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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 1

Consider the following pairs :

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 1

Prominent Boddhisattvas under Buddhism include:

  • Pair 1 is correctly matched: Avalokitesvara: is one of the three protective deities around Buddha. He is described as holding a Lotus flower and is also known as Padmapani. The painting can be found at Ajanta Caves. He is the most acknowledged of all the Bodhisattvas.
  • The bodhisattva of compassion is the listener of the world’s cries who uses skillful means to come to their aid. He appears unofficially in Theravada Buddhism in Cambodia under the name Lokesvara. He is depicted as a female and is said to incarnate in his holiness, the Dalai Lama.
  • Pair 2 is correctly matched: Vajrapani: is one of the three protective deities around Buddha and is also depicted in the Ajanta Caves. Vajrapaṇi is contemplated to manifest all the powers of Buddha as well as the power of all five tathagatas, namely Vairocana, Akshobhya, Amitabha, Ratnasambhava and Amoghasiddhi.
  • Pair 3 is correctly matched: Manjusri: One of the three protective deities around Buddha is also depicted in the Ajanta Caves. He is associated with the wisdom of Buddha and is a male Bodhisattva with a wielding sword in his hand.
  • Pair 4 is correctly matched: Maitreya: A future Buddha who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach pure dharma. The laughing Buddha is said to be an incarnation of Maitreya.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 2

Consider the following statements with respect to cell division:

  1. Mitotic cell division occurs in somatic cells only and meiosis occurs in germ cells only.
  2. All mitotic progeny are genetically similar whereas in meiosis, a new combination of genes is obtained.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 2
  • New cells are required not only for replacement of worn out cells, but also for repair of cuts and injuries, for growth and for reproduction. New cells are obtained through cell division. There are two types of cell division.
    • Mitosis: In mitosis, a cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells. Mitosis is needed for growth, and repair of worn out parts.
    • Meiosis: Cell division involved in production of sex cells which give rise to the egg in female and sperm in male.
  • Mitotic cell division occurs in somatic cells or reproductive cells that results in the formation of identical cells, both qualitatively and quantitively. The significance of mitosis is growth and reproduction where the product of reproduction is identical. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The nucleus divides first and then the whole cell divides. Division of one nucleus to produce two daughter nuclei a is called (karyokinesis). Division of cytoplasm to give two daughter cells is called cytokinesis.
  • Significance:
    • The daughter cells receive the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In other words mitosis is an equational division in which the two daughter cells are identical to each other and to their parent cell.
    • Mitosis helps in wound healing and replacement of cells lost during wear and tear.
  • Meiosis is characterized by two successive divisions of the nucleus (meiosis I and II) and cytoplasm, whereas the chromosomes divide only once. Meiosis occurs in germ cells only i.e. testis and ovary. This is a reduction division where the chromosome number becomes half.
  • Meiotic cell division occurs in the gonads for sexual reproduction to produce gametes. The resultant cells, egg (in female) and sperms (in male), possess half the chromosome number of that present in the parent cell. Meiotic cell division takes place only in diploid cells responsible for production of haploid spores or gametes.
  • Significance:
    • The Significance of meiosis is in sexual reproduction where ova and sperm both have half the number of chromosomes i.e. 23 each in human gametes (but normal number of chromosome of human is 46 or 23 pair) and on fertilization the chromosome number becomes normal.
    • Also during meiosis, new combination of genes are obtained in the gametes that result from meiosis. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Maximum density of water is achieved at 4 degrees celsius.

Statement-II: Specific heat of water is maximum at 4 degrees celsius.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 3
  • The maximum density of water at 4 degrees Celsius is a unique and anomalous behavior that arises from the structure of water molecules and the formation of hydrogen bonds. Unlike most substances that contract and become denser as they cool and transition from a liquid to a solid state, water behaves differently.
  • Here's why water achieves its maximum density at 4 degrees Celsius
    • Hydrogen Bonding: Water molecules are polar, meaning they have a partial positive charge on the hydrogen atoms and a partial negative charge on the oxygen atom. The oxygen atom is more electronegative, creating a dipole moment. This dipolar nature allows water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with each other.
    • Tetrahedral Arrangement: When water molecules are in the liquid state, they form a loose and constantly changing network of hydrogen bonds. However, as water cools and approaches 4 degrees Celsius, a more ordered and stable arrangement occurs. At 4 degrees Celsius, water molecules tend to form a tetrahedral arrangement due to hydrogen bonding.
    • Open Structure: In the tetrahedral arrangement, water molecules are more spaced out, creating an open structure. This open structure leads to a maximum packing of water molecules, resulting in the highest density.
    • Decrease in Density Below 4 Degrees Celsius: As water continues to cool below 4 degrees Celsius, it undergoes a phase transition from a liquid to a solid (ice). In the process, the hydrogen bonding becomes more ordered, and water molecules form a hexagonal lattice in the ice structure. This hexagonal arrangement is less dense than the open structure at 4 degrees Celsius, causing a decrease in density as water freezes.
  • Specific heat capacity (often shortened to specific heat) refers to a material's property that describes how much heat energy it needs to absorb to raise its temperature by one degree. The concept plays a crucial role in understanding heat transfer and temperature changes in various contexts.
    • The specific heat of water is not maximum at zero degrees Celsius. In fact, it gradually decreases as it approaches 0°C and reaches a minimum around 4°C. It then starts increasing again with rising temperature.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 4

Funds availed under Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme can be used by farmers for which of the following purposes?

  1. Post-harvest expenses
  2. Consumption requirements of farmers household
  3. Short-term credit requirements for cultivation of crops
  4. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
  5. Produce Marketing Loan
  6. Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 4
  • Statement 1 is correct: The funds can be used for meeting expenses related to post-harvest activities such as storage, transportation, and marketing of agricultural produce.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The funds can be. used for meeting consumption requirements of farmers and their families such as food, education, healthcare, etc.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Farmers require funds for various crop-related expenses such as purchase of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, labour costs, etc. KCC funds can be used to meet these short-term credit requirements for crop cultivation.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Farmers require working capital to maintain their farm assets such as land, irrigation systems, farm machinery, etc. KCC funds can be used to meet these working capital requirements for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
  • Statement 5 is correct: Produce Marketing Loan.
  • Statement 6 is correct: Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.

Kisan Credit Card Scheme (KCC)

  • The following people are eligible for this scheme:
  • All Farmers - Individuals / Joint borrowers who are owner cultivators
  • Tenant Farmers, Oral Lessees & Share Croppers
  • Self Help Groups or Joint Liability Groups of Farmers
  • The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is being implemented by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks and Cooperatives.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 5

Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Allelopathy'?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 5
  • Amensalim is an antagonistic interspecific interaction where one species suffers and the other species remains unaffected. This is commonly the effect when one species produces a chemical compound (as part of its normal metabolic reactions) that is harmful to the other species. It is also called antibiosis. The affected species is called amensal and the affecting species is called inhibitor.
  • Allelopathy, in which some plants produce chemical compounds that inhibit the growth of nearby would-be competitors, is one type of amensalistic interaction. For example Black Walnut tree (Juglans nigra), secretes juglone from its roots, it is a chemical that harms or kills some of the surrounding plants species. The other plants are prohibited from growing under or near the trees while the walnut trees do not really get benefit in any way. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • The "inhibitory" chemicals are released into the environment and affect the development and growth of nearby plants. These substances influence the growth and development of agricultural and biological systems. Allelopathic chemicals can be present in the leaves, flowers, roots, fruits, or stems and may be released from these parts of the plant. Allelochemicals are introduced by the plants into the environment via root exudation, foliar leaching, volatilization, residue decomposition. They can also be found in the surrounding soil. Target species are affected by these toxins in many different ways. The toxic chemicals may reduce the plant growth by inhibiting the shoot/root growth, by blocking the nutrient uptake, or by disturbing the naturally occurring symbiotic relationship thereby destroying the plant's usable source of a nutrient. Allelochemicals may be involved in plant-plant, plant herbivore or plant insect communication via chemicals.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 6

Consider the following statements.

  1. ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) is a free trade pact among the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and India.
  2. Under the pact, the two trading partners set timelines for eliminating duties on the maximum number of goods traded between the two regions.
  3. A review of AITIGA is held annually at the ASEAN-India Economic Ministers’ meeting to make trade facilitative and mutually beneficial.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 6
  • India and the ASEAN countries reached an agreement to review their free trade pact for goods and set a 2025 goalpost for concluding the review aimed at addressing the “asymmetry” in bilateral trade.
  • A Joint Committee of the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA), signed in 2009, deliberated on the roadmap for the review of the pact and finalised the terms of reference for the fresh negotiations.
  • The AITIGA review will now be taken up at the India-ASEAN Leaders’ Summit scheduled in early September for further guidance.
  • The review of AITIGA is expected to enhance and diversify trade while addressing the current asymmetry in the bilateral trade.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 7

With reference to the processes under nitrogen cycle, consider the following pairs:

Process : Function
1. Nitrification : Conversion of nitrates in to gaseous nitrogen
2. Assimilation : Conversion of gaseous nitrogen into ammonia
3. Ammonification  : Conversion of nitrogenous waste products and dead organisms into inorganic ammonia
4. Denitrification : Conversion ammonia nitrates or nitrites 

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 7

Nitrogen cycle:

  • Nitrogen is an essential component of protein and is required by all living organisms including human beings. Our atmosphere contains nearly 79% of nitrogen but it can not be used directly by the majority of living organisms. Broadly like carbon dioxide, nitrogen also cycles from the gaseous phase to solid phase then back to gaseous phase through the activity of a wide variety of organisms. Cycling of nitrogen is vitally important for all living organisms. There are five main processes in the nitrogen cycle which are,

Nitrogen fixation:

  • This process involves conversion of gaseous nitrogen into Ammonia, a form in which it can be used by plants. Atmospheric nitrogen can be fixed by the following three methods:-
    • Atmospheric fixation: Lightening, combustion and volcanic activity help in the fixation of nitrogen.
    • Industrial fixation: At high temperatures (400oC) and high pressure (200atm.), molecular nitrogen is broken into atomic nitrogen which then combines with hydrogen to form ammonia.
    • Bacterial fixation: There are two types of bacteriaSymbiotic bacteria: E.g. Rhizobium in the root nodules of leguminous plants.
    • Freeliving: e.g. 1. Nostoc 2. Azobacter 3. Cyanobacteria can combine atmospheric or dissolved nitrogen with hydrogen to form ammonia.

Nitrification:

  • It is a process by which ammonia is converted into nitrates or nitrites by Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus bacteria respectively. Another soil bacteria Nitrobacter can convert nitrate into nitrite. Hence Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Assimilation:

  • Assimilation involves the conversion of gaseous nitrogen, typically atmospheric nitrogen (N2), into ammonia (NH3) or ammonium ions (NH4+). This process is vital because most plants cannot directly use atmospheric nitrogen. Hence Pair 2 is correctly matched.

Ammonification:

  • Ammonification is the process by which nitrogenous waste products, such as urea and uric acid, and the remains of dead organisms are converted into inorganic ammonia (NH3) or ammonium ions (NH4+). This process is carried out by various decomposer organisms, particularly ammonifying bacteria. By breaking down organic nitrogen-containing compounds into ammonia, ammonification recycles nitrogen back into the ecosystem. This ammonia can then be further transformed in the nitrogen cycle. Hence Pair 3 is correctly matched.

Denitrification:

  • The conversion of nitrates back into gaseous nitrogen is called denitrification. Denitrifying bacteria live deep in soil near the water table as they like to live in oxygen-free medium. Denitrification is the reverse of nitrogen fixation. Hence Pair 4 is not correctly matched.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. Absolute poverty does not concentrate on biological needs but rather makes a comparison between two people in the society.
  2. Income Level is considered in absolute poverty but it is not considered when measuring relative poverty.
  3. World Bank defines the extreme poor as those living on less than $1.90 a day.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 8
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Any person not in a position to obtain essential commodities like food, shelter, and clothing is said to experience absolute poverty. Relative poverty does not concentrate on biological needs but rather makes a comparison between two people in society.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Since 2015 World Bank used $1.90 as the international poverty rate. The new global poverty rate is set at $2.15 using 2017 prices. This means that anyone having on less than $2.15 a day is considered to be living in extreme poverty. Just under 700 million people globally were in this situation in 2017.
  • Income Level is considered in Absolute Poverty It is not considered when measuring relative poverty as a person will still be considered poor despite meeting his/her basic needs
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 9

With reference to the Biodiversity coldspots, consider the following statements:
1. They are the areas where the fitness of at least one of the two species is determined by interactions with the other.
2. Coldspots are relatively empty and have unstable environments.
3. They are better equipped to handle diversification of species than tropical areas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 9

Biodiversity Cold Spots

  • Cold spots are areas where the fitness of at least one of the two species is determined by interactions with the other. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • They support critical global and local ecosystem processes, contain unique evolutionary lineages and rare species, encompass the last major wilderness landscapes, support a diverse range of animal species. All cold spots would benefit from increased protection, conservation management, and restoration.
  • While coldspots are relatively empty, they are also dry and unstable environments. This is why once new species emerge and evolve, they move to more comfortable environments — like the tropical biodiversity hotspots. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • A new study published in Science calls this the ‘paradox of diversity’. It concludes that extreme environments like deserts, mountains or other ‘coldspots’ would be better equipped to handle rapid diversification of species than tropical regions, which are already crowded with existing species. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 10

With reference to Indian Universities Act, 1904, consider the following statements:

  1. It was setup based on the recommendations of Raleigh Commission.
  2. Five crore rupees were to be sanctioned per annum for five years for improvement of higher education and universities.
  3. The conditions were to be made stricter for affiliation of private colleges. 

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 10

Indian Universities Act, 1904

  • In 1902, Raleigh Commission was set up to go into conditions and prospects of universities in India and to suggest measures for improvement in their constitution and working. Based on its recommendations, the Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904.
  • Universities were to give more attention to study and research.
  • The number of fellows of a university and their period in office were reduced and most fellows were to be nominated by the Government.
  • Government was to have powers to veto universities‘ senate regulations and could amend these regulations or pass regulations on its own.
  • Conditions were to be made stricter for affiliation of private colleges.
  • Five lakh rupees were to be sanctioned per annum for five years for improvement of higher education and universities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 11

Which of the following is the aim of the National Land Records Modernization Programme (NLRMP) initiated in 2008?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 11

The National Land Records Modernization Programme (NLRMP), started in 2008, aims at updating and digitising land records by the end of the 12th Plan. Eventually, the intent is to move from the presumptive title (where registration of a title does not imply the owner’s title is legally valid) to a conclusive title (where it does).
Important points related to this process may be summarised as follows:

  • Digitisation will help enormously in lowering the costs of land transactions, while conclusive title will eliminate legal uncertainty and the need to use the government as an intermediary for acquiring land so as to ‘cleanse’ title.
  • Given the importance of this programme, its rollout in various states needs to be accelerated— easier and quicker land transactions will especially help small and medium enterprises that do not have legal support or management.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Yasuni National Park, recently seen in news.

  1. Yasuni National Park is one of the world’s most biodiverse regions.
  2. It is located in Brazil.
  3. The area is inhabited by the Tagaeri and Taromenani, who live in self-isolation.
  4. It was designated a world biosphere reserve by the UNESCO.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 12

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • In a historic decision, Ecuadorians voted against the oil drilling of a protected area in the Amazon that’s home to two uncontacted tribes and serves as a biodiversity hotspot.
  • Yasuni National Park, one of the world’s most biodiverse regions. The area is inhabited by the Tagaeri and Taromenani, who live in self-isolation.
  • In 1989, Yasuni was designated a world biosphere reserve by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation, also known as UNESCO.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 13

Consider the following:

  1. Camphor
  2. Cellulose
  3. Iodine

How many of the above compounds undergo sublimation that is transitioning directly from the solid phase to the gas phase without passing through the liquid phase?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 13
  • Sublimation is the process where a substance transitions directly from the solid phase to the gas phase without passing through the liquid phase. Not all materials sublimate readily at standard temperature and pressure, but there are several examples of substances that exhibit sublimation under certain conditions.
  • Dry Ice (Solid Carbon Dioxide): Dry ice is a common example of a substance that sublimates. It transforms directly from a solid to a gas at temperatures above -78.5 degrees Celsius (-109.3 degrees Fahrenheit) at standard pressure.
  • Camphor: Solid camphor can sublimate at room temperature, producing vapors with a distinct, aromatic odor. This property makes camphor useful in mothballs and other applications.
  • Naphthalene: Often used as the primary ingredient in mothballs, naphthalene sublimates at room temperature. The vapors help repel insects.
  • Iodine: Iodine can sublimate when heated, producing a purple vapor. This property is exploited in laboratory demonstrations.
  • Moth Crystals (Para-dichlorobenzene): Similar to naphthalene, para-dichlorobenzene, commonly found in moth crystals, can sublimate at room temperature.
  • Anthracene: A crystalline solid that sublimates when heated, anthracene is often used in laboratory settings.
  • Benzoic Acid: Solid benzoic acid can undergo sublimation under specific conditions, such as heating.
  • Ammonium Chloride: Ammonium chloride sublimates when heated, and this property is utilized in some chemistry experiments.
  • Cellulose (CeHioOs)n: The main component of plant cell walls, cellulose has a complex structure with strong hydrogen bonds. It decomposes well below its melting point, preventing sublimation altogether.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 14

What happens to the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor when it is exposed to light? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 14
  • Context: The Union Cabinet, led by the PM, approved the establishment of three semiconductor units as part of the ‘Development of Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in India’ initiative.
  • When a semiconductor is exposed to light, it can absorb photons with energies greater than the bandgap energy. This absorption can excite electrons from the valence band to the conduction band, creating additional charge carriers and thereby increasing the conductivity of the semiconductor. Hence option C is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 15

Which among the following rulers issued coins with a ship motif, indicating the importance of overseas trade during his reign?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 15

Yajna Sri Satakarni (AD 165–94) was the last great king of the Satavahana dynasty, and recovered north Konkan and Malwa from the Shaka rulers. He was a patron of trade and navigation, and his coins appear not only in Andhra but also in Maharashtra, MP, and Gujarat. His enthusiasm for navigation and overseas trade is demonstrated by the representation of a ship on his coins. Hence, Option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 16

Consider the following pairs of Indo-French Joint Exercises.

  1. Garuda: Army exercise
  2. Varuna: Naval exercise
  3. Shakti: Air exercise

How many of the above options is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 16

Only Option 2 is correct.

  • France has emerged as a major strategic partner for India with crucial defence deals and increased military to military engagement. A key example of this is the inducting of the French Scorpene conventional submarines, being built in India under technology transfer agreement of 2005, and the Indian Air Force having received 36 Rafale fighter jets.
  • These relations are further fortified with the robust network of military dialogues and regularly held joint exercises — Varuna (navy), Garuda (air force), and Shakti (army).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 17

With reference to Central Emergency Response Fund (CERF), consider the following statements:

  1. It was established by the UN General Assembly to provide rapid and life-saving assistance to vulnerable populations during humanitarian crises.
  2. It is managed by the Office for Disaster Risk Reduction on behalf of the UN Secretary-General.
  3. It releases resources for underfunded emergencies twice a year.

How many of the above statements given is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 17
  • Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • Context: The UN has allocated US$100 million from the Central Emergency Response Fund (CERF) to support underfunded humanitarian crises in seven countries across Africa, the Americas, and the Middle East.
  • About UN Central Emergency Response Fund (CERF)
    • It was established in 2005 by the UN General Assembly to provide rapid and life-saving assistance to vulnerable populations during humanitarian crises.
    • Managed by the Emergency Relief Coordinator on behalf of the UN Secretary-General, CERF releases resources for underfunded emergencies twice a year.
    • It addresses critical funding gaps exacerbated by increased global conflicts, climate-induced disasters, and poly-crisis phenomena. The fund is replenished annually through contributions from governments, the private sector, foundations, and individuals.
    • CERF’s allocations are divided into:
      • Rapid Responses: providing immediate aid during sudden crises
      • Underfunded Emergencies support countries facing prolonged humanitarian challenges.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 18

Which of the following particles has the least mass?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 18
  • Neutrons are subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They have a mass of approximately 1
  • atomic mass unit (u) or 1.675 x 10A-27 kg.
  • Protons are positively charged subatomic particles located in the nucleus of an atom. Like neutrons, they also have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit (u) or 1.675 x 10A-27 kg.
  • Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles found outside the nucleus in electron shells. Electrons have a significantly smaller mass compared to protons and neutrons. The mass of an electron is about 1/1836 times the mass of a proton or neutron. It is approximately 9.109 x 10A-31 kg.
  • An alpha particle is a type of nuclear particle consisting of two protons and two neutrons. It is essentially the nucleus of a helium-4 atom. The mass of an alpha particle is approximately 4 atomic mass units (u) or 6.644 x 10A-27 kg.
  • Thus the electron has the least mass among the particles mentioned.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 19

The Good Friday Agreement seen recently in the news was signed between which of the following countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 19

The Good Friday Agreement, also known as the Belfast Agreement, is a peace agreement signed in 1998. It was signed between factions of Northern Ireland and the governments of Britain and Ireland to end decades of violence in Northern Ireland. It ended 30 years of the violence known as ‘The Troubles’ and has been hailed as a model deal to end longstanding conflicts. It was a major development in the Northern Ireland peace process of the 1990s. The agreement is made up of two interrelated documents, both agreed in Belfast on Good Friday, 10 April 1998:

  • a multi-party agreement by most of Northern Ireland's political parties
  • an international agreement between the British and Irish governments
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 20

With reference to heating and cooling of the atmosphere, consider the following statements:
1. The process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as advection.
2. The transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of air is called convection.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 20
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The earth, after being heated by insolation, transmits the heat to the atmospheric layers near to the earth in the long waveform. The air in contact with the land gets heated slowly, and the upper layers in contact with the lower layers also get heated. This process is called conduction.
    The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and further transmits the heat of the atmosphere. This process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as convection. The convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of air is called advection. The horizontal movement of the air is relatively more important than the vertical movement. In middle latitudes, most diurnal (day and night) variations in daily weather are caused by advection alone. In tropical regions, particularly in northern India, during the summer season, local winds called ‘loo’ are the outcome of the advection process.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 21

With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Court comprises the Chief Justice and not less than 33 other Judges.
2. Judges must have been at least fi ve years as a Judge of a High Court.
3. The appointment of a Judge of a High Court may appoint as an Ad-hoc Judge of the Supreme Court.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 21

Supreme Court: Composition and Appointment of Judges

  • The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than 33 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
  • Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of 65 years. In order to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been, for atleast fi ve years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
  • Provisions exist for the appointment of a Judge of a High Court as an Ad-hoc Judge of the Supreme Court and for retired Judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts to sit and act as Judges of that Court.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 22

Consider the following statements.

  1. Earth spins around an imaginary axis which passes through the north pole, its centre of mass and the south pole.
  2. Rocks slowly circulating inside Earth’s mantle causes the planet’s mass to shift, leading to a change in the position of the rotational axis.
  3. Ocean currents and even hurricanes are also responsible for the change in the position of the earth’s rotational axis.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 22
  • The excessive extraction of groundwater for drinking and irrigation has shifted the Earth’s axis of rotation, according to a new study. Noting that humans pumped out around 2,150 gigatons of groundwater between 1993 and 2010, the study says that the planet’s axis has drifted at the rate of 4.36 cm per year towards the east.
  • Although the shift isn’t significant enough to have real-life consequences, the study shows that humans have extracted so much water from the ground that it has impacted the planet’s axis and contributed to global sea level rise.
  • Earth spins around an imaginary axis which passes through the north pole, its centre of mass and the south pole — just like a top spins around its spindle. Scientists for years have known that the poles and the axis keep shifting naturally as the mass distribution in and on the planet changes. This phenomenon is known as “polar motion”.
  • For instance, rocks slowly circulating inside Earth’s mantle causes the planet’s mass to shift, leading to a change in the position of the rotational axis. 
  • There are several other reasons responsible for polar motion like ocean currents and even hurricanes. But this phenomenon is also impacted by human activities.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 23

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop.
2. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.

Choose the correct option using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 23

Standing Crop

  • Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop.
  • The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.
  • The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight. Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 24

With reference to The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB), consider the following statements:
1. It is a global initiative focused on “making nature’s values visible”.
2. It finds its institutional home at the United Nations Environment Programme in Geneva.
3. Recently, the Government of India launched the TEEB-India Initiative at G20, 2023 summit.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 24

To determine which statements about The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) are not correct, let's analyze each statement:

1. It is a global initiative focused on “making nature’s values visible”.
   - This statement is correct. TEEB is indeed a global initiative aimed at highlighting the economic benefits of biodiversity and the costs of biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation.

2. It finds its institutional home at the United Nations Environment Programme in Geneva.
   - This statement is partially incorrect. While TEEB was initiated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), its secretariat is hosted by the United Nations Environment Programme's World Conservation Monitoring Centre (UNEP-WCMC) in Cambridge, UK, not in Geneva.

3. Recently, the Government of India launched the TEEB-India Initiative at G20, 2023 summit.
   - This statement is incorrect. There is no record of the Government of India launching a TEEB-India Initiative at the G20, 2023 summit.

Given this analysis:

- Statement 1 is correct.
- Statement 2 is partially incorrect (due to the wrong location).
- Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, the statements that are not correct are:

1. 2 and 3

The correct answer is:

1. 2 and 3

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 25

Regarding the appointment of High Court Judges, consider the following statements:

1. The President ensures the transfer of Chief Justice from one High Court to another.
2. The process of appointment must be completed at least 15 days prior to the date of anticipated vacancy for the Chief Justice of the High Court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 25

Appointment of High Court Judges

  • The Government has, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, decided as a matter of policy to appoint the Chief Justice of all High Courts from outside.
  • In case of initial appointment of a Chief Justice of a High Court, the provisions of Article 217 will have to be followed. In the case of Jammu & Kashmir High Court, appointment of Chief Justice shall be made in accordance with section 95 of the Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir. Transfer of Chief Justice from one High Court to another will be governed by the provision of Article 222. Transfer of a Chief Justice to and from Jammu & Kashmir High Court shall be made in accordance with clause (1) of Article 222 of the Constitution of India read with Article 222(1A) of the Constitution (Application to Jammu & Kashmir) Order, 1954.
  • For purposes of elevation as Chief Justices the inter-se seniority of puisne Judges will be reckoned on the basis of their seniority in their own High Courts and they will be considered for appointment as Chief Justices in other High Courts when their turn would normally have come for being considered for such appointment in their own High Courts.
  • A puisne Judge in a High Court who has one year or less to retire when his turn for being considered for elevation as Chief Justice arrives may be considered for appointment as Chief Justice in his own High Court if vacancy is to occur in the offi ce of the Chief Justice in that High Court during that period.
  • Initiation of the proposal for the appointment of Chief Justice of a High Court would be by the Chief Justice of India. The process of appointment must be initiated well in time to ensure the completion at least one month prior to the date of anticipated vacancy for the Chief Justice of the High Court. The Chief Justice of India would ensure that when a Chief Justice is transferred from one High Court to another simultaneous appointment of his successor in offi ce should be made and ordinarily the arrangement of appointment of an acting Chief Justice should not be made for more than one month.
  • The Chief Justice of India would send his recommendation for the appointment of a puisne Judge of the High Court as Chief Justice of that High Court or of another High Court, in consultation with the two senior-most Judges of the Supreme Court. He would also ascertain the views of the seniormost colleague in the Supreme Court who is conversant with the affairs of the High Court in which the recommendee has been functioning and whose opinion is likely to be signifi cant in adjudging the suitability of the candidate. It is of no consequence whether the Judge of the Supreme Court, so consulted, had that High Court as Parent High Court or was transferred there from any other High Court.
  • The views of the Judges of the Supreme Court thus consulted would then be sent by the Chief Justice of India alongwith his proposal, to the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 26

Consider the following statements:

1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.

2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 26

The correct option is 1, i.e 1 only.

  • The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 Part XX of the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct
  • The consent of the States is not mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
  • Only those provisions of the constitution which are related to the federal structure of India can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislature by a simple majority. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • There is no provision of joint sitting between the two houses for money bill and Constitution Amendment Bill.
  • The Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced either by the Minister or by private members and does not require prior permission of the president.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 27

Public goods in India refer to goods and services that are provided by the government and are available to the general public without any exclusion or rivalry. In this context, consider the following:

1. Public schools and universities

2. Law enforcement agencies

3. All India Radio and Doordarshan

4. Social Security Programs

How many of above-mentioned is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 27

Public goods in India refer to goods and services that are provided by the government and are available to the general public without any exclusion or rivalry. These goods are typically non-excludable, meaning that it is not feasible to exclude individuals from benefiting from them, and non-rivalrous, meaning that one person's consumption does not diminish the availability or quality of the good for others. Public goods play a crucial role in enhancing the overall welfare and development of society.

Examples

  • Infrastructure: infrastructure is a key public good in India. It includes the construction and maintenance of roads, highways, bridges, airports, seaports, railways, and public transportation systems. Education: Public schools and universities offer education at subsidized or no cost, ensuring that every individual has the opportunity to gain knowledge and skills necessary for personal and professional growth. Healthcare: Public healthcare services aim to ensure affordable and accessible medical facilities for all citizens.
  • Government hospitals, clinics, and primary healthcare centers provide essential healthcare services, preventive care, vaccinations, and emergency medical treatment. Law enforcement: Maintaining law and order is a crucial public good. Police Development of departments, judiciary, and other law enforcement agencies are responsible for maintaining peace, protecting citizens’ rights, and ensuring a just legal system.
  • Public parks and recreational facilities: Parks, playgrounds, and other recreational spaces are public goods that promote physical fitness, leisure activities, and community engagement. These spaces provide a platform for individuals to interact, relax, and engage in various outdoor activities.
  • Environmental conservation: This includes the conservation of forests, wildlife sanctuaries, and national parks, as well as efforts to mitigate pollution, promote sustainable practices, and ensure clean air and water resources.
  • Public broadcasting: Publicly-funded radio and television stations, such as All India Radio and Doordarshan, provide information, entertainment, and educational programs to the general public. These platforms contribute to the dissemination of news, culture, and diverse perspectives.
  • Disaster management: It involves the establishment of disaster response teams, early warning systems, and the provision of relief and rehabilitation measures in the aftermath of natural disasters.
  • Social welfare programs: Examples include food subsidies, public distribution systems, healthcare schemes, and social security programs.
  • National defense: It includes the maintenance of armed forces, border security, and defense infrastructure to protect the nation from external threats and maintain sovereignty.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

1. When Income increases, the demand curve shifts upwards for all goods.

2. The decrease in sales for a product attributed to shift towards cheaper alternatives in market.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The income effect describes how an increase in income can change the quantity of goods that consumers will demand. For normal goods, as income raises so does the demand for them (and vice-versa).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The substitution effect is the decrease in sales for a product that can be attributed to consumers switching to cheaper alternatives when its price rises.

Demand and Supply

  • This is reflected in microeconomics via an upward shift in the downward-sloping demand curve.
  • This effect, however, can vary depending on the availability of substitutes and the good’s elasticity of demand.
  • For inferior goods, the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leads consumers to purchase more of a good, and less of substitute goods, when the price rises.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court has only original and appellate jurisdiction.
2. Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 29

Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court 

  • The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.
  • Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 30

Consider the following:

1. Indica

2. Mahavamsa

3. Ritusamhara

4. Mudrarakshasa

How many of the above are the literary sources for the Mauryan empire?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 30
  • The establishment of the Mauryan dynasty by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 B.C. signifies a significant turning point in the early history of India. Among the most crucial literary sources from this period are the Arthasastra authored by Kautilya The Arthashastra, a comprehensive treatise on statecraft, offers advice to rulers on the governance of their realms and the fulfilment of their responsibilities. The Indica written by the Greek ambassador Megasthenes. It provides an account of ancient India, as observed by Megasthenes during his embassy to the court of Chandragupta Maurya. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • In addition to these works, the Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa, two historical texts originating from Ceylon, along with the play Mudrarakshasa by Visakhadatta, serve as valuable sources of information on the historical and cultural context of ancient India during the Mauryan period. Hence, Option 2 and 4 are correct.
  • The works of Kalidasa who lived during the Gupta period comprise poems and dramas. The famous among them are Abhijananashakuntalam, Ritusamhara and Meghadutam. Hence, Option 3 is incorrect.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 31

“Karle Chaitya," a significant rock-cut Buddhist monument in the western Deccan, belongs to which of the following periods?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 31

Karle is one of the most famous centres of early rock-cut architecture. The grand Chaitya griha of Karle is the grandest and the largest of all the chaitya-grihas of India. The group at Karle consists of 16 rock cut excavations of which cave 8 is the chaitya griha which was caused during Satavahanas. It is on the ancient highway connecting seaports of Kalyan and Sopara to the cities located inland. The monasteries at Karle could be dated between circa 60-40 B.C. and 4th century A.D. Except for three excavations of Mahayana phase the remaining belong to the Hinayana phase. The chaityagriha at Karle is also unique as it is one among the two chaitya grihas in western Deccan which has huge lion pillars in front, the other being Kanheri. Hence, Option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 32

With reference to the ancient India, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 32
  • Pair 1 is correctly matched: Sannidhata was the treasurer who was responsible for the storage of royal treasure, and of the state income both in cash and kind.
  • Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Sallekhana is death by fasting (religious) Since the founding of the religion, Jainism has given prominence to Sallekhana, death by ritual fasting facing north, as exemplified in the deaths of Bhadrabahu and Chandragupta Maurya.
  • Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Mauryan empire was a vast territorial entity. Various levels of administration were required to govern it well. Senior officers called pradeshikas were tasked with touring the empire every five years and performing an audit as well as keeping a check on the provincial administration. The Yukta was a junior officer giving secretarial kind of assistance to the other two. The officials fulfilled the following duties: survey and assessment of land; tours and inspections; revenue collection; and maintaining law and order.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

1. Union Public service commission (UPSC) is authorized to give advice to the Government on any matter referred by the President of India.
2. The formation of a permanent commission for civil services was brought in the Indian Councils Act of 1919.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 33

Union Public service commission (UPSC)

  • The Full Form of UPSC is Union Public Service Commission. It was established on October 1, 1926, under the name Public Service Commission. After being reconstructed in 1935 under the Government of India Act 1935, the Commission’s name was changed to Federal Public Service Commission.
  • It is an important institution in India that plays a signific ant role in the country’s governance and administration.
  • It is responsible for conducting prestigious civil service examinations and selecting candidates for various positions in the government.
  • The UPSC ensures a fair and meritbased selection process, aiming to recruit individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge to serve the nation effectively.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 34

Arrange the following steps in the process of decomposition in sequence.
1. Catabolism
2. Humification
3. Mineralisation
4. Leaching

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 34

Decomposition:

  • Decomposition is an important process in an ecosystem. It will keep the ecosystem clean and make our soil fertile. The decomposition process is done by the organisms called decomposers and it is a five-stage process in which dead organisms or substances are broken down into simpler organic or inorganic matter. It maintains the balance of an ecosystem.

Decomposition Process:

  • Fragmentation: Fragmentation is the first stage of the decomposition process. In this process, the invertebrates (Detitivoes) feed on the dead remains of plants and animals(Detritus). The complex organic matter passes through the digestive tract of detritivores and is degraded into small particles.
  • Leaching: Leaching is the second stage of the decomposition process. In this process, the water-soluble organic particles are transferred to the soil horizon and it gets precipitated as unavailable salt.
  • Catabolism: Catabolism is the third stage of the decomposition process. After breaking down the complex organic matters and removing water-soluble nutrients, the detritus is converted into small inorganic compounds. This process is done by various bacteria and fungi(Decomposers)
  • Humification: The above three stages are simultaneous. After that, the detritus is converted into humus. The process of formation of humus is known as humification and it is a rich fertilizer for the soil. It is highly resistant to microbial actions so it decomposes at an extremely slow rate. This stage of decomposition takes more time than other stages.
  • Mineralization: This is the last stage of the decomposition process. In this, the humus (colloidal nature) is converted into inorganic nutrients by some microbes. The inorganic nutrients are again used by plants and again the food chain begins.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 35

Consider the following statements:

1. Family planning was a major target of this Development Plan.

2. The Plan was based on the Gadgil strategy.

3. Emphasis was on the growth rate of agriculture to enable other sectors to move forward.

Which of the following Five-Year plans is best described by the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 35

The Fourth Five-Year plan period was 1969— 74. The Plan was based on the Gadgil strategy with a special focus on the ideas of growth with stability and progress towards self-reliance. Droughts and the Indo-Pak War of 1971— 72 led the economy to capital diversions, creating a financial crunch for the Plan.
The main emphasis was on the growth rate of agriculture to enable other sectors to move forward. The first two years of the plan saw record production. The last three years did not measure up due to poor monsoon. Implementation of Family Planning Programmes was among the major targets of the Plan.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 36

“The king Piyadassi, the beloved of the gods, respected all sects whether ascetics or householders, and he honours them with gifts and honours of various kinds…let an alien sect also be respected on every occasion.” Identify the Ashokan Rock edict from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 36

A closer look at Asokan edicts illustrates that basic attributes of Dhamma included compassion (daya), charity (dana), truthfulness, purity and gentleness.

  • Pillar Edict III asks subjects to control violence, cruelty, anger and envy.
  • Rock edict I call for a ban on animal sacrifice and social gatherings like samaj.
  • The Rock Edict II declares measures to be taken for the construction of hospitals, roads, inns, wells and planting of shade giving trees.
  • Third, Fourth and Twelfth rock edicts ask people to respect parents, relatives, brahmanas and shramanas(monks). He also appointed a special type of officials called dhamma mahamatras. Their main function was to oversee and supervise the peaceful function of the principles of Dhamma. Twelfth rock edict is specially important since it says “ the king Piyadassi, the beloved of the gods, respected all sects whether ascetics or householders, and he honours them with gifts and honours of various kinds...let an alien sect also be respected on every occasion.”
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 37

The painting of “Ladies attending Parvati” in the Virbhadra temple, Lepakshi, is one of the examples of which of the following paintings?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 37
  • The Virbhadra temple at Lepakshi is known for its architecture and mural paintings. ‘Ladies attending Parvati’ painting is one of the famous paintings in the Virbhadra temple, Lepakshi. In Lepakshi, near Hindupur, in present Andhra Pradesh, there are glorious examples of the Vijayanagara paintings on the walls of the Shiva temple.
  • The Vijayanagara painters evolved a pictorial language, wherein the faces are shown in profile and figures, and the objects two-dimensionally. Lines become still but fluid, compositions appear in rectilinear compartments. These stylistic conventions of the preceding centuries were adopted by the artists in various centres in South India, as can be seen in the paintings of the Nayaka period.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 38

With respect to the “Badami caves”, consider the following statements:

1. The Chalukya king, Pulakesi I, patronized the excavation of the Badami caves.

2. The inscription in Cave No.4 describes the beauty of the cave and includes the dedication of the image of Shiva.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 38

The Badami caves:

  • The Chalukya king, Mangalesha, patronized the excavation of the Badami caves (Karnataka). He was the younger son of the Chalukya king, Pulakesi I, and the brother of Kirtivarman I. 
  • The inscription in Cave No.4, which mentions the date 578CE – 579 CE, describes the beauty of the cave and includes the dedication of the image of Vishnu. Thus, it may be presumed that the cave was excavated in the same era and the patron records his Vaishnava affiliation. Therefore, the cave is popularly known as the Vishnu cave.
  • Paintings in this cave depict palace scenes. One shows Kirtivarman, the son of Pulakesi I and the elder brother of Mangalesha, seated inside the palace with his wife and feudatories watching a dance scene. Towards the corner of the panel are the figures of Indra and his retinue. Stylistically speaking, the painting represents an extension of the tradition of mural painting from Ajanta to Badami in South India. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 39

Consider the following countries:

1. Azerbaijan

2. Bahrain

3. Brunei

4. Indonesia

How many of the above countries are members of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries Plus (OPEC+) group?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 39

Over the past few years, OPEC+ meetings have focused on reducing oil production to help stabilize oil prices after the COVID-19 pandemic, which dramatically reduced demand and led to significantly lower oil prices. More recently, on April 2, 2023, OPEC+ members agreed to cut oil production by 1.2 million b/d until the end of 2023.
About OPEC+: The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries, also known as OPEC, was formed in 1960 by Iraq, Iran, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. The organization has since expanded to 13 members. OPEC regularly meets to set oil production targets and coordinate output to help manage global oil prices for the entire group.
In 2016, largely in response to dramatically falling oil prices driven by significant increases in U.S. shale oil output, OPEC signed an agreement with 10 other oil-producing countries to create what is now known as OPEC+. OPEC-plus countries include:

Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan, and Sudan.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 40

Consider the following statements about Harit Nauka Initiative:

  1. It is an initiative of the Indian Ports Association (IPA).
  2. It is aimed at promoting the adoption of greener technologies in inland waterway vessels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 40
  • Context: PM Modi will inaugurate India’s first green hydrogen fuel cell inland waterway vessel as part of the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
  • What is the Harit Nauka initiative?
    • The Harit Nauka initiative is a program launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways aimed at promoting the adoption of greener technologies in inland waterway vessels. It focuses on shifting inland vessels towards sustainable alternatives, such as hydrogen fuel cells, to reduce environmental impact.
    • This initiative aims to establish the V.O.Chidambaranar Port as India’s first Green Hydrogen Hub Port, with projects including a desalination plant and hydrogen production facility.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 41

Consider the following statements.

  1. An impact crater is a circular depression in the surface of a solid astronomical object formed due to volcanic explosion or internal collapse.
  2. The far side is also known as the dark side of the moon, which is not always hidden from earth.
  3. The lunar south pole also sits on the rim of a massive impact crater of the solar system.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 41

Only statement 3 is correct.

  • An impact crater is a circular depression in the surface of a solid astronomical object formed by the hypervelocity impact of a smaller object. In contrast to volcanic craters, which result from explosion or internal collapse, impact craters typically have raised rims and floors that are lower in elevation than the surrounding terrain.
  • The lunar south pole also sits on the rim of a massive impact crater of the solar system. Spanning a diameter of 2,500km (1,600 miles) and reaching depths of up to 8km, this crater is one of the most ancient features within the solar system.
  • The far side is also known as the dark side of the moon as it is always hidden from earth. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 42

Consider the following statements regarding Extended Fund Facility (EFF).

  1. The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a lending facility of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  2. It mainly provides assistance to countries for fulfilling developmental needs.
  3. Amounts drawn under an EFF can be repaid over 5 to 10 years in instalments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 42

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The EFF was established to provide assistance to countries experiencing serious payment imbalances because of structural impediments or slow growth and an inherently weak balance-of-payments position. An EFF provides support for comprehensive programs including the policies needed to correct structural imbalances over an extended period.

Extended arrangements are typically approved for periods of three years, but may be approved for periods as long as 4 years to implement deep and sustained structural reforms. Amounts drawn under an EFF are to be repaid over 4½–10 years in 12 equal semiannual installments.

As with other IMF lending, the size of borrowing under an EFF is guided by a country’s financing needs, capacity to repay, and track record with past use of IMF resources.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 43

Consider the following:
1. Geological Hazards
2. Meteorological Hazards
3. Hydrological Hazards
4. Biological Hazards
5. Nuclear/Radiological hazards

How many of the above hazards can be mainly categorised as natural hazards?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 43

Hazards may be natural, anthropogenic or socionatural in origin. Natural hazards are predominantly associated with natural processes and phenomena.
Natural hazards can be classified into several broad categories: geological hazards, hydrological hazards, meteorological hazards, and biological hazards.

  • Geological Hazards: These are hazards driven by geological or earth processes, in particular, plate tectonics. This includes earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. In general, geological extreme events are beyond human influence, though humans have large influence on the impacts of the events. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Meteorological Hazards: These are hazards driven by meteorological or weather processes, in particular those related to temperature and wind. This includes heat waves, cold waves, cyclones, hurricanes, and freezing rain. Cyclones are commonly called hurricanes in the Atlantic and typhoons in the Pacific Ocean. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Hydrological Hazards: These are hazards driven by hydrological or water processes. This includes floods, droughts, mudslides, and tsunamis. Floods and droughts can cause extensive damage to agriculture and are among the main contributors to famine. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Biological Hazards: These are hazards driven by biological processes. This includes various types of disease, including infectious diseases that spread from person to person, threatening to infect large portions of the human population. Some examples are the Black Death outbreak of bubonic plague in the 1300s, killing 75-100 million people, and the 1918 “Spanish” flu pandemic, killing 50-100 million people. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Anthropogenic hazards, or humaninduced hazards, are induced entirely or predominantly by human activities and choices. Nuclear/Radiological hazards are of such type. Hence, option 5 is incorrect.
  • Nuclear/Radiological hazards: Radiological and nuclear emergencies are incidents in which a key component involves radioactive material. Different types of radiation emergencies vary in how much damage they can cause and the harm they pose to the public. Some examples of radiation hazards include a nuclear detonation (explosion), an accident at a nuclear power plant, a transportation accident involving a shipment of radioactive materials, or occupational exposure (as in a healthcare or research setting).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 44

Consider the following statements regarding Gallium and Germanium, the rare earth minerals, recently seen in news:

  1. Both minerals can be found in Zinc ores.
  2. While Gallium is used in semiconductor devices, Germanium finds application in solar cells.
  3. India has no Gallium deposits but Germanium is recovered as a byproduct of alumina.

How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 44
  • In an escalation of its ongoing Cold War with the United States over access to critical technologies, China announced control measures over the export of certain strategic minerals including Gallium and Germanium.
  • Germanium and gallium are rare metals that are used in a variety of high-tech applications. Germanium is a silvery-white metal that is transparent to infrared radiation. It is used in fiber optic cables, night vision devices, and solar cells. Gallium is a silvery-gray metal that is liquid at room temperature. It is used in semiconductor devices, such as lasers and LEDs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Since these metals are relatively rare, there is a risk of supply disruptions. In addition, the production of germanium and gallium requires specialized facilities, so there are a limited number of companies that can produce these metals.
  • The demand for germanium and gallium is expected to increase in the coming years due to the growth of the semiconductor industry and the development of new technologies such as 5G, artificial intelligence, quantum computing and renewable energy. The prices of these metals have also risen significantly in recent years due to supply constraints and geopolitical tensions.
  • Germanium is found in small amounts in zinc ores, coal fly ash, and some other minerals. Gallium is more abundant than germanium, but it is still considered a strategic material. It is found in trace amounts in bauxite and zinc ores, and it is produced as a byproduct of the aluminum and zinc industries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • In line with the country's Atmanirbhar (self-reliance) roadmap and considering the requirements of sectors such as defence, agriculture, energy, pharmaceuticals, and telecom, India has identified 30 critical minerals including the two said minerals. The Ministry of Mines unveiled the first-ever report titled 'Critical Minerals for India'.
  • According to the ministry’s report, Germanium is not available in India. India is 100% dependent on imports to meet its germanium requirements. China, South Africa, Australia, France and the US are leading import sources for germanium. Meanwhile, Gallium is recovered as a by-product while producing alumina. Two plants, namely, HINDALCO at Renukoot, Uttar Pradesh and NALCO Damanjodi alumina refinery, Odisha, had recovered Gallium in the past, the ministry said in its report. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 45

Consider the following statements regarding the making of Indian Constitution:
1. Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the fi rst Indian to join Viceroy Executive Council under Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.
2. Montagu-Chelmsford reforms for the fir st time authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 45

Making of Indian Constitution

  • The Act of 1861 was important in the constitutional history because it enabled the Governor-General to associate the people of the land with work of legislation. And by vesting legislative powers in the Governments of Bombay and Madras which ultimately culminated in grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in the 1937.
  • However, the legislative councils were merely talk shops with no power to criticize the administration or ask for some information.
  • Their scope was fi xed in legislation purpose alone; they had no right to move some kind of vote of no confid ence. Further, there was no statutory / specifi c provision for the nomination of Indians.
  • This nomination power of the Viceroy could be used only to placate the princes who could help the British to keep their stronghold.
  • Further, the ordinance making power of the Governor General allowed him to make laws it his own whim. In summary, the Indian Councils Act 1861 failed to satisfy the aspirations of the people of India.
  • Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the fi rst Indian to join viceroy executive council under Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.
  • Montagu-Chelmsford reforms for the fir st time authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

  1. There was rise of a new Left-Wing in the Congress under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose.
  2. The first All-Bengal Conference of Students was presided over by Subhash Chandra Bose.
  3. S.A. Dange became the first Indian to be elected to the leadership of the Communist International.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 46
  • The year 1927 witnessed many portents of national recovery and the emergence of the new trend of socialism. Marxism and other socialist ideas spread rapidly. Politically, this force and energy found reflection in the rise of a new Left-Wing in the Congress, under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose. The Left Wing did not confine its attention to the struggle against imperialism. It simultaneously raised the question of internal class oppression by the capitalists and the landlords. The Indian youth were becoming active. All over the country, youth leagues were being formed and student conferences held.
  • The first All-Bengal Conference of Students was held in August, 1928, and was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru. After this, many other student associations were started in the country and hundreds of student and youth conferences were held. They also put forward and popularized the programme of complete independence. Socialist and Communist groups came into existence in the 1920s.
  • The example of the Russian Revolution aroused interest among many young nationalists. Many of them were dissatisfied with the Gandhian political ideas and programmes, and turned to the socialist ideology for guidance. M.N. Roy became the first Indian to be elected to the leadership of the Communist International. In 1924, the government arrested Muzaffar Ahmed and S.A. Dange, accused them of spreading Communist ideas, and tried them, along with others, in the Kanpur Conspiracy case.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 47

Regarding the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. Educational Rights are enshrined in Part III and Part IV of the Constitution.
2. Under Article 28 of the Indian Constitution, cultural rights are guaranteed to all citizens.
3. Article 29 guarantees the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 47
  • Statement 1 is correct: Educational Rights are enshrined in Part III and Part IV of the Constitution. 
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 29 of the Indian Constitution, cultural rights are guaranteed to all citizens.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 30 guarantees the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Cultural and Educational Rights

  • Cultural and educational rights are an essential part of the Indian Constitution, which recognizes the signifi cance of preserving and promoting diverse cultures and ensuring equal access to education for all citizens.
  • These rights are enshrined in Part III and Part IV of the Constitution, which respectively deal with fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy. The cultural and educational rights aim to foster a harmonious and inclusive society, upholding the principles of social justice and equality.
  • Under Article 29 of the Indian Constitution, cultural rights are guaranteed to all citizens. It provides for the protection of the rights of minorities to conserve their distinct language, script, and culture.
  • It ensures that any section of citizens with a distinct culture, language, or script has the right to preserve and develop it.
  • This provision prohibits the denial of admission to educational institutions on the grounds of religion, race, caste, language, or any of these factors. It safeguards the rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  • Furthermore, Article 30 guarantees the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. It ensures that all religious and linguistic minorities have the freedom to manage their educational institutions, both aided and unaided, without discrimination.
  • This provision recognizes the importance of preserving and promoting the cultural and educational autonomy of minorities, enabling them to impart education that aligns with their cultural, religious, and linguistic values.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 48

With reference to Wood‟s Despatch, consider the following statements:

  1. It made the Government of India responsible for the education of masses.
  2. It recommended English as the medium of instruction at schools and colleges‟ level.
  3. It recommended a system of grantsin-aid to encourage private enterprise.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 48

Wood‘s Despatch 1835:

  • Considered the ―Magna Carta of English Education in India‖, this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India.
  • It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the downward filtration theory‘, at least on paper.
  • It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by AngloVernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
  • It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
  • It laid stress on female and vocational education, and on teachers‘ training.
  • It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.
  • It recommended a system of grantsin-aid to encourage private enterprise. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 49

Consider the following statements with reference to the Government e-Market place:
1. It is a one stop portal to facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by various Government Departments.
2. The Seller(s) on GeM will be the Original Equipment Manufacturers or their authorized channel partner resellers.
3. All Central government and State Government Ministries and Departments are authorized to make procurement through GeM portal.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 49

Statement 1 is correct: Government eMarketplace (GeM) is a one stop portal to facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by various Government Departments / Organizations / PSUs. GeM aims to enhance transparency, efficiency and speed in public procurement. It provides the tools of e-bidding, reverse eauction and demand aggregation to facilitate the government users achieve the best value for their money.
Statement 2 is correct: The “Seller(s)” on GeM will be the OEMs (Original Equipment Manufacturers) and/or their authorized channel partner(s)/ resellers (having any general authorization / dealership of the OEM to sell their product in open market) and e- Marketplaces.

Steps to sell on GeM:

  • Register yourself on the GeM portal.
  • List your products under specific product categories.
  • Once an order is received, deliver the product to the Consignee duly entering its details on the portal.
  • Once an order is successfully delivered, Consignee shall inspect / test the product for its conformity with contract specifications and issue acceptance / rejection through on-line CRAC.
  • After CRAC, buyer will process the bill and forward to paying authority for time bound payments.

Statement 3 is correct: All Central government and State Government Ministries/Departments including its attached/subordinate offices, Central and State autonomous bodies, Central and State Public Sector Units and local bodies etc. are authorized to make procurement through GeM portal. Authorized officers of the rank of Deputy Secretary/Equivalent or Head of the Office at Sub Center / Unit / Branch of Government Organisation / PSU / Autonomous Bodies / Local Bodies / Constitution Bodies / Statuary Bodies can register as Primary User on GeM and they can buy on the portal.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 50

Stripe Rust is a common disease of which plant?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 50

Stripe Rust of wheat

  • Context: Indian Institute of Wheat and Barley Research, Kamal (Haryana) has appealed to the farmers to remain vigilant against yellow rust. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • Caused by a fungal pathogen, Puccinia striiformis.
  • It appears in the form of yellow stripes on wheat leaves.
  • Major States affected: Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
  • Treatment: Spray Propiconazole Fungicides.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 51

Consider the following statements with reference to Green Climate Fund:

1. It was established by UN Framework Convention on Climate Change member countries in 2010.

2. The Fund allocates its resources in lowemission and climate-resilient development projects in developing countries.

3. Stockholm convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is specifically funded by this fund.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 51
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Green Climate Fund was established by 194 countries party to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change in 2010. It is designed as an operating entity of the Convention’s financial mechanism and is headquartered in the Republic of Korea. It is governed by a 24 Board member Board, representing countries, and receives guidance from the Conference of the Parties to the Convention (COP). Created by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the Fund aims to support a paradigm shift in the global response to climate change.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The fund allocates its resources to low-emission and climateresilient projects and programmes in developing countries. The Fund pays particular attention to the needs of societies that are highly vulnerable to the effects of climate change, in particular Least Developed Countries (LDCs), Small Island Developing States (SIDS), and African States.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife, and have harmful impacts on human health or on the environment. The Global Environment Facility finances the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).

The GEF is also a Financial Mechanism for four other major international environmental conventions:

  • Minamata Convention on Mercury
  • United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD)
  • United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
  • United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 52

Consider the following statements:

  1. Stunting is defined as low weight-for - height. whereas wasting is defined as low height-for-age.
  2. Both Stunting and wasting are result of chronic under-nutrition.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 52
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Stunting is defined as low height-for-age whereas wasting is defined as low weighb-forheight.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Stunting is the result of chronic or recurrent under- nutrition, usually associated with poverty.
  • poor maternal health and nutrition, frequent illness and/or inappropriate feeding and care in early life. Wasting often inchoates recent and severe weight loss, although it can also persist for a long time. Both stunting and wasting are result of chronic undernutrition.

Stunting

  • Stunting is measured based on a child’s height relative to their age.
  • The World Health Organization (WHO) sets out global growth curves — these show the expected trajectory of a child’s growth from birth through to adulthood.
  • Of course, we would not expect everyone to be exactly the same height — there is a range of factors, such as genetics, which influence our height and are not a reflection of poor health or malnutrition. These growth curves therefore span a range of heights.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 53

The Supreme Court has delivered numerous landmark judgments that have shaped the understanding and protection of fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution. In this context, consider the following judgments:
1. Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi (2009)
2. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)

Which of the above case is/are related to Right to Privacy?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 53

Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi (2009)

  • The Supreme Court, in this judgment, decriminalized consensual homosexual acts by reading down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code.
  • The court held that Section 377 violated the fundamental rights to privacy, dignity, and equality of LGBTQ+ individuals.

Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)

  • This case recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution.
  • The Supreme Court held that privacy is intrinsic to the entire fundamental rights chapter of the Constitution and protects personal autonomy and dignity.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 54

Consider the following statements:
1. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
2. The Sendai Framework recognizes that the State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 54
  • Statement 1 is correct: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister of India, is the apex body for Disaster Management in India. Setting up of NDMA and the creation of an enabling environment for institutional mechanisms at the State and District levels is mandated by the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
    NDMA is mandated to lay down the policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster Management. India envisions the development of an ethos of Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness and Response.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 (Sendai Framework) was the first major agreement of the post-2015 development agenda and provides the States with concrete actions to protect development gains from the risk of disaster. The Sendai Framework works hand in hand with the other 2030 Agenda agreements. It was endorsed by the UN General Assembly following the 2015 Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (WCDRR), and advocates for the substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods and health and in the economic, physical, social, cultural and environmental assets of persons, businesses, communities and countries.
    It recognizes that the State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk but that responsibility should be shared with other stakeholders including local government, the private sector and other stakeholders.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 55

How many of the following are the benefits of Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR)?

  1. Savings on irrigation water
  2. Reduces cultivation time
  3. Lower seed rates
  4. Lower GHG emissions

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 55
  • Direct seeding is a crop establishment system wherein rice seeds are sown directly into the field, a opposed to the traditional method of growing seedlings in a nursery, then transplanting into flooded fields.
  • Direct-seeded rice is seen to be one of the most efficient, sustainable, and economically viable ric production systems used today. Compared to the conventional puddled transplanted rice (PTR) method prevalent in Asia, DSR delivers faster planting and maturing, conserves scarce resources like water an labor, is more conducive to mechanization, and reduces emissions of greenhouse gases that contribute climate change.
  • Advantages of direct seeding
    • No significant reduction of yield under optimal conditions
    • Savings on irrigation water by 12-35% under efficient water management practices
    • Reduces labor and drudgery by eliminating seedling uprooting and transplanting
    • Reduces cultivation time, energy, and cost
    • No plant stress from transplanting
    • Faster maturation of crops
    • Lower GHG emissions
    • Mechanized DSR provides employment opportunities for youth through service provision business model
    • Increases total income by reducing cost of cultivation
  • Current constraints
    • Higher seed rates
    • Seeds exposed to birds and pests
    • Weed management
    • Higher risk of lodging
    • Risk of poor or non-uniform crop establishment
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 5 - Question 56