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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. More than 30% of the energy input being used by industries is wasted as hea dissipated into the environment.
  2. Waste heat power generation will enhance the profitability of Indian industries.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “In this regard, Waste Heat constitutes a substantial amount of
energy in many core sectors such as iron and steel, cement and power plants.” So, we can assume that a substantial
amount of energy is wasted as heat, but we cannot quantify the exact amount in percentage terms. So, it is an
incorrect assumption.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “To support efforts towards sustainable growth of the economy,
the reuse of waste heat generated by industries for electricity generation has tremendous potential.” However, we
cannot assume that it will increase the profitability of industries. Such an energy may be cheaper or more expensive.
Also, the passage is not specific to Indian companies. Therefore, this assumption is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Which of the following are the advantages of Waste Heat Recovery as implied by the passage?

  1. Reduction in the use of fossil fuels.
  2. Sustainable use of resources.
  3. Reduction in sizes of all flue gas handling equipment.
  4. Reduction in the emission of toxic liquid chemicals.

Select the correct answer using the code below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 2
  •  Statement 1 is correct. The Waste Heat Recovery method will ensure electricity generation from waste heat that will reduce the usage of fossil fuels. It is evident from the lines, “One of the prime measures to decarbonize industries, especially steel and cement is to improve the efficiency of the overall process. ..... Waste Heat Recovery is a method of recycling and re-using the heat that is escaping the industrial processes after useful work is accomplished.” So, it is a correct statement.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The passage mentions, “To support efforts towards sustainable growth of the economy, the reuse of waste heat generated by industries for electricity generation has tremendous potential.” The passage clearly says that this method will help in moving towards sustainable growth of the economy. So, it is a correct statement.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage does not mention anything about the reduction in equipment size. This statement is beyond the scope of the passage.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect. The passage does not mention anything about the reduction in emission of toxic liquid chemicals due to Waste Heat Recovery. This statement is beyond the scope of the passage.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Consider the following equation.

[(4/5) of (4/5) ÷ (4/5)] / [(4/5) ÷ (4/5) of (4/5)]

What outcome will we get after solving the above equation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

[(4/5) of (4/5) ÷ (4/5)] / [(4/5) ÷ (4/5) of (4/5)]
= [(16/25) ÷ (4/5)] / [(4/5) ÷ (16/25)]
= [(16/25) × (5/4)] / [ (4/5) × (25/16)]
= (4/5) / (5/4)
= 16/25
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Consider the statements and conclusions given below.

Statement 1: If 45% of a number A is added to another number B, the sum becomes 125% of the value of B.
Statement 2: If 20% of a number A is added to another number C, the sum becomes 125% of the value of C.
Conclusion 1: C is greater than A, but less than B.
Conclusion 2: A is less than B, but greater than C.

Which of the above conclusions is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Let A = 100

From statement 1:
45% of A + B = 125% of B
Or (45/100) × 100 + B = (125/100) × B
Or 45 + B = 5B/4
Or (5B-4B)/4 = 45
Or B = 45×4
Or B = 180
From statement 2:
20% of A + C = 125% of C
Or (20/100) ×100 + C = (125/100) × C
Or 20 + C = 5C/4
Or (5C-4C)/4 = 20
Or C = 20×4
Or C = 80
Therefore, A = 100, B = 180 and C = 80
So, B > A > C (A is less than B, but greater than C)
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

MEDIUM, NGDIUM, NGGMUM, ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Given Series: MEDIUM, NGDIUM, NGGMUM, ?

The pattern of the series is as follows:

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

If 9 + 6 = 135, 13 + 7 = 260, 7 + 12 = 133, 10 + 11 = 210, then 18 + 15 = ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

The pattern followed here is: 9 + 6 → (9×9) + (9×6) = 81 + 54 = 135
13 + 7 → (13×13) + (13×7) = 169 + 91 = 260
7 + 12 → (7×7) + (7×12) = 49 + 84 = 133
10 + 11 → (10×10) + (10×11) = 100 + 110 = 210
18 + 15 → (18×18) + (18×15) = 324 + 270 = 594
Hence, option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Aman went to a retail shop to buy a pair of shoes, which showcases various brands like Nike, Puma, Campus, Reebok, and Bata. Puma, Reebok, Nike shoes are expensive, while Campus, and Bata are cheap in rate.
Campus, Puma and Bata shoes are black in colour, while rest are blue in colour. Puma, Campus, and Nike are sport shoes, while rest are casual shoes. Aman selected an expensive black sport shoes.

Which brand of shoes did he pick up?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

According to the question,

Aman selected an expensive black sport shoes. So, he must have purchased a pair of shoes of Puma. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Two statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question:

S1: The sum of the digits of n is divisible by 3.
S2: The difference between the last two digits of n is divisible by 3.
Q: Is the integer n divisible by 3?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Statement 1: If the sum of the digits of n is divisible by 3, it means that n is divisible by 3. For example, the number 123 is divisible by 3. The sum of its digits = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6, which is also divisible by 3. Therefore, statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 2: If the difference between the last two digits of n is divisible by 3, it does not necessarily mean that n is divisible by 3. For example, the number 25 is not divisible by 3, even though the difference between its last two digits (5 - 2 = 3) is divisible by 3. While the number 30 is divisible by 3, and the difference between its last two digits (3 - 0 = 3) is also divisible by 3. Therefore, statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Find the missing letters in the following series.

A, P, E, S, I, Y, O, H, ?, ?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Given Series: A, P, E, S, I, Y, O, H, ?, ?
The series given above consists of two series: First series: A, E, I, O, ?
In this series, vowels are written in ascending order. So, the next term will be U.
Second series: P, S, Y, H, ?
P + 3 = S
S + 6 = Y
Y + 9 = H
? = H + 12 = T
Thus, missing letters are U and T. Hence, option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

In a school, 37.5% of the students are girls and rest are boys. If 80% of the girls and 70% of the boys participated in annual sports of the school, what percent of the total number of students in the school did not participate in that event?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

37.5% = 3/8
Let the total number of students in the school be 80x.
So, the number of girls in the school = 80x × 3/8 = 30x
And, the number of boys in the school = 80x - 30x = 50x
80% of the girls and 70% of the boys participated in annual sports of the school. So, the number of girls who did not participate in annual sports = 30x × (100 – 80)% = 30x × (20/100) = 6x
And the number of boys who did not participate in annual sports = 50x × (100 – 70)% = 50x × (30/100) = 15x
otal number of students who did not participate in annual sports = 6x + 15x = 21x
Required percentage = (21x/80x) × 100 = 26.25%

Hence, option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

M = 32y + 20y, where y is an odd natural number. Which of the following need not be a factor of M?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

M = 32y + 20y an + bn is always divisible by (a + b) when n is odd.
If y is odd, then 32y + 20y is exactly divisible by (32 + 20), i.e. 52. So, M is exactly divisible by 52.
As M is divisible by 52, it must also be divisible by its factors: 2, 4, 13 and 26.
Though M need not be divisible by 6.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

What will be the remainder if 468 is divided by 192?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

468/192 = 22×68 / (64×3)
= 2136 / (26×3) 
= 2130/3    (in the end we will multiply the answer with 26)
21/3→ Remainder is 2
22/3 →Remainder is 1
23/3 →Remainder is 2  …………… and so on.
So, when power is odd, we get remainder 2.
& when power is even, we get remainder 1.
Therefore, in case of 2130/3 we will get remainder 1.
Required Remainder = 1×26 = 64

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

A box contains 15 apples, out of which 5 are rotten. 4 apples are drawn from the box at random (one by one without replacement).

What is the probability that all 4 of them are rotten?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Total number of apples in the box = 15

Number of ways of choosing 4 apples from these 15 apples = 15C4 = 15! / (4! × 11!) = (15×14×13×12) / (4×3×2) = 1365

Number of ways of choosing 4 rotten apples from 5 rotten apples = 5C4 = 5! / (4! × 1!) = 5

So, Required probability = 5/1365 = 1/273

Hence, option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

If the diagonal of a square becomes half, the area of that square reduces by how much percentage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Let diagonal of the square be d units.
Area of square = (1/2) d2 If diagonal of the square is reduced by half, then the new area of the square = (1/2) × (d/2)2 = (1/8) d2 So, reduction in the area of the square = (1/2)d2 – (1/8)d2 = (3/8) d2
The percentage by which the area of that square gets reduced = [{(3/8)d2} / {(1/2)d2}] × 100 = 75% Hence, option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Option (a) is incorrect. The passage only says that the rise in technological innovations has corresponded with the rise in the computational capabilities of computers. It is nowhere mentioned that this increase in computational capability of computers is due to semiconductors. So, as per the passage, it is an incorrect statement.

Option (b) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “However, its ability to self-implement instructions and carry out these functions based on its training presents us with unique ethical considerations applicable to the use of AI systems in various capacities.” The author talks about ethical considerations which could be related to potential risks. This makes this answer option close, even though the author has not delved into the regulatory aspects. Let’s put it on hold and consider other options.

Option (c) is incorrect as option (a) is incorrect.

Option (d) is correct. The sentence, “These algorithms are trained on massive datasets, i.e., training datasets, which provide it with a certain amount of input information and output” clearly reflects the role of advancements in computational power in the emergence of AI. And the line, “presents us with unique ethical considerations applicable to the use of AI systems in various capacities” highlights the concerns associated with AI. So, this answer option aptly captures the critical message of the passage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Which of the following is/are the most rational and logical inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?

  1. New technology will definitely offer mechanisms to raise agricultural yield in the future and ensure food security.
  2. Production of ethanol from biomass could become a roadblock to food security in the future.
  3. Increasing agricultural prices will lead to an increase in grain yield.  

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
  • Inference 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions “Many argue that rapid technological change will raise agricultural yields so much by late this century that any reduction caused by global warming would easily be more than offset. But technological change is a false panacea for several reasons.” These lines clearly show that in the future technology may not solve the issue of reduced yield because of global warming. So, the given inference is not correct.
  • Inference 2 is correct. This answer option is close. The passage mentions, “It also seems quite likely that a sizable share of land will be shifted to the production of biomass for ethanol fuel.” This line reflects that in future cropping land could be diverted to meet fuel requirements. This might adversely affect food security. It won’t be incorrect to say that ethanol production could probably become a roadblock for food security in future. Let’s keep this answer option on hold and consider the next option.
  • Inference 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Although rising agricultural prices might provide incentives that would slow or reverse this decline, such a response is not assured.” This line shows that rising prices might provide incentives which can slow down the reduction of yield, but that is not certain. So, as per the information given in the passage, this inference is not correct. Since, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect, options (a), (c) and (d) can be ruled out. Option (b) is the most appropriate answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Which of the following is/are the most rational and logical inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?

  1. New technology will definitely offer mechanisms to raise agricultural yield in the future and ensure food security.
  2. Production of ethanol from biomass could become a roadblock to food security in the future.
  3. Increasing agricultural prices will lead to an increase in grain yield.  

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 17
  • Inference 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions “Many argue that rapid technological change will raise agricultural yields so much by late this century that any reduction caused by global warming would easily be more than offset. But technological change is a false panacea for several reasons.” These lines clearly show that in the future technology may not solve the issue of reduced yield because of global warming. So, the given inference is not correct.
  • Inference 2 is correct. This answer option is close. The passage mentions, “It also seems quite likely that a sizable share of land will be shifted to the production of biomass for ethanol fuel.” This line reflects that in future cropping land could be diverted to meet fuel requirements. This might adversely affect food security. It won’t be incorrect to say that ethanol production could probably become a roadblock for food security in future. Let’s keep this answer option on hold and consider the next option.
  • Inference 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Although rising agricultural prices might provide incentives that would slow or reverse this decline, such a response is not assured.” This line shows that rising prices might provide incentives which can slow down the reduction of yield, but that is not certain. So, as per the information given in the passage, this inference is not correct. Since, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect, options (a), (c) and (d) can be ruled out. Option (b) is the most appropriate answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Which one of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 18
  • Option (a) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “But technological change is a false panacea for several reasons.” Technology is not the focus of the passage. Author is drawing attention towards the precarious balance between supply and demand when it comes to food, and various challenges that may further deteriorate this balance. Hence, this is not the best message of the author.
  • Option (b) is correct. The passage mentions “Global food demand is expected to approximately triple by the 2080s because of the higher world population and higher incomes. It also seems quite likely that a sizable share of land will be shifted to the production of biomass for ethanol fuel. As a result, there is a rather precarious balance between supply and demand, which would be seriously worsened by a major adverse shock from global warming.” These lines show that food and fuel demand is increasing, and global warming is posing a challenge. So, there is a need to come up with some solutions to address the given challenges. Therefore, this statement best reflects the message of the author.
  • Option (c) is incorrect. The given statement is not correct because it only partially covers the concerns of the author. The author has focused on both supply and demand sides while talking about the precarious balance between food supply and demand. In the lines, “Second, even if there is no further slowdown, there is likely to be a close race between rising food demand and rising output. Global food demand is expected to approximately triple by the 2080s because of the higher world population and higher incomes.” he talks about the challenges on the demand side too. Also, the issue of malnutrition in developing countries has not been discussed in the passage.  Therefore, this statement is not correct.
  • Option (d) is incorrect. The given statement is not correct, because the context of organic farming and population control has not been covered in the passage. So, this cannot be the best message of the author. 
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

A person travels across the international date line from west to east and gains a day. If the person initiated the journey at 5 P.M. on 1st May, then on which date and at what time will he reach his destination if the whole journey took him 9 hours?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

The person spent 9 hours in the journey, but gained 1 day, i.e. 24 hours. Hence, he will reach the destination on 5 P.M. of 1st May + (9 – 24) hours, i.e. 2 A.M. of 1st May.  

So, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Two statements followed by two conclusions are given below. You have to take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement 1: Only a few cities are metros.
Statement 2: Some metros are capitals.

Conclusions:
I. No capital is a city.
II. Some cities are capitals.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Some of the possible Venn diagrams have been shown below: 

We can conclude that “No capital is a city” is not definitely true.
Also, “Some cities are capitals” is not definitely true.
But one of these conclusions must be true.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Find the average of the number of different flowers used by the event management company in the month of March.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Average of the number of different flowers used by the event management company in the month of March = (96 + 80 + 118)/3 = 294/3 = 98
Hence, option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Who is the least paid employee?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Only two employees have salary less than C. The number of employees having salary higher than C is less than the number of employees having salary higher than B. So, two cases are possible.

The number of employees having salary higher than B is equal to the number of employees having salary less than E. So, we get:

Now, F earns a salary of Rs. 15000, which is not higher than the salary of either D or A. So, we get:

A or D do not earn the highest salary. So, we can eliminate Case 1. The number of employees having salary higher than A is an even number. So, we get: 

E > D > A > C > F > B

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Which of the following statements cannot be concluded on the basis of the information provided in the question?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Only two employees have salary less than C. The number of employees having salary higher than C is less than the number of employees having salary higher than B. So, two cases are possible.

The number of employees having salary higher than B is equal to the number of employees having salary less than E. So, we get:

Now, F earns a salary of Rs. 15000, which is not higher than the salary of either D or A. So, we get:

A or D do not earn the highest salary. So, we can eliminate Case 1. The number of employees having salary higher than A is an even number. So, we get: 

E > D > A > C > F > B

It is given that salary of F is Rs. 15000, So B’s salary must be less than Rs. 15000, while C’s salary must be more than Rs. 15000. So, the statement “Salary of B can be Rs. 16000” cannot be true under any circumstances. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

How many employees have a salary higher than that of C?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Only two employees have salary less than C. The number of employees having salary higher than C is less than the number of employees having salary higher than B. So, two cases are possible.

The number of employees having salary higher than B is equal to the number of employees having salary less than E. So, we get:

Now, F earns a salary of Rs. 15000, which is not higher than the salary of either D or A. So, we get:

A or D do not earn the highest salary. So, we can eliminate Case 1. The number of employees having salary higher than A is an even number. So, we get: 

E > D > A > C > F > B 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Which of the following attributes can be associated with the Raman Effect?

  1. Ultraviolet spectrum of light.
  2. Complete scattering of light.
  3. Decrease in energy of light.
  4. Change in wavelength of light.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 25
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage mentions, “Raman discovered that when a stream of light passes through a liquid, a fraction of the light scattered by the liquid is of a different colour”. It only talks about light in general, and does not specifically mention the ultraviolet spectrum. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage states, “…when a stream of light passes through a liquid, a fraction of the light scattered by the liquid is of a different colour”. It does not mention whether the scattering is complete or partial. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage says, “One of the things that scientists look at when light is scattered is if the particle it interacts with is able to change its energy”. It implies that there is a change in the energy of the light – it could be increase or decrease in energy. Hence, it would be incorrect to talk about decrease only.
  • Statement 4 is correct: According to the passage “The Raman Effect is when the change in the energy of the light is affected by the vibrations of the molecule or material under observation, leading to a change in its wavelength”.
  • This implies a change in wavelength of light when it is affected by molecular vibrations. Hence, it is a correct statement.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Which of the statements given below can be inferred from the above passage?

  1. Change in energy of light is just a delusion; it does not actually happen.
  2. CV Raman was the first Indian to win a Nobel in the field of Science.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage clearly states, “The Raman Effect is when the change in the energy of the light is affected by the vibrations of the molecule or material under observation”. The change actually happens in reality, and is affected by vibrations at molecule or material level. Therefore, it would be incorrect to say that change in energy of light is just a delusion.  

Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage only mentions, “The Raman Effect was the discovery which won physicist Sir CV Raman his Nobel Prize in 1930”. It does not say that he was the first Indian to win a Nobel for science. Hence, it is not a correct statement. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Which of the following can be attributed to “Cultural Burns”?

  1. Customs of indigenous people.
  2. Antithetical to alien plant species.
  3. Less negative impact on wildlife.
  4. Controlling wildfires.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 27
  • Statement 1 is correct: The passage mentions, “Traditional fire burning practices or ‘cultural burns’ by indigenous Australians can help protect the iconic koala, new research by the University of the Sunshine Coast has found”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage says, “The ‘cultural burns’ were found to be cooler, lower and slower than ‘hot fires’, according to a statement by the university. Such fire activity encouraged the regeneration of suitable native plants”.  The passage does not mention that it is antithetical (unsuitable) to alien plant species.  It only says that these fires favour certain native plants. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The passage states, “The ‘cultural burns’ were found to be cooler, lower and slower than ‘hot fires’, according to a statement by the university” and “The research results showed that there were no negative impacts on the densities or stress levels of the animals during or after the traditional burning method was used”. This clearly implies that cultural burns are relatively better than hot fires and have less negative impact on wildlife. Hence, it is a correct statement.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The passage states, “The United Nations had taken note of burning practices and techniques of indigenous peoples around the world as a method to control wildfire incidents in a report last year on increasing incidences of fires globally”. Hence, cultural burns can be leveraged to control wildfires.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements.

  1. Some fire activities may facilitate the regrowth of plants.
  2. Practice of “cultural burns” is found only among indigenous people of Australia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is correct: The passage clearly states, “The ‘cultural burns’ were found to be cooler, lower and slower than ‘hot fires’, according to a statement by the university. Such fire activity encouraged the regeneration of suitable native plants”. Hence, it is correct to say that some fire activities may facilitate plant regrowth.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage says, “Traditional fire burning practices or ‘cultural burns’ by indigenous Australians can help protect the iconic koala”. It nowhere mentions that it is found only among the indigenous people of Australia. There could be other communities also who practice such traditional fire burning. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

What is the sum of all the 3-digit numbers that leave a remainder of 5 when divided by 7?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

The 3-digit numbers that leave a remainder of 5 when divided by 7 are:
103, 110, 117, ………….., 999 
The given terms are in A.P., with a common difference of 7.

nth term, an = a + (n – 1) d
Here, a = 103, an = 999,d = 7
So, 999 = 103 + (n – 1)7
Or (n – 1)7 = 999 – 103 = 896
Or (n – 1) = 896/7 = 128
Or n = 128 + 1 = 129
So, the total number of such terms is 129.

Sum of an AP = [(First term + Last term)/2] × number of terms So, Sum of all the 3-digit numbers that leave a remainder of 5 when divided by 7 = [(103 + 999)/2] × 129 = 71079.  Hence, option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Two men are sitting in their cars at the two opposite ends of a 315 metres long bridge. If they start driving towards each other at a speed of 36 km/hr and 45 km/hr respectively, then in how much time will they meet each other?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

36 km/hr = 36 × 5/18 m/sec = 10 m/sec
45 km/hr = 45 × 5/18 m/sec = 12.5 m/sec
So, their relative speed = 10 + 12.5 = 22.5 m/sec
Time taken by them to meet each other = Length of the bridge / Relative speed = 315/22.5 = 14 seconds

Hence, option (c) is correct.

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