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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9

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UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 1

With reference to the conditions for the development of Karst topography, consider the following statements:
1. The region should consist of limestone bedrock formation.
2. The soluble rock should be highly jointed and in thin beds.
3. Trenched major valleys should have soluble and well-jointed bedrocks.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 1

Solution is one of the dominant processes in the formation of certain landscape features This process of erosion as an agent of gradation is particularly very significant in Limestone and Dolomite regions. The resultant landscape is known as Karst Topography.
For the development of the Karst landscape four major conditions are essential:

  • The region should consist of limestone bedrock formation.
  • The soluble rock should be highly jointed and in thin beds.
  • Trenched major valleys should have soluble and well-jointed bedrocks.
  • The region should receive a moderate amount of rainfall. Since solution work will be limited in areas with less rainfall, the karst features cannot develop as well as they do in regions of moderate rainfall.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 2

Which of the following plates are located along the Pacific Ring of Fire region?
1. Nazca
2. Cocos
3. Anatolian
4. Juan de Fuca

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 2

The Pacific Ring of Fire, also referred to as the Circum-Pacific Belt, is a path along the Pacific Ocean characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
The Pacific Ring of Fire traces boundaries between several tectonic plates:

  • the Pacific,
  • Juan de Fuca,
  • Cocos,
  • Indian-Australian,
  • Nazca,
  • North American,
  • Philippine Plates.

Seventy-five percent of Earth’s volcanoes—more than 450 volcanoes—are located along the Ring of Fire. Ninety percent of Earth’s earthquakes occur along its path, including the planet’s most violent and dramatic seismic events.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding Current account deficit (CAD).

  1. When the value of the goods and services that a country exports exceeds the value of the products it imports, it is known as the current account deficit.
  2. If the current account shows a surplus, that indicates money is flowing into the country and boosting the foreign exchange reserves.
  3. Inflow of Remittances are not considered while calculating Current account deficit.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 3

Only statement 2 is correct.

  • The current account deficit or CAD is a key indicator of a country’s external sector. When the value of the goods and services that a country imports exceeds the value of the products it exports, it is known as the current account deficit. Together with the fiscal deficit, which is the amount of money that the government has to borrow in any year to fill the gap between its expenditures and revenues, the two make up the ‘twin deficits’ that are considered the enemies of the stock market and investors.
  • If the current account – the country’s trade and transactions with other countries – shows a surplus, that indicates money is flowing into the country, boosting the foreign exchange reserves and the value of the rupee against the dollar. These are factors that will have ramifications on the economy and the stock markets, as well as on returns on investments by people.
  • CAD narrowed to $1.3 billion, or 0.2 per cent, of the GDP in the January-March quarter of FY2023 – from $16.8 billion or 2 per cent of GDP in the preceding quarter. In Q4 FY2022, CAD was $13.4 billion, or 1.6 per cent of GDP.
  • Remittances, which are the second largest major source of external financing after service export, also contributed to narrowing the CAD. During the quarter, private transfer receipts, mainly representing remittances by Indians employed overseas, increased to $28.6 billion, up 20.8 per cent from their level a year ago.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 4

Consider the following:

1. Madras was the fi rst state to be renamed, after Independence.
2. The names of the States can be changes as per the provision under States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
3. Parliament has power to change name of state even if such proposal has been rejected by the State legislature.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 4
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: After independence, Government of India changed the names of some the States and Union Territories.
  • The United Provinces was the fi rst State to have a new name as ‘Uttar Pradesh’ in 1950.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The renaming of a state requires Parliamentary approval under Article 3 and 4 of the Constitution, and the President has to refer the same to the relevant state legislature for its views
  • Statement 3 is correct: By virtue of article 3 of Constitution, Parliament has power to change name of state even if such proposal does not come from the concerned state.
  • If initiated by state assembly, it will fi rst pass a resolution for such change and this passed resolution will be sent to Central government.

Notes:

States Reorganisation Act, 1956

  • Process for changing the name of a state can be initiated by state itself.
  • However, by virtue of article 3 of Constitution, Parliament has power to change name of state even if such proposal does not come from the concerned state.
  • If initiated by state assembly, it will fi rst pass a resolution for such change and this passed resolution will be sent to Central government (Union Home Ministry).
  • Then Union Home Ministry prepares note for Union Cabinet for amendment to Schedule 1 of Constitution.
  • Thereafter, Constitution Amendment Bill is introduced in Parliament under Article 3 of Constitution, which has to be approved with simple majority, before President gives his assent to it.
  • Thereafter name of state will be changed. The example of such change is change in name of ‘Orissa to Odisha’.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 5

The doctrine of promissory estoppel was developed within the ambit of which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 5

The Supreme Court recently dismissed petitions challenging the Delhi High Court judgment, which upheld the Agnipath scheme for recruitment to the armed forces. Advocate appearing for the petitioners argued that the government must be directed to complete the old process citing the doctrine of promissory estoppel.
The doctrine of promissory estoppel: Promissory estoppel is a concept developed in contractual laws.
A valid contract under law requires an agreement to be made with sufficient consideration. A claim of the doctrine of promissory estoppel essentially prevents a “promisor” from backing out of an agreement on the grounds that there is no “consideration.” Honourable Supreme Court of India, in Chhaganlal Keshavalal Mehta v. Patel Narandas Haribhai judgement 1981, laid out the conditions/ criteria where the doctrine of promissory estoppel can be applied:

  • First, there must be a clear and unambiguous promise.
  • Second, the plaintiff must have acted relying reasonably on that promise.
  • Third, the plaintiff must have suffered a loss.

The judges dismissed the aforementioned argument saying that the matter before them was not a contract matter (as it concerns public employment); therefore, the doctrine can’t be employed.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS):

  1. The IRNSS space segment consists of 10 satellites.
  2. IRNSS can provide accurate position information service in India as well as regions extending up to 1500 km around India.
  3. It provides a navigation solution with position accuracy better than 20 m during all weather conditions anywhere within India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 6
  • IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The IRNSS System provides navigation solutions all the time with position accuracy better than 20m during all weather conditions, anywhere within India and a region extending about 1500 km around India. IRNSS provides Standard Positioning Service (SPS) and Restricted Service (RS) to the users on dual frequencies in L5 and S band. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The IRNSS space segment consists of 7 satellites (3 Geostationary Orbit and 4 Geosynchronous Orbit). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 7

Consider the following Statements:

  1. Money Multiplier is the fraction of the total deposits which commercial banks keep as reserves,
  2. Currency deposit Ratio is the ratio of deposits of public in bank to currency held by Bank.
  3. Reserve Deposit Ratio is the sum of SLR and CRR.
  4. Money Multiplier increases when RBI adopts ‘dovish’ monetary policy to combat deflation.

How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 7
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Money Multiplier is the ratio of total money supply to the stock of high powered money in an economy. Reserve deposit ratio is the fraction of their total deposits which commercial banks keep as reserves
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Currency Deposit Ratio (cdr) = Ratio of Currency held by Public to Deposits of pubhc in banks.
  • cdr equal to 1 means whenever an individual gets some amount of cash say Rs.100, then he wdl keep Rs.50 as cash and Rs.50 as deposil in banks, so that the ratio of cash in hand and deposits in banks is Rs.50/Rs.50 = 1.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Reserve Deposit Ratio (rdr) = Ratio of Reserves of Banks to the Deposits of public in banks. RDR
  • equals to 0.2 or 20% means whenever an inchvidual deposits certain sum of money say Rs.100 with the bank, the bank will have to keep Rs.20 as reserve money and the rest Rs.80 they can lend to someone else. Banks can keep the reserves either with themselves (SLR) or with RBI (CRR). So, rdr is sum of CRR and SLR.
  • Statement 4 is correct: In a functional economy, Money multiplier (MM) is always greater than 1 & CRR wdl always he less than 100%. MM directly improves with reduction in CRR MM indirectly improves as economy develops, consumption / loan demand increases, banking penel rat ion. digital economy/less-cash economy etc.
  • MM improves with the increase in banking penetration, financial inclusion Boom period. Whenever loan demand increase Money Multiplier increases when RBI adopts Cheap / Easy / Dovish / Expansionary monetary pohcy to combat deflation.

Tools to calculate Money Creation

  • By definition, money supply is equal to currency plus deposits i.e. M = CU + DD = (1 + cdr )DD where, cclr = CU/DD
  • High-powered money then consists of currency held by the pubhc and reserves of the commercial banks, which include vault cash and banks' deposits with RBI. H = CU + R = cdr.DD + rdr.DD = (cdr + rdr) DD
  • Thus the ratio of money supply to high powered money M/I 1 = 1+cdr/cdr+rdr > 1, as rdr > 1
  • This is precisely the measure of the money multiplier.
  • In a functional economy, money multiplier (MM) is always greater than 1 & CRR will always be less than 100%. MM directly improves with reduction in CRR. MM indirectly improves as economy develops consumption / loan demand increases, banking penetration, digital economydess-cash economy etc. MM improves with the increase in banking penetration, financial inclusion. It also increases in Boom period, whenever loan demand increases. _
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD).

  1. The IOD is an ocean-atmosphere interaction very similar to the El Nino fluctuations in the Pacific Ocean.
  2. It is always a much stronger system than El Nino, and thus has relatively greater impacts.
  3. A positive IOD have the potential to offset the impacts of El Nino to a small measure in neighbouring areas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 8

Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • With the El Nino phenomenon almost certain to affect the Indian monsoon this year, high hopes are pinned on the development of a positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) and its ability to counterbalance the El Nino effect. The IOD is an ocean-atmosphere interaction very similar to the El Nino fluctuations in the Pacific Ocean, playing out, as the name shows, in the Indian Ocean. It is also a much weaker system than El Nino, and thus has relatively limited impacts.

But a positive IOD does have the potential to offset the impacts of El Nino to a small measure in neighbouring areas, and it has, at least once in the past (1997), delivered admirably on this potential.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 9

With reference to the modern Indian history, consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 9

Many newspapers emerged during the freedom struggle under distinguished and fearless journalists. These included:

  • The Hindu and Swadesamitran under G. Subramaniya Aiyar.
  • The Bengalee under Surendranath Banerjea.
  • Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji.
  • Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh.
  • Indian Mirror under N.N. Sen.
  • Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English) under Balgangadhar Tilak.
  • Sudharak under Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
  • Hindustan and Advocate under G.P. Verma.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 10

Chauchala’ and ‘Dochala’ are the styles of architecture associated with which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 10
  • Bengal witnessed a temple building spree from the late 15th century. Temple architecture in Bengal got inspired from the double roofed (Dochala) or the four-roofed (Chauchala) structure of thatched huts in the villages, which housed the local deities.
  • The temples were usually built on a square platform.
  • The interior of the temples was relatively plain, but the outer walls of these temples were decorated with paintings, ornamental tiles or teracotta tablets. In the Vishnupur group of temples in Bankura district of West Bengal, such decorations reached a high degree of excellence.
  • This style incorporated elements of dome and multi-lobe arch of the Islamic architecture.
  • The elements of Bengal temple architecture were outside Bengal as well. 

There are two prominent styles of Bengal temples: 

  • Dochala (two-roofed style)
  • Chauchala (four-roofed style): This was a comparatively more complex structure. Here, four triangular roofs placed on four walls move up to converge on a curved line or a point.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 11

Consider the following statements about “Deficit” in the Annual Financial Statement:

  1. Effective Revenue Defi cit signifi es that amount of capital receipts that are being used for actual consumption expenditure of the government. 
  2. A shrinking primary defi cit indicates progress towards fiscal health.
  3. Fiscal Deficit equals the money which government needs to borrow during the year.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is correct: Effective Revenue Defi cit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for the creation of capital assets.
  • Statement 2 is correct: A shrinking primary defi cit indicates progress towards fiscal health.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Fiscal Defi cit equals the money the government needs to borrow during the year.

Fiscal Deficit

  • Fiscal Deficit is the gap between the government’s expenditure requirements and its receipts. This equals the money the government needs to borrow during the year. A surplus arises if receipts are more than expenditures.
  • Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure -(Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts)

Effective Revenue deficit

  • Effective Revenue deficit is a term introduced in the Union Budget 201112. While revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure, the present accounting system includes all grants from the Union Government to the state governments/ Union territories/other bodies as revenue expenditure, even if they are used to create assets.
  • An effective revenue deficit excludes those revenue expenditures (or transfers) in the form of grants for the creation of capital assets.

Primary Deficit

  • Gross Primary Deficit is Gross Fiscal Deficit minus Net interest liabilities. Net Primary Deficit is Net Fiscal Deficit minus net interest payments. The net interest payment is interest paid minus interest receipt.
  • A shrinking primary deficit indicates progress towards fiscal health.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 12

Consider the following provisions under PESA Act:

1. Gram sabha at the para, majra and tola levels
2. Gram sabha to protect the traditions, beliefs and culture of the tribal communities
3. Gram sabha to manage and protect common properties based on their traditional systems of management and protection
4. The administration to seek permission from the gram sabha in case of land acquisition

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 12

Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (or PESA), 1996 

  • Village level democracy became a real prospect for India in 1992 with the 73rd amendment to the Constitution, which mandated that resources, responsibility and decision making be passed on from central government to the lowest unit of the governance, the Gram Sabha or the Village Assembly. 
  • A three tier structure of local self-government was envisaged under this amendment. Since the laws do not automatically cover the scheduled areas, the PESA Act was in acted on 24 December 1996 to enable Tribal Self Rule in these areas. 
  • The Act extended the provisions of Panchayats to the tribal areas of nine states that have Fifth Schedule Areas. 
  • The nine states with Fifth Schedule areas are: Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, and Rajasthan. 
  • The fundamental spirit of the Panchayat Extension Act for tribal areas under 5th Schedule is that it devolves power and authority to Gram Sabha and Panchayats rather than delegation; hence it paves way for participatory democracy. 
  • The provision under constitution and the composition under this act call for every legislation on the Panchayat in 5th Schedule area are in conformity with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practices of the community resources. The provisions under PESA include the following: 
    • Gram sabha at the para, majra and tola levels 
    • Gram sabha to protect the traditions, beliefs and culture of the tribal communities 
    • Local disputes to be resolved by the gram sabha 
    • Gram sabha to manage and protect common properties based on their traditional systems of management and protection 
    • The administration to seek permission from the gram sabha in case of land acquisition 
    • Gram sabha to have the rights over minor forest produce; powers to restore land to the tribals; and control over money-lending to tribals, tribal welfare activities by social organizations and local plans and sub-plans for the development of tribal areas and communities
    • Gram sabha to have the control over local markets and melas 
    • Gram sabha to have rights to control the distillation, prohibition and manufacture of liquor 
    •  District panchayats to have rights and powers similar to the district panchayats falling under Sixth Schedule
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 13

Consider the following:

1. The entire world is animated.

2. Monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation.

3. Karma shapes the cycle of birth and rebirth.

How many of the above are basic tenets of Jainism ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 13
  • The basic philosophy of the Jainas was already in existence in north India before the birth of Vardhamana, who came to be known as Mahavira, in the sixth century BCE.
  • According to Jaina tradition, Mahavira was preceded by 23 other teachers or Tirthankaras – literally, those who guide men and women across the river of existence.
  • The most important idea in Jainism is that the The entire world is animated even stones, rocks and water have life. Hence statement 1 is correct. Non-injury to living beings, especially to humans, animals, plants, and insects, is central to Jaina philosophy. Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore, monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • According to Buddhist philosophy, the world is transient (anicca) and constantly changing; it is also soulless (anatta) as there is nothing permanent or eternal in it.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 14

Consider the following statements with reference to Lumpy Skin Diseases:

1. It is a viral disease that affects cattle.

2. It can be transmitted by sanguinivorous insects.

3. No vaccination is available for its treatment.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 14

The Centre is foreseeing a “stagnation” in milk production and a possible scarcity of ghee and butter as an impact of the lumpy skin disease (LSD) that took the lives of about 1.89 lakh cattle recently.

  • Statement 1 is correct: LSD is a serious viral disease that primarily affects cattle and buffalo. The disease can result in animal welfare issues and significant production losses. LSD is a disease of animals, not humans, it is not transmitted to humans by eating affected meat.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The disease is transmitted by blood-feeding insects i.e., Sanguinivorous insects, such as certain species of flies and mosquitoes, or ticks. It causes fever, nodules on the skin and can also lead to death, especially in animals that that have not previously been exposed to the virus.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Lumpy skin disease was first seen as an epidemic in Zambia in 1929. Lumpi-ProVacInd is a live attenuated vaccine jointly developed by ICAR’s National Research Centre on Equines (NRCE) and the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) for the treatment of disease.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 15

Consider the following statements:

1. If arrested, the person has the right to defend himself by a lawyer of his choice.
2. It is mandatory for the police to take that person to the nearest magistrate within 48 hours.
3. The magistrate will decide whether the arrest is justifi ed or not.
4. The Supreme Court has ruled that right to life and personal liberty includes right to live with human dignity, free from exploitation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 15

Right to Equality

  • Equality and freedom or liberty, are the two rights that are most essential to a democracy. It is not possible to think of the one without thinking of the other. Liberty means freedom of thought, expression and action.
  • However it does not mean freedom to do anything that one desires or likes. If that were to be permitted then a large number of people will not be able to enjoy their freedom.
  • Therefore, freedoms are defi ned in such a manner that every person will enjoy her freedom without threatening freedom of others and without endangering the law and order situation.

Right to life and personal liberty

  • The foremost right among rights to freedom is the right to life and personal liberty. No citizen can be denied his or her life except by procedure as laid down under the law. Similarly no one can be denied his/her personal liberty.
  • That means no one can be arrested without being told the grounds for such an arrest. If arrested, the person has the right to defend himself by a lawyer of his choice.
  • Also, it is mandatory for the police to take that person to the nearest magistrate within 24 hours. The magistrate, who is not part of the police, will decide whether the arrest is justifi ed or not.
  • This right is not just confi ned to a guarantee against taking away of an individual’s life but has wider application. Various judgments of Supreme Court have expanded the scope of this right.
  • The Supreme Court has ruled that this right also includes right to live with human dignity, free from exploitation.
  • The court has held that right to shelter and livelihood is also included in the right to life because no person can live without the means of living, that is, the means of livelihood.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

1. In early 1950s, States of India were divided into three Parts and their heads were namely, the Governor, Rajpramukhs and Chief Commissioners.
2. The former princely states or group of princely states were governed separately by the Central government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 16

Statement 1 is correct: India has had a long history of states reorganization. At the time India became a republic country, India had 27 states and the Constitution distinguished between them based on three types. 

  • Part B had eight states governed by a Rajpramukh, who was appointed by the President, and these were former princely states or group of princely states.
  • Ten Part C states were governed by a chief commissioner, who was too appointed by the President, and these states were either former chief commissioners’ provinces or princely states.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Part A there were nine states which were ruled by the state legislature and an elected governor and these were the former governors’ provinces of British India.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 17

Regarding the sources of revenues of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), consider the following:

1. Collection from tax and non-tax sources as assigned to them under Municipal act.
2. Devolution of shared taxes and duties as per recommendation of State Finance Commission
3. Grants-in-aid from the State Government
4. Grants-in-aid from the Government of India under Centrally Sponsored Schemes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 17

Urban Local Bodies (ULBs)  

  • ULBs are small local bodies that administer or govern a city or a town of specifi ed population. Urban Local Bodies are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments. These functions broadly relate to public health, welfare, regulatory functions, public safety, public infrastructure works, and development activities. 
  • There are several types of Urban Local bodies in India such as Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Notified Area Committee, Town Area Committee, Special Purpose Agency, Township, Port Trust, Cantonment Board etc. The main sources of revenues of ULBs are as follows: 
    • Collection from tax and non-tax sources as assigned to them under Municipal act. 
    • Devolution of shared taxes and duties as per recommendation of State Finance Commission Grants-in-aid from the State Government
    • Grants-in-aid from the Government of India under Centrally Sponsored Schemes Share of State Govt. of State against Centrally Sponsored Schemes of Govt. of India 
    •  Award of Central Finance Commission Grant, GOI
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 18

In the context of constitution, consider the following statements:
1. It provides a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
2. It specifi es who has the power to make decisions in a society.
3. The constitution does not set the limit on what a government can impose on its citizens.
4. It enables the government to fulfi l the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 18
  • Statement 1 is correct: It provides a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It specifi es who has the power to make decisions in a society.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The constitution set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens.
  • Statement 4 is correct: It enables the government to fulfi l the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.

Notes

Function of Constitution

  • The fi rst function of a constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
  • The second function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.
  • So the third function of a constitution is to set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them.
  • The fourth function of a constitution is to enable the government to fulfi l the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 19

The ‘Business Ready (B-READY) project’ is an initiative of which one of the following organisations?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 19

The World Bank Group’s B-READY project is a benchmarking exercise aiming to provide a quantitative assessment of the business environment for private sector development. Its report will be published annually and cover most economies worldwide. The assessment will cover ten assessment topics following the typical life cycle of a firm from opening, operating (or expanding), and closing (or reorganising) a business.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 20

With reference to the Indian National Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. The All-India Muslim League was founded in 1906, under the leadership of Aga Khan and Nawab Mohsin – ul – Mulk.
  2. The Muslim League opposed the partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon. 
  3. At the Lucknow session of 1916, the Indian National Congress accepted the demand of separate electorates by the Muslim League.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 20
  • The separatist and loyalist tendencies among a section of the educated Muslims, and the big Muslim Nawabs and landlords reached a climax in 1906, when the All-India Muslim League was founded under the leadership of Aga Khan, the Nawab of Dhaka, and Nawab Mohsin-ulMulk.
  • Founded as a loyalist, communal and conservative political organization, the Muslim League made no critique of colonialism, supported the partition of Bengal and demanded special safeguards for the Muslims in government services.
  • The Muslim League‟s political activities were directed not against the foreign rulers, but against the Hindus and the National Congress.
  • The Lucknow Pact of 1916 marked an important step forward in the Hindu- Muslim unity. Unfortunately, it did not involve the Hindu and Muslim masses, and it accepted the pernicious principle of separate electorates.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 21

With reference to the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, consider the following statements:

  1. Press equipment of the vernacular newspapers could be seized in case they contravened the provisions of the Act at the first instance.
  2. As per the Act, an appeal could be made against the magistrate's action in a court of law.
  3. This Act provided for no exemptions to the vernacular newspapers.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 21

The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to better control‘ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing. The provisions of the Act included:

  • The District Magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and the publisher of any vernacular newspaper to enter into a bond with the government undertaking not to cause disaffection against the government or antipathy between persons of different religions, caste, race through published material; the printer and the publisher could also be required to deposit security which could be forfeited if the regulation were contravened, and press equipment could be seized if the offence re-occurred.
  • The magistrate‘s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law.
  • A vernacular newspaper could get exemption from the operation of the Act by submitting proofs to a government censor.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 22

‘Sinkholes may expand in diameter and as a result, they unite to form a compound sinkhole. Sometimes these may be developed from the surface to join the passage already made. This leads to the collapse of a certain part of the roof resulting in the formation of large depressions.Which of the following terms best describes the passage given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 22

Solution is one of the dominant processes in the formation of certain landscape features. This process of erosion as an agent of gradation is particularly very significant in Limestone and Dolomite regions. The resultant landscape is known as Karst Topography. Some of the Karst Landforms are as follows- Karren, Sinkholes, Caverns, Terra Rossa, Uvala, Polje, Blind Valley, Sinking Creek etc.

  • Uvalas are large surface depressions in limestone terrain (karst region). They are formed by the coalescence of adjoining dolines. It has an irregular floor which is not as smooth as that of polje.

Sinkholes may expand in diameter and as a result they unite to form a compound sinkhole. Sometimes these may be developed from the surface to join the passage already made under. This leads to collapse of a certain part of the roof resulting in the formation of large depressions called ‘Uvalas.”

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

1. Every person who is a member of All India Service holds offic e during the pleasure of the President
2. If a government employee is convicted in a criminal case, he can be dismissed without Departmental Enquiry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 23

All India Services

  • The article 310 of Indian constitution reads that “Except as expressly provided by this Constitution, every person who is a member of a Defence service or of a civil service of the Union or of an All India Service holds offi ce during the pleasure of the President, and every person who s a member of a civil service of a State or holds any civil post under a State holds offi ce during the pleasure of the Governor of the State.
  • According to article 310, every person who is a member of Union civil Service holds offi ce during the pleasure of the President. But the article 311 acts as a safeguard to civil servants. It reads as under;
  • Article 311 (1): It says that no government employee either of an all India service or a state government shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed him/her.
  • Article 311 (2): It says that no civil servant shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an enquiry. Further, s/he has to be informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.
  • Exceptions under Article 311:
  • Article 311(2) (a): It says that if a government employee is convicted in a criminal case, he can be dismissed without Departmental Enquiry (DE).
  • Article 311 (2) (c): It says that the government employee can be dismissed when the President or the Governor is satisfi ed that in the interest of the security of state it is not required to hold such an enquiry, the employee can be dismissed without DE.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 24

The terms 'isoniazid', 'rifampin', 'ethambutol' are often seen in the news. What are they?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 24
  • Recent context: India accounts for 27 percent of the total TB cases in the world, according tthe recently released Global TB Report 2023 by the World Health Organisation.
  • Key findings:
  • Global:
    • The reported global number of people newly diagnosed with TB was 7.5 million in 2022.
    • TB remained the world’s second leading cause of death in 2022 after COVID-19.
    • Net reduction of TB incidence from 2015- 2022 was 8.7% far from the WHEnd TB Strategy milestone of 50% reduction by 2025.
  • India’s findings
    • India, Indonesia, and the Philippines collectively account for nearly 60% of the reduction in number of people newly diagnosed with TB in 2020- 2021.
    • India has 27% of the world’s TB cases.
  • TB is caused by bacillus Mycobacterium tuberculosis which most often affects the lungs (pulmonary TB). The most common medications ttreat TB include isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, etc. Currently, Bacillle Calmette-Guerin is the only licensed vaccine available for TB prevention. It spreads from person tperson through air. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
  • TB Risk factors: Diabetes, HIV infection, Undernutrition, tobaccuse.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 25

Consider the following countries:

  1. United States
  2. Canada
  3. Germany
  4. Japan
  5. India

How many of the above are the members of the Group of Seven (G7) Countries?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 25

The Group of Seven (G7) serves as a forum to coordinate global policy, but experts are increasingly questioning the group’s relevance. The G7 is an informal grouping of advanced democracies that meets annually to coordinate global economic policy and address other transnational issues. The G7 is an informal bloc of industrialized democracies:

  • The United States
  • Canada
  • France
  • Germany
  • Italy
  • Japan
  • United Kingdom (UK)

Russia belonged to the forum from 1998 through 2014, when the bloc was known as the Group of Eight (G8), but it was suspended following its annexation of Ukraine’s Crimea region

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 26

Match the following pairs:
1. Natality - It refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.
2. Mortality - It is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
3. Immigration - It is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
4. Emigration - It is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 26

Population density of Species

  • Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.
  • Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
  • Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
  • Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, cervical cancer is the most common cancer in women.

Statement II: To prevent rising incidence of cervical cancer, India has introduced Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Vaccine in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 27
  • Recent Context: In a bid to reduce cases of cervical cancer, the government is likely to roll out an immunisation campaign against Human Papillomavirus (HPV) in the second quarter of the year. Girls between the ages of 9 and 14 years across India will be vaccinated for free in three phases under the government’s programme over the next three years.
  • Globally, cervical cancer is the 4th most common cancer in women. India contributes to the largest proportion of global cervical cancer burden. Hence Statement-II is correct.
  • In India, cervical cancer is the second most common cancer in women and breast cancer is most common cancer. Hence Statement-I is not correct.
  • The National Technical Advisory Group for Immunization (NTAGI) has recommended the introduction of HPV Vaccine in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) for 9-14 year-old adolescent girls but it has not been introduced in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 28

The 'Bletchley Declaration', sometimes seen in the news, is related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 28
  • Calling for international cooperation on ensuring safe use of Artificial Intelligence (AI), the Britain government published the ‘Bletchley Declaration agreement with countries like India, Australia, China, and the US among others, on November 1, the first day of the UK AI summit. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  • The declaration, signed by 28 countries, outlines an agenda for global efforts needed to address “frontier risks” posed by advanced AI models. According to the declaration, these include foundational models capable of performing a wide variety of tasks or those exhibiting the potential to cause harm.
  • The Declaration has also acknowledged concerns around “unintended issues of control” over generalpurpose AI models that could be opposed to human intent. Calling for international cooperation, the declaration statement calls on countries to balance the need for “pro-innovation and proportionate governance and regulatory approach that maximizes the benefits” with the risks associated with AI.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. Leopard (Panthera pardus) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
  2. In India,Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of leopards followed by Maharashtra.
  3. It is nocturnal and preys on smaller herbivores like chital and wild boa.

How many of the given above statement(s) is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 29
  • Context: The report on the Status of Leopards in India was recently released by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • The leopard (IUCN: Vulnerable; CITES Appendix-I; Schedule-I in WPA), scientifically known as Panthera pardus, is the smallest member of the Big Cat family and is highly adaptable to various habitats. It is nocturnal and preys on smaller herbivores like chital and wild boar. Melanism, resulting in black skin and spots, is common but often mistaken for a different species called the black panther. Leopards inhabit a wide range from Africa to Asia, including the Indian subcontinent.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:

  1. A ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air for combustion.
  2. A scramjet is a type of ramjet airbreathing jet engine where combustion occurs in supersonic airflow.
  3. Ramjets work most efficiently at hypersonic speeds.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 30
  • A ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air for combustion without a rotating compressor. Fuel is injected in the combustion chamber where it mixes with the hot compressed air and ignites. A ramjet-powered vehicle requires an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 (three times the speed of sound) and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6. However, the ramjet efficiency starts to drop when the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • A scramjet is a type of ramjet airbreathing jet engine where combustion occurs in supersonic airflow. A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet. Hence statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 31

Consider the following:

  1. Collection and appropriation of direct tax
  2. Borrowings by the government through the sale of Treasury Bills
  3. Loans received from foreign bodies
  4. Taxes and profi ts from state enterprises

How many of the above-mentioned can be accounted as Capital Receipts in the Annual Financial Statement?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 31

Capital and Revenue receipts

  • Capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. They also refer to incoming cash flows. Capital receipts can be both non-debt and debt receipts.
  • Capital Receipts include:
    • loans raised by Government from the public called market loans,
    • borrowings by the Government from Reserve Bank and other parties through the sale of
    • Treasury Bills,
    • loans received from foreign Governments and bodies,
    • disinvestment receipts
    • recoveries of loans from State and Union Territory Governments and other parties
  • Revenue receipts are those that do not produce any liabilities and do not result in a claim against the government. These revenue receipts are non-redeemable and are divided into two groups: tax revenue and non-tax revenue.
  • Collection and Appropriation of Direct Taxes is a part of Revenue Receipts.
  • Taxes, profits from state enterprises, grants, and other sources of current income are all included in revenue receipts. Revenue receipts do not result in a debt or loss of the government’s assets. The government’s receipts indicate the many revenue sources used by the government.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 32

In the context of Legislature of the Union, consider the following statements:

1. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
2. The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
3. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
4. The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 32

Parliament - Legislature of the Union

  • The Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union government. It occupies a preeminent and central position in the Indian democratic political system due to adoption of the parliamentary form of government, also known as ‘Westminster’ model of government.
  • Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, offic ers, procedures, privileges, powers and etc., of the Parliament.

Composition of Rajya Sabha

  • The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fi xed at 250, out of which, 238 are to be the representatives of the states and union territories (elected indirectly) and 12 are nominated by the president.
  • At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members. Of these, 229 members represent the states, 4 members represent the union territories and 12 members are nominated by the president.
  • The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
  • Representation of States
  • The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
  • The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
  • The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state.
  • Representation of Union Territories
  • The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose.
  • This election is also held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
  • Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi and Puducherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha.
  • The populations of other fi ve union territories are too small to have any representative in the Rajya Sabha
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 33

Consider the following statements:

  1. Gandhi emphasised on vocational education.
  2. "Nai Talim‟ was a principle promoted by Mahatma Gandhi.
  3. Gandhi wanted the Hindu scriptures to be a part of education, as they propounded discipline and selfrestraint. 

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 33
  • Gandhi was against the English system of education and also against the use of English as a medium of instruction. He wanted education to be in the vernacular.
  • He advocated free and compulsory education for all boys and girls between 7 and 14 years.
  • In Gandhi‘s view, education should be an integrated approach to the full development of the personality; it should include physical training and high moral principles, along with intellectual and cognitive development. He differentiated between learning and education, knowledge and wisdom, literacy and lessons of life. According to him, ―Literacy in itself is no education‖.
  • To Gandhi, morality had to be a part of education. Taking a leaf from Plato, Gandhi said that education should be a means of attaining knowledge and wisdom, that ultimately places the seeker on the spiritual path. The end of education was not merely a means to make a career and achieve social status. Education should be a means to enlightenment.
  • Gandhi also wanted the Hindu scriptures to be a part of education, as they propounded discipline and self-restraint. He conceived his ‗Nai Talim‘, or basic education for all in 1937. Nai Talim aimed to impart education that would lead to freedom from ignorance, illiteracy, superstition, psyche of servitude, and many more taboos that inhibited free thinking of a free India. This scheme of education was to emphasise on the holistic training of mind and body, so along with academics, there was to be purposeful manual labour. Handicrafts, art and drawing were the most fundamental teaching tools in Nai Talim. As Gandhi wanted to make the Indian villages self-sufficient units, he emphasised on vocational education, which increases the efficiency of the students in undertaking tasks in those villages and make the village a selfsufficient unit. 
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 34

Which one of the following Committee recommended a three-tier structure of selfgovernance in the tribal areas?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 34

Bhuria Committee 

  • The Rao government appointed a committee headed by Mr. Dileep Singh Bhuria, MP, in June 1994, to work out the details as to how structures similar to Panchayati Raj Institutions can take shape in Tribal Areas and Scheduled Areas and to defi ne their powers. 
  • The Committee submitted its report in January 1995. The Bhuria Committee recommended a three-tier structure of self-governance in the tribal areas: 
    • Gram Sabha - Every “habitation community” to have a Gram Sabha which will exercise command over natural resources, resolve disputes and manage institutions under it like schools and cooperatives 
    • Gram Panchayat - Elected body of representatives of each Gram Sabha, also to function as an appellate authority for unresolved disputes at lower level 
    •  A block or taluka level body as the next higher level.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 35

The Earthquake Early Warning (EEW) System in India is based on which of the following waves?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 35

Earthquake Early Warning (EEW) System was developed in India for the issue of earthquake alert/warning based on P-wave arrival time after the occurrence of an earthquake. The warning time will range from a few seconds to a little more than a minute and will primarily be a function of the distance of the user from the epicentre. There are instruments available to sense the primary waves of an earthquake and with the help of suitable/fast communication systems in place, the Earthquake Early Warning may be issued at farther locations before the arrival of secondary waves/surface waves which might cause critical shaking or damage. The development and deployment of such systems may be useful for the issue of warning for shutting critical operations/industries and safeguarding human lives.

UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 36

Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding ‘Giffen Goods’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 36

Option (a) is correct: A Giffen good is a low-income, non-luxury product for which demand increases as the price increases and vice versa.

Giffen Goods

  • A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve which is contrary to the fundamental laws of demand which are based on a downward sloping demand curve.
  • Demand for Giffen goods is heavily infl uenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures.
  • Veblen goods are similar to Giffen goods but with a focus on luxury items.
  • The laws of supply and demand govern macro and microeconomic theories.
    Economists have found that when prices rise, demand falls creating a downward sloping curve. When prices fall, demand is expected to increase creating an upward sloping curve.
  • Income can slightly mitigate these results, flattening curves since more personal income can result in different behaviours.
  • Substitution and the substitution effect can also be significant. Since there are typically substitutes for most goods, the substitution effect helps strengthen the case for standard supply and demand.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 37

Consider the following statements:

  1. Caste census means inclusion of castewise tabulation of India’s population in the Census exercise.
  2. The state government empowered to collect the caste based population data within the state under Concurrent List.
  3. The Caste Census is required for the state to effectively implement their welfare programmes.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 37

Caste Census

  • Caste census means inclusion of caste-wise tabulation of India’s population in the Census exercise.
  • India has counted and published caste data -from 1951 to 2011 - of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes only. It also publishes data related to religions, languages and socio-economic status.
  • The state government refered to Entries 20, 23, 24 and 30 in the Concurrent List, which required the state to collect this information to effectively implement their welfare programmes.
  • These entries deal with vital aspect s of state functioning such as economic and social planning, social security, social insurance, labour welfare and vital statistics such as births and deaths.
  • Entry 45 of the Concurrent List, over which both Union and state governments have legislative competence, allows states to conduct inquiries and collect statistics on any matters in the Concurrent List.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 38

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Pradhan Mant.ri Fasal Bima Yojana?

1. It aims to provide financial support to farmers suffering crop loss or damage arising out of all non-preventable natural calamities.

2. It is mandatory for the farmers to take insurance coverage under the scheme.

3. Banks have to ensure that ehgible loanee farmers are not deprived of any benefit under the Scheme due to error otherwise, the concerned agencies shall have to make good of all such losses.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 38
  • Statement 1 is correct: PMFBY aims to provide financial support to farmers suffering crop loss/damage arising out of all non-preventable natural risks from pre- sowing to post-harvest stage.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In February 2020, the government made PMFBY voluntary for farmers.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The concerned agencies shall have to make good of all such losses in case of errors/omissions/ commissions of the concerned branch/
  • FACS.

Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

  • PMFBY aims to provide financial support to farmers suffering crop loss/damage arising out of all non-preventable natural risks from pre-sowing to post-harvest stage. Any loss to the insurer arising from higher claims by farmers will be offset by the state governments.
  • In February 2020, the government made PMFBY voluntary for farmers while previously it was mandatory for the farmers to take insurance cover under the scheme.
  • National Crop Insurance Portal (NCIP) is the only source of enrolment for Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), on which farmer applications from various designated sources including banks/ financial institutions are entered.
  • Banks have to ensure that eligible loanee farmers are not deprived of any benefit under the Scheme due to errors/omissions/ commissions of the concernedbranch/ PACS, and in case of such errors, the concerned agencies shall have to make good of all such losses.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 39

With reference to the Harappan civilization, consider the following statements:

1. The Harappan civilization was discovered in 1920-21 following the excavations by D.R. Sahni at Mohenjodaro and by R.D. Banerjee at Harappa.

2. Saraswati River was one of the main focus of the distribution of settlements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 39
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Rakhaldas Bandyopadhyay, also known as R. D. Banerji, was an Indian historian and a native Indian pioneer in the fields of Indian archaeology, palaeography, and epigraphy. He is mostly known as the discoverer of Mohenjodaro, the principal site of the Harappa culture.
  • D.R. Sahni’s excavation of Harappa in 192021 was one of the most important archaeological discoveries of the 20th century. It led to the identification of the Harappan civilization, one of the oldest urban civilizations in the world.
  • Sahni's excavations at Harappa revealed a well-planned city with a grid system of streets, a sophisticated drainage system, and a number of public buildings, including a granary, a bathhouse, and a citadel. He also discovered a wide range of artefacts, including pottery, jewellery, and metalwork.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Harappan civilization was centred in the region between the Indus River and the Ganga River. While the Indus River and its tributaries were vital to civilization, many settlements were also located along the Saraswati River and its tributaries. The Saraswati River is significant in Harappan civilization studies, and its dry riverbed is believed to be a major focus of settlement distribution. Some scholars even refer to the civilization as the "IndusSaraswati civilization" to emphasize the importance of the Saraswati River.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 40

RBI's monetary policy stances was recently seen in news , consider the following statements in this regard:

  1. Neutral stance means interest rates may move either way—upward or downward.
  2. Calibrated tightening means interest rates can only move upward.
  3. Accommodative stance means syphoning out of fund from the financial system.
  4. Hawkish stance means injection of more funds into the financial system.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 40
  • Statement 1 is correct: Neutral stance means interest rates may move either way—upward or downward.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Calibrated tightening means interest rates can only move upward.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Accommodative stance (also known as expansionary stance) means injection of more funds into the financial system. Falhng 'headline inflation’ inspires RBI for it and such a stance is aimed at expo vision in lending, investment and growth.
  • It is the Contractionary Stance means syphoning out of fund from the financial
  • system. Such a stance is generally followed once more than optimum fund is believed to be avadable in the financial system. At times, it is also aimed at taming inflation in long-term.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Hawkish stance means the contractionary stance aimed at checking inflation from rising (linked to the statutory goals of inflation targeting the ‘headline inflation’).

Stances of Monetary Policy

  • Monetary policy can be either expansionary or contractionary. Expansionary monetary policy increases the supply of money whereas contractionary policy reduces the money supply. Expansionary policy is also called ‘Dovish’ or ‘Accommodative’ or ‘Easy Money Policy’. Contractionary policy is also called ‘Hawkish’ or ‘Tight Money Policy’.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 41

Which of the following approaches can be used for rebounding/restring an ecosystem?

1. Reversing the degradation of soils, agricultural areas, forests and watersheds.
2. Maintaining ecosystem structure and function to support food provisioning. 
3. Practicing regenerative agriculture.
4. Rebuilding natural processes and the complete or near complete food-web at all trophic levels.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 41
  • All the statements are correct: Ecosystem restoration is the process of halting and reversing degradation, resulting in improved ecosystem services and recovered biodiversity. Ecosystem restoration encompasses a wide continuum of practices, depending on local conditions and societal choice.
    • Depending on objectives, restored ecosystems can follow different trajectories:
    • From degraded natural to more intact natural ecosystems (often by assisting natural regeneration)
    • From degraded, modifi ed ecosystems to more functional modifi ed ecosystems (e.g. restoration of urban areas and farmlands)
    • From modifi ed ecosystems towards more natural ecosystems, providing that the rights and needs of people who depend on that ecosystem are not compromised.
  • Various approaches for ecosystem restoration include:
    • Ecological Restoration: Assisting the recovery of a terrestrial, freshwater or marine ecosystem that has been degraded, damaged, or destroyed.
    • Forest and Landscape Restoration: Reversing the degradation of soils, agricultural areas, forests and watersheds thereby regaining their ecological functionality.
    • Restoration of Aquatic Production Ecosystems: Maintaining ecosystem structure and function to support food provisioning, while minimizing impacts, rather than restoring ecosystems to an initial state before production activity started.
    • Regenerative Agriculture: Farming that uses soil conservation as the entry point to regenerate and contribute to multiple provisioning, regulating and supporting services.
    • Rewilding: Rebuilding, following major human disturbance, a natural ecosystem by restoring natural processes and the complete or near complete food-web at all trophic levels as a self-sustaining and resilient ecosystem using biota that would have been present had the disturbance not occurred.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 42

With respect to the Home Rule League, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 42
  • Two Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend.
  • Tilak set up his Home Rule League in April, 1916, and it was restricted to Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, Central Provinces and Berar. It had six branches, and the demands included Swarajya, formation of linguistic states and education in the vernacular.
  • Annie Besant set up her League in September, 1916, in Madras and covered the rest of India (including Bombay city). It had 200 branches, was loosely organized as compared to Tilak‘s League and had George Arundale as the organizing secretary. Besides Arundale, the main work was done by B.W. Wadia and C.P. Ramaswamy Aiyar.
  • In June, 1917, Annie Besant and her associates, B.P. Wadia and George Arundale, were arrested. In a dramatic gesture, Sir S. Subramaniya Aiyar renounced his knighthood, while Tilak advocated a programme of passive resistance.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 43

Cosider the follwing pairs:

Nutrient  : Largest Natural Reservoir
1. Carbon : Sedimentary Rocks 
2. Phosphorus :  Atmosphere 
3. Nitrogen : Oceans

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 43

Carbon - Deep Oceans:

  • The deep oceans are the largest carbon reservoir on Earth, holding an estimated 38,000 billion metric tons of carbon. This vast storage of carbon is primarily in the form of dissolved inorganic carbon, including bicarbonate (HCO3-) and carbonate (CO32-) ions, as well as organic carbon.
  • Carbon is cycled between the atmosphere, terrestrial ecosystems, and the oceans through various processes, including photosynthesis by marine phytoplankton, respiration by marine organisms, and the exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) with the atmosphere.
  • The deep oceans act as a critical component in the global carbon cycle, helping tregulate atmospheric CO2 levels and playing a role in climate regulation. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Phosphorus - Sedimentary Rocks:

  • Phosphorus is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, such as phosphate minerals like apatite. These rocks store phosphorus for geological timescales.
  • Over time, geological processes, including weathering, uplift, and erosion, release phosphorus from these rocks. This weathered phosphorus enters soils, rivers, and eventually oceans, where it can be used by aquatic organisms.
  • Phosphorus is a crucial element for life, as it is an essential component of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) and plays a central role in energy transfer in biological systems. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Nitrogen - Atmosphere:

  • The Earth's atmosphere is the largest reservoir of nitrogen, primarily in the form of atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2). Nitrogen gas is highly stable and makes up a significant portion of the atmosphere, accounting for about 78% of the air we breathe.
  • While atmospheric nitrogen is abundant, it is in a biologically unavailable form for most organisms. Nitrogen gas needs to be converted into reactive forms, such as ammonia (NH3) or nitrate (NO3-), through a process called nitrogen fixation before it can be used by plants and other living organisms.
  • Nitrogen fixation is carried out by certain nitrogen-fixing bacteria and lightning. Once fixed, nitrogen enters the soil and becomes accessible to plants, forming the basis of terrestrial and aquatic food webs.
  • These nutrient reservoirs are essential for maintaining life on Earth and play key roles in biogeochemical cycles that impact ecosystems and the environment. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 44

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is as Reason (R):

A. Primary succession is much more diffi cult to observe than the secondary succession.
R. There are very few places on earth that do not already have communities of organisms.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 44

Option (a) is correct

  • Primary succession takes place an over a bare or unoccupied areas such as rocks outcrop, newly formed deltas and sand dunes, emerging volcano islands and lava flows as well as glacial moraines (muddy area exposed by a retreating glacier) where no community has existed previously.
  • The plants that invade fi rst bare land, where soil is initially absent are called pioneer species. The assemblage of pioneer plants is collectively called pioneer community. A pioneer species generally show high growth rate but short life span.  Primary succession is much more diffic ult to observe than secondary succession because there are relatively very few places on earth that do not already have communities of organisms.
  • Furthermore, primary succession takes a very long time as compared to secondary succession as the soil is to be formed during primary succession while secondary succession starts in an area where soil is already present.
  • The community that initially inhabits a bare area is called pioneer community.
  • The pioneer community after some time gets replaced by another community with different species combination. 
  • This second community gets replaced by a third community. This process continues sequence-wise in which a community replaced previous by another community.
  • Each transitional (temporary) community that is formed and replaced during succession is called a stage in succession or a seral community.
  • The terminal (fin al) stage of succession forms the community which is called as climax community.
  • A climax community is stable, mature, more complex and long lasting. The entire sequence of communities in a given area, succeeding each other, during the course of succession is termed sere.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with respect to RNA interference (RNAi):

  1. RNAi is the process of gene silencing initiated by a double-stranded RNA (dsRNA).
  2. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
  3. RNAi is extensively used in creating pest-resistant plants.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 45
  • RNA interference (RNAi) is a precise mechanism operative in eukaryotic cells which helps a cell to check the invasion of foreign genes (from viruses and transposons and also to check the expression of their own genes). RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. RNA Interference was discovered by Andrew Fire and Craig Mello in 2006 who were awarded the Nobel Prize. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing). Double stranded RNA molecules may arise in several ways
    • by the transcription of inverted repeats into an RNA molecules that then base pairs with itself to form double- stranded RNA,
    • by simultaneous transcription of two different RNA molecules that are complementary to one another that pair, forming double- stranded RNA,
    • by infection of viruses that make double stranded RNA. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Geneticists speculate that RNA interference evolved as a defense against RNA viruses and transposable elements that move through RNA intermediate. However, RNA interference is also responsible for number of key genetic and developmental processes including changes in chromatin structure, translation, cell fate and proliferation, and cell death. Geneticists also use RNAi machinery as an effective tool for blocking the expression of specific genes and hence in gene silencing.
    • Several nematodes parasitise a wide variety of plants and animals including human beings. A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was based on the process of RNA interference (RNAi). The source of this complementary RNA could be from an infection by viruses having RNA genomes or mobile genetic elements (transposons) that replicate via an RNA intermediate.
    • Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant. The introduction of DNA was such that it produced both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host cells. These two RNA’s being complementary to each other formed a double stranded (dsRNA) that initiated RNAi and thus, silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode. The consequence was that the parasite could not survive in a transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA. The transgenic plant therefore got itself protected from the parasite. Hence statement 3 is correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 46

With reference to the important centres of art production, consider the following statements:

1. In the Mathura School of Art, the images of ‘Ayudhas’ are associated with Vishnu and Shiva.

2. The site of ‘Devnimori’ is the earliest site in the Gangetic Valley, where sculptures from the Mathura School have been found.

3. The halo surrounding the Buddha in the Sarnath School is heavily decorated, drawing inspiration from the Mathura School.

4. ‘Red sandstone’ is the primary material used in the sculptures of the Mathura School of Art.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 46
  • Mathura became India's most important artistic production centre in the second century BCE, with its highly recognizable red sandstone statues being admired and exported all over India. In particular, it was in Mathura that the distinctive Indian convention of giving sacred figures multiple body parts, especially heads and arms, first became common in art around the 4th century CE, initially exclusively in the Hindu figures, as it derived from the Vedic texts.
  • The Buddha image at Mathura is modelled on the lines of the earlier Yaksha images, whereas in Gandhara, it has Hellenistic features. The images of Vaishnava (mainly Vishnu and his various forms) and Shaiva (mainly the Lingas and the Mukhalingas) faiths are also found at Mathura, but Buddhist images are found in large numbers. It may be noted that the images of Vishnu and Shiva are represented by their Ayudhas (weapons).
  • Among the important Stupa sites outside the Gangetic Valley is Devnimori in Gujarat. In the subsequent centuries sculptures had little variations, while slender images with transparent drapery remained a dominant aesthetic sensibility.
  • In this period, two important schools of sculptures in northern India are worth noting. The traditional centre, Mathura, remained the main art production site, whereas Sarnath and Kosambi also emerged as important centres of art production. Many Buddha images in Sarnath have plain transparent drapery, covering both shoulders, and the halo around the head has very little ornamentation, whereas the Mathura Buddha images continue to depict folds of the drapery in the Buddha images and the halo around the head is profusely decorated.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 47

With respect to Free Space Optical (FSO) communication, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a communication technology in which data is transmitted through the air.
  2. It can be used for point-to-point line of sight communication.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 47
  • Free Space Optical (FSO) is a communication system where free space acts as a medium between transceivers and data is transmitted by the propagation of light in free space allowing optical connectivity. The medium can be air, outer space, or vacuum. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Working of FSO is similar to OFC (optical fiber cable) networks but the only difference is that the optical beams are sent through free air instead of OFC cores that are glass fiber.
  • FSO is a LOS (line of sight) technology, where data, voice, and video communication is achieved with maximum 10Gbps of data rate by full-duplex (bidirectional) connectivity

Applications:

  • It can be used by wireless service providers for communication and it requires no license to use the FSO as it is required in case of microwave bands.
  • FSO links can be used to form a Storage Area Network (SAN). It is a network that is known to provide access to consolidated, block-level data storage.
  • To lay cables of users in the last mile is very costly for service providers as the cost of digging to lay fiber is so high and it would make no sense to lay as much fiber as possible. FSO can be used to solve such a problem by implementing it in the last mile along with other networks.
  • FSO systems are easily installable. This feature makes it applicable for interconnecting LAN segments to connect two buildings or other property.
  • Providing a backup link in case of failure of transmission through a fiber link Extending the fiber rings of an existing metropolitan area.
  • To provide instant service to customers when their fiber infrastructure is being deployed in the meantime.
  • To communicate between point-to-point links, for example, two buildings, two ships, and point-to-multipoint links, for example, from aircraft to ground or satellite to ground, for short and long reach communication. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • As it is a secure and undetectable system it can connect large areas safely with minimal planning and deployment time and is hence suitable for military applications.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 48

Consider the following statements:

1. Cross Elasticity of Demand assesses the sensitivity of quantity requested of good-X when the price of another Item-Y changes.

2. In an oligopolistic market, the amount desired for a commodity is affected not only by its own price.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 48

Elasticity of Demand

  • Cross Elasticity of Demand (XED): In an oligopolistic market, numerous companies compete. Thus, the amount desired for a commodity is affected not only by its own price, but also by the prices of other items.
  • Cross Elasticity of Demand (XED) is an economic term that assesses the sensitivity of quantity requested of one good (X) when the price of another item (Y) changes, and is also known as Cross-Price Elasticity of Demand.
  • Elasticity of demand is classifi ed into three types based on the many elements that infl uence the quantity desired for a product: price elasticity of demand (PED), cross elasticity of demand (XED), and income elasticity of demand (IED) (YED).

Income Elasticity of Demand (YED):

  • Consumer income levels have a signifi cant impact on the amount requested for a product.
  • This may be seen in the contrast between commodities sold in rural marketplaces and those sold in urban markets.
  • The Income Elasticity of Demand, commonly known as YED, refers to the sensitivity of the quantity requested for a certain commodity to changes in real income (the income generated by a person after accounting for infl ation) of the consumers who buy this good, while all other variables remain constant.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 49

Consider the following statements:

1. Utility of a product is defin ed by the consumer satisfaction and choices of individuals.

2. Choice modelling assumes that the utility which an individual derives from product is a function of the frequency and repeated choices.

3. Utility of a commodity affects demand and prices of a commodity irrespective of market factors.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 49
  • Statement 1 is correct: Utility, in economics, refers to the usefulness or enjoyment a consumer can get from a service or good.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Choice modelling is an analytical method that is used to simulate consumer shopping behaviour. Research participants are unaware of what is being measured as they are presented with visual choices with marketing variables such as advertising, pricing, packaging, features, etc.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: In practice, a consumer’s utility is usually impossible to measure or quantify. However, some economists believe that they can indirectly estimate what is the utility of an economic good or service by employing various models.

Utility of a Commodity

  • In economics, utility is a term used to determine the worth or value of a good or service. More specifi cally, utility is the total satisfaction or benefit  derived from consuming a good or service.
  • Economic theories based on rational choice usually assume that consumers will strive to maximize their utility.
  • The economic utility of a good or service is important to understand because it directly infl uences the demand, and therefore price, of that good or service.

Types of Utility:

  • "Ordinal" utility refers to the concept of one good being more useful or desirable than another.
  • "Cardinal" utility is the idea of measuring economic value through imaginary units, known as "utils."
  • "Marginal utility" is the utility gained by consuming an additional unit of a service or good.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 50

With respect to the Marital rape, consider the following statements:

  1. The Criminal Law Act of 2013, increased the age of consent for sexual intercourse from 16 to 18 years.
  2. A husband may be charged if he performs sexual intercourse with his wife without her consent under Section 377.
  3. The decision was made by the Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India case.
  4. The punishment of rape is at least nine years which may extend to life imprisonment.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 50
  • Statement; 4 is Incorrect: The punishment of rape is at least seven years which may extend to life imprisonment.

Marital Rape

  • The High Court of Chhattisgarh has decided a criminal revision petition challenging the charges framed against the applicant husband.
  • Based on the allegations of his wife, charges were framed by a trial court under Section 376 (rape). Section 377 (carnal intercourse against the order of nature) and Section 498A (cruelty towards wife by husband or his relatives) of the Inchan Penal Code (IPC).
  • The High Court upheld charges under Sections 498A and 377 but discharged the husband under Section 376 on the ground that by virtue of Exception 2 to Section 375 (the definition of rape), sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife (provided she is over the age of 18) would not amount to the offence of rape.

Inconsistent provisions

  • First, the marital rape exception is inconsistent with other sexual offences, which make no such exemption for marriage.
  • Thus, a husband may be tried for offences such as sexual harassment, molestation, voyeurism, and forcible chsrohing in the same way as any other man.
  • A husband separated from his wife (though not chvorced) may even be tried for rape (Section 376B).
  • A husband may be charged and tried for non-consensual penetrative sexual interactions other than penile-vaginal penetration with his wife under Section 377 (prior to the decision of the Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India, 2018, consent or lack thereof was not relevant to Section 377, but it is now).
  • As a result, penetrative intercourse that is penile-vaginal is protected from criminal prosecution when performed by a husband with his wife, even when done forcibly or without consent. If there is an underlying rationale to this extremely limited exemption, it is not immediately clear.
  • The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was brought into effect. Under the newly amended section, the punishment of rape is at least seven years which may extend to life imprisonment.
  • Any man who is a police officer, medical officer, pubic officer, or public servant may be imprisoned for at least 10 years if commits rape.
  • Where rape leads to the death of the victim or entered into a vegetative state the punishment of life imprisonment extending to death has been prescribed. The punishment for gang rape is at least 10 years.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 51

The term ‘TeLEOS-2’ recently seen in the news is used in the context of which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 51
  • TeLEOS-2 is a dedicated commercial mission through New Space India Limited (NSIL) with TeLEOS-2 as primary satellite and Lumelite-4 as a co-passenger satellite. The satellites weigh about 741 kg and 16 kg, respectively. Both belong to Singapore. They are intended to be launched into an Eastward low inclination orbit.
  • About TeLEOS-2 The TeLEOS-2 satellite is an earth observation satellite developed under a partnership between DSTA (representing the Government of Singapore) and ST Engineering. Once deployed and operational, it will be used to support the satellite imagery requirements of various agencies within the Government of Singapore. TeLEOS-2 carries a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) payload. TeLEOS-2 will be able to provide all-weather day and night coverage and capable of imaging at 1m full-polarimetric resolution
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 52

Consider the following statements regarding the Milky Way galaxy:

  1. It is spiral in shape.
  2. There is a supermassive black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 52
  • The Milky Way is a spiral galaxy around 13.6 billion years old with large pivoting arms stretching out across the cosmos.
    • Spiral galaxies are characterized by a central bulge surrounded by spiral arms that extend outward. The arms contain a concentration of stars, gas, and dust, giving the galaxy its distinctive spiral appearance when observed from certain angles.
    • Our solar system is located in one of the Milky Way's spiral arms, known as the Orion Arm or Local Spur.
  • At the center of the Milky Way, in the region known as Sagittarius A*, there is a supermassive black hole. This supermassive black hole has a mass equivalent to about 4 million times that of our Sun.
    • It was discovered through observations of the motions of stars orbiting around an invisible and extremely compact object, indicating the presence of a massive gravitational source, characteristic of a black hole.
  • Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 53

The color of the sun appears reddish during sunset. Which of the following is the reason behind this phenomenon?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - Question 53


  • As sunlight travels through the earth’s atmosphere, it gets scattered (changes its direction) by the atmospheric particles. Light of shorter wavelengths is scattered much more than light of longer wavelengths. (The amount of scattering is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the wavelength.
  • This is known as Rayleigh scattering). At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass through a larger distance in the atmosphere. Most of the blue and other shorter wavelengths are removed by scattering. The least scattered light reaching our eyes, therefore, the sun looks reddish. This explains the reddish appearance of the sun and full moon near the horizon.
  • This is also the reason that the sky appears blue during the day, as blue has a shorter wavelength than red and is scattered much more strongly. In fact, violet gets scattered even more than blue, having a shorter wavelength. But since our eyes are more sensitive to blue than violet, we see the sky blue.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.