UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test- 9 - UPSC MCQ

• Radioactive Pollution is defined as the increase in the natural radiation levels in the environment that pose a serious threat to humans and other life forms. Electromagnetic radiation refers to the energy that travels in waves through space at the speed of light. Electromagnetic radiation can be either ionizing or non- ionizing radiation depending on its frequency.
• Non-ionizing radiation:
  • Non-ionizing radiations are constituted by electromagnetic waves at the longer wavelength of the spectrum ranging from near-infrared rays to radio waves (including higher wavelength ultraviolet rays, and microwaves).
  • These waves have energies enough to excite the atoms and molecules of the medium through which they pass, causing them to vibrate faster but not strong enough to ionise them i.e does not have enough energy to detach electrons.
  • They may damage eyes which may be caused by reflections from coastal sand, and snow (snow blindness) directly looking towards the sun during an eclipse.
  • They injure the cells of skin and blood capillaries producing blisters and reddenings called sunburns.
• Non-ionizing radiation includes:
  • radio frequency waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light
• Sources of non-ionizing radiation:
  • Natural sources:
    • Lightning, Light, and heat from the sun are the Earth's natural electric and magnetic fields.
  • Artificial sources:
    • Tanning beds, Microwave ovens, Wireless devices such as cell phones, cell phone towers, Wi-Fi equipment, radio and TV broadcast antennas, Lighting products such as LED lights incandescent light bulbs, compact fluorescent bulbs, Power lines and household wiring, handheld lasers, and laser pointers.
    • Medical equipment like MRI,(Unlike X-ray, CT, and PET scans, MRIs do not use ionizing radiation and are considered a non-invasive procedure. Instead, MRIs use a strong magnetic field and radio waves to take pictures of your brain). Hence options 1 and 2 are correct.
• Ionizing radiation
  • Ionizing radiation is a type of radiation that can detach electrons from, or ionize, other atoms as they pass through matter. It includes electromagnetic waves and subatomic particles.
• Ionizing radiation includes:
  • high energy ultraviolet radiation, X-rays, gamma rays
• Sources of ionizing radiation:
  • Natural sources of ionizing radiation include radiation in the environment from rocks and soil as well as cosmic radiation from space. These sources of radiation are referred to as "background" radiation.
  • Artificial sources of ionizing radiation include Nuclear energy, Medical devices such as X-ray machines, CT scanners, Mammography, and Baggage X-ray screening devices. Hence options 3 and 4 are not correct.

• Embodied carbon is the carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions associated with materials and construction processes throughout the whole lifecycle of a building or infrastructure. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• It includes any CO₂ created during the manufacturing of building materials (material extraction, transport to manufacturer, manufacturing), the transport of those materials to the job site, and the construction practices used.
• Put simply, embodied carbon is the carbon footprint of a building or infrastructure project before it becomes operational. It also refers to the CO₂ produced maintaining the building and eventually demolishing it, transporting the waste, and recycling it.
• Embodied carbon is distinct from operational carbon — the carbon that comes from energy, heat, lighting, etc. Thanks to advances in reducing operational carbon, recent data from the World Green Building Council indicates that embodied carbon is becoming a larger portion of a building's overall carbon footprint.

• Mudumalai Tiger Reserve.
  • The Oscar-winning ‘Elephant Whisperers’ was filmed at the Theppakadu Elephant Camp, located inside the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• Location:
  • It is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu, spread over 321 sq. km. at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
  • It lies on the Northeastern and Northwestern slopes of Nilgiri hills which is a part of the Western Ghats.
  • It is part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, the first Biosphere Reserve in India.
  • It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North, the Nilgiris North Division on the South and East, and Gudalur Forest Division on the South West.
• Important Flora and Fauna
  • It has tall grasses, commonly referred to as “Elephant Grass”, Bamboo of the giant variety, and valuable timber species like Teak, Rosewood, etc.
  • There are several species of endemic flora. Such a varied habitat is inhabited by a variety of animals which include tigers, elephants, Indian Gaur, Panther, Sambar, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, Mouse Deer, Common Langur, Malabar Giant Squirrel, Wild Dog, Mongoose, Jungle Cat, Hyena, among others.
  • This reserve has a wide variety of more than 260 species of birds.8% of bird species found in India are recorded in Mudumalai.
• Tribes in and around Mudumalai:
  • Kattunayakan, who form around fifty percent of the total tribal population and reside in around Mudumalai region. This community of tribes is mainly engaged in collecting and selling of forest produce to make a living. Apart from worshiping Hindu gods, these tribes consider various animals, birds and trees. In short, all forms of nature are respectable to them. They are non-vegetarians and their source of entertainment is singing, music and dancing. The Elephant Whisperers' story of an indigenous couple named Bomman and Bellie belongs to this tribe o Another prominent tribe of the region is Kurumbas. Their source of origin is actually mysterious. Said to be descendants of Pallavas, these tribes today live by engaging in agriculture and working in the plantations. Fond of golden and silver jewelry, Kurumbas are known for their elaborate song and dance ceremonies and also are adept at playing various instruments.
  • Todas is another tribe that gathers lots of attention because of their unique beliefs and customs. They are said to be worshippers of cows, and dairy products form a big part of their livelihood. They are religious and social by nature and are known to be fine poets and singers.

• Soil contamination can happen due to a variety of reasons, including manufacturing, mineral extraction, accidental spills, illegal dumping, leaking underground storage tanks, pesticide and fertiliser use etc.
  • Scientists have developed sustainable and eco-friendly technologies like methods of “Phytoremediation”, a remediation method that uses living organisms like plants, microalgae, and seaweeds.
  • One particular way of Phytoremediation method to remove toxic heavy metals from the soil includes the use of “hyperaccumulator” plants that absorb these substances from the soil.
• What are hyperaccumulator plants?
  • Phytoremediation refers to the usage of “hyperaccumulator” plants to absorb the toxic materials present in the soil and accumulate in their living tissue.
  • Even though most plants do sometimes accumulate toxic substances, hyperaccumulators have the unusual ability to absorb hundreds or thousands of times greater amounts of these substances than is normal for most plants.
• How can phytoremediation with hyperaccumulators be used to remove toxic metals from the soil?
  • Suitable plant species can be used to ‘pick up’ the pollutants from the soil through their roots and transport them to their stem, leaves and other parts.
  • After this, these plants can be harvested and either disposed or even used to extract these toxic metals from the plant.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Pressmud, also known as filter cake or press cake, is a residual byproduct in the sugar industry that has gained recognition as a valuable resource for green energy production. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• This byproduct offers Indian sugar mills an opportunity to generate additional revenue by utilizing it as a feedstock for biogas production through anaerobic digestion, leading to the creation of Compressed Biogas (CBG). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Anaerobic digestion is a process through which bacteria break down organic matter—such as animal manure, wastewater biosolids, and food wastes—in the absence of oxygen. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Typically, the yield of pressmud ranges from 3-4 % by weight with the input sugarcane processed in a unit.

• Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 states: “Any property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired before or after the commencement of this Act, shall be held by her as full owner thereof and not as a limited owner. However, it was not until the 2005 Amendment that daughters were allowed equal receipt of property as sons. 
• The Hindu Succession Act 1956 deals with succession and inheritance of property, applicable to any person, who is a Hindu by religion in any of its forms or developments, including a Vira Shaiva, a Lingayat or a follower of the Brahmo, Prarthana or Arya Samaj,
• The Hindu Succession Act 1956 applies to any person who is a Buddhist, Jaina or Sikh by religion and to any other person who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew by religion unless it is proved that any such person would not have been governed by the Hindu law or by any custom or usage as part of that law in respect of any of the matters dealt with herein if this Act had not been passed. As per Section 2(2) of the Hindu Succession Act, the statute, which guarantees equal shares for male and female heirs, does not apply to Scheduled Tribe members. So, Option (b) is correct.

• The Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAAGY) aims at mitigating gaps and providing basic infrastructure in villages with a significant tribal population into the model village (Adarsh Gram), covering about the population of 4.22 crore and convergence with funds available under different schemes in Central Scheduled Tribe Component. It is envisaged to cover 36,428 villages having at least 50% Scheduled tribe (ST) population and 500 STs across States / UTs with notified STs during the period. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• It is under the Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) and not under PM Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana where Members of Parliament (MPs) are responsible for developing the socio-economic and physical infrastructure of three villages by 2019. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The e-Courts Project was conceptualized based on the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary – 2005” submitted by the e-Committee, Supreme Court of India, with a vision to transform the Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. The e-Courts Mission Mode Project is a Pan-India Project, monitored and funded by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India for the District Courts across the country. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The e-Courts Project will be housed within the Home Ministry under the Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System for the District Courts across the country. Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) is a national platform for enabling integration of the main IT system used for the delivery of Criminal Justice in the country by five pillars, namely:-

• Police (Crime and Criminal Tracking and Network Systems),
• e-Forensics for Forensic Labs,
• e-Courts for Courts, 3
• e-Prosecution for Public Prosecutors
• e-Prisons for Prisons. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The e-Courts Project is one of the National e-Governance projects being implemented in District and Subordinate Courts of the Country since 2007. Its ambit does not include the constitutional courts (which are the supreme court & high court) but rather only the district and subordinate courts of states. However, as a special case for North East region, funds to the tune of Rs.13.67 Crores have been released to the Gauhati High Court (Principal bench) for digitization of records of the High Court and District Courts of Assam under e-Court Project Phase II. As the e-Courts project covers only District and Subordinate Courts, the Supreme Court is not part of e-Courts project Phase II. The project is aimed at providing the necessary hardware and software application to enable courts to deliver e-services and the judiciary to be able to monitor and manage the functioning of courts. The objective of the e-Courts project is to provide designated services to litigants, lawyers and the judiciary by universal computerization of district and subordinate courts in the country and enhancement of ICT enablement of the justice system. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

The e-Committee, of the supreme court, is the governing body overseeing the e-Courts Project conceptualized under the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary-2005”. E-committee is a body constituted by the Government of India in pursuance of a proposal from the Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India to constitute an e-Committee to assist him in formulating a National Policy on the computerization of Indian Judiciary and advice on technological communication and management-related changes. So, Statement 4 is correct.

• Unified District Information System for Education (UDISE) Plus Report is a comprehensive study that provides information on enrollment and dropout rates of school students, number of teachers in schools, and information on other infrastructural facilities like toilets, buildings and electricity. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It was launched in 2018-2019 to speed up data entry, reduce errors, improve data quality and ease its verification. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It is an application to collect the school details about factors related to a school and its resources. It is an updated and improved version of UDISE, which was initiated in 2012-13 by the Ministry of Education. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct

Electoral Bonds Scheme:

• The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill and it was implemented in 2018. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• They serve as a means for individuals and entities to make donations to registered political parties while maintaining donor anonymity.

Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013:

• It was notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). An Electoral Trust is a Trust set up by companies with the sole objective to distribute the contributions received by it from other Companies and individuals to the political parties.

Exemption From Disclosure Under Electoral Bonds Scheme:

• Through an amendment to the Finance Act 2017, the Union government has exempted political parties from disclosing donations received through electoral bonds. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• This means the voters will not know which individual, company, or organization has funded which party, and to what extent. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• However, in a representative democracy, citizens cast their votes for the people who will represent them in Parliament. Supreme Court’s Observations: Recently, the Supreme Court has instructed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to provide the recent data on funds received by political parties through electoral bonds The Indian Supreme Court has long held that the “right to know”, especially in the context of elections, is an integral part of the right to freedom of expression (Article 19) under the Indian Constitution

• The demand for statehood to Ladakh and its inclusion under the Sixth Schedule has been raised since the abrogation of Article 370 in 2019, which dissolved the statehood of Jammu and Kashmir, and gave way to the creation of two Union Territories – Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.
• The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs recently tabled a report in the Rajya Sabha. The report stated that, according to the 2011 Census, the tribal population in the Union Territory of Ladakh is 2,18,355, that is 79.61% of the total population of 2,74,289. The committee recommended that special status may be granted to the Union Territory of Ladakh considering the developmental requirements of the tribal population. The Committee further recommends that the possibility of including Ladakh in the fifth or sixth Schedule may be examined.
• The various features of administration contained in the Sixth Schedule are as follows:
  • The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts. But, they do not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
  • The governor is empowered to organize and re-organize the autonomous districts. Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries, and so on. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide the district into several autonomous regions.
  • Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise. The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
  • Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
  • The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction. They can make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage, and divorce, social customs and so on. But all such laws require the assent of the governor. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or courts for the trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from them. The jurisdiction of the high court over these suits and cases is specified by the governor.
  • The district council can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads, and so on in the district. It can also make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals. But, such regulations require the assent of the governor.
  • The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • The acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The governor can appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter relating to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions. He may dissolve a district or regional council on the recommendation of the commission.

• The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions is a ministry of the Government of India in personnel matters specially issues concerning recruitment, training, career development, and staff welfare as well as the post-retirement dispensation.
• Organizations under Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT):
  • Union Public Service Commission
  • Central Information Commission
  • Central Vigilance Commission
  • Central Administrative Tribunal
  • Lokpal
  • Central Bureau of Investigation
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Secularism is first and foremost a doctrine that opposes all forms of inter-religious domination. This is however only one crucial aspect of the concept of secularism. An equally important dimension of secularism is its opposition to intra-religious domination.
• The mainstream, western conception, of secularism, means the mutual exclusion of state and religion in order to protect values such as individual freedom and citizenship rights of individuals.
• Conditions in India are different and to respond to the challenge they posed, the makers of the Constitution had to work out an alternative conception of secularism.
  • Indian philosophy of secularism is related to “Sarva Dharma Sambhava” (literally it means that the destination of the paths followed by all religions is the same, though the paths themselves may be different) which means equal respect to all religions.
  • There’s no clear demarcation between state and religion in India, positive intervention of the state in religious affairs is not prohibited. In India, both state and religion can, and often do, interact and intervene in each other's affairs within the legally prescribed and judicially settled parameters also the State does not discriminate on the basis of any religion. India does partially separate religion and state. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Crossing the floor: Passing between the member addressing the House and the Chair which is considered a breach of Parliamentary etiquette. Hence option (a) is not correct.
• Yielding the floor: The Speaker of the Lok sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Interpellation: Question hour is also known as 'Interpellation' which means when you question someone formally, concerning an official action or policy or personal conduct. Hence option (c) is not correct.
• Point of Order: A Member of Parliament may raise a point of order if he feels that the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules. The presiding officer decides whether the point of order raised by the member should be allowed. Hence option (d) is not correct.

• Natural farming is promoted as Bharatiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhati Programme (BPKP) under centrally sponsored scheme- Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY). BPKP is aimed at promoting traditional indigenous practices which reduces externally purchased inputs. The scheme mainly emphasizes the exclusion of all synthetic chemical inputs. It promotes on-farm biomass recycling with major stress on biomass mulching, use of cow dung-urine formulations and other plant-based preparations. The Government of Andhra Pradesh is leading in terms of 1.0 lakh ha area under natural farming under BPKP. So, Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 3 is correct.
• The Andhra Pradesh Community-Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) program is being implemented by Rythu Sadhikara Samstha (RySS), a not-for-profit company established by the Department of Agriculture, Government of Andhra Pradesh. RySS’s mandate is to plan and implement programs for the empowerment and all-around welfare of farmers. One of the major achievements of the Government of Andhra Pradesh has been the rapid scaling up of Natural Farming. The number of farmers who practice Natural Farming has increased from 40,000 in 2016 to around 7,50,000 farmers and farm workers in 2020-21—an increase of 17 times in the last 4 years. The APCNF program has been recognized as the world’s largest agro ecology program in terms of the number of farmers enrolled. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• The Central Government constituted the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) under section 408 of the Companies Act, 2013, with effect from 01st June 2016. NCLT is a quasi-judicial authority incorporated for corporate disputes under the Companies Act. It is the adjudicating authority for the insolvency resolution process of companies and limited liability partnerships under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Under Rule 14 of National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016, The Tribunal may exempt the parties from compliance with any requirement of these rules. It may give such directions in practice and procedure as it may consider just and reasonable on the application moved to render substantial justice. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• National Company Law Tribunal enjoys a wide range of powers. Its powers include,
  • Power to seek the assistance of Chief Metropolitan Magistrate.
  • De-registration of Companies.
  • De-registration of companies in certain circumstances when there is registration of companies is obtained illegally or wrongfully.
  • Power to hear grievances of companies' refusal to transfer securities and rectification of register of members.
  • Power to investigate the ownership of the company.
  • Power to freeze assets of the company.
  • Power to restrict any securities of the company. So, Statement 3 is correct

• According to section 4 of the Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act, no pre-natal diagnostic techniques shall be conducted except for the detection of any of the following abnormalities, namely, chromosomal abnormalities; genetic metabolic diseases; hemoglobinopathies; sex-linked genetic diseases; congenital anomalies; any other abnormalities or diseases as may be specified by the Central Supervisory Board. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• According to the act, pre-natal diagnostic techniques shall be conducted in some exceptional situations for the eligible persons if it is satisfied that any of the following conditions are fulfilled, namely:-
• The age of the pregnant woman is above thirty- five years
• The pregnant woman has undergone two or more spontaneous abortions or fetal loss
• The pregnant woman had been exposed to potentially teratogenic agents such as drugs, radiation, infection or chemicals.
• The pregnant woman has a family history of mental retardation or physical deformities such as spasticity or any other genetic disease
• Any other condition as may be specified by the central supervisory board. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Act provides for the prohibition of sex selection, before or after conception, and for regulation of prenatal diagnostic techniques to detect genetic abnormalities or metabolic disorders or chromosomal abnormalities or certain congenital malformations or sex-linked disorders and for the prevention of their misuse for sex determination leading to female foeticide; and, for matters connected in addition to that. So, Statement 3 is correct.

• The Pahari community is a linguistic group mainly residing in the Pir Panjal valley comprising Rajouri and Poonch districts. The Pahari people is a cover term for a number of heterogeneous communities inhabiting the Indian regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh, and parts of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (Pok). Paharis comprise a mixed population of Hindus and Muslims. Paharis are also spread in parts of the Kashmir valley. Pahari is an ambiguous term used to describe a variety of Northern Indo-Aryan languages, most of which are found in the lower Himalayas. They are divided into Eastern Pahari (which includes Nepali), Central Pahari, and Western Pahari, consisting of a number of different languages. Therefore, the Pahari community belongs to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
• The Gaddi tribe mostly lives in the high-altitude areas of Kinnaur, Lahaul Spiti and Kangra districts of Himachal Pradesh. The Gaddis is a semi-nomadic pastoralist tribe that spends their life herding sheep. The Gaddis are followers of Lord Shiva, and Mount Kailash is both a spiritual and physical landmark for them. So, Pair 2 is correct.
• Kutia Kondha is one of the primitive sections of the Kondha tribe. The Kutia Kondhs are particularly vulnerable tribal groups in Kalahandi district, Odisha. Kutia kondh mostly depends on shifting cultivation, minor agriculture products, and collection of non- timber forest products (NTFPs). Burlang Yatra is a traditional festival of the Kutia Kondh tribe celebrated every year when the community members, especially women, worship and exchange seeds. Therefore, the Kutia Kondh belongs to the state of Odisha. So, Pair 3 is not correct.

• Fiat currencies or money is a government-issued currency that is not backed by a physical commodity such as gold or silver but rather by the government that issued it. Cryptocurrencies are based on decentralized ledger platforms which are not governed by any centralized authority such as a central bank. As Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is a digital form of currency notes issued by a central bank, it is fiat currency or money. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• The CBDC issued by RBI is referred to as e₹ (digital Rupee). The e₹ will provide an additional option to the currently available forms of money. It is substantially not different from banknotes, but being digital, it is likely to be easier, faster and cheaper. It also has all the transactional benefits of other forms of digital money. The RBI’s approach is to create a digital Rupee that is as close as possible to a paper currency and to manage the process of introducing the digital Rupee in a seamless manner. From this perspective, the e-rupee, or central bank digital currency (CBDC), will be accepted as a medium of payment, legal tender and a safe store of value akin to the paper currency currently prevalent in India. The digital Rupee (e-rupee) should not be confused with e-RUPI, which is a person-specific, even purpose-specific digital voucher-based mode of payment that helps users redeem the voucher without a card, digital payments app, or internet banking access. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• Stablecoins are a type of cryptocurrency that offers more stability than other cryptocurrencies because they are backed by real-world assets like the US Dollar, gold or another cryptocurrency. Other cryptocurrencies, such as bitcoins, are not pegged to a stable asset. Stablecoins achieve their price stability via collateralization or through algorithmic mechanisms of buying and selling the reference asset or its derivatives. So, Statement 3 is correct.

• Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs): These are investment vehicles that allow individuals to invest in large-scale, income-producing real estate without having to directly manage or own the properties. Hence, statement I is correct.
• REITs pool capital from multiple investors to invest in a diversified portfolio of real estate assets, which may include residential or commercial properties, shopping centers, office buildings, hotels etc. Hence, statement II is correct.

• Jawaharlal Nehru Port has become the first 100 per cent Landlord Major Port of India having all berths being operated on PPP model. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Landlord ports are ports where the port authority owns only the basic infrastructure, leasing it out to operators, mostly on a long-term concession basis, while retaining all regulatory functions (directly control strategic port activities & supervise commercial operations).
• India has a coastline of 7,517 km situated in the 10 maritime States and union territory. Entry 27 of the union list mentions ports declared by or under law made by Parliament or existing law to be major ports, including their delimitation and the Constitution and powers of the Port authorities therein a responsibility of the Centre.
• All other ports fall within the jurisdiction of the authority of the State governments where the respective State Assemblies have powers to legislate. There are 12 major ports and around 212 non-major ports in the country.
• The Union government under the provisions of the Indian Ports Act 1908 and Major Port Authorities, Act, 2021 declares a port as a major port. But there is no mention in the Acts on the qualifying conditions or criteria to declare a port as a major port. The real distinction between a major port and a non- major port lies in ownership, control and management of that port — not related to cargo volumes, port facilities or connectivity. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• For example, Deenadayal Port in Kandla, Gujarat — a major port handled 123 million tonnes of cargo in 2020 whereas the Mundra Port — a non major port in the same State handled the highest volume of cargo 137 million tonnes in the same period.
• The power for establishment of new Major Ports and administrative control of Major Ports vests with the Central Government. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Establishment & administrative control of Non Major Ports are within the purview of respective State Governments. As per the provisions of the Major Port Authorities, Act, 2021, the Boards of the respective Major Ports are authorized to make rules or regulations to develop and provide infrastructure facilities and such other infrastructure in the interest of the Major Port.

UN list of Least Developed Countries (LDCs)

• The UN in the 1960s began to recognise some of the most vulnerable and disadvantaged countries in the international community, considering factors such as development capacity, socio-economic parameters, lack of domestic financing, and geographical location. In 1971, the UN officially established the category of LDCs to attract particular support for them.
• Currently, 46 countries across Africa, Asia, Caribbean and the Pacific are categorised as LDCs. The LDCs host about 40% of the world’s poor. They account for 13% of the world population but for only about 1.3% of global Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and less than 1% of global trade and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). Some countries on the LDC list are Burkina Faso, Senegal, Rwanda, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Solomon Islands, and Haiti.
• Countries classified as LDCs are entitled to preferential market access, aid, technological capability- building and special technical assistance, among other concessions and international support measures.
• Inclusion in and graduation from the LDC category is based on three criteria:
  • Gross National Income (GNI) per capita,
  • Human Assets Index (HAI) measuring health and education outcomes, and o Economic and Environmental Vulnerability Index (EVI).
• To be included in the list, a country must have an average per capita income of below $1,018, have low HAI scores and high EVI levels measured in terms of remoteness, dependence on agriculture and vulnerability to natural disasters.
• However, there’s no automatic application process for graduation from the list. The UN Committee for Development Policy (CDP) conducts a review of the LDCs every three years and countries that reach the graduation threshold levels for two of the three criteria in two consecutive triennial reviews become eligible for graduation.
• The list of LDCs peaked in 1991 when it had 51 countries. So far, only six countries, namely, Botswana, Cabo Verde, Maldives, Samoa, Equatorial Guinea, and Vanuatu, have managed to graduate from the list. Bhutan was recommended for graduation in 2018 and is due to move out of the list on December 13, 2023.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• A central bank balance sheet is a reflection of its various functions, particularly its role as a monetary authority and as a banker to the Government and banks. The structure of assets and liabilities of the Reserve Bank is, more or less, in line with the balance sheet followed by most central banks. The accounts of the Reserve Bank are, however, bifurcated into the Issue Department, reflecting the currency issue function and the Banking Department, accounting for all other central banking functions (such as banker to the Government and banks) in terms of Section 23(1) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission (1926).
• The important liabilities of the RBI are as follows: o Notes Issued: The currency notes issued by the Reserve Bank are the Reserve Bank’s liability and this constitutes the liabilities of the Issue Department. Total notes issued are the sum of Notes in circulation and Notes held in the Banking Department of the Bank.
  • Notes in Circulation: The notes in circulation comprise the notes issued by the Government of India up to 1935 and by the RBI since then, fewer notes held in the Banking Department, i.e. notes held outside the Reserve Bank by the public, banks treasuries etc. The Government of India's one rupee notes issued since July 1940 are treated as rupee coins and hence are not included under this head.
  • Notes held in the Banking Department: Notes held in the Banking Department represent the amount of notes held in the Banking Department of the Bank at different centers to meet the day-to- day requirements of that Department. Notes in circulation and Notes held in the Banking Department both items are both liabilities of the Issue Department.
  • Deposits: These represent the cash balances maintained with the Reserve Bank by the Central and State Governments, banks, All India financial institutions, such as Export-Import Bank (EXIM Bank) and NABARD, foreign central banks, international financial institutions, and the balance in different accounts relating to the Employees’ Provident Fund, Gratuity and Superannuation Funds.
  • Deposits of the Central Government: The Reserve Bank acts as a banker to the Central Government in terms of sections 20 and 21 and as a banker to the State Governments by mutual agreement in terms of section 21(A) of the RBI Act. Accordingly, the Central and the State Governments maintain deposits with the Reserve Bank. It has been agreed by the Central Government, to maintain a minimum balance of ` 10 crores daily and 100 crores as on Fridays. Whenever the actual cash balance goes down below the minimum level, the replenishment is made by the creation of WMA and overdraft.
  • Market Stabilisation Scheme: The Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) was introduced in April 2004 following the Memorandum of Understanding between the Government and the Reserve Bank, whereby, the Government issues securities specifically for the purpose of sterilization operations. The issuances of Government paper under the MSS are undertaken to absorb rupee liquidity created by capital flows of an enduring nature. In order to neutralize the monetary and budgetary impact of this particular instrument, the proceeds under the MSS were parked in a separate deposit account maintained by the Government with the Reserve Bank which was used only for the purpose of redemption and/or buyback of paper issued under the MSS.
• Also, important assets of the RBI are as follows:
  • Foreign Currency Assets: India's Foreign Exchange Reserves comprise Foreign Currency Assets, Gold, SDRs and Reserve Bank position with International Monetary Fund (IMF). Foreign currency assets include investments in US Treasury bonds, Bonds/Treasury Bills of other selected Governments, deposits with foreign central banks, foreign commercial banks, etc. Foreign currency assets in WSS are the sum of the foreign currency assets of both the Issue and Banking Departments. In Issue Department, these foreign assets back the issuance of notes along with rupee securities and gold. In Banking Department, it includes foreign currency assets and balances with foreign entities like Bank for International Settlements (BIS), foreign commercial banks, etc.
  • Gold Coin Bullion: Gold coin bullion represents the gold coin bullion of the Issue Department and Banking Department. The gold reserves of the Issue Department and Banking Department are valued at a value close to international market prices on a monthly basis. The current total quantity of gold held is 557.75 tons.
  • Rupee Securities: Rupee securities (including treasury bills) include the government securities held by Issue and Banking departments. In Issue Department, rupee securities along with rupee securities include government securities of that 'foreign country maturing within ten years of the Issue Department plus investment in government securities of the Banking Department.
  • Loans and Advances: The Reserve Bank gives loans and advances to the Central & State Governments, commercial and cooperative banks and others in terms of Sections 17 and 18 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Fast Track Special Court (FTSCs) FTSCs are specialized courts established in India with the primary aim of expediting the trial process for cases related to sexual offenses, particularly those involving rape and violations under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The establishment of FTSCs was prompted by the government's recognition of the alarming frequency of Sexual Offenses and the prolonged duration of trials in regular courts, which resulted in delayed justice for victims. Fast track courts (FTCs) were first recommended by the Eleventh Finance Commission in 2000" to substantially bring down, if not eliminate, pendency in the district and subordinate courts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Finance Commission in India is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27th November, 2017. It made recommendations covering the period of six years commencing on 1st April, 2020 through its Interim and Final Reports. The Commission proposed maintaining the states' share in central taxes at 41% for the 2021-26 period, a slight reduction from the 42% allocated during 2015-20 by the 14th Finance Commission. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Population (1971)' was considered only for the 14th Finance Commission, while 'Population (2011)' and 'Tax and fiscal efforts' were introduced by the 15th Finance Commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Commission recommended that the Centre aims to limit its fiscal deficit to 4% of GDP by 2025-26. Hence, statement 3 is correct

The Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) is an international economic union and free trade zone comprising countries in central and northern Asia and Eastern Europe. The Eurasian Economic Union consists of five member states: Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Armenia. Iran, Serbia, Vietnam and China are the Free Trade Partners of the EAEU. Hence Serbia and Vietnam are not members of the EAEU. The Eurasian Economic Union should not be confused with European Union (EU), which is a unique economic and political union between 27 European countries. So, Option (c) is correct.

The Ministry of Women and Child Development has implemented a Centrally Sponsored “Mission Vatsalya” Scheme. The Umbrella scheme for child protection services in the country Integrated Child Protection Scheme, was renamed "Child Protection Services Scheme" and again in 2021-22 as Mission Vatsalya. The objective of Mission Vatsalya is to secure a healthy and happy childhood for each and every Child in India, ensure opportunities to enable them to discover their full potential and assist them in flourishing in all respects, in a sustained manner, foster a sensitive, supportive and synchronized ecosystem for the development of children, assist States and Union Territories in delivering the mandate of the Juvenile Justice Act 2015 and achieve the SDG goals. So, Option (a) is correct.

• The Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North East Region (PM-DevINE) will be implemented by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) through the North Eastern Council or Central Ministries/agencies. PM-DevINE is aimed at rapid and holistic development of the North-East Region by funding infrastructure and social development projects based on the felt needs of the States. It was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23 to address development gaps in the North Eastern Region (NER). This scheme does not specifically aim to integrate pilgrimage destinations to provide a complete religious tourism experience. The Prime Minister’s Development Initiative For North East Region (PRASAD) scheme aims to integrate pilgrimage destinations in a prioritised, planned and sustainable manner to provide a complete religious tourism experience. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• PM-DevINE is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% Central funding. The Scheme will have an outlay of Rs.6,600 crore for the four-year period from 2022-23 to 2025-26 (remaining years of the 15th Finance Commission period). Efforts will be made to complete the PM-DevINE projects by 2025-26 so that there are no committed liabilities beyond this year. This implies front-loading of the sanctions under the Scheme in 2022-23 and 2023-24 primarily. While expenditure will continue to be incurred during 2024-25 and 2025-26, focused attention will be given to completing the sanctioned PM-DevINE projects. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• The All India Survey on Higher Education is a report released by the Department of Higher Education, Union Ministry of Education. The survey is conducted on an annual basis. It was initiated in 2011, during which data for the year 2010-11 was collected. Pratham NGO releases the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER). It has been biennially published (released once in 2 years) since 2005. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The survey is intended to cover all the institutions in the country engaged in imparting Higher Education and not all levels of education in the country. Data is being collected on several parameters such as teachers, student enrolment, programs, examination results, education finance, infrastructure, etc. Indicators of educational development, such as Institution Density, Gross Enrolment Ratio, Pupil-Teacher Ratio, Gender Parity Index, etc., are calculated from the data collected through AISHE. These are useful in making informed policy decisions and research for the development of the education sector. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

In the spirit of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav, the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment has identified 75 Municipal Corporations to implement comprehensive rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of begging under “SMILE: Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise” named “SMILE-75 Initiative”. Under this initiative, seventy-five (75) Municipal Corporations, in collaboration with NGOs and other stakeholders, will cover several comprehensive welfare measures for persons who are engaged in the act of begging with a focus extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counseling, awareness, education, skill development, economic linkages and convergence with other Government welfare programmes etc. So, Option (b) is correct.