UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 12 - UPSC MCQ

• The second phase of the Indian National Army (INA) began when Subhas Chandra Bose was brought to Singapore on 2 July 1943, by means of German and Japanese submarines.
• He went to Tokyo and Prime Minister Tojo declared that Japan had no territorial designs on India.
• Bose returned to Singapore and set up the Provisional Government of Free India on 21 October 1943.
• The Provisional Government then declared war on Britain and the United States and was recognised by the Axis powers and their satellites.
• Subhas Bose set up two INA headquarters, in Rangoon and in Singapore, and began to reorganize the INA.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• The U.S. central bank usually increases the supply of dollars through various means to tackle economic downturns and also to fund the U.S. government’s expenditures. But it should be noted that the U.S. Federal Reserve is not the only central bank in the world that has been debasing its currency by engaging in expansionary monetary policy over several decades. Other countries have also been expanding their respective money supplies to address their domestic economic problems. As long as the U.S. does not debase its currency at a faster pace than other countries, the dollar may manage to hold its value against other currencies and hence its reserve currency status may not come under serious threat.
• The global acceptability of the U.S. dollar has primarily been attributed to the popularity of U.S. assets among investors. It should be noted that the U.S. has been running a persistent trade deficit for decades now (in fact the last time the U.S. ran a trade surplus was way back in 1975). That is, the value of its imports has for a long time exceeded the value of its exports to the rest of the world. The excess dollars that the rest of the world accumulates due to the U.S.’s trade deficit has been invested in U.S. assets such as in debt securities issued by the US government.

The history of smallpox holds a special place in the field of epidemiology. One of the deadliest diseases known to mankind, it is also the only one to have been eradicated by vaccination. However, the origins of smallpox have always been unclear. Until now, the earliest confirmed case of the disease was found in the mummified remains of a 17th-century Lithuanian child, even though written records suggest that it is much older. A new study carried out by an international team of researchers provides fresh insight into the origins of the disease caused by the Variola virus (VARV), suggesting that the smallpox was in existence as early as during the Viking age in the 8th century CE.

Internal Complaints Committee (ICC), as mandated by law under the 2013 Prevention of Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act.

The ICC was designed to be the first port of call for any grievance under the PoSH Act, a key element needed to create a safe workplace environment for women.

As per the law, it needs to have a minimum of four members – at least half of them women – of whom one shall be an external member, preferably from an NGO or an association that works for women’s empowerment or a person familiar with issues related to sexual harassment, like a lawyer. In fact, a functional ICC is one of the key conditions set up by the Ministry of Sports to grant annual recognition to the federations.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Governments of France and Morocco, together with the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), launched the Buildings Breakthrough today at COP28, which will see countries joining forces to accelerate the transformation of the sector – which accounts for 21 per cent of global greenhouse gas emissions – with a view to making near-zero emissions and climate resilient buildings the new normal by 2030. 
• The Buildings Breakthrough is part of the Breakthrough Agenda, which provides a framework for countries, businesses and civil society to join up and strengthen their actions every year in key emitting sectors, through a coalition of leading public, private and public-private global initiatives.
• It is coordinated under the auspices of the UNEP-hosted Global Alliance for Buildings and Construction (GlobalABC).

• Plant propagation is the process of creating new plants. There are two types of propagation: sexual and asexual. Sexual reproduction is the union of the pollen and egg, drawing from the genes of two parents to create a new, third individual. Sexual propagation involves the floral parts of a plant.
• Asexual or vegetative propagation involves taking a part of one parent plant and causing it to regenerate itself into a new plant. The resulting new plant is genetically identical to its parent.
• There are many plants in which parts like the root, stem, and leaves develop into new plants under appropriate conditions. Unlike in most animals, plants can indeed use such a mode for reproduction. This property of vegetative propagation is used in methods such as layering or grafting to grow many plants like sugarcane, roses, or grapes for agricultural purposes. Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds. Such methods also make possible the propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine that has lost the capacity to produce seeds.

Hence all the options are correct.

• Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notifies norms for fly ash utilization by power plants.
  • MoEFCC has notified the latest amendments exercising the power under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986. Amendments are aimed at better utilization of fly ash by coal-based thermal power plants (TPPs) in the country.
• About Fly ash:
  • Ash is the mineral matter left after burning coal. In a power plant, a major portion of the ash is carried off with flue gases (hence, the term fly ash), and can be filtered using electrostatic precipitators. Due to improper handling, it ends up in neglected ash ponds in dangerous quantities, polluting the surface and groundwater.
• Composition: substantial amounts of oxides of silicon, aluminum, calcium; arsenic, boron, chromium, lead, etc. in trace concentrations.
• Usage: manufacturing of Portland cement, bricks, tiles, manufacturing of absorbents (for purification of waste gases, drinking water), etc.
  

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Rajagopalachari

A salt march was led by him from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast in Tamil Nadu, in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement. And on April 30, 1930 he was arrested.

Sarojini Naidu
Sarojini Naidu led the Satyagraha at Dharasana in Gujarat.

Bonga Manjhi
The Civil Disobedience Movement, launched in March 1930, unleashed an unprecedented wave of mass participation in the country. In the region in and around Gomia town of present-day Bokaro district of Jharkhand, the Santhals joined the movement under the leadership of Bangam Manjhi.

Imam Sahib
Mohamed Saheb SK. Ahmed participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement in Bombay and was arrested on 27 June 1930 and was charged with section 4 of Ordinance V of 1930. He was convicted on 28 June 1930 and sentenced to four months of rigorous imprisonment.

The Civil Disobedience Movement was inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi on 12 March 1930. In Bombay, severe clashes have occurred between the satyagrahis raiding salt depots and the police at Juhu - Vile - Parle, Congress House, Esplanade Maidan, Gowalia Tank, Bhatia Bag, K.E.M. Hospital, Kurla Churchgate, Koliwada, Matunga, and Wadala, etc.

• Option (d) is correct: The fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and damage to the lungs and premature deaths.

Human Health

• According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
• These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and damage to the lungs and premature deaths.

Instituted in 1995, the Gandhi Peace Prize is awarded for social, economic, and political transformation through nonviolence, to any deserving person/s or institution/s. The award comprises a citation and an amount of Rs 1 crore and is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or gender and any association, institution, or organisation.
The awardee is selected by a five-member jury comprising the:

• Prime Minister
• Chief Justice of India
• Leader of the Opposition
• Two eminent personalities

The Union Minister of Culture is not a member of the committee.

Administration of Tribal Areas

• Tribal areas are governed as autonomous districts but remain under the e xecutive authority of the state.
• The state’s Governor has the power to organize and reorganize the a utonomous district, including modifying its area and boundary lines.
• If multiple tribes exist within an autonomous district, the Governor is authorized to divide it into separate autonomous regions.

The High Seas Treaty is also known as the agreement on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction or 'BBNJ'.
The background of the BBNJ: In the year 1982, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) was adopted. This delineated the rules to govern the oceans and the use of its resources. However, there was no comprehensive legal framework and guide that covered the high seas. It is in this context that the need arose for the BBNJ.

• Statement 1 is correct: This is the world's first treaty to safeguard oceans outside state borders. The objectives of this legally binding agreement are to preserve the intrinsic value of marine biological diversity, uphold the integrity of ocean ecosystems, and safeguard, care for, and ensure the responsible use of the maritime environment.
• Statement 2 is correct: By 2030, it seeks to turn thirty per cent of the oceans into protected areas (a commitment made by nations at the UN biodiversity conference in 2022). It will offer a framework for lawfully creating sizable marine protected areas (MPAs) in order to prevent the extinction of wildlife and distribute the high seas' genetic resources. It also includes environmental evaluations to determine how much harm commercial operations like deepsea mining could do. The pact includes mechanisms for resolving disputes and provisions grounded in the polluter-pays principle with the goal of bolstering resilience.

• Kanpur Bolshevik conspiracy case was a controversial court case initiated in British India in 1924.
• It was against the newly turned communists by the British government. The charge on them was 'to deprive King-Emperor of his sovereignty of British India, by complete separation of India from imperialistic Britain in a violent revolution.
• S.A.Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed, Nalini Gupta and Shaukat Usmani in the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case, all four were sentenced to four years of imprisonment.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

The Government has launched the ‘Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index’ as part of the ‘Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan’ for Persons with disabilities.
The government launched the ‘Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index’ to mark the next chapter of its flagship Campaign, the ‘Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan’.
The Index was prepared in collaboration with The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI). The ‘Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index’ helps industries and corporations to participate in the Accessible India Campaign (AIC) by voluntarily evaluating their readiness for making the workplace accessible for Persons with Disabilities.
The Index has been prepared with a holistic approach and may be applied and used by organisations irrespective of their size and scale.
The absorption and recognition of the Index by the Corporate Sector and public sector organisations will benefit them immensely by:

• Being the benchmark.
• Take Progressive steps to increase support.
• Fully utilise a diverse talent pool.
• Reduce employee turnover, increase employee loyalty and increase the morale and productivity of other employees in the organisation.
• Create a positive brand image.
• Expand the customer base through new products and services.
• Enhance shareholder value.
• Above all, the Inclusiveness and Accessibility Index shall promote human dignity and social cohesion where all citizens have equal access to opportunities to fully realise their potential.

• The Therigatha is translated as the ‘Verses of the Elder Nuns’. It is a Buddhist text, a collection of short poems of early enlightened women who were elder nuns. The Therigatha is the earliest extant text depicting women’s spiritual experiences in Theravada Buddhism.
• In the Pali Canon, the Therigatha is classified as part of the Khuddaka Nikaya, the collection of short books in the Sutta Pitaka. It is the companion text to the Theragatha, verses attributed to the senior monks. The poems in Therigatha were composed orally in the Magadhi language and were passed on orally until about 80 BCE, when they were written down in Pali. Therigatha is a very significant document in the study of early Buddhism. It contains passages reaffirming the view that women are the equal of men in terms of spiritual attainment, as well as verses that address  the issues of particular interest to women in the ancient society.
• Sumangala-Vilasini: Buddhaghosha's commentary on the Digha Nikaya.
• Stridharmapaddhati: Sanskrit-language text written in the court of Thanjavur, the Maratha kingdom of the present-day Tamil Nadu. It outlines the duties of women from an orthodox Hindu point of view, based on several Shruti, Smriti and Puranic texts.
• Divyavadana: Sanskrit anthology of Buddhist Avadana tales. It may be dated to the 2nd century CE. Typically, the stories involve the Buddha explaining to a group of disciples how a particular individual, through actions in a previous life, came to have a particular karmic result in the present.

Several sections of the population participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

• Women: Gandhi had specially asked women to play a leading part in the movement. Soon, they became a familiar sight, picketing outside liquor shops, opium dens and shops selling foreign cloth. For Indian women, the movement was the most liberating experience and can truly be said to have marked their entry into the public sphere.
• Students: Along with women, students and youth played the most prominent part in the boycott of foreign cloth and liquor.

Muslims: The Muslim participation was nowhere near the 1920-22 level because of appeals by Muslim leaders to stay away from the movement and because of active government encouragement to communal dissension. Still, some areas such as the NWFP saw an overwhelming participation. Middle class Muslim participation was quite significant in Senhatta, Tripura, Gaibandha, Bagura and Noakhali. In Dacca, Muslim leaders, shopkeepers, lower class people and upper class women were active. The Muslim weaving community in Bihar, Delhi and Lucknow were also effectively mobilised.

• Statement 1 is correct: Ecological succession is defined as an orderly process of changes in the community structure and function with time mediated through modifications in the physical environment and ultimately culminating in a stabilized ecosystem known as climax. The whole sequences of communities which are transitory are known as seral stages or seres whereas the community establishing first of all in the area is called a pioneer community.
• The climax community is characterized by maximum biomass and symbiotic (mutually beneficial) linkages between organisms and is maintained quite efficiently per unit of available energy.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Hydrosere/ Hydrarch succession starts in a water body like pond. A number of intermediate stages come and ultimately it culminates in a climax community which is a forest. The pioneer community consists of phytoplanktons, which are free floating algae, diatoms etc. Gradually these are replaced by rooted submerged plants followed by rooted-floating plants.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Xerosere/ Xerarch succession originates on a bare rock, which lacks water and organic matter. Here the climax community is a forest, although the intermediate stages are very different. The pioneer community here consists of crustose and foliose lichens. These lichens produce some weak acids and help in disintegrating the rock, a process known as weathering. Their growth helps in building up gradually some organic matter, humus and soil. Then comes the community of mosses, followed by herbs, shrubs and finally the forest trees. Throughout this gradual process there is a slow build-up of organic matter and water in the substratum.

• Statement I is correct: Undue influence and bribery at elections are electoral offences under Sections 171B and 171C, respectively, of the IPC.
• Statement II is correct: These offences are non-cognizable offences, with punishment provision of one year’s imprisonment, or fine, or both.

Irregularities in polling

• Consequent to Indian independence, the Parliament enacted a special enactment.i.e., the Representation of Peoples Act . 1951, to regulate election proceedings and control electoral malpractices. However, ordinary criminal courts still have jurisdiction to decide on election-related offences.
• Sections 171B to 1711 of Chapter IXA of the Indian Penal Code deal with the offences related to elections and punishment concerning such offences. Chapler IXA includes elections of Parliament, State Legislatures, as well as local bodies such as Panchayats and municipalities.

Constitutional provisions in India to protect Biodiversity

• Under Article 48A of the Indian Constitution, it is stated that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.
• Article 51A of the Constitution of India specifies fundamental duties of every citizen. It is the duty of every citizen of India: to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the national struggle for freedom; to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to value and preserve the rich heritage of the composite culture; to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures; and to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

• Statement 1 is correct: The central government has the ultimate decisionmaking authority.
• Statement 2 is correct: France, Japan, and the United Kingdom all have this type of government.

Unitary System of Government

• A unitary system of government is a political system where power and authority are concentrated in a central government, and regional or local governments derive their powers from the central government. In this system, the central government has the ultimate decision-making authority and can create or abolish regional or local governments as it sees fit. Some examples of countries with unitary systems of government include:
  • France: France has a unitary system where power is concentrated in the central government. The country is divided into administrative regions, but these regions have limited autonomy and derive their powers from the central government.
  • United Kingdom: The United Kingdom operates under a unitary system, although it has devolved certain powers to regional governments in Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland. However, these devolved powers can be revoked by the central government if needed.
  • Japan: Japan has a unitary system of government where power is concentrated in the central government. The country is divided into prefectures, but these prefectures have limited powers and are subject to the authority of the central government.
  • Italy: Italy operates under a unitary system where power is concentrated in the central government. The country is divided into regions, but these regions have limited powers and derive their authority from the central government.
  • China: China has a unitary system where power is concentrated in the central government. The country is divided into provinces, autonomous regions, and municipalities, but these subnational units derive their powers from the central government and are subject to its authority.

• Statement 1 is correct: A Person of Indian Origin (PIO) means a foreign citizen, except a national of Pakistan, Afghanistan Bangladesh, China, Iran, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Nepal.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: PIO held an Indian Passport at any time.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: They are entitled to enjoy parity with NRIs in economic, financial and educational benefits in India.

Person of Indian Origin (PIO)

• A Person of Indian Origin (PIO) means a foreign citizen, except a national of Pakistan, Afghanistan Bangladesh, China, Iran, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Nepal. PIO, who at any time held an Indian passport.
• They enjoy parity with NRIs in economic, financial and educational benefits like:
  • Acquisition, holding, transfer and disposal of immovable properties in India, except agricultural/ plantation properties.
  • Admission of children to educational institutions in India under general category quota for NRIs, including medical and engineering college, IITs, IIMs etc.
  • Availing various housing schemes of LIC of India, State Government and Central Government agencies.
  • All future benefits  that would be exempted to NRIs would also be available to the PIO card holders.
• However, PIOs do not enjoy employment rights in Government of India services nor can they hold any constitutional office in the Government of India. They need prior permission for undertaking mountaineering, missionary activities, and research work and to visit restricted areas in India.

• Statement 1 is correct: An ETF is a basket of securities, shares of which are sold on a stock exchange. An exchange traded fund (ETF) is a type of security that tracks an index, sector, commodity, or other asset, but which can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange the same way a regular stock. ETFs are a mix of open-ended and closeended mutual funds.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: ETF share prices fl uctuate all day as the ETF is bought and sold; this is different from mutual funds that only trade once a day after the market closes. ETFs can be traded at any point during the trading day.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Commodities, like gold, are widely traded in ETFs. There isn’t any physical delivery of commodity. The investor is just provided with an ETF certifi cate, similar to a stock certificate.  
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Unlike Mutual Funds in which fund manager may also change the composition of the portfolio Bharat 22 is an ETF that will track the performance of 22 stocks of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE), the Composition of portfolio in ETF is fixed and it will not change.  

Supplementary Notes:
Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)

• If an investor holds the ETF then he will get returns from the dividend generated by those CPSE companies in the backend.
• He may also sell these ETF to a third party via stock exchange, hence called Exchange Traded Funds.  
• Bharat-22 ETF is managed by the ICICI Prudential AMC while Asia Index is the index provider.

• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) recently announced a new scheme Mission 50KEV4ECO to boost the electric vehicle (EV) ecosystem in the country.
• About Mission 50K-EV4ECO:
  • The objective of the mission is to promote the growth and development of the value chain of India’s electric vehicle industry.
  • It aims at strengthening the EV ecosystem, including uptake for two, three and four-wheelers through direct and indirect lending.
  • The pilot scheme, which is the precursor to EVOLVE scheme by SIDBI-World Bank, has two components -direct lending and indirect lending.
  • Under direct lending, SIDBI will directly give loans to eligible MSMEs (including aggregators, fleet operators, and EV leasing companies) for the purchase of electric vehicles and develop charging infrastructure, including battery swapping.
  • The indirect scheme targeted at NBFCs, including small unrated focused and emerging NBFCs, actively engaged in EV financing, will reach out to the last mile by inducing access to funds as also reducing landed cost.
• Key facts about SIDBI o It was established under an Act of Parliament in 1990. o It is the Principal Financial Institution engaged in the promotion, financing & development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector and coordination of the functions of the various institutions engaged in similar activities.

• Statement 1 is correct: Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution guarantee to every person the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propogate religion.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that “secularism is the basic feature of the Constitution.” 

Secularism

• In the context of secularism in India, it is said that ‘India is neither religious, nor irreligious nor anti- religious.’ It implies that in India there will be no ‘State’ religion – the ‘State’ will not support any particular religion out of public fund. This has two implications,
• Every individual is free to believe in, and practice, any religion he/ she belongs to, and,
• State will not discriminate against any individual or group on the basis of religion.
• The concept of secularism was already implicit in the Constitution, “liberty of belief, faith and worship”. Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution guarantee to every person the freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propogate religion.
• In St. Xaviers College v. State of Gujarat, the SC has held, “although the words ‘SECULAR STATE’ are not expressly mentioned in the Constitution but there can be no doubt that Constitution-makers wanted to establish such a state” and accordingly Articles 25 to 28 have been included in the Constitution.
• In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that “secularism is the basic feature of the Constitution.”
• In Aruna Roy v. Union of India, the Supreme Court has said that Secularism has a positive meaning that is developing, understanding and respect towards different religions.

The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.

• These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compounds are left behind.
• Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrive well in high temperature.
• These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess.

Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation.

G-7 corporate tax

• Advanced economies making up the G7 grouping reached a “historic” deal on taxing multinational companies.
• They agreed to counter tax avoidance through measures to make companies pay in the countries where they do business.
• They also agreed in principle to ratify a global minimum corporate tax rate to counter the possibility of countries undercutting each other to attract investments.
• Under base erosion and profit shifting, multinational companies shift their tax base or profits from high tax countries like India, to tax havens like Switzerland by using different techniques and accounting manipulations.

Aihole Inscription of Pulikesin II: The Megudi temple at Aihole (in Karnataka) stands on top of a hill. On the eastern wall of this Jaina temple is a Sanskrit inscription (dated to 556 Saka era: 634-635). The composer is a poet named Ravikriti. It provides details of the Pallava - Chalukya conflict. Pulikesin I’s grandson Pulikesin II (609-(642), after defeating Mangalesha, proclaimed himself as king, an event that is described in the Aihole inscription. The inscription is a prashasti of the Chalukyas, especially the reigning king Pulikesin II, referred to as Sathyasraya. One of the most outstanding victories of Pulikesin II was the defeat of Harshavardhana’s army on the banks of the Narmada.

• Statement 1 and 2 are correct:
• None of The above (NOTA) is a ballot option in which the voter has the choice to record his disapproval of all the candidates in a voting system.
• The Supreme Court in PUCL v. Union of India judgement, 2013 directed the use of NOTA in the context of direct elections to the Lok Sabha and the respective State Assemblies.
• The judgment delineated that in a direct election the voters must be given an option to choose “None of the above” to express their dissatisfaction with all the candidates/ political parties on the ballot.
• The Committee on Electoral Reforms (Dinesh Goswami Committee) expressed its disapproval and concluded that the inclusion of the “None of The above ” (NOTA) option does not serve any meaningful purpose,
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with electoral reforms. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was formed in 1990. This committee was concerned with the electoral reforms. It recommended that there is a need for restructuring of the accounting of election expenses.

Negative or neutral voting:

• Negative Voting’ is when a voter wants to cast a negative vote, that is, when the voter makes a choice to vote for none of the candidates contesting elections in his constituency.
• The voter, in this instance, registers a ‘negative vote’, which implies that he does not support any of the candidates fisted on the ballot but still registers his vote.
• Along with recording his choice, the voter also protects his ballot from being misused by someone else. This has to he distinguished from a voter’s ‘right not to vote’ which means a voter refusing to exercise his franchise.
• This is also different form not voting at all where the voter does not come out and cast his vote, and thereby his vote gets added to the percentage of people who did not vote,
• The concept of ‘negative voting’ is not a new one. It is prevalent in several democracies across the world. Although it appears in different facets, it has not been implemented rigorously.

Lokpal

• The Lokpal is an ombudsman institution at the central level in India. It was established through the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
• The primary objective of the Lokpal is to investigate and prosecute cases of corruption against public servants at the central government level, including the Prime Minister, Members of Parliament, and central government employees.
• The Lokpal is an independent body, and its members are appointed by a highlevel selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (lower house of Parliament), the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India, and an eminent jurist nominated by the President of India.

Jurisdiction of Lokpal:

• The Lokpal has the authority to investigate allegations of corruption against public servants at the central level.
• This includes corruption cases related to the misuse of public offi ce, bribery, embezzlement of public funds, and other acts of corruption.
• However, the Lokpal does not have jurisdiction over the state governments or their employees.