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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 1

Consider the following statements:

  1. The scheme is being implemented by the Central Ground Water Board under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
  2. It envisages mapping of water bearing formations and their characterization.
  3. It facilitates sustainable management of groundwater resources and rainwater harvesting.
  4. It is implemented only the Centre without intervention from States/UTs.

How many of the above statements is/ are correct with reference to National Aquifer Mapping and Management programme?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 1

Statement 4 is incorrect: NAQUIM outputs are shared with States/UTs for suitable interventions.

National Aquifer Mapping and Management programme

  • National Aquifer Mapping and Management programme (NAQUIM) is being implemented by CGWB as part of Ground Water Management and Regulation (GWM&R) Scheme, a Central Sector scheme.
  • NAQUIM envisages mapping of aquifers (water bearing formations), their characterization and development of Aquifer Management Plans to facilitate sustainable management of groundwater resources in the country.
  • NAQUIM outputs are shared with States/UTs for suitable interventions
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Mauritius and Reunion Islands of the Indian Ocean are the coral islands.
Statement-II: The coral islands are very much lower and emerge just above the water surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 2
  • Statement-I is incorrect: Mauritius and Réunion are volcanic islands located in the Indian Ocean. Mauritius is situated to the east of the continent of Africa. It is formed by volcanic activity and is part of a submerged mountain range that extends beneath the Indian Ocean.
    Réunion, a French overseas territory and is located further to the southwest of Mauritius. Like Mauritius, Réunion is also a volcanic island, and its Piton de la Fournaise is one of the most active volcanoes in the world.
  • Statement-II is correct: Unlike the volcanic islands, the coral islands are very much lower and emerge just above the water’s surface. These islands, built up by coral animals of various species, are found both near the shores of the mainland and in the midst of oceans.
    Coral islands include the Marshall Islands, Gilbert and Ellice Islands of the Pacific; Bermuda in the Atlantic and the Laccadives and Maldives of the Indian Ocean.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

1. The climate and soil of the country

2. The prominence of slavery in India

3. The seven castes of the Indian

4. The Pataliputra as the capital of the Maurya

How many of the above were mentioned by Megasthenes in Indica ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 3
  • Indica is an account left by a Greek ambassador, Megasthenes. This book has not survived, but its fragments are preserved in later Greek and Latin works of Diodorus, Pliny (Roman scholar who cite Megasthenes ’s observations), and Arrian.
  • Indica describes the sub-continent in terms of its size and shape (India is a quadrilateralshaped country, bound by the ocean on the southern and the eastern side), soil, climate, rivers, plants, animals (contains lengthy descriptions of elephants, horses, and monkeys as it appears that Greeks were specially captivated by Indian animals), produce, administration, society, legends, and folklore. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Megasthenes in his book Indica wrote all Indians are free and not even one of them is a slave.Hence, Option 2 is incorrect.
  • Megasthenes, influenced by Herodotus’s classification of the Egyptian society into seven classes based on the professional criterion, mentioned the existence of seven castes in India too. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • The Greek ambassador also refers to the administration of Pataliputra, the capital of the Mauryas. The city was administered by six committees, each of which consisted of five members. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 4

Consider the following statements with reference to the International Telecommunication Union (ITU):
1. It is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies.
2. The union allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 4
  • Statement 1 is correct: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies – ICTs. ITU is a unique platform for global public-private partnerships. By joining ITU, you can become part of a community of more than 20'000 professionals. At ITU, members from the public and private sectors are working together to help shape the future ICT policy and regulatory environment, global standards, and best practices to help spread access to ICT services.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Union was founded in 1865 to facilitate international connectivity in communications networks, we allocate global radio spectrum and satellite orbits, develop the technical standards that ensure networks and technologies seamlessly interconnect, and strive to improve access to ICTs to underserved communities worldwide. Every time you make a phone call via mobile, access the Internet or send an email, you are benefitting from the work of ITU.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 5

With reference to the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), consider the following statements:
1. It is a custodian of the National Zoological Collections.
2. It prepares Red Data Book, Fauna ofIndia and does chromosomal mapping and DNA finger printing of fauna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 5

Zoological Survey of India

  • It was established on 1st July, 1916 to promote survey, exploration and research leading to the advancement in our knowledge of exceptionally rich faunal life. It acts as a custodian of the National Zoological Collections and the headquarters are at Kolkata. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It prepares Red Data Book, Fauna of India and does chromosomal mapping and DNA finger printing of fauna. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 6

Consider the following factors:
1. The rotation of the earth on its axis.
2. The angle of inclination of the sun's rays.
3. The length of the day.

Which of the above factors influence the incoming solar radiation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 6

Incoming Solar Radiation, or Insolation, is the energy received by the earth's surface mostly in the form of short waves. The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during the day, in a season and in a year. The factors that cause these variations in insolation are:
1. The rotation of the earth on its axis;
2. The angle of inclination of the sun’s rays;
3. The length of the day;
4. The transparency of the atmosphere;
5. The configuration of land in terms of its aspect.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 7

Consider the following statements with respect to United Nations General Assembly (UNGA):
1. In UNGA, each of the Member States of the United Nations has an equal vote.
2. The Assembly meets in regular sessions from September to december each year.
3. The UNGA elects the non-permanent members of the Security Council.
4. The Credentials Committee is appointed by the UNGA at each session.

How many of the above statements are correct? n ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 7
  • Recent context: Recently, the UN General Assembly voted by a large margin against the US' economic and trade embargo against Cuba. A total of 187 states voted for the resolution put forward against the embargo with only the US and Israel voting against and Ukraine abstaining.
  • Established in 1945 under the Charter of the United Nations, the General Assembly occupies a central position as the chief deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the United Nations. Comprised of all 193 Members of the United Nations, it provides a unique forum for multilateral discussion of the full spectrum of international issues covered by the Charter. Each of the 193 Member States of the United Nations has an equal vote. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The UNGA also makes key decisions for the UN, including:
    • appointing the Secretary-General on the recommendation of the Security Council o electing the non-permanent members of the Security Council o approving the UN budget. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The Assembly meets in regular sessions from September to December each year, and thereafter as required. It discusses specific issues through dedicated agenda items or sub-items, which lead to the adoption of resolutions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President. The Committee reports to the Assembly on the credentials of representatives. Hence statement 4 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 8

Which of the following statements regarding Haemophilia A is true? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 8
  • Context: India has successfully conducted the first human clinical trial for gene therapy targeting ‘haemophilia A’.
  • The trials utilized a novel technology involving a lentiviral vector to express an FVIII transgene in the patient’s own haematopoietic stem cell, leading to the expression of FVIII from specific differentiated blood cells.
  • Hemophilia A, also known as classical haemophilia or factor VIII deficiency, is a hereditary bleeding disorder. It’s caused by a mutation on the X-chromosome’s Factor VIII gene, which means that only boys are affected. In most cases, the mutation is passed down from parent to child.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

  1. Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by Ministry of finance through the calculation of poverty line based on the data captured by the National Sample Survey Office.
  2. Poverty line estimation in India is based on the consumption expenditure and not on the income levels.
  3. Rangarajan Committee, which submitted report in 2014, estimated that the three out of 10 people in India were poor.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 9
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by NITI Aayog’s task force 
  • Statement 2 is correct: Poverty line estimation in India is based on the consumption expenditure and not on the income levels.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The report said that poverty was much higher in 2011-2012 at 29.5% of the population, which means that three out of 10 people in India were poor.

Poverty estimation

  • Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by NITI Aayog’s task force through the calculation of poverty and based on the data captured by the National Sample Survey Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI).
  • Poverty line estimation in India is based on the consumption expenditure and not on the income levels because of the following reasons:
  • Variation in Income: Income of self- employed people, daily wage laborers etc. is highly variable both temporally and spatially, while consumption pattern are comparatively much stable.
  • Additional Income: Even in the case of regular wage earners, there are additional side incomes in many cases, which is difficult to take into account.
  • Data Collection: In case of consumption based poverty line, sample based surveys use a reference period (say 30 days) in which households are asked about their consumption of last 30 days and is taken as the representative of general consumption. Whereas tracing the general pattern of income is not possible.
  • The Planning commission created a new panel headed by C Rangarajan Committee (2012) on poverty estimation that would provide an alternate method to identify poverty levels and examine divergences between the consumption data provided by the NSSO and the National Accounts aggregates
  • The committee submitted its final report on 2014. The report dismissed the Tendulkar Committee's estimation of the poverty level in Incha. The report said that poverty was much higher in 2011-2012 at 29.5% of the population, which means that three out of 10 people in India were poor.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 10

Undemarcated protected forests cannot be used for non-forest purposes without clearance under

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 10

Different Types of Forests under India Forest Act, 1927:

  • Reserved Forests: They are the most restricted forests and are constituted by the State Government on any forest land or wasteland which is the property of the Government. Local people are prohibited, unless specifically allowed by a Forest Officer in the course of the settlement.
  • Protected Forests: The State Government is empowered to constitute any land other than reserved forests as protected forests over which the Government has proprietary rights and the power to issue rules regarding the use of such forests. This power has been used to establish State control over trees, whose timber, fruit or other non-wood products have revenue-raising potential.
  • Village forest: Village forests are the one in which the State Government may assign to ‘any village community the rights of Government to or over any land which has been constituted a reserved forest’. Undemarcated Protected Forest
  • Undemarcated Protected Forests are also called the Orange areas, are the result of an administrative logjam that remained a bone of contention between the Revenue and the Forest departments since the abolition of the zamindari system in 1951.
  • Undemarcated protected forests cannot be used for non-forest purposes without clearance under the Forest Conservation (FC) Act, 1980. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 11

With reference to ancient India, the terms ‘Kataka’ and ‘Skandhavaras’ referred to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 11

The military character of the Satavahanas is evident with the use of terms like kataka and skandhavaras in their inscriptions, which denote military camps and settlements attached to a particular king and also served as administrative centres.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 12

Consider the following characteristics:
1. Short life
2. High solubiliOty in water
3. Low mobility
4. Biologically inactive

In order for biomagnification to occur, a pollutant must posess how many of the above characteristics?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 12
  • Bioaccumulation: It refers to how pollutants enter a food chain. In bioaccumulation there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.
  • Biomagnification: It refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next. Thus in biomagnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
  • We are concerned about these phenomena because together they enable even small concentrations of chemicals in the environment to find their way into organisms in high enough dosages to cause problems. In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be
    • long-lived;
    • mobile;
    • soluble in fats;
    • biologically active. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
  • If a pollutant is short-lived, it will be broken down before it can become dangerous. If it is not mobile, it will stay in one place and is unlikely to be taken up by organisms. If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be excreted by the organism. Pollutants that dissolve in fats, however, may be retained for a long time.
  • It is traditional or customary to measure the amount of pollutants in fatty tissues of organisms such as fish. In mammals, we often test the milk produced by females, since the milk has a lot of fat in it and because the very young are often more susceptible to damage from toxins (poisons). If a pollutant is not active biologically, it may biomagnify, but we really do not worry about it much, since it probably, will not cause any problems.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding radiocarbon dating:

  1. Radioactive isotope commonly used in radiocarbon dating is C-14.
  2. It can measure age of fossils up to 100 million years old.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 13
  • Radiocarbon dating, also known as carbon-14 dating, is a widely used method for determining the age of organic materials by measuring the radioactive decay of Carbon-14 (A14C). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Radiocarbon dating relies on the radioactive isotope Carbon-14 (C-14), a naturally occurring isotope of carbon. Carbon-14 is produced in the atmosphere through the interaction of cosmic rays with nitrogen-14.
    • Living organisms take in carbon, including the radioactive C-14, through processes such as photosynthesis or consumption of other organisms.
    • When an organism dies, it stops taking in carbon, and the C-14 in its tissues undergoes radioactive decay.
    • By measuring the remaining C-14 in a sample, scientists can estimate the time that has elapsed since the death of the organism.
  • Radiocarbon dating has limitations on its effective dating range. The half-life of Carbon-14 is approximately 5,730 years. As a result, radiocarbon dating is most effective for dating materials up to around 50,000 years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Beyond this timeframe, the amount of remaining Carbon-14 becomes too small to provide accurate measurements.
  • For dating fossils or materials that are millions of years old, other dating methods based on different isotopes, such as uranium-series dating or potassium-argon dating, are more appropriate
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 14

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 14

There are a total 33 inscriptions and are primarily classified into Major Rock Edicts, Minor Rock Edicts, Separate Rock Edicts, Major Pillar Edicts, and Minor Pillar Edicts.

  • Pair 1 is correctly matched: First Edict: Declared prohibition of animal sacrifice Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Four Edict: Bheri Ghosha (war drum) replaced by Dhamma Ghosha and King Ashoka attached greatest value to this duty Fifth Edict: Appointment of Dhamma Mahamattas, a special cadre of officials entrusted to spread dhamma within the kingdom Pair 3 is correctly matched: Seventh Edict: Religious tolerance amongst all sects and welfare measures for public not only in his own kingdom but also in the neighbouring kingdoms of Cholas, Pandyas, and that of Antiochus in the north-west.
  • Pair 4 is correctly matched: Thirteenth Edict: The Kalinga war (261 BCE, occurred in the ninth year after Ashoka’s consecration) changed his attitude and Ashoka, who was the worshipper of Shiva, turned towards Buddhism.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding the basic form of the Hindu temple?

1. The Garbhagriha is made to house the main icon, which is itself the focus of much ritual attention.

2. The Vahan, i.e., the mount or the vehicle of the temple’s main deity, along with a standard pillar or Dhvaj, is placed axially before the sanctum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 15

The basic form of the Hindu temple comprises the following:

  • Sanctum (Garbhagriha, literally the ‘womb-house’), which was a small cubicle with a single entrance and grew into a larger chamber in time. The Garbhagriha is made to house the main icon, which is itself the focus of much ritual attention.
  • The entrance to the temple, which may be a portico or a colonnaded hall, that incorporates space for a large number of worshippers, is known as the Mandapa.
  • The freestanding temples tend to have a mountain-like spire, which can take the shape of a curving Shikhara in North India and a pyramidal tower, called a Vimana, in South India.
  • The Vahan, i.e., the mount or the vehicle of the temple’s main deity, along with a standard pillar or Dhvaj, is placed axially before the sanctum. Two broad orders of temples in the country are known— Nagara in the north and Dravida in the south. At times, the Vesar style of temples, as an independent style created through the selective mixing of the Nagara and the Dravida orders.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 16

With respect to lentils production in India, consider the following statements:

  1. In India, Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of lentils.
  2. India is the largest producer of lentils in the world.
  3. India is the net exporter of lentils in the world because of surplus lentil production.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 16
  • Recent Context: As per fourth advanced estimate from Directorate of Economics and Statistics Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Govt. of India, In 2022 Uttar Pradesh is the leading lentil producing state in India (0.47 million tonnes from 0.49 ha. acreage, 36.43 % of national production), followed by Madhya Pradesh (0.44 million tonnes from 0.49 million ha. acreage. 34.55% of national production), West Bengal (10.53%), Bihar (8.84%) and Jharkhand (4.50%). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • India is the second largest producer of Lentils after Canada. India is set to become the world’s largest producer of lentil (masoor) during the 2023-24 crop year on account of higher acreage. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • India, despite being among the world’s top five lentil growers, second only to Canada, depends on imports to meet its domestic demands. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding Danube River.

  1. The Danube is the longest river in Europe.
  2. Originating in Germany, the Danube River drains into the Black Sea.
  3. It flows through Vienna, Budapest, and Belgrade.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 17

Statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The Danube is the second-longest river in Europe.
  • Originating in Germany, the Danube River drains into the Black Sea.
  • Among the many cities on the river are four national capitals: Vienna, Bratislava, Budapest, and Belgrade.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the 19th century, the newly educated persons were inspired by the humanistic ideals of social equality.
  2. In the 20th century, the National Movement became the main propagator of social reforms.
  3. During the 19th nineteenth century, social reforms were linked with religious reforms, but in the later years, they were increasingly secular in approach.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 18
  • The major effect of national awakening in the 19th century was seen in the field of social reforms. The newly educated persons increasingly revolted against the rigid social conventions and outdated customs. They could no longer tolerate irrational and dehumanising social practices. In their revolt they were inspired by the humanistic ideals of social equality and the equal worth of all individuals. Nearly all the religious reformers contributed to the social reforms movement.
  • This was because the backward features of the Indian society, such as the caste system or inequality of the sexes, had religious sanctions in the past. In addition, certain other organizations, like the Social Conference; the Servants of India Society; and the Christian Missionaries worked actively for social reforms. Many prominent persons, like Jotiba Govind Phule, Gopal Hari Deshmukh, Justice Ranade, K.T. Telang, B.M. Malabari, D.K. Karve, Sasipada Banerjee, B.C. Pal, Viresalingam, Sri Narayan Guru, E.V Ramaswami Naicker and B.R. Ambedkar, and many others, also played an important role. In the 20th century, and especially after 1919, the National Movement became the main propagator of social reforms. Increasingly, the reformers took recourse to propaganda in the Indian languages to reach the masses.
  • They also used novels, dramas, poetry, short stories, the Press and, in the thirties, the cinema to spread their views. While social reforms were linked with religious reforms in some cases during the 19th century, in the later years they were increasingly secular in approach. Moreover, many people, who were orthodox in their religious approach, participated in them.
  • Similarly, in the beginning, social reforms had largely been the effort of the newly educated Indians, belonging to the higher castes to adjust their social behaviour to the requirements of the modern western culture and values. But gradually it penetrated down to the lower strata of the society, and began to revolutionize and reconstruct the social sphere. In time, the ideas and ideals of the reformers won almost universal acceptance and are today enshrined in the Indian Constitution. The social reform movements tried in the main to achieve two objectives : the emancipation of women and extension of equal rights to them; and the removal of caste rigidities and in particular the abolition of untouchability.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 19

With reference to India Justice Report 2022, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It was released by Tata Trusts in collaboration with civil society organizations.

2. Only the High Court of Sikkim and the district courts in Chandigarh work with full capacity of judges in the country.

3. The only state that fulfilled the mandated quotas for SC, ST and OBCs in the police forces is Tamil Nadu.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 19
  • Statement 1 is correct: The India Justice Report (IJR) 2022 is a collaborative effort undertaken by Tata Trusts in partnership with DAKSH, Commonwealth Human Rights Initiative, Common Cause, Centre for Social Justice, Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy and TISS-Prayas. It tracks improvements and persisting deficits in each state’s structural and financial capacity to deliver justice based on quantitative measurements of budgets, human resources, infrastructure, workload, and diversity across police, judiciary, prisons and legal aid for all 36 states and UTs.
  • Statement 2 is correct: According to the report, No court works with a full capacity of judges in the country except the High Court of Sikkim and the district courts in Chandigarh. At the district court level no state/UT could fully meet all its SC, ST and OBC quotas. Data on SC/ST/ OBC judges is not available for High Courts.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the report, Not a single state/UT meets their reserved quotas for women in police. Only Karnataka fulfilled the mandated quotas for SC, ST and OBCs in the police force. In 19 states/UTs urban police stations serve greater populations than their rural counterparts.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 20

Which of the following is/are the producers in an aquatic ecosystem?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 20

Option (d) is correct: The producers in an aquatic ecosystem are various species like phytoplankton, algae and higher plants.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 21

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 21

Just as there are many sub-divisions of the main types of the Nagara temples, there are sub-divisions also of the Dravida temples. These are basically of five different shapes:

  • Square, usually called Kuta, and also Caturasra
  • Rectangle or Shala or Ayatasra;
  • Elliptical, called Gaja-Prishta or elephant backed, or also called Vrittayata, deriving from wagon vaulted shapes of apsidal Chaityas with a horse-shoe shaped entrance façade, usually called a Nasi;
  • Circular or Vritta; and
  • Octagonal or Ashtasra.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 22

With respect to the “Kerala Murals”, consider the following statements:

1. The sources are from the oral traditions and local versions of the Ramayana and the Mahabharata for painted narration.

2. The period from the 1st century to the 3rd century is considered the golden phase of the Kerala Murals.

Which of the statements given above is/ arp' correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 22

The Kerala painters (during the period from the sixteenth century to the eighteenth century) evolved a pictorial language and technique of their own, while discriminately adopting certain stylistic elements from the Nayaka and the Vijayanagara schools.
More than sixty sites have been found with mural paintings which include three palaces: The Dutch palace in Kochi; the Krishnapuram palace in Kayamkulam; and the Padmanabhapuram palace. Among the sites where one can see the mature phase of Kerala’s mural painting tradition are Pundareekapuram Krishna Temple, Panayanarkavu, Thirukodithanam, Triprayar Sri Rama temple.
Most of the narrations are based on those episodes from the Hindu mythology which were popular in Kerala. The artist seems to have derived sources from oral traditions and local versions of the Ramayana and the Mahabharata for painted narration

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 23

Consider the following statements with reference to XPoSat mission:

  1. XPoSat is the world’s first satellite-based mission dedicated to making X-ray polarimetry measurements.
  2. POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in Xrays) which is the main payload will serve as an X-ray Polarimeter.
  3. It is placed in geostationary earth orbit which is approximately 36000 km above the Earth equator.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 23
  • X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) is India’s maiden mission dedicated to analysing the polarisation of X-rays emanating from bright celestial sources in the medium frequency band.
  • X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) is India’s first and world’s second mission dedicated to analyzing the polarization of X-rays emanating from bright celestial sources in the medium frequency band (8 to 30keV). In 2021, NASA launched Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE). It has been designed to operate and perform X-ray polarisation measurements within the soft X-ray band (2 to 8 keV energy band).Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • XPoSat comprises primarily two payloads, including Indian X-ray Polarimeter (POLIX) and X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing (XSPECT).
  • POLIX: It is the world’s first instrument designed to operate in the medium X-ray of 8 to 30 kilo electron Volt (keV) energy band. It comprises a collimator, which is the key component to filter light originating from bright sources in the field of view. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • XSPECT: It is designed to conduct fast timing and high spectroscopic resolution in a soft X-ray energy band (0.8-15 keV).
  • It has an estimated mission life of about five years during which XPoSat will observe sources that emit polarized X-rays. The observations will be done when the magnetars or neutron stars are in transit through the Earth’s shadow, for instance, during the eclipse period.
  • The spacecraft is designated for observation from low earth orbit (~ 650 km, low inclination of ~ 6 degree). Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 24

Consider the following statements:

1. The Satavahanas belonged to the Kshatriya varna, yet they did not actively engage in Vedic sacrifices.

2. All the inscriptions of Satvahanas were composed in prakrit language and written in the Brahmi script.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 24
  • Statement 1 is incorrect:The Satavahana rulers were brahmanas, and they represented the march of triumphant Brahmanism. From the very outset, kings and queens performed such Vedic sacrifices as ashvamedha, and vajapeya paying liberal sacrificial fees to the brahmanas. They also worshipped a large number of Vaishnava gods such as Krishna and Vasudeva.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The official language of the Satavahanas was Prakrit. All their inscriptions were composed in this language and written in the Brahmi script, as was the case in Ashokan times. Some Satavahana kings may have composed Prakrit books. One Prakrit text called Gathasattasai, or the Gathasaptasati, is attributed to a Satavahana king called Hala.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 25

With reference to the High Seas Treaty, consider the following statements:
1. It is a legally binding international agreement on the conservation of marine biological diversity.
2. It covers the high seas, exclusive economic zones and national waters of countries.
3. It is the first-ever international treaty by the United Nations to govern the high seas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 25
  • The United Nations has adopted the High Seas Treaty, the first-ever international treaty to govern the high seas. It is aimed at protecting and governing activities such as fishing, mining, and oil extraction in international waters. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The treaty, officially known as the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction Treaty (BBNJ), has been signed by nearly 200 nations after 15 years of discussions. However, the treaty still needs to be ratified by at least 60 member nations to take effect. The next ocean conference in June 2025 in Nice, France, is expected to witness the completion of ratifications.
  • The high seas are the parts of the ocean that are not included in the exclusive economic zones, territorial sea or internal waters of a State. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • Water beyond 200 nautical miles from the coast of a country is known as high sea.
    • High seas are the areas of the ocean for which no one nation has sole responsibility for management.
  • This treaty will be legally binding in nature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Important features: 
    • It establishes Marine protected areas (MPAs) and puts more money into marine conservation and new rules for mining at sea. o Arrangements for sharing marine genetic resources, such as biological material from plants and animals in the ocean.
    • Richer nations have pledged money for the delivery of the treaty.
    • It also includes guidelines to measure the environmental impacts of high sea activities like fishing and mining and requires countries to present an assessment of those impacts to the UN about any activities that the country is doing in international waters.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 26

With respect to the administrative relations between Centre and States, consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union extends to giving of direction to the state under Article 256 for their compliance.
2. Parliament is entitled to use the state machinery for the enforcement of the union laws, and confer powers and entrust duties to the state.
3 The union cannot give directives to the state pertaining to the construction and maintenance within the state.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 26

Administrative relations between Centre and states

  • The executive power of the union also extends to giving of direction to the state under Article 256 for their compliance.
  • This power of the Union extends to the limit of directing a state in a manner it feels essential for the purpose.
  • For instance, the union can give directives to the state pertaining to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance or protection of railways within the state.
  • This is essential to ensure the implementation of parliamentary laws throughout the country.
  • Non-compliance of the directives might lead to a situation where the union can invoke Article 356, for imposition of President’s rule in the state and take over the administration of state.
  • Under the constitutional provision of Article 254 the President may, with the consent of the state government entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to the government, functions relating to any matter falling within the ambit of union executive power.
  • Under clause (2), Parliament is also entitled to use the state machinery for the enforcement of the union laws, and confer powers and entrust duties to the state.
  • A state can also, with the consent of union government confer administrative functions on the union.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:
1. The magnitude of the Earthquake is measured by means of the Mercalli scale.
2. The range of intensity scale of Earthquake is from 1-12.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 27

Earthquake magnitude is a measure of the “size,” or amplitude, of the seismic waves generated by an earthquake source and recorded by seismographs.
The Modified Mercalli scale is designed to describe the effects of an earthquake, at a given place, on natural features, on industrial installations and on human beings. The intensity differs from the magnitude which is related to the energy released by an earthquake. There are multiple versions of the MM scale.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The earthquake events are scaled either according to the magnitude or intensity of the shock. The magnitude scale is known as the Richter scale. The magnitude relates to the energy released during the quake. The magnitude is expressed in numbers, 0-10.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The intensity scale is named after Mercalli, an Italian seismologist. The intensity scale takes into account the visible damage caused by the event. The range of intensity scale is from 1 - 12.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 28

Consider the following statements with reference to the Fast Breeder Reactor:

Statement-I: Fast Breeder reactors can help extract up to 70 percent more energy than traditional reactors and are safer than traditional reactors.

Statement-II: The spent fuel from this reactor cannot be fed back into the reactor.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 28
  • The Department of Atomic Energy is getting ready to commission its ultra-modem indigenously designed fast breeder reactor. The world’s only commercially operating fast breeder reactor is situated in the Ural Mountains of Russia at the Beloyarsk Nuclear Power Plant.
  • A ‘Fast Breeder Reactor’, these are a special kind of nuclear reactor that generate more atomic fuel than they consume as they work. A fast breeder reactor can help extract up to 70 per cent more energy than traditional reactors and are safer than traditional reactors while reducing long lived radioactive waste by several fold. Hence Statement-I is correct. Electricity generated by FBR would be a source of green energy as the waste from the first stage nuclear programme is reprocessed and used as fuel in FBR.
  • The spent fuel from this reactor can be fed back into the reactor core several times, till the spent fuel contains only short lived fission products. This is the concept of FBR with closed fuel cycle. Hence, there is no need of large quantity of fuel materials for the annual external feed and thus eliminates the need for large capacity waste storage spaces with complex construction features. Hence Statement-II is not correct.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 29

With reference to the Indian Tigers, consider the following statements:
1. It is is both an umbrella species and keystone species.
2. Launched 50 years ago, Project Tiger provides central assistance to states for in-situ conservation of tigers in designated tiger reserves.
3. The boundaries of tiger reserves cannot be altered without the the approval of the National Board for Wildlife.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 29

About Indian Tiger or Royal Bengal Tiger (Panthera Tigris)

  • Tiger is a species native to India and is flagship species of India, also declared as the National Animal of India. It is both an Umbrella species and a Keystone species (has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Habitat: Largest population is in India, smaller groups in Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar.
  • Distribution of Tiger population in India: Habitats ranging from the high mountains, mangrove swamps, tall grasslands, to dry and moist deciduous forests, as well as evergreen and shola forest systems.
  • Madhya Pradesh has the maximum number of tigers followed by Karnataka and Uttarakhand.

About Project tiger

  • A Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, launched in 1973 which provides central assistance to tiger range States for in-situ conservation of tigers in designated tiger reserves. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Implementing Agency: Statutory body National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), established through Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006.

Alteration and de-notification of tiger reserves

  • The boundaries of tiger reserves cannot be altered without the recommendation of National Tiger Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Board for Wildlife. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding Predatory Dumping:

1. Predatory dumping refers to foreign companies non-competitively pricing their products at a loss.

2. Predatory dumping is illegal under World Trade Organization (WTO) rules,

3. Anti-dumping measures are considered protectionism, as predatory dumping is not a fair trade practice.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 30

Statement 3 is incorrect: Anti-dumping measures are not considered protectionism, as predatory dumping is not a fair trade practice.

Predatory Dumping

  • Predatory dumping refers to foreign companies anti-conrpetitively prieing their products below market value to chive out domestic competition.
  • Those who practice predatory dumping are forced to sell at a loss untd the competition is wiped out and monopoly status is achieved.
  • Predatory dumping can be financed hy selling products at higher prices in other countries or, if possible, by tapping into a company's resources.
  • Globahzation and World Trade Organization (WTO) rules banning predatory dumping make it increasingly difficult to pull off.
  • Moreover, predatory dumping is illegal under World Trade Organization (WTO) rules—if it is deemed to harm producers in the targeted market. Countries that can prove this to be the case are given permission by the WTO to implement; antidumping measures, enabling governments to impose stiff duties on products being shipped in from overseas.
  • Anti-clumping measures are not considered protectionism, as predatory dumping is not a fair trade practice. The WTO rules are designed to help ensure that any antidumping measures that countries take are justifiable and are not simply used as a guise to protecting local businesses and jobs from foreign competition.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 31

Consider the following pairs:
Festivals : States
1. Sital Sasthi   -   Odisha
2. Bihu   -    Assam
3. Pongal  -  Kerala

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 31
  • Pair 1 is correct: Sital Sasthi is a sacred Hindu festival celebrated in Odisha. This week-long special festival highlights the marriage of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati. People observing this festival believe that Lord Shiva represents the scorching heat of summer while Goddess Parvati signifies the first rain. So, this holy and lavish wedding is observed for a good monsoon.
    Sital Sasthi is a celebration wherein Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati are adopted by two families, and their wedding is solemnized with the involvement of rituals. After the marriage is performed, the God  and Goddess are then carried around the city via a procession.
  • Pair 2 is correct: Bihu is the name for the National Festival of Assam which is one of the most beautiful states of India which is reckoned for tea gardens, mighty Brahmaputra River and Lush green forests. Also the state of Assam is reckoned for the Bihu festival that depicts a set of three different cultural festivals of the state. The origin of the term ‘Bihu’ came from the Sanskrit word that means ‘Vishu’. It is the cheerful festival of Assam that is celebrated by the locals irrespective of caste, creed and beliefs.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Pongal is a harvest festival celebrated by the Tamil community. It is a celebration to thank the Sun, Mother Nature and the various farm animals that help to contribute to a bountiful harvest. Celebrated over four days, Pongal also marks the beginning of the Tamil month called Thai, which is considered an auspicious month. It usually falls on the 14th or 15th of January each year.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 32

Consider the following statements about Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (PMP):

  1. It is a bi-national hydropower project between India and Bhutan.
  2. It is situated on the Sankosh River.
  3. It is governed by the integrated Indian-Bhutan Friendship Treaty, which was signed in New Delhi on February 8, 2007

How many of the above statements given is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 32
  • Context: The recent Nepal-India official dialogue did not address progress on the significant Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (PMP), despite the signing of a long-term power-sharing agreement over a month ago.
  • The project remains stalled due to disagreements over benefit sharing, posing challenges to its initiation.
  • About the Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (PMP):
    • It is a joint hydropower initiative situated on the Mahakali River, shared by Nepal and India. It is governed by the integrated Mahakali Treaty signed in 1996. The project aims to generate approximately 6,480 MW of energy, with equal division between the two countries, and provide irrigation water for 130,000 hectares of land in Nepal and 240,000 hectares in India.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

  1. Complete access to sanitation facilities for migrants from rural to urban areas
  2. Complete liquid waste management in cities in less than 1 lakh population
  3. All statutory towns to become at least Open Defecation Free plus (ODF+)

How many of the above statements are the provisions of the Swachh Bharat MissionUrban 2.0?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 33

SBM-U 2.0 Targets

  • Taking a big leap from the SBM-U’s accomplishments, the focus of SBM-U 2.0 in the next 5 years will be on sustaining the sanitation and solid waste management outcomes achieved and accelerate the momentum generated, thus taking Urban India to the next level of ‘Swachhata’. Following will be the key components for implementation under SBM-U 2.0.
  • The Mission will focus on ensuring complete access to sanitation facilities to serve additional population migrating from rural to urban areas in search of employment and better opportunities over the next 5 years. This will be done through the construction of over 3.5 lakhs individual, community and public toilets.
  • Complete liquid waste management in cities in less than 1 lakh population – a new component introduced under SBMUrban 2.0 will ensure that all wastewater is safely contained, collected, transported and treated so that no wastewater pollutes our water bodies.
  • Under the Sustainable Solid Waste Management, greater emphasis will be on source segregation. Material Recovery Facilities, and waste processing facilities will be set up, with a focus on phasing out single use plastic. Construction & demolition waste processing facilities will be set up and mechanical sweepers deployed in National Clean Air Programme cities and in cities with more than 5 lakh population. Remediation of all legacy dumpsites will be another key component of the Mission.
  • It is expected that under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0, all statutory towns will become at least ODF+; and all cities with <1 lakh population ODF++. Systems and processes will be in place so that all waste water is safely treated and optimally reused and no untreated wastewater pollutes water bodies.
  • Regarding the Solid Waste Management, it is expected that all cities will achieve at least 3-star Garbage Free certifi cation under SBM-U 2.0.
  • Special focus will be put on the well-being on sanitation and informal waste workers, through provision of personal protective equipment and safety kits, linkages with government welfare schemes along with their capacity building.
  • A financial outlay of ₹1,41,600 crores has been fin alized for SBM-U 2.0, including central share of ₹36,465 for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26which is over 2.5 times the fi nancial outlay of ₹62,009 crores in the last phase of the Mission.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 34

Which one of the following statement specifi es ‘Public good ‘most appropriately?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 34

Option (d) is correct: Public goods works on Welfarism and government invests for benefit of society.

Public good

  • The two main criteria that distinguish a public good are that it must be non- rivalrous and non-excludable. Non-rivalrous means that the goods do not dwindle in supply as more people consume them; non-excludability means that the good is available to all citizens. In some cases, public goods are not fully non-rivalrous and For example, the post office can be seen as a public good, since it is used by a large portion of the population and is financed by taxpayers.
  • The opposite of a public good is a private good, which is both excludable and rivalrous. These goods can only be used by one person at a time-for example, a wedding ring. In some cases, they may even be destroyed in the act of using them, such as when a slice of pizza is eaten. Private goods generally cost money, and this amount pays for their private use. Most of the goods and services that we consume or make use of in our everyday lives are private goods.
  • Although they are not subject to the free-rider problem, they are also not available to everyone, since not everyone can afford to purchase them. non-excludable.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 35

Consider the following pairs :

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 35
  • Lactic acid is produced through the fermentation of lactose (milk sugar) by bacteria, primarily Lactobacillus, during the process of curd formation. It gives curd its characteristic sour taste. Vinegar contains acetic acid, not methanoic acid. Acetic acid is the primary component of vinegar, which is produced through the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria.
  • Tamarind - Tartaric acid: Tamarind contains tartaric acid. Tartaric acid is a naturally occurring organic acid found in various plants, including tamarind.
  • Others
    • Orange - Citric acid
    • Ant sting - Methanoic acid
    • Lemon - Citric acid
    • Malic Acid: Present in apples and other fruits
    • Hydrochloric Acid: Found in the stomach as gastric acid, aiding in digestion
    • Oxalic Acid: Found in spinach, rhubarb, and beet greens.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 36

Consider the following statements:
1. Nuclear and Radiological Emergency can arise while using radiation sources at Hospitals, Industries or Agriculture.
2. Infra-red rays are ionising rays and cause severe damage to human bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 36

The growth in the application of nuclear science and technology in the fields of power generation, medicine, industry, agriculture, research and defence has led to an increase in the risk of occurrence of Nuclear and Radiological emergencies.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Nuclear and Radiological Emergencies can arise in a nuclear facility at the plant level, leading to plant/ site or offsite emergencies. It can also take place while using radiation sources, either at Hospitals, Industries, Agriculture or Research Institutions, due to loss or misplacement or due to faulty handling.
    The other events that can lead to a Nuclear or Radiological Emergency in the public domain include an accident of a vehicle carrying radioactive/nuclear material, due to an orphan source, i.e. the source which is not under regulatory control or due to usage of radiation source/radioactive material in Malevolant activities.
    Any radiation incident resulting in or having the potential to result in exposure and/or contamination of the workers or the public in excess of the respective permissible limits can lead to a nuclear/radiological emergency.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Sunlight feels warm because our body absorbs the infrared rays it contains. But, infrared rays do not produce ionisation in body tissue. In contrast, ionising radiation can impair the normal functioning of the cells or even kill them. The amount of energy necessary to cause significant biological effects through ionisation is so small that our bodies cannot feel this energy as in the case of infrared rays, which produce heat.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 37

Consider the following statements:

  1. Leverage ratio measures a bank's corecapital to its total assets.
  2. Minimum leverage ratio is decided byeach individual bank.
  3. A lower leverage ratio increases the fundsavailable to banks for lending.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/arenot correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 37
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) introduced a leverage ratio in the 2010 Basel III package of reforms. The leverage ratio is defined as the capital measure divided by the exposure measure, expressed as a percentage. The leverage ratio measures a bank's core capital to its total assets. The ratio uses tier 1 capital to judge how leveraged a bank is in relation to its consolidated assets.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Minimum Leverage Ratio of banks is decided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI in 2019 relaxed the leverage ratio (LR) for banks in a bid to help them expand their lending activities. The leverage ratio stands reduced to 4% for Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIBs) and 3.5% for other banks. Leverage ratio is also one the four indicators under the RBI's Prompt Corrective Action framework.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The higher the tier 1 leverage ratio, the higher the likelihood of the bank withstanding negative shocks to its balance sheet. However, a higher LR will reduce bank's lending capacity. Relaxation in LR for banks will help them in expanding their lending activities.

Leverage Ratio (LR)

  • A leverage ratio is any kind of financial ratio that indicates the level of debt incurred by a business entity against several other accounts in its balance sheet, income statement, or cash flow statement.
  • These ratios provide an indication of how the company's assets and business operations are financed (using debt or equity).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 38

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The purpose of Article 35 is to allow the legislative bodies to adapt the fundamental rights to the evolving needs of the society and the nation.
Statement-II: It enables them to balance the rights and interests of individuals with the larger goals of governance, public welfare, and national security.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 38

Article 35 and its uses

  • Article 35 provides the power to the Parliament or the state legislature to enact laws that determine the scope and applicability of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • This means that the Parliament or the state legislature can modify, restrict, or extend the fundamental rights as they see fit, subject to the overall framework of the Constitution.
  • The purpose of Article 35 is to allow the legislative bodies to adapt the fundamental rights to the evolving needs of the society and the nation.
  • It enables them to balance the rights and interests of individuals with the larger goals of governance, public welfare, and national security. It is important to note that while these articles allow for certain limitations on fundamental rights, they are subject to the overarching principles of reasonableness, proportionality, and fairness.
  • Any restrictions imposed under these articles must be justifi able and necessary in a democratic society.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 39

Consider the following:

  1. Oxytocin
  2. Serotonin
  3. Endorphin
  4. Dopamine

How many of the above are feel good hormones that promote pleasure while reducing depression in human beings?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 39
  • Hormones are body’s chemical messengers. Once released by glands into the bloodstream, they act on various organs and tissues to control everything from the way the body functions to how you feel.
  • One group of hormones are nicknamed the "feel-good hormones" because of the happy and, sometimes, euphoric feelings they produce. They're also considered neurotransmitters, which means they carry messages across the spaces between nerve cells. They are Dopamine, Serotonin, Endorphins, and Oxytocin. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
    • Dopamine: Dopamine is most notably involved in helping us feel pleasure as part of the brain’s reward system. Sex, shopping, smelling cookies baking in the oven — all these things can trigger dopamine release, or a "dopamine rush." Neurons in the region at the base of the brain produce dopamine in a two-step process. First, the amino acid tyrosine is converted into another amino acid, called L-dopa. Then L-dopa undergoes another change, as enzymes turn it into dopamine.
    • Serotonin: This hormone is responsible for boosting mood, as well as a host of other functions. An area in the center of the brainstem produces serotonin, which then acts on many different parts of the brain to affect a variety of functions and behaviors, including memory, fear, the stress response, digestion, addiction and sexuality.
    • Endorphin: Endorphins are the body’s natural painkillers. Endorphins are released by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland in response to pain or stress, this group of peptide hormones both relieves pain and creates a general feeling of well-being.
    • Oxytocin: Oxytocin is a hormone that's produced in the hypothalamus and released into the bloodstream by the pituitary gland. Its main function is to facilitate childbirth, which is one of the reasons it is called the "love drug" or "love hormone." Oxytocin, like endorphinsor serotonin, is a type of hormone in your body that promotes positive feelings.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 40

Which of the following elements are contained in the Budget?

  1. Estimates of revenue and capital receipt
  2. Ways and Means to raise revenue
  3. Details of the actual receipt and expenditure of the closing financial year

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 40

Government Budget

  • There is a constitutional requirement in India (Article 112) to present before the Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the government in respect of every financial year. This ‘Annual Financial Statement’ constitutes the main budget document of the government.
  • Although the budget document relates to the receipts and expenditure of the government for a particular financial year, the impact of it will be there in subsequent years.
  • There is a need therefore to have two accounts- those that relate to the current financial year only are included in the revenue account (also called revenue budget) and those that concern the assets and liabilities of the government into the capital account (also called capital budget).
  • The Budget contains the following elements:
    • Estimates of revenue and capital receipt
    • Ways and Means to raise revenue
    • Estimates of expenditure
    • Details of the actual receipt and expenditure of the closing financial year
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 41

Which one of the following is the primary distinction between endogenic and exogenic forces in shaping the Earth's surface?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 41

The earth’s surface is being continuously subjected to external forces originating within the earth’s atmosphere and by internal forces from within the earth. The external forces are known as exogenic forces and the internal forces are known as endogenic forces. The actions of exogenic forces result in wearing down (degradation) of relief/elevations and filling up (aggradation) of basins/ depressions, on the earth’s surface.
The phenomenon of wearing down of relief variations of the surface of the earth through erosion is known as gradation.
The endogenic forces continuously elevate or build up parts of the earth’s surface and hence the exogenic processes fail to even out the relief variations of the surface of the earth. So, variations remain as long as the opposing actions of exogenic and endogenic forces continue.
In general terms, the endogenic forces are mainly land-building forces and the exogenic processes are mainly landwearing forces.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 42

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Muhammedan Literary Society was against the western scientific knowledge.
  2. Sayyid Ahmad Khan encouraged the Indian Muslims to join the National Movement.
  3. Chiragh Ali, Altaf Husain Hali and Maulana Shibli Nomani were the followers of Sayyid Ahmad Khan.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 42
  • The movements for religious reform were late in emerging among the Muslims. The Muslim upper classes had tended to avoid contact with the western education and culture, and it was mainly after the Revolt of 1857 that the modern ideas of religious reform began to appear. The Muhammedan Literary Society was founded at Calcutta in 1863. This Society promoted discussion of religious, social and political questions in the light of modern ideas and encouraged upper and middle-class Muslims to take to western education.
  • The most important reformer among the Muslims was Sayyid Ahmad Khan. He was tremendously impressed by modern scientific thought and worked all his life to reconcile it with Islam. Even the Quran he interpreted in the light of contemporary rationalism and science. In his view, any interpretation of the Quran that conflicted with human reason, science or nature was in reality a misinterpretation.
  • All his life he struggled against blind obedience to tradition, dependence on custom, ignorance and irrationalism. He also warned against fanaticism, narrow-mindedness and exclusiveness, and urged the students and others to be broad-minded and tolerant. Sayyid Ahmad Khan believed that the religious and social life of the Muslims could be improved only by imbibing modern western scientific knowledge and culture. Therefore, promotion of modern education remained his first task throughout his life. In 1875, he founded at Aligarh the Muhammedan Anglo-Oriental College as a centre for spreading western sciences and culture. Later, this College grew into the Aligarh Muslim University. Sayyid Ahmad Khan was a great believer in religious toleration. He believed that all religions had a certain underlying unity which could be called practical morality. Believing that a person‘s religion was his or her private affair, he roundly condemned any sign of religious bigotry in personal relations. He was also opposed to communal friction, appealing to the Hindus and the Muslims to unite.
  • Moreover, the Hindus, the Parsis and the Christians had freely contributed to the funds of his college, whose doors were also open to all Indians. However, towards the end of his life, he began to talk of Hindu domination to prevent his followers from joining the rising National Movement. This was unfortunate, though basically he was not a communalist. He only wanted the backwardness of the Muslim middle and upper classes to go. On the other hand, any hostility by the officials might prove dangerous to the educational effort which he saw as the need of the hour. He believed that only when the Indians had become as modern in their thinking and actions as the English were, could they hope to successfully challenge the foreign rule. He, therefore, advised all Indians, and particularly the educationally backward Muslims, to remain aloof from politics for some time to come.
  • Consequently, to prevent the orthodox Muslims from opposing his college, he virtually gave up his agitation in favour of religious reform. For the same reason, he would not do anything to offend the government and, on the other hand, encouraged communalism and separatism. Sayyid Ahmad‘s reformist zeal also embraced the social sphere. He urged the Muslims to give up medieval customs and ways of thought and behaviour. In particular, he wrote in favour of raising women‘s status in the society and advocated the removal of Purdah and the spread of education among women.
  • Sayyid Ahmad Khan was helped by a band of loyal followers, who are collectively described as the Aligarh School. Chiragh Ali, the Urdu poet Altaf Husain Hali, Nazir Ahmad and Maulana Shibli Nomani were some of the other distinguished leaders of the Aligarh School.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 43

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 43
  • Pair 1 is correct: Batholiths are large bodies of magmatic material that cool in the deeper depth of the crust and develop in the form of large domes. They appear on the surface only after the denudational processes remove the overlying materials. They cover large areas and, at times, assume depth that may be several km. These are granitic bodies. Batholiths are the cooled portion of magma chambers.
  • Pair 2 is incorrect: As and when the lava moves upwards, a portion of the same may tend to move in a horizontal direction wherever it finds a weak plane. It may get rested in different forms. In case it develops into a saucer shape, concave to the sky body, it is called lapolith.
  • Pair 3 is incorrect: When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are called dykes. These are the most commonly found intrusive forms in the western Maharashtra area. These are considered the feeders for the eruptions that led to the development of the Deccan traps.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 44

Consider the following statements regarding the state of agriculture in India:

1. The share of the agriculture sector in India's GDP has seen a consistent rise since independence.

2. Around 55% of India's population still depends on the agriculture sector for livelihood.

3. Agriculture carries no burden of individual income tax.

4. The productivity gap between on-thefield and ideal farm practices has significantly increased in recent years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 44
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The share of the agriculture sector in India's GDP has seen a significant decline since independence. In the fiscal year 1950–51, agriculture accounted for around 55.4% of the GDP, while currently, it stands at around 15 %. This demonstrates a substantial decrease in its contribution to the overall economy over the years.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Despite the decreasing share in the country's gross income, around 55% of India's population still depends on the agriculture sector for their livelihood. It means that around 55 per cent of the population lives with only around 18 per cent of the total income of the Indian economy.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Agriculture is not only the biggest sector of the economy, but also the biggest private sector. It is the only profession which still carries no burden of individual income tax.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The productivity gap between on-the-field and ideal farm practices has decreased in recent years. As per the recent release of the Gol, the average productivity of rice, wheat and pulses, which was 2,202 kg, 2,802 kg and 625 kg per hectare in 2007— 08, increased to 2,346 kg, 3,026 kg and 649 kg per hectare during 2011— 13.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 45

With respect to the role of State Finance Commission, consider the following:

1. Assessing Local Body Finances
2. Reviewing Financial Devolution
3. Rationalization of Local Taxes and Fees
4. Reporting to the Governor

How many of the above-mentioned are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 45

State Finance Commission

  • The role of the State Finance Commission (SFC) in India is enshrined in the Indian Constitution under Article 243-I and Article 243-Y.
  • The SFC plays a crucial role in ensuring fi scal autonomy, equity, and effi ciency in the fi nancial affairs of the states.
  • It is an important constitutional body that helps in the effective functioning of local governance and promotes decentralization of fi nancial resources. The main functions and responsibilities of the State Finance Commission are as follows:

Distribution of Financial Resources

  • One of the primary functions of the SFC is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the state government and the local bodies.
  • It suggests the share of revenue that should be allocated to the Panchayats and Municipalities from the state’s consolidated fund.
  • This distribution is essential to ensure that local bodies have adequate resources to carry out their functions effectively.

Determining Grants-in-Aid

  • The SFC also recommends the grantsin-aid to be given to the Panchayats and Municipalities from the state government’s revenue.
  • These grants are meant to supplement the fi nancial resources of the local bodies and bridge any gaps between their revenue generation capacity and expenditure requirements.

Assessing Local Body Finances

  • The SFC examines the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities and makes assessments of their income and expenditure patterns.
  • This assessment helps in understanding the fi scal capacity of the local bodies and formulating appropriate fi scal policies.

Reviewing Financial Devolution

  • The Commission periodically reviews the fin ancial devolution to local bodies and makes recommendations for the equitable sharing of resources.
  • It takes into account the changing needs and responsibilities of local bodies and ensures that they have adequate fi nancial autonomy to carry out their functions.

Rationalization of Local Taxes and Fees

  • The SFC suggests measures for improving the revenue base of Panchayats and Municipalities.
  • It may recommend rationalization of local taxes, fees, and other sources of revenue to enhance their financial self-suffi ciency.

Fiscal Consolidation and Management

  • The Commission also advises on measures to improve fi scal management and governance at the local level.
  • It promotes fi scal prudence and effi ciency in the utilization of resources by the Panchayats and Municipalities.

Reporting to the Governor

  • After examining the fin ancial aspects of local bodies and considering their financial requirements, the State Finance Commission submits a report to the Governor of the state.
  • The report contains its recommendations on fin ancial matters related to local governance.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 46

Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Speciation' in ecology?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 46
  • The number of species surviving in the world today is the outcome of two processes- Speciation and Extinction. Speciation is a key driver of the incredible diversity of life on Earth. It is the process that has led to the vast array of species we observe in different ecosystems and environments.
    • Speciation is the process by which new species are formed from existing ones and evolution is the mechanism by which speciation is brought about. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Process of Speciation:
  • Speciation is the process through which a single ancestral species gives rise to two or more distinct, separate species. This occurs over a significant span of time and involves evolutionary changes. They are as follows,
  • Isolation: Speciation often begins with the isolation of a population, meaning that some members of a species become physically or reproductively separated from the rest of the species. Isolation can result from various factors, such as geographical barriers (geographic isolation), behavioral differences (behavioral isolation), or genetic changes (genetic isolation).
  • Accumulation of Genetic Differences: Over time, isolated populations accumulate genetic differences. These differences can occur through mutation, genetic drift, and natural selection. These changes can lead to differences in the physical traits, behaviors, and genetics of the isolated populations.
  • Reproductive Isolation: As genetic differences accumulate, the isolated populations may become reproductively isolated. This means that they can no longer interbreed and produce fertile offspring. Reproductive isolation is a critical step in the formation of new species.
  • Formation of New Species: Once reproductive isolation is established, the isolated populations are on their way to becoming separate species. They can continue to evolve independently, and over time, they may become distinct enough to be classified as different species.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 47

Consider the following statements regarding the agricultural cropping seasons in India:

1. The Indian cropping season is classified into two main seasons, i.e. kharif and rabi.

2. The term Zaid refers to crops grown between July and October.

3. Kharif crops include wheat, barley, and oats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 47
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Indian cropping season is actually classified into two main seasons - kharif and rabi - based on the monsoon. The Kharif season is from July to October during the SouthWest/Summer Monsoon, while the rabi season is from October to March (NorthEast/Returning/Winter Monsoon).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The term Zaid refers to crops grown between March and June, not July and October.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soybean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton, etc.
  • The rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 48

Which of the following statements given below is/are correct?
1. Decomposition is largely a nitrogenrequiring process.
2. The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 48
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 49

Consider the following:

Statement-I: Marginal Rate of Substitution determined how consumers make trade-offs amongst competitive goods.

Statement-II: Demand of Substitute goods depends on Marginal rate of substitution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 49
  • Statement 1 is correct: In economics, the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) is
  • the amount of a good that a consumer is willing to consume compared to another good, as long as the new good is equally satisfying.
  • MRS is used in indifference theory to analyze consumer behaviour.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The marginal rate of substitution is equal to the ratio of the marginal utilities with a minus sign. Thus even though the marginal utilities have no behavioural content their ratio does - it measures the rate at which a consumer is willing to substitute between the two goods.
  • It does not relate to demand of substitute goods.

Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS)

  • The marginal rate of substitution (MRS)
  • is the willingness of a consumer to replace one good for another good, as long as the new good is equally satisfying.
  • The marginal rate of substitution is the slope of the indifference curve at any given point along the curve and displays a frontier of utility for each combination of “good X” and “good Y.”
  • When the law of diminishing MRS is in effect, the MRS forms a downward, negative sloping, convex curve showing more consumption of one good in place of another.
  • MRS may not inform analysts of true utility as it assumes both products can be exchanged for the same utility.
  • MRS is also limited in that it only considered two items; it does not consider how additional units may factor into different consumption preferences.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 50

Consider the following statements:

  1. Jaya Jaitly Task Force has recommended the age of marriage be increased to 21 years from 18 years.
  2. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and Special Marriage Act, 1954 do not prescribe a minimum age of marriage for either groom or bride.
  3. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 prescribes a minimum age of marriage to essentially outlaw child marriages and prevent the abuse of minors.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 50

Minimum age of marriage

  • Statement 1 is correct: In June 2020, the Ministry for Women and Child Development set up a task force to look into the correlation between the age of marriage with issues of women’s nutrition, prevalence of anemia, IMR, MMR and other social indices. The committee, headed by former Samata Party president Jaya Jaitly, also had on board NITI Aayog member (Health) Dr V K Paul and secretaries of several ministries. The committee recommended that the age of marriage be increased to 21 years, on the basis of feedback they received from young adults from 16 universities across the country.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: For Hindus, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 sets 18 years as the minimum age for the bride and 21 years as the minimum age for the groom. In Islam, the marriage of a minor who has attained puberty is considered valid.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 also prescribe 18 and 21 years as the minimum age of consent for marriage for women and men, respectively. The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2021 amends the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 to increase the minimum age of marriage of females to 21 years.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 51

With reference to the Mauryan empire, the term ‘Samharta’ refers to which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 51

Samaharta was in charge of collection of revenue from various parts of the Mauryan kingdom and looked after the income and expenditure by supervising the works of the akshapatal adhyaksha (Accountant General). Among all the executive officials, Samahartri was the most important and his responsibility involved maintaining accounts and collection of taxes from all types of sources.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 52

With reference to the Indian National Congress‟ Rule in the Provinces in the late 1930s, consider the following statements:

  1. They were successful in restoring the lands confiscated by the government during the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  2. The Congress Ministries undertook a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure, by abolishing Zamindari in their respective Provinces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 52

Work done under the Congress Ministries:

  • In Bombay, lands confiscated by the government during the Civil Disobedience Movement were restored.
  •  Pensions of the officials associated with the Civil Disobedience Movement were restored.
  • There were certain basic constraints due to which the Congress Ministries could not undertake a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure, by completely abolishing Zamindari.
  • Ban on illegal organizations, such as the Hindustan Seva Dal and Youth Leagues, and on certain books and journals was lifted.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 53

The General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS) distinguishes between four modes of supplying services. Regarding this which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumption abroad means when a tourist moves into another country.

2. Commercial presence means when doctors of one member country entering the territory of another member to supply a service.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 53

Statement 2 is incorrect: Commercial presence implies that a service supplier of one member establishes a territorial presence, including through ownership or lease of premises, in another members territory to provide a service.

Modes of supplying services

  • The GATS distinguishes between four modes of supplying services: cross-border trade, consumption abroad, commercial presence, and presence of natural persons.
  • Cross-border supply is defined to cover services flows from the territory of one member into the territory of another member (e.g. banking or architectural services transmitted via telecommunications or mail):
  • Consumption abroad refers to situations where a service consumer (e.g. tourist or patient) moves into another member’s territory to obtain a service; 
  • Commercial presence implies that a service supplier of one member establishes a territorial presence, including through ownership or lease of premises, in another member’s territory to provide a service (e.g. domestic subsidiaries of foreign insurance companies or hotel chains): and
  • The presence of natural persons consists of persons of one member (for instance doctors) entering the territory of another member to supply a service (e.g. accountants, doctors or teachers). The Annex on Movement of Natural Persons specifies, however, that members remain free to operate measures regarding citizenship, residence or access to the employment market on a permanent basis.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 54

"It is a derivative instrument used by foreign companies to raise money in India. They are issued by domestic depository in India and are denominated in Indian Rupees. Just like equity share, they provide ownership in the company."

The above paragraph best describes which of the following financial instruments?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 54
  • Option (c) is correct: An Indian Depository Receipt (IDR) is issued by a domestic depository in India and denominated in Rupees. It represents an ownership interest in a fixed number of underlying equity shares of the Issuing Company. Since foreign companies are not allowed to list on Indian equity markets, IDR is a way to own shares of those companies.
  • A foreign company issues and deposits new shares with an Indian depository (say. National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL) or Central Depository Service Ltd or CDSL). Such a depository then, in turn, issues equivalent shares in rupees to investors in India. Much like an equity share, it is an ownership pie of a company. IDRs involve currency risk for the underlying shares in another country. Fluctuations in the exchange rate could impact the value of the dividend payment.
  • If a non-American company wants to mobilize money from American share market but does not want to go through the lengthy & complex process of registration with the American share market regulator. Then such non-American company gives its shares to an American bank. Based on those (non-American) shares, the American bank will issue American Depositary Receipts.
  • Global Depositary Receipt (GDR): Same as above, but when single bank issues receipts for investors in multiple countries. Denomination: usually USD or Euro.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 6 - Question 55