UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 9 - UPSC MCQ

Solution is one of the dominant processes in the formation of certain landscape features This process of erosion as an agent of gradation is particularly very significant in Limestone and Dolomite regions. The resultant landscape is known as Karst Topography.
For the development of the Karst landscape four major conditions are essential:

• The region should consist of limestone bedrock formation.
• The soluble rock should be highly jointed and in thin beds.
• Trenched major valleys should have soluble and well-jointed bedrocks.
• The region should receive a moderate amount of rainfall. Since solution work will be limited in areas with less rainfall, the karst features cannot develop as well as they do in regions of moderate rainfall.

The Pacific Ring of Fire, also referred to as the Circum-Pacific Belt, is a path along the Pacific Ocean characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
The Pacific Ring of Fire traces boundaries between several tectonic plates:

• the Pacific,
• Juan de Fuca,
• Cocos,
• Indian-Australian,
• Nazca,
• North American,
• Philippine Plates.

Seventy-five percent of Earth’s volcanoes—more than 450 volcanoes—are located along the Ring of Fire. Ninety percent of Earth’s earthquakes occur along its path, including the planet’s most violent and dramatic seismic events.

Only statement 2 is correct.

• The current account deficit or CAD is a key indicator of a country’s external sector. When the value of the goods and services that a country imports exceeds the value of the products it exports, it is known as the current account deficit. Together with the fiscal deficit, which is the amount of money that the government has to borrow in any year to fill the gap between its expenditures and revenues, the two make up the ‘twin deficits’ that are considered the enemies of the stock market and investors.
• If the current account – the country’s trade and transactions with other countries – shows a surplus, that indicates money is flowing into the country, boosting the foreign exchange reserves and the value of the rupee against the dollar. These are factors that will have ramifications on the economy and the stock markets, as well as on returns on investments by people.
• CAD narrowed to $1.3 billion, or 0.2 per cent, of the GDP in the January-March quarter of FY2023 – from $16.8 billion or 2 per cent of GDP in the preceding quarter. In Q4 FY2022, CAD was $13.4 billion, or 1.6 per cent of GDP.
• Remittances, which are the second largest major source of external financing after service export, also contributed to narrowing the CAD. During the quarter, private transfer receipts, mainly representing remittances by Indians employed overseas, increased to $28.6 billion, up 20.8 per cent from their level a year ago.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: After independence, Government of India changed the names of some the States and Union Territories.
• The United Provinces was the fi rst State to have a new name as ‘Uttar Pradesh’ in 1950.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The renaming of a state requires Parliamentary approval under Article 3 and 4 of the Constitution, and the President has to refer the same to the relevant state legislature for its views
• Statement 3 is correct: By virtue of article 3 of Constitution, Parliament has power to change name of state even if such proposal does not come from the concerned state.
• If initiated by state assembly, it will fi rst pass a resolution for such change and this passed resolution will be sent to Central government.

Notes:

States Reorganisation Act, 1956

• Process for changing the name of a state can be initiated by state itself.
• However, by virtue of article 3 of Constitution, Parliament has power to change name of state even if such proposal does not come from the concerned state.
• If initiated by state assembly, it will fi rst pass a resolution for such change and this passed resolution will be sent to Central government (Union Home Ministry).
• Then Union Home Ministry prepares note for Union Cabinet for amendment to Schedule 1 of Constitution.
• Thereafter, Constitution Amendment Bill is introduced in Parliament under Article 3 of Constitution, which has to be approved with simple majority, before President gives his assent to it.
• Thereafter name of state will be changed. The example of such change is change in name of ‘Orissa to Odisha’.

The Supreme Court recently dismissed petitions challenging the Delhi High Court judgment, which upheld the Agnipath scheme for recruitment to the armed forces. Advocate appearing for the petitioners argued that the government must be directed to complete the old process citing the doctrine of promissory estoppel.
The doctrine of promissory estoppel: Promissory estoppel is a concept developed in contractual laws.
A valid contract under law requires an agreement to be made with sufficient consideration. A claim of the doctrine of promissory estoppel essentially prevents a “promisor” from backing out of an agreement on the grounds that there is no “consideration.” Honourable Supreme Court of India, in Chhaganlal Keshavalal Mehta v. Patel Narandas Haribhai judgement 1981, laid out the conditions/ criteria where the doctrine of promissory estoppel can be applied:

• First, there must be a clear and unambiguous promise.
• Second, the plaintiff must have acted relying reasonably on that promise.
• Third, the plaintiff must have suffered a loss.

The judges dismissed the aforementioned argument saying that the matter before them was not a contract matter (as it concerns public employment); therefore, the doctrine can’t be employed.

• IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The IRNSS System provides navigation solutions all the time with position accuracy better than 20m during all weather conditions, anywhere within India and a region extending about 1500 km around India. IRNSS provides Standard Positioning Service (SPS) and Restricted Service (RS) to the users on dual frequencies in L5 and S band. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The IRNSS space segment consists of 7 satellites (3 Geostationary Orbit and 4 Geosynchronous Orbit). Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Money Multiplier is the ratio of total money supply to the stock of high powered money in an economy. Reserve deposit ratio is the fraction of their total deposits which commercial banks keep as reserves
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Currency Deposit Ratio (cdr) = Ratio of Currency held by Public to Deposits of pubhc in banks.
• cdr equal to 1 means whenever an individual gets some amount of cash say Rs.100, then he wdl keep Rs.50 as cash and Rs.50 as deposil in banks, so that the ratio of cash in hand and deposits in banks is Rs.50/Rs.50 = 1.
• Statement 3 is correct: Reserve Deposit Ratio (rdr) = Ratio of Reserves of Banks to the Deposits of public in banks. RDR
• equals to 0.2 or 20% means whenever an inchvidual deposits certain sum of money say Rs.100 with the bank, the bank will have to keep Rs.20 as reserve money and the rest Rs.80 they can lend to someone else. Banks can keep the reserves either with themselves (SLR) or with RBI (CRR). So, rdr is sum of CRR and SLR.
• Statement 4 is correct: In a functional economy, Money multiplier (MM) is always greater than 1 & CRR wdl always he less than 100%. MM directly improves with reduction in CRR MM indirectly improves as economy develops, consumption / loan demand increases, banking penel rat ion. digital economy/less-cash economy etc.
• MM improves with the increase in banking penetration, financial inclusion Boom period. Whenever loan demand increase Money Multiplier increases when RBI adopts Cheap / Easy / Dovish / Expansionary monetary pohcy to combat deflation.

Tools to calculate Money Creation

• By definition, money supply is equal to currency plus deposits i.e. M = CU + DD = (1 + cdr )DD where, cclr = CU/DD
• High-powered money then consists of currency held by the pubhc and reserves of the commercial banks, which include vault cash and banks' deposits with RBI. H = CU + R = cdr.DD + rdr.DD = (cdr + rdr) DD
• Thus the ratio of money supply to high powered money M/I 1 = 1+cdr/cdr+rdr > 1, as rdr > 1
• This is precisely the measure of the money multiplier.
• In a functional economy, money multiplier (MM) is always greater than 1 & CRR will always be less than 100%. MM directly improves with reduction in CRR. MM indirectly improves as economy develops consumption / loan demand increases, banking penetration, digital economydess-cash economy etc. MM improves with the increase in banking penetration, financial inclusion. It also increases in Boom period, whenever loan demand increases. _

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• With the El Nino phenomenon almost certain to affect the Indian monsoon this year, high hopes are pinned on the development of a positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) and its ability to counterbalance the El Nino effect. The IOD is an ocean-atmosphere interaction very similar to the El Nino fluctuations in the Pacific Ocean, playing out, as the name shows, in the Indian Ocean. It is also a much weaker system than El Nino, and thus has relatively limited impacts.

But a positive IOD does have the potential to offset the impacts of El Nino to a small measure in neighbouring areas, and it has, at least once in the past (1997), delivered admirably on this potential.

Many newspapers emerged during the freedom struggle under distinguished and fearless journalists. These included:

• The Hindu and Swadesamitran under G. Subramaniya Aiyar.
• The Bengalee under Surendranath Banerjea.
• Voice of India under Dadabhai Naoroji.
• Amrita Bazar Patrika under Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh.
• Indian Mirror under N.N. Sen.
• Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English) under Balgangadhar Tilak.
• Sudharak under Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
• Hindustan and Advocate under G.P. Verma.

• Bengal witnessed a temple building spree from the late 15th century. Temple architecture in Bengal got inspired from the double roofed (Dochala) or the four-roofed (Chauchala) structure of thatched huts in the villages, which housed the local deities.
• The temples were usually built on a square platform.
• The interior of the temples was relatively plain, but the outer walls of these temples were decorated with paintings, ornamental tiles or teracotta tablets. In the Vishnupur group of temples in Bankura district of West Bengal, such decorations reached a high degree of excellence.
• This style incorporated elements of dome and multi-lobe arch of the Islamic architecture.
• The elements of Bengal temple architecture were outside Bengal as well. 

There are two prominent styles of Bengal temples: 

• Dochala (two-roofed style)
• Chauchala (four-roofed style): This was a comparatively more complex structure. Here, four triangular roofs placed on four walls move up to converge on a curved line or a point.

• Statement 1 is correct: Effective Revenue Defi cit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for the creation of capital assets.
• Statement 2 is correct: A shrinking primary defi cit indicates progress towards fiscal health.
• Statement 3 is correct: Fiscal Defi cit equals the money the government needs to borrow during the year.

Fiscal Deficit

• Fiscal Deficit is the gap between the government’s expenditure requirements and its receipts. This equals the money the government needs to borrow during the year. A surplus arises if receipts are more than expenditures.
• Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure -(Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts)

Effective Revenue deficit

• Effective Revenue deficit is a term introduced in the Union Budget 201112. While revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure, the present accounting system includes all grants from the Union Government to the state governments/ Union territories/other bodies as revenue expenditure, even if they are used to create assets.
• An effective revenue deficit excludes those revenue expenditures (or transfers) in the form of grants for the creation of capital assets.

Primary Deficit

• Gross Primary Deficit is Gross Fiscal Deficit minus Net interest liabilities. Net Primary Deficit is Net Fiscal Deficit minus net interest payments. The net interest payment is interest paid minus interest receipt.
• A shrinking primary deficit indicates progress towards fiscal health.

Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (or PESA), 1996 

• Village level democracy became a real prospect for India in 1992 with the 73rd amendment to the Constitution, which mandated that resources, responsibility and decision making be passed on from central government to the lowest unit of the governance, the Gram Sabha or the Village Assembly. 
• A three tier structure of local self-government was envisaged under this amendment. Since the laws do not automatically cover the scheduled areas, the PESA Act was in acted on 24 December 1996 to enable Tribal Self Rule in these areas. 
• The Act extended the provisions of Panchayats to the tribal areas of nine states that have Fifth Schedule Areas. 
• The nine states with Fifth Schedule areas are: Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, and Rajasthan. 
• The fundamental spirit of the Panchayat Extension Act for tribal areas under 5th Schedule is that it devolves power and authority to Gram Sabha and Panchayats rather than delegation; hence it paves way for participatory democracy. 
• The provision under constitution and the composition under this act call for every legislation on the Panchayat in 5th Schedule area are in conformity with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practices of the community resources. The provisions under PESA include the following: 
  • Gram sabha at the para, majra and tola levels 
  • Gram sabha to protect the traditions, beliefs and culture of the tribal communities 
  • Local disputes to be resolved by the gram sabha 
  • Gram sabha to manage and protect common properties based on their traditional systems of management and protection 
  • The administration to seek permission from the gram sabha in case of land acquisition 
  • Gram sabha to have the rights over minor forest produce; powers to restore land to the tribals; and control over money-lending to tribals, tribal welfare activities by social organizations and local plans and sub-plans for the development of tribal areas and communities
  • Gram sabha to have the control over local markets and melas 
  • Gram sabha to have rights to control the distillation, prohibition and manufacture of liquor 
  •  District panchayats to have rights and powers similar to the district panchayats falling under Sixth Schedule

• The basic philosophy of the Jainas was already in existence in north India before the birth of Vardhamana, who came to be known as Mahavira, in the sixth century BCE.
• According to Jaina tradition, Mahavira was preceded by 23 other teachers or Tirthankaras – literally, those who guide men and women across the river of existence.
• The most important idea in Jainism is that the The entire world is animated even stones, rocks and water have life. Hence statement 1 is correct. Non-injury to living beings, especially to humans, animals, plants, and insects, is central to Jaina philosophy. Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of karma. This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; therefore, monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through karma. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• According to Buddhist philosophy, the world is transient (anicca) and constantly changing; it is also soulless (anatta) as there is nothing permanent or eternal in it.

The Centre is foreseeing a “stagnation” in milk production and a possible scarcity of ghee and butter as an impact of the lumpy skin disease (LSD) that took the lives of about 1.89 lakh cattle recently.

• Statement 1 is correct: LSD is a serious viral disease that primarily affects cattle and buffalo. The disease can result in animal welfare issues and significant production losses. LSD is a disease of animals, not humans, it is not transmitted to humans by eating affected meat.
• Statement 2 is correct: The disease is transmitted by blood-feeding insects i.e., Sanguinivorous insects, such as certain species of flies and mosquitoes, or ticks. It causes fever, nodules on the skin and can also lead to death, especially in animals that that have not previously been exposed to the virus.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Lumpy skin disease was first seen as an epidemic in Zambia in 1929. Lumpi-ProVacInd is a live attenuated vaccine jointly developed by ICAR’s National Research Centre on Equines (NRCE) and the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) for the treatment of disease.

Right to Equality

• Equality and freedom or liberty, are the two rights that are most essential to a democracy. It is not possible to think of the one without thinking of the other. Liberty means freedom of thought, expression and action.
• However it does not mean freedom to do anything that one desires or likes. If that were to be permitted then a large number of people will not be able to enjoy their freedom.
• Therefore, freedoms are defi ned in such a manner that every person will enjoy her freedom without threatening freedom of others and without endangering the law and order situation.

Right to life and personal liberty

• The foremost right among rights to freedom is the right to life and personal liberty. No citizen can be denied his or her life except by procedure as laid down under the law. Similarly no one can be denied his/her personal liberty.
• That means no one can be arrested without being told the grounds for such an arrest. If arrested, the person has the right to defend himself by a lawyer of his choice.
• Also, it is mandatory for the police to take that person to the nearest magistrate within 24 hours. The magistrate, who is not part of the police, will decide whether the arrest is justifi ed or not.
• This right is not just confi ned to a guarantee against taking away of an individual’s life but has wider application. Various judgments of Supreme Court have expanded the scope of this right.
• The Supreme Court has ruled that this right also includes right to live with human dignity, free from exploitation.
• The court has held that right to shelter and livelihood is also included in the right to life because no person can live without the means of living, that is, the means of livelihood.

Statement 1 is correct: India has had a long history of states reorganization. At the time India became a republic country, India had 27 states and the Constitution distinguished between them based on three types. 

• Part B had eight states governed by a Rajpramukh, who was appointed by the President, and these were former princely states or group of princely states.
• Ten Part C states were governed by a chief commissioner, who was too appointed by the President, and these states were either former chief commissioners’ provinces or princely states.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Part A there were nine states which were ruled by the state legislature and an elected governor and these were the former governors’ provinces of British India.

Urban Local Bodies (ULBs)  

• ULBs are small local bodies that administer or govern a city or a town of specifi ed population. Urban Local Bodies are vested with a long list of functions delegated to them by the state governments. These functions broadly relate to public health, welfare, regulatory functions, public safety, public infrastructure works, and development activities. 
• There are several types of Urban Local bodies in India such as Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Notified Area Committee, Town Area Committee, Special Purpose Agency, Township, Port Trust, Cantonment Board etc. The main sources of revenues of ULBs are as follows: 
  • Collection from tax and non-tax sources as assigned to them under Municipal act. 
  • Devolution of shared taxes and duties as per recommendation of State Finance Commission Grants-in-aid from the State Government
  • Grants-in-aid from the Government of India under Centrally Sponsored Schemes Share of State Govt. of State against Centrally Sponsored Schemes of Govt. of India 
  •  Award of Central Finance Commission Grant, GOI

• Statement 1 is correct: It provides a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
• Statement 2 is correct: It specifi es who has the power to make decisions in a society.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The constitution set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens.
• Statement 4 is correct: It enables the government to fulfi l the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.

Notes

Function of Constitution

• The fi rst function of a constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
• The second function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted.
• So the third function of a constitution is to set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them.
• The fourth function of a constitution is to enable the government to fulfi l the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.

The World Bank Group’s B-READY project is a benchmarking exercise aiming to provide a quantitative assessment of the business environment for private sector development. Its report will be published annually and cover most economies worldwide. The assessment will cover ten assessment topics following the typical life cycle of a firm from opening, operating (or expanding), and closing (or reorganising) a business.

• The separatist and loyalist tendencies among a section of the educated Muslims, and the big Muslim Nawabs and landlords reached a climax in 1906, when the All-India Muslim League was founded under the leadership of Aga Khan, the Nawab of Dhaka, and Nawab Mohsin-ulMulk.
• Founded as a loyalist, communal and conservative political organization, the Muslim League made no critique of colonialism, supported the partition of Bengal and demanded special safeguards for the Muslims in government services.
• The Muslim League‟s political activities were directed not against the foreign rulers, but against the Hindus and the National Congress.
• The Lucknow Pact of 1916 marked an important step forward in the Hindu- Muslim unity. Unfortunately, it did not involve the Hindu and Muslim masses, and it accepted the pernicious principle of separate electorates.

The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to better control‘ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing. The provisions of the Act included:

• The District Magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and the publisher of any vernacular newspaper to enter into a bond with the government undertaking not to cause disaffection against the government or antipathy between persons of different religions, caste, race through published material; the printer and the publisher could also be required to deposit security which could be forfeited if the regulation were contravened, and press equipment could be seized if the offence re-occurred.
• The magistrate‘s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law.
• A vernacular newspaper could get exemption from the operation of the Act by submitting proofs to a government censor.

Solution is one of the dominant processes in the formation of certain landscape features. This process of erosion as an agent of gradation is particularly very significant in Limestone and Dolomite regions. The resultant landscape is known as Karst Topography. Some of the Karst Landforms are as follows- Karren, Sinkholes, Caverns, Terra Rossa, Uvala, Polje, Blind Valley, Sinking Creek etc.

• Uvalas are large surface depressions in limestone terrain (karst region). They are formed by the coalescence of adjoining dolines. It has an irregular floor which is not as smooth as that of polje.

Sinkholes may expand in diameter and as a result they unite to form a compound sinkhole. Sometimes these may be developed from the surface to join the passage already made under. This leads to collapse of a certain part of the roof resulting in the formation of large depressions called ‘Uvalas.”

All India Services

• The article 310 of Indian constitution reads that “Except as expressly provided by this Constitution, every person who is a member of a Defence service or of a civil service of the Union or of an All India Service holds offi ce during the pleasure of the President, and every person who s a member of a civil service of a State or holds any civil post under a State holds offi ce during the pleasure of the Governor of the State.
• According to article 310, every person who is a member of Union civil Service holds offi ce during the pleasure of the President. But the article 311 acts as a safeguard to civil servants. It reads as under;
• Article 311 (1): It says that no government employee either of an all India service or a state government shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed him/her.
• Article 311 (2): It says that no civil servant shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an enquiry. Further, s/he has to be informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.
• Exceptions under Article 311:
• Article 311(2) (a): It says that if a government employee is convicted in a criminal case, he can be dismissed without Departmental Enquiry (DE).
• Article 311 (2) (c): It says that the government employee can be dismissed when the President or the Governor is satisfi ed that in the interest of the security of state it is not required to hold such an enquiry, the employee can be dismissed without DE.

• Recent context: India accounts for 27 percent of the total TB cases in the world, according tthe recently released Global TB Report 2023 by the World Health Organisation.
• Key findings:
• Global:
  • The reported global number of people newly diagnosed with TB was 7.5 million in 2022.
  • TB remained the world’s second leading cause of death in 2022 after COVID-19.
  • Net reduction of TB incidence from 2015- 2022 was 8.7% far from the WHEnd TB Strategy milestone of 50% reduction by 2025.
• India’s findings
  • India, Indonesia, and the Philippines collectively account for nearly 60% of the reduction in number of people newly diagnosed with TB in 2020- 2021.
  • India has 27% of the world’s TB cases.
• TB is caused by bacillus Mycobacterium tuberculosis which most often affects the lungs (pulmonary TB). The most common medications ttreat TB include isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, etc. Currently, Bacillle Calmette-Guerin is the only licensed vaccine available for TB prevention. It spreads from person tperson through air. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• TB Risk factors: Diabetes, HIV infection, Undernutrition, tobaccuse.

The Group of Seven (G7) serves as a forum to coordinate global policy, but experts are increasingly questioning the group’s relevance. The G7 is an informal grouping of advanced democracies that meets annually to coordinate global economic policy and address other transnational issues. The G7 is an informal bloc of industrialized democracies:

• The United States
• Canada
• France
• Germany
• Italy
• Japan
• United Kingdom (UK)

Russia belonged to the forum from 1998 through 2014, when the bloc was known as the Group of Eight (G8), but it was suspended following its annexation of Ukraine’s Crimea region

Population density of Species

• Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.
• Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
• Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
• Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.

• Recent Context: In a bid to reduce cases of cervical cancer, the government is likely to roll out an immunisation campaign against Human Papillomavirus (HPV) in the second quarter of the year. Girls between the ages of 9 and 14 years across India will be vaccinated for free in three phases under the government’s programme over the next three years.
• Globally, cervical cancer is the 4th most common cancer in women. India contributes to the largest proportion of global cervical cancer burden. Hence Statement-II is correct.
• In India, cervical cancer is the second most common cancer in women and breast cancer is most common cancer. Hence Statement-I is not correct.
• The National Technical Advisory Group for Immunization (NTAGI) has recommended the introduction of HPV Vaccine in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) for 9-14 year-old adolescent girls but it has not been introduced in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).

• Calling for international cooperation on ensuring safe use of Artificial Intelligence (AI), the Britain government published the ‘Bletchley Declaration agreement with countries like India, Australia, China, and the US among others, on November 1, the first day of the UK AI summit. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• The declaration, signed by 28 countries, outlines an agenda for global efforts needed to address “frontier risks” posed by advanced AI models. According to the declaration, these include foundational models capable of performing a wide variety of tasks or those exhibiting the potential to cause harm.
• The Declaration has also acknowledged concerns around “unintended issues of control” over generalpurpose AI models that could be opposed to human intent. Calling for international cooperation, the declaration statement calls on countries to balance the need for “pro-innovation and proportionate governance and regulatory approach that maximizes the benefits” with the risks associated with AI.

• Context: The report on the Status of Leopards in India was recently released by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The leopard (IUCN: Vulnerable; CITES Appendix-I; Schedule-I in WPA), scientifically known as Panthera pardus, is the smallest member of the Big Cat family and is highly adaptable to various habitats. It is nocturnal and preys on smaller herbivores like chital and wild boar. Melanism, resulting in black skin and spots, is common but often mistaken for a different species called the black panther. Leopards inhabit a wide range from Africa to Asia, including the Indian subcontinent.

• A ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air for combustion without a rotating compressor. Fuel is injected in the combustion chamber where it mixes with the hot compressed air and ignites. A ramjet-powered vehicle requires an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 (three times the speed of sound) and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6. However, the ramjet efficiency starts to drop when the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• A scramjet is a type of ramjet airbreathing jet engine where combustion occurs in supersonic airflow. A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet. Hence statement 2 is correct.