
  • International Finance Corporation (IFC) was set up in 1956 and is also known as the private arm of the World Bank. It lends money to private sector companies in its member nations. The interest rate charged is commercial but comparatively low. India is one of the founding members of the IFC.
  • The International Development Agency (IDA), also known as the soft window of the World Bank, was set up in 1960 with the basic aim of developing infrastructural support among the member nations and long-term lending for the development of economic services. India is one of the founding members of IDA.
  • The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is the oldest of the WB institutions that started functioning in 1945 in the area of reconstruction of the war-ravaged regions (World War II) and later for the development of the middle-income and credit-worthy poorer economies of the world. India is one of the founding members of IBRD.
  • The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID), set up in 1966, is an investment dispute settlement body whose decisions are binding on the parties. It was established under the 1966 Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of Other States.
  • India is not a member of ICSID. It is believed that being a signatory to it encourages foreign investment flows into an economy but at risks independent sovereign decisions, too.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 38

Consider the following statements:

1. The first centralised and integrated FiveYear plan was implemented by the Soviet Union.

2. The economic and social planning is a State subject in the Indian Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 38
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Five-Year Plans were centralised and integrated national economic programs. The first such plan was implemented in the Soviet Union in 1928 by Joseph Stalin. Since then, countries such as China, Bhutan, Vietnam, South Korea, Argentina, Romania and Ethiopia have also implemented Five-Year Plans.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Economic and social planning is a concurrent subject. Also, while framing the ‘Union’, ‘State’ and ‘Concurrent’ lists, allocating subjects and other provisions, the Constitution vests power in the Union to ensure coordinated development in essential fields of activity while preserving the initiative and authority of the states in the spheres allotted to them.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 39

Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB):

1. It offers only the sovereign (government) financing and not the private financing for sound and sustainable projects.

2. It does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 39

The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), established in 2016 and headquartered in Beijing, is a multilateral financial institution founded to bring countries together to address the daunting infrastructure needs across Asia.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: AIIB offers sovereign (government) and non-sovereign (private) financing for sound and sustainable projects in energy and power, transportation and telecommunications, rural infrastructure and agriculture development, water supply and sanitation, environmental protection, urban development and logistics.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Membership in AIIB shall be open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) or the Asian Development Bank (ADB). China has the highest voting power of 27.5% in the Bank, while India has 7.9% voting power.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 40

With reference to the Asian Development Bank (ADB), consider the following statements:

1. ADB was established in 2002 and has headquarters in Tokyo, Japan.

2. India is the largest shareholder in ADB.

3. Members of ADB cannot join the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 40

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Asian Development Bank (ADB), with an international partnership of its member countries, was established in 1966 and  has headquarters at Manila, the Philippines. The Bank is engaged in promoting the economic and social progress of its developing member countries in the Asia-Pacific region. Its principal functions are as follows

  • To make loans and equity investments for the economic and social advancement of its developing member countries;
  • To provide technical assistance for the preparation and execution of development projects and programmes and advisory services;
  • To respond to the requests for assistance in coordinating development policies and plans in developing member countries, and
  • To respond to the requests for assistance and coordinate the development policies and plans of developing member countries.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India is a founding member of ADB. However, India is not the largest shareholder of ADB. As of 31 December 2022, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%). Statement 3 is incorrect: Membership in AIIB shall be open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) or the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 41

Consider the following statements:

1. The First Five-Year Plan of India was launched in 1951 and was based on the Harrod-Domar model.

2. The main focus of the First Five-Year Plan was the development of the secondary sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 41
  • Statement 1 is correct: With the Partition as a backdrop, the country reeling with the influx of refugees, severe food shortage and mounting inflation, the First FiveYear Plan was introduced in 1951. The plan was based on the Harrod–Domar model, which suggested that growth was dependent on two things. First, a high level of savings since higher savings enabled greater investment and second, a low capital-output ratio that ensured efficient investment and a higher growth rate.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It focused primarily on the development of the primary sector, specifically agriculture and irrigation. The plan aimed at improving the country’s food production levels to reduce dependence on imports and achieve self-sufficiency. The secondary sector, which includes industries, was not the primary focus during this period. If the First Five-Year Plan focused on agriculture and energy, the Second FiveYear Plan focused on the development of the public sector and rapid industrialisation. Drafted by statistician P.C. Mahalanobis, the Second Plan was also called the Mahalanobis Plan.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 42

With reference to the reserve tranche, consider the following statements:

1. The reserve tranche is an emergency account that IMF members can access without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee.

2. The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of last resort.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 42
  • Statement 1 is correct: The IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions. The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. In other words, a portion of a member country’s quota can be withdrawn free of charge at its own discretion.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of first resort, meaning they will tap into the reserve tranche before seeking a formal credit tranche. In theory, members can borrow over 100% of their quota. However, if the amount being sought by the member nation exceeds its reserve tranche position (RTP), then it becomes a credit tranche that must be repaid in three years with interest. Initially, member nations’ reserve tranches are normally 25% of their quota. However, their RTP can change according to any lending that the IMF does with its holdings of the member’s currency.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 43

Consider the following statements with reference to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI):

1. It is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament.

2. SIPRI was established by the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 43
  • Statement 1 is correct: Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament. Established in 1966, SIPRI provides data, analysis, and recommendations, based on open sources, to policymakers, researchers, media, and the interested public.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: SIPRI was established on the basis of a decision by the Swedish Parliament and receives a substantial part of its funding in the form of an annual grant from the Swedish Government. The Institute also seeks financial support from other organisations in order to carry out its research.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 44

With reference to the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), consider the following statements:

1. It is the apex research organisation under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change of India ((MoEFCC) for carrying out studies on wild plant resources of the country.

2. It is headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal.

3. It does ex-situ conservation of critically threatened species in botanical gardens.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 44

Botanical Survey of India

  • It is the apex research organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEFCC) for carrying out taxonomic and floristic studies on wild plant resources of the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It was established in 1890 during the tenure of Lord Landsdowne and the headquarter is located in Kolkata, West Bengal. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Functions:
    • Exploration, inventorying and documentation of phytodiversity in general and protected areas, hotspots and fragile ecosystems in particular.
    • Publication of National, State and District Floras.
    • Identification of threatened and red list species and those in rich areas needing conservation and ex-situ conservation of critically threatened species in botanical gardens. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • Survey and documentation of traditional knowledge (ethno-botany) associated with plants.
    • Develop National database of Indian plants, including herbarium and live specimens, botanical paintings and illustrations, etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with respect to the Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (NWR):

1. At present, no warehouseman shall issue any negotiable warehouse receipt in physical form.

2. An electronic NWR (eNWR) has a time validity that is co-terminus with the shelf-life of the commodity or withdrawal of the commodity folly from the warehouse.

3. eNWJR ovnce /entered with a transaction sucIh as a pledge or transfer, cannot be simultaneously used for any other purpose.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 45

The correct answer is:

Statement 1: At present, no warehouseman shall issue any negotiable warehouse receipt in physical form.
- This statement is correct. With the implementation of the electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (eNWR) system, physical NWRs are no longer issued.

Statement 2: An electronic NWR (eNWR) has a time validity that is co-terminus with the shelf-life of the commodity or withdrawal of the commodity fully from the warehouse.
- This statement is correct. The validity of an eNWR corresponds to the shelf-life of the stored commodity or until the commodity is completely withdrawn from the warehouse.

Statement 3: eNWR once entered with a transaction such as a pledge or transfer, cannot be simultaneously used for any other purpose.
- This statement is also correct. Once an eNWR is pledged or transferred, it cannot be used for any other transaction simultaneously, ensuring the integrity and security of the transaction.

Upon review, it appears all three statements are actually correct. Hence, the answer should be:

3. All three

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

1. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) gives 'Food animal' tags to the animals.

2. FSSAI is a statutory body and comes under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

3. The Mithun, an Indian bison from Maharashtra got the food animal tag recently.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 46
  • Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has recognized Northeast’s Mithun as a ‘food animal’. This will help farmers and tribal village communities as they can now sell mithun meat for commercial purposes. Until now, mithuns and their meat were sold only for very special occasions such as festivals or weddings. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Mithun or gayal (Bos frontalis) is considered a descendant of the Indian Gaur or bison. It plays an important role in the socio-economic and cultural life of tribes such as the Nyishi, Apatani, Galo and Adi in Arunachal Pradesh. 
  • It is distributed in Northeast India, Bangladesh, northern Myanmar and in Yunnan, China. It is known as the ‘cattle of the mountain’. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • The Indian Council of Agricultural Research launched the M-ANITRA app to register Mithun farmers as “buyers” and “sellers” with the aim of helping them do business at competitive prices.
  • Conservation status
    • IUCN: Vulnerable
    • CITES: Appendix I
  • FSSAI is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act). The nodal ministry is Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 47

With reference to the Pink Bloom, consider the following statements:

1. It is an invasive alien plant species from Indonesia.

2. It is posing serious biodiversity threats for Kole wetlands in Kerala, an important Ramsar site.

3. It was brought in India as an aquarium plant and escaped to the wild.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 47
  • The Kole wetlands in Kerala, an internationally important Ramsar site known for its high biodiversity, are facing a new threat from an invasive alien plant species called Cabomba furcuta, also known as Pink Bloom. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • This species, originating from Central and South America, and has now become a menace to the Kole fields, alongside existing threats like water hyacinth and Salvinia molesta. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • It has been introduced to Kerala as an aquarium plant and escaped to the wild. Cabomba furcuta is characterized by its massive pink flowering. While its vibrant pink appearance may seem picturesque, it poses a significant threat to the biodiversity and agricultural productivity of the region. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Kole Wetland
    • Kole Wetland is located in Kerala. and It is one of the Ramsar Sites.
    • It is the largest brackish, humid tropical wetland ecosystem located in the state of Kerala
    • Extending from the northern bank of Chalakudy River in the south to the southern bank of Bharathapuzha River in the north.
    • It is situated in the Central Asian Flyway of migratory birds.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 48

State Forest Departments have jurisdiction over which of the following forests under the Indian Forest Act, 1927?

1. Reserve Forests

2. Protected Forests

3. Villages or nagarpalika forests

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 48

Constitutional Provisions for Forests Protection

  • Article 48 A in the Directive Principles of State policy, mandates that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
  • Article 51 A (g) of the Constitution states that it shall be the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and Wildlife.
  • Forests are included in the Concurrent List in the (Seventh Schedule) of the Constitution of India. Through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds were transferred from State to Concurrent List.
  • State Forest Departments have jurisdiction over two types of forests notified under the Indian Forest Act, 1927
    • Reserve Forests (RF), where no rights are allowed unless specified.
    • Protected Forests (PF), where no rights are barred unless specified.
  • Certain forests, such as villages or nagarpalika forests, are managed by state Revenue Departments.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 49

This aquatic ecosystem is characterized by its low salt content and is often found in ponds, lakes, bogs, and swamps. It experiences diurnal and seasonal variations in temperature and has distinct zones, including the limnetic zone with shallow water and the prolimdal zone at the bottom. Which of the following aquatic ecosystems is best described by the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 49
  • Fresh water ecosystem
    • Water on land which is continuously cycling and has low salt content is known as fresh water and its study is called limnology. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • Physical Characteristics:
    • Static and Running Water: Freshwater ecosystems can be further classified into two categories - static or still water (lentic) and running water (lotic). Lentic freshwater ecosystems include features like ponds, lakes, bogs, and swamps, which have relatively calm or stagnant water. Lotic ecosystems, on the other hand, include areas like springs, mountain brooks, streams, and rivers, where water is continuously flowing.
    • Low Salt Content: ü One of the defining characteristics of freshwater ecosystems is their low concentration of dissolved salts. Unlike marine ecosystems, which have high salinity, freshwater ecosystems contain water with significantly lower salt levels.
    • Temperature Variations:  Freshwater ecosystems experience diurnal (daily) and seasonal variations in temperature. In tropical lakes, the surface temperature remains relatively warm, never going below 40°C. In temperate freshwater bodies, the temperature does not go above or below 40°C. In polar regions, lakes maintain temperatures below 4°C.
    • Importance of Light: Light plays a significant role in freshwater ecosystems. It influences the growth of aquatic plants and the overall ecosystem's productivity. However, in many cases, a substantial amount of suspended materials in the water can obstruct the penetration of light, affecting the ecosystem's dynamics.
    • Aquatic Plants and Respiration: Aquatic plants in these ecosystems play a crucial role in photosynthesis, using dissolved carbon dioxide in the water for their energy production. Some aquatic animals, particularly those adapted to low-oxygen conditions, may float to the water's surface to access oxygen for respiration.
  • Distinct Zones in Lakes and Ponds:
    • Littoral Zone: The littoral zone is the term for the shore region of a lake or pond. It includes everything around the shore or bank, from the dry land to the water’s edge. For this reason it is generally the zone with the most aquatic or semi-aquatic vegetation such as reeds, grasses and algaes.
    • Limnetic Zone: The next layer is called the limnetic zone and is the surface or open water section of the lake. The limnetic zone is classified by the amount of light that penetrates the body of water. This upper water layer is also referred to as the euphotic zone, and is the part of the lake that is warmest and receives the most sunlight. Once the sunlight can no longer penetrate the lake, the zone ends. Like the Littoral zone, aquatic plants thrive in this region, due to the presence of sunlight. Oxygen levels are also higher in this section of the lake, meaning the majority of fish also live in this zone.
    • Profundal Zone: The profundal zone is the section that follows the Limnetic once the sunlight cannot penetrate the lake’s surface any further. The temperature in these waters is also significantly colder, as the warmth from the sun is unable to reach these depths. The water clarity and composition has a significant effect on how deep the sunlight is able to reach, and therefore the size and depth of the profundal layer will vary from lake to lake. There is also a decreased amount of oxygen in this region of the lake, so the amount of fish in this area is also significantly less.
    • Benthic Zone: The benthic zone is essentially the area along the floor of the lake. It consists over everything in the bottom of the body of water, including the sediment, silt, and soil which builds up at the bottom of the lake. At this lowest point, bacteria live and work to decompose and break down any organic matter which has fallen to the lake floor. Everything from deceased fish and animals to dead plants, or animal droppings. Older lakes have larger or increased benthic zones as there is a larger amount of matter to be decomposed.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 50

Which of the following best desribes the Metapopulation concept in ecology?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 50
  • Metapopulation:
    • The concept of metapopulation is a fundamental ecological idea that describes how populations of a species are connected within a region, and how they are influenced by local births, deaths, immigrations, and emigrations. The structure of metapopulations varies among species and can have significant implications for the survival and persistence of these populations.
  • Features of Metapopulation:
    • Population Dynamics: Each population within a metapopulation is subject to changes in population size due to births, deaths, immigration (individuals moving into a population), and emigration (individuals leaving a population). Additionally, local populations may emerge and disappear over time.
    • Local Population Vulnerability: When the numbers of individuals in local populations are low, they become vulnerable to extinction. Extinction events of local populations are not uncommon in some species.
    • Regional Persistence: The regional survival of species is often dependent on the existence of a metapopulation. Even if some local populations go extinct, the species can persist at the regional level. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
    • Source-Satellite Structure: Metapopulations can have various structures. In some species, one stable source population serves as the supplier of individuals to less stable satellite populations. For example, the checkerspot butterfly in California has a source population surrounded by smaller satellite populations.
    • Shift in Source Populations: In other species, the source population that provides recruits can shift over time. Local populations may take turns acting as stable sources depending on changing conditions, such as disease outbreaks or deteriorating environments.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 51

In the process of ecological succession, which term refers to the intermediate stage where the community is transitioning from the pioneer species to the climax community?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 51
  • Ecological Succession: Ecological succession is the gradual and predictable process of change in the species composition and structure of an ecosystem over time. It typically involves a transition from a disturbed or barren area to a more stable and diverse community of organisms. 
    • Pioneer Stage: The pioneer stage is the initial stage of succession, where the first colonizers, often hardy and adaptable species, establish themselves in a previously barren or disturbed area. These pioneer species can tolerate harsh conditions and help to improve the soil and environment for other species to follow.
    • Climax Stage: The climax stage represents the endpoint of succession, where a stable and selfsustaining community of species has established itself and remains relatively unchanged as long as environmental conditions are stable.
    • Seral Stage: The seral stage, sometimes called the intermediate or transitional stage, is the phase in between the pioneer and climax stages. During this stage, there is an ongoing and dynamic change in the community composition as various species establish themselves and interact with one another. These species are typically more diverse and specialized than the pioneers but have not yet reached the stability of the climax community. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
      • Role of Seral Stage: The seral stage is a critical phase in succession because it represents the process of ecosystem development and recovery. It is during this stage that the environment gradually becomes more hospitable to a wider range of species. These species compete, evolve, and eventually lead to a community that is in equilibrium with its environment.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 52

The term 'Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs)' is often used in the context of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 52
  • A generative adversarial network (GAN) is a class of machine learning framework and a prominent framework for approaching generative AI. In a GAN, two neural networks contest with each other in the form of a zero-sum game, where one agent's gain is another agent's loss.
  • Given a training set, this technique learns to generate new data with the same statistics as the training set. For example, a GAN trained on photographs can generate new photographs that look at least superficially authentic to human observers, having many realistic characteristics. GANs are similar to mimicry in evolutionary biology, with an evolutionary arms race between both networks.
  • Deepfakes are fake videos and image of people created using artificial intelligence by swapping faces or altering voices. The deepfake technology swaps the face of a person in a video or an image with another persons' face through AI algorithms. The deepfake algorithm runs through a process called Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs). Two machine learning models work together to create forgeries and to detect them, resulting in convincing fake videos.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 53

Consider the following trees:

1. Ebony

2. Mahogany

3. Rosewood

How many of the above trees are naturally found in tropical rainforests in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 53
  • Tropical rainforests:
    • Tropical rain forests play an important role in natural vegetation in India. These types of forests include the tropical evergreen forests and tropical semi-evergreen forests and they are mostly found in places where there is plenty of rainfall and sunshine throughout the year.
    • Growth of the trees is usually at its best where rainfall is in surplus of 200 cm, with a short dry season. Such types of forests are found within rainy slopes of the Western Ghats, plains of West Bengal and Orissa and north-eastern India.
    • Trees grow very briskly in these forests and attain heights of about 60 m and above. The number of species in these forests is too vast and too assorted to utilize each one of them commercially.
      • Flora in the Tropical Rain Forests: Ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber, cinchona, lianas and bamboo White Cedar Chestnut are the main trees of these forests. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
    • Fauna in the Tropical Rain Forests:
      • The common animals found in these forests are elephant, monkey, lemur and deer. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal. Besides these animals, plenty of birds, bats, sloths, scorpions, and snails are also found in these jungles.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 54

'Dichotomous keys' best refers to which one of the following situations?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 54
  • Scientists have catalogued 1.5 million species on Earth and estimate that there might be as many as 100 million more unidentified species. Classification keys are tools that provide a means to correctly identify different organisms, based on observable traits.
  • A dichotomous key is an important scientific tool, used to identify different organisms, based the organism’s observable traits. Dichotomous keys consist of a series of statements with two choices in each step that will lead users to the correct identification. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • For example whether a plant has (a) twig hairy or (b) twig not hairy. Answers to these questions then lead on to further questions until a definite identification is made. However,with just one mistake it’s possible to take a completely wrong path and arrive at an inaccurate identification.
  • A dichotomous key is usually used for
    • Identifying and categorizing organisms
    • Helping students easily understand harder scientific concepts
    • Organizing large amounts of information to make identification of an organism much easier
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 55

Consider the following:

1. Rule of law

2. Government Effectiveness

3. Voice and Accountability

4. Control of Corruption

How many of the above dimensions are used by the World Bank in ranking countries under the Worldwide Governance Indicators framework?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 55
  • Recent context: Raising concerns over the use of World Bank’s Worldwide Governance Indicators in rating assessment by credit rating agencies, especially for emerging economies, Chief Economic Adviser V Anantha Nageswaran said there is a need for the World Governance Index to be more transparent and less subjective. The Worldwide Governance Indicators (WGI) are a long-standing research project to develop cross-country indicators of governance.
  • The WGI consists of six composite indicators of broad dimensions of governance covering over 200 countries since 1996:
    • Voice and Accountability,
    • Political Stability and Absence of Violence/Terrorism,
    • Government Effectiveness,
    • Regulatory Quality,
    • Rule of Law, and
    • Control of Corruption. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
  • These indicators are based on several hundred variables obtained from 31 different data sources, capturing governance perceptions as reported by survey respondents, non-governmental organizations, commercial business information providers, and public sector organizations worldwide.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 56

Consider the following pairs:-

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 56
  • Biosphere Reserve (BR) is an international designation by UNESCO for representative parts of natural and cultural landscapes extending over large area of terrestrial or coastal/ marine ecosystems or a combination thereof. 
  • They are special environments for both people and the nature and are living examples of how human beings and nature can co-exist while respecting each other’s needs.
  • LIST OF BIOSPHERE RESERVES:
    1) Cold Desert, Himachal Pradesh
    2) Nanda Devi, Uttrakhand
    3) Khangchendzonga, Sikkim
    4) Dehang-Debang, Arunachal Pradesh
    5) Manas, Assam
    6) Dibru-Saikhowa, Assam
    7) Nokrek, Meghalaya
    8) Panna, Madhya Pradesh
    9) Pachmarhi, Madhya Pradesh
    10) Achanakmar-Amarkantak, Madhya Pradesh-Chattisgarh
    11) Kachchh, Gujarat
    12) Similipal, Odisha
    13) Sundarban, West Bengal
    14) Seshachalam, Andhra Pradesh
    15) Agasthyamala, Karnataka-Tamil Nadu-Kerala
    16) Nilgiri, Tamil Nadu-Kerala
    17) Gulf of Mannar, Tamil Nadu
    18) Great Nicobar, Andaman & Nicobar Island

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 57

Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Porcupines:

1. They are nocturnal.

2. Their population is restricted to the southern India.

3. They are protected under Schedule-I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 57
  • Recent context: A male tiger was found dead at the forest range in the Tirupur forest division located in Tamil Nadu recently.
  • The Indian porcupine (Hystrix indica) is a hystricomorph rodent species native to southern Asia and the Middle East. It is listed as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List. It is protected under the India Schedule IV of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • The Indian porcupine is highly adaptable to multiple environments. Although they usually favor rocky hillsides, the species can also be found in tropical and temperate scrublands, grasslands, and forests. They are also found throughout the Himalayan mountains, reaching up to elevations of 2400 meters. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Indian porcupines are nocturnal, with the species seeking shelter in caves, between rocks, or in its burrow during the day. The main food source for the Indian porcupine is vegetable material of all kinds, including fruits, grains, and roots. The Indian porcupine uses crop plants extensively as a food resource, thus leading to a significant loss for agriculture. Hence statement 1 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 58

Recently, India signed a MoU on “Enhancing Innovation Ecosystems through an Innovation Handshake” with which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 58
  • A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on “Enhancing Innovation Ecosystems through an Innovation Handshake” under the framework of India – U.S. Commercial Dialogue was signed between the two countries on the 14th of November 2023 in San Francisco. The leaders’ Joint Statement during the historic official State Visit of Prime Minister in June 2023 announced the establishment of the “Innovation Handshake”. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • The MoU was signed at the kick-off industry roundtable titled, “Decoding the “Innovation Handshake”: U.S. – India Entrepreneurship Partnership” in San Francisco. The MoU is signed with the objective to connect the two sides’ dynamic startup ecosystems, address specific regulatory hurdles to cooperation, share information and best practices for startup fundraising and promote innovation and job growth, particularly in critical and emerging technologies (CET) as identified under India -U.S. initiative for Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET).
  • The Commercial Dialogue (CD) is a cooperative undertaking at Ministerial level between India and the U.S. to facilitate regular discussion to deepen ties between business communities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 59

Recently, India successfully tested fired 'Pralay' missile off Odisha coast. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. The missile has been developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

2. It is a 350-500 km short-range, surface- to-surface missile.

3. It has a payload capacity of 500-1000 kg

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 59
  • Recently, India successfully test-fired its surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) 'Pralay' from the Abdul Kalam Island off the Odisha coast.
  • The missile has been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • 'Pralay' is a 350-500 km short-range, surface-to-surface missile with a payload capacity of 500-1,000 kg. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
  • 'Pralay' has been developed for deployment along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and Line of Control (LoC). 'Pralay' missile can be compared with China's 'Dong Feng 12' and Russia's 'Iskander' missiles.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 4 - Question 60

In the context of Political theory, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The theory deals with the ideas and principles that shape Constitutions, governments and social life in a systematic manner.

Statement-II: It probes the signifi cance of principles such as rule of law, separation of powers, judicial review, etc.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?