UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 8 - UPSC MCQ

Statement 2 is incorrect: Basically, ‘factor cost’ is the ‘input cost’ the producer has to incur in the process of producing something (such as cost of capital, i.e., interest on loans, raw materials, labour, rent, power, etc.).

Factors affecting the price of a commodity

• This is also termed as ‘factory price’ or ‘production cost/price’. This is nothing but ‘price’ of the commodity from the producer’s side.
• While the ‘market cost’ is derived after adding the indirect taxes to the factor cost of the product, it means the cost at which the goods reach the market, i.e., showrooms (these are the cenvat/central excise and the CST which are paid by the producers to the central government in India).

The Temples of Central India:

• Ancient temples of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan share many traits. The most visible is that they are made of sandstone.
• The Dashavtara temple at Deogarh (in Lalitpur District, Uttar Pradesh) was built in the early sixth century CE. This makes it a classic example of a late Gupta period type of temple. This temple is in the Panchayatan style of architecture, where the main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four smaller subsidiary shrines at the four corners (making it a total number of five shrines, hence the name, Panchayatan).
• Most of the temples in this region are either east facing or north facing.

The Model Prisons Act 2023 includes several progressive reforms and proposals for the management and administration of prisons in India. Let's analyze the given proposals:

1. Provisions for the grant of parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners
   - This is included under the Model Prisons Act 2023. The act emphasizes the reformative aspects of prison administration, including provisions for parole, furlough, and remission.

2. Vocational training and skill development
   - This is also included. The act promotes vocational training and skill development for prisoners to aid their rehabilitation and reintegration into society.

3. Separate accommodation for individual women and transgender inmates
   - This provision is included under the Model Prisons Act 2023 to ensure the safety, security, and specific needs of women and transgender inmates.

4. Use of technology in prison administration to establish high-security jails
   - This is included as well. The act encourages the use of technology in prison administration, including the establishment of high-security jails to improve the overall security and management of prisons.

All four proposals are included under the Model Prisons Act 2023. Therefore, the correct answer is:

3. All four

• Sandracottus is actually a Greek form of the Sanskrit name Chandragupta. Graeco-Roman sources also speak highly of the trans-Vindhyan military exploits of Sandracottus. Plutarch mentions that Sandracottus over-ran and subdued the whole of ‘India’ with an army of 600,000 men.
• Seleucus I Nicator was one of the generals of Alexander the Great. Despite not receiving his share of the fallen king's empire until several years later, Seleucus I Nicator was one of the more capable of the successors to Alexander's empire. Seleucus and his descendants established what became known as the Seleucid Empire. Greek sources mention a treaty signed between Seleucus Nikator and Chandragupta Maurya.
• Historians estimate the year of Chandragupta’s rise to power in a band stretching from 324 BC to 313 BC; however, it is generally accepted that he ascended the throne in 321 BC. Even accepting the least recent year for his accession would, however, place him after Alexander had left India — and just before the Greek emperor’s death in Babylon. Thus, no treaty would have been possible with him.
• Plutarch was a Greek-Roman philosopher, historian, biographer, essayist, and priest at the Temple of Apollo in Delphi. He was not a ruler or a general.

• Statement 1 is correct: A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower. It is caused by the dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
• Statement 2 is correct: The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colors reach the observer's eye.
• Since it involves the total internal reflection of sunlight, the light is reflected back in the direction it originally came from. Hence you can only see a rainbow if your back is facing the sun.

• Statement 1 is correct: The number of species surviving in the world today is the outcome of two processes viz. speciation and extinction.
• Speciation is the process by which new species are formed and evolution is the mechanism by which speciation is brought about.
• A species comprises of many populations. Often different populations of a species remain isolated due to some geographic barrier such as mountain, ocean, river, etc.
• Geographic isolation occurs when a physical barrier develops between two populations of a species.
• Statement 2 is correct: The most common way a population undergoes speciation is by geographic isolation.

The Montagu Chelmsford Reforms:

• In line with the government policy contained in Montagu‘s statement of August, 1917, the government announced further constitutional reforms in July, 1918, known as the Montagu Chelmsford, or the Mont Ford Reforms. Based on these, the Government of India Act, 1919, was enacted.
• The Act introduced dyarchy for the executive at the level of the provincial government.
• It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for the Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and the Europeans.
• It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature, consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). The majority of members of both the Houses were chosen by direct election.
• It provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission.

Internal Debt comprises loans raised in the open market, compensation and other bonds, etc. It also includes borrowings through treasury bills including treasury bills issued to State Governments, Commercial Banks and other Investors, as well as non-negotiable, non-interest bearing rupee securities issued to International Financial Institutions.

• Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
• Context: The Supreme Court ruled that MPs and MLAs can’t claim immunity for bribery. Article 105(2) and 194(2) protections have been overturned.
  • The case involved Sita Soren (daughter-in-law of JMM chief Shibu Soren) accused of taking bribes for the vote.
• S2: The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President.
• S1 and S3: Originally, the Constitution (Article 105) expressedly mentioned two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings. With regard to other privileges, it provided that they were to be the same as those of the British House of Commons, its committees and its members on the date of its commencement (ie, 26 January, 1950), until defined by Parliament.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 provided that the other privileges of each House of Parliament, its committees and its members are to be those which they had on the date of its commencement (ie, 20 June, 1979), until defined by Parliament. This means that the position with regard to other privileges remains same. In other words, the amendment has made only verbal changes by dropping a direct reference to the British House of Commons, without making any change in the implication of the provision.
• It should be noted here that the Parliament, till now, has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. They are based on five sources, namely, 1. Constitutional provisions, 2. Various laws made by Parliament, 3. Rules of both the Houses, 4. Parliamentary conventions, and 5. Judicial interpretations.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Achaemenid rulers of Iran,who expanded their empire at the same time as Magadhan princes took advantage of the political disunity on the north-west frontier. The Indo-Iranian contact lasted for about 200 years.It gave an impetus to IndoIranian trade and commerce. Iranian coins are found in the North-west frontier region which points to the existence of Indo-Iranian But it is wrong to think that the punch-marked coins came into use in India as a result of contact with Iran.
However,various Mahajanapadas issued punch-marked coins in the sixth century BC.
Puranas, Karshapanas, and Panas, the first Indian punch-marked coins, were produced in the 6th century BC by the numerous Janapadas and Mahajanapadas of the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Iranian scribes brought into India a form of writing which came to be known as the kharosthi script. It was written from right to left like the Arabic.
Some Ashokan inscriptions in north-west India were written in third century B.C. in this script, which continued to be used in the country till 3rd century A.D.
Statement 3 is correct: Iranian influence on Maurya sculpture is clearly perceptible.The monuments of Ashoka's time, especially the bell-shaped capitals, owed to Iranian models. Iranian influence may also be traced in the preamble of Ashoka's edicts as well as in certain terms used in them. For instance, for Iranian term ‘dipi’, the Ashokan scribe used the term ‘lipi’. Inscription of proclamations on pillars was prevalent in the west Achaemenid empire.

The government had taken the adamant position that no constitutional advance could be made till Congress came to an agreement with the Muslim leaders. It issued ordinance after ordinance, taking away the freedom of speech and that of the press, and the right to organize associations. Towards the end of 1940, the Congress once again asked Gandhi to take command. Gandhi now began taking steps that would lead to a mass struggle within his broad strategic perspective. He decided to initiate a limited Satyagraha on an individual basis by a few selected individuals in every locality. The aims of launching individual Satyagraha were –

• To show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness;
• To express people‘s feeling that they were not interested in the War and that they made no distinction between Nazism and the double autocracy that ruled India; and
• To give another opportunity to the government to accept Congress‘ demands peacefully.

The demand of the Satyagrahi would be the freedom of speech, not complete independence, against the war through an anti-war declaration. If the government did not arrest the Satyagrahi, he or she would not only repeat it, but move into villages and start a march towards Delhi, thus precipitating a movement that came to be known as the Delhi Chalo Movement‘.
Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer the Satyagraha and Nehru, the second.

• Luminol is a chemical compound with the molecular formula C₈H₇N₃O₂. It contains carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen atoms.
• Luminol exhibits chemiluminescence, a phenomenon where a chemical reaction produces light. The reaction involves the oxidation of luminol, typically catalyzed by the presence of iron or other catalysts found in blood.
• Hemoglobin, the iron-containing protein in red blood cells, acts as a catalyst for the reaction. When luminol comes into contact with blood, the iron in hemoglobin catalyzes the oxidation of luminol, resulting in the release of energy in the form of light.
• The emitted light is in the blue part of the spectrum and is often faint. However, even small amounts of blood can produce a detectable glow. The chemiluminescent reaction enhances the visibility of bloodstains, especially in low-light or dark conditions.
• Luminol is particularly useful in crime scene investigations where investigators need to identify and locate potential bloodstains that may not be visible under normal lighting. This includes situations where attempts have been made to clean or conceal blood.
• The use of luminol raises ethical considerations related to the potential destruction of evidence. The chemiluminescent reaction involves the oxidation of blood, which could hinder subsequent DNA analysis. Therefore, its application is carefully considered in conjunction with other forensic techniques.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Impeachment of Judges:

• The process for the removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is governed by Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
• Initiation: The process can be initiated in either of the two ways:
• The President may receive a motion from at least 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha regarding the removal of a judge.
• The Chief Justice of India may receive a motion from at least four out of seven judges of the Supreme Court.

Investigation Committee

• Similar to the process for the President, an investigation committee is formed to investigate the charges against the judge.
• The committee comprises three members, including the Chief Justice of India or any other judge of the Supreme Court and two distinguished jurists.

Address to the President

• The investigation committee submits its report to the President, who will then decide whether to proceed with the removal process or not.

Parliamentary Vote

• If the President fi nds the charges against the judge valid, the removal motion is taken up in both Houses of Parliament.
• Similar to the President’s impeachment, the removal motion must be supported by a special majority in each House.

President’s Order

• After the motion is passed in both Houses, the President issues an order removing the judge from offi ce.

Both the statements are correct: Article 1 describes India as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. 

Notes:

Union of India

• This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country; and two, type of polity.
• According to Constitution, ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons:
• One, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and
• Two, the states have no right to secede from the federation.
• The federation is a Union because it is indestructible.
• The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.
• The ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.
• The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre.
• The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government.

The arguments advanced in support of the declining female LFPR are from both the supply and demand side are:

Supply side factors:

• More women in rural areas are now pursuing higher education has delayed their entry into the labour market.
• The household incomes have risen in rural areas on account of higher wage levels which is dragging women out of the labour market.
• Cultural factors, social constraints and patriarchal norms restricting the mobility and freedom of women.
• The relatively higher responsibilities of unpaid work and unpaid care work.

Demand side factors:

• Absence of job opportunities and quality jobs and significant gender wage gap are restraining factors.
• Structural shift away from agricultural employment, and increased mechanisation of agriculture.
• The decline in animal husbandry, and in urban areas a fall in international demand for products of labour-intensive industries

Haryanka Dynasty(544-413 BC): Haryanka is the name of a new dynasty founded in Magadha by Bimbisara after overthrowing the Brihadrathas.
Sisunaga Dynasty(413-345 BC): According to the Buddhist tradition Udayin and his three successors were all unworthy to rule. So the people got disgusted and elected Sisunaga as the king, the minister of the last king, and hence called it the Sisunaga Dynasty.
Nanda Dynasty(345-322 BC): Kalasoka, the son and the successor of Sisunaga, was succeeded by a barber (according to some accounts) named Mahapadma Nanda, who founded a new dynasty known as the Nandas.

Only statement 2 is correct.

• In a warming world, marine creatures are in danger of suffocating. Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolve better at colder temperatures, so that means the warmer the water, the less oxygen is available to breathe.
• Conversely, higher temperatures also cause an increase in metabolism, which in turn means animals have to breathe even more than usual.
• The rise in temperature accelerates metabolism, and the organisms need more food to maintain this metabolic rate.
• Algal blooms are more common in hotter waters too. Such blooms can further deplete oxygen levels and produce toxins harmful for fish, marine mammals and birds, for instance.
• High water temperatures are most harmful for animals living at the bottom of oceans, lakes or rivers. These benthic species include corals, mussels, sponges, starfish and plants like sea grasses, and are often attached to rock or solid ground. They can’t migrate when it gets too hot.

• Recent Context: Tea Board has mandated all tea producers to limit generation of tea waste not exceeding 0.2% of production for quality produce.
  • Presently, tea waste is being used for producing instant tea, bio-fertiliser and caffeine.
  • Board is in process of allowing tea waste being used only for production of instant tea.
• About Tea Board India
  • Nature: Statutory body set up under Tea Act 1953. Hence, statement 1 is correct. o Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Head Office: Kolkata. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • Functions: Financial and technical assistance for cultivation, manufacture and marketing of tea, export promotion etc.

Right to Freedom

• Protection of Right to -
  • Freedom of speech and expression
  • Assemble peacefully
  • Form associations/unions
  • Move freely throughout the territory of India
  • Reside and settle in any part of India
  • Practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
  • Protection in respect of conviction for offences
  • Right to life and personal liberty
  • Right to education
  • Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

Landscape evolution in deserts is primarily concerned with the formation and extension of pediments. Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of mountain front through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.

• Pair 1 is incorrect: Monarchy - United Kingdom, Saudi Arabia, and Japan
• Pair 2 is correct: Socialist government - Sweden, Norway, and Cuba
• Pair 3 is correct: Authoritarian regime - China and North Korea
• Pair 4 is incorrect: Federal government - United States, Germany, and Brazil.

Notes

Types of Government

• Governments come in various forms, each with its own set of characteristics and principles. Here are some common types of government:
• Democracy: In a democracy, the power is vested in the hands of the people. Citizens participate in decisionmaking through voting and electing representatives. Examples include the United States, Canada, and India.
• Monarchy: A monarchy is a government where a single individual, usually a king or queen, holds supreme authority. This authority is typically inherited and passed down through generations. Examples include the United Kingdom, Saudi Arabia, and Japan.
• Dictatorship: In a dictatorship, power is concentrated in the hands of one person or a small group, who exercise absolute control over the government and its policies. Examples include North Korea, Cuba under Fidel Castro, and former Iraq under Saddam Hussein.
• Theocracy: A theocracy is a government where religious leaders hold the highest positions of power, and religious law shapes the policies and governance of the country. Examples include Iran, Vatican City, and Saudi Arabia.
• Oligarchy: An oligarchy is a government controlled by a small group of individuals who possess wealth, social status, or military power. Their infl uence often suppresses the participation of the broader population. Examples include Russia during the rule of the oligarchs in the 1990s and ancient Sparta.
• Socialist government: A socialist government aims to establish social and economic equality by advocating for the collective ownership and control of resources and means of production. Examples include Sweden, Norway, and Cuba.
• Authoritarian regime: An authoritarian regime is characterized by strong central authority and limited political freedoms. The government exercises strict control over society, often suppressing dissent and opposition. Examples include China, North Korea, and Belarus.
• Federal government: In a federal system, power is divided between a central government and various regional or state governments. This system allows for both centralized decision-making and regional autonomy. Examples include the United States, Germany, and Brazil.

To determine which of the statements about the biota of oceans is correct, let's examine each statement in detail.

1. Biota of the pelagic region is less rich in species compared to the littoral zone.
   - The pelagic region refers to the open ocean, away from the shore and above the ocean floor. The littoral zone is the coastal area, extending from the high tide mark to the edge of the continental shelf.
   - The littoral zone typically has higher species richness due to the availability of sunlight, nutrients, and diverse habitats. In contrast, the pelagic region, especially the open ocean, often has fewer species because of the limited availability of nutrients and habitat complexity.
   - Therefore, this statement is generally correct.

2. Dinoflagellates and Kelp forests are part of the biota of the Neritic zone.
   - The Neritic zone refers to the coastal waters over the continental shelf, extending from the low tide mark to the edge of the continental shelf. It is characterized by abundant sunlight and nutrients, making it rich in marine life.
   - Dinoflagellates are a type of plankton found in various marine environments, including the Neritic zone.
   - Kelp forests are large brown algae that grow in underwater "forests" in shallow ocean areas, typically within the Neritic zone.
   - Therefore, this statement is correct.

Since both statements are accurate, the correct answer is:

3. Both 1 and 2

Rotterdam Convention on Prior Informed Consent Procedures (PIC) that entered into force on 24th February, 2004, is a legally binding instrument, which was adopted on 10th September 1998 by a Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Rotterdam. India acceded to the Convention on 24.05.2006.

The Convention seeks to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among State Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm. 

• In nature, many species occupy the same habitat but they perform different functions.
• Statement 1 is correct: The functional characteristics of a species in its habitat are referred to as “niche” in that common habitat. Habitat of a species is like its ‘address’ (i.e. where it lives) whereas niche can be thought of as its “profession” (i.e. activities and responses specific  to the species).
• The term niche means the sum of all the activities and relationships of a species by which it uses the resources in its habitat for its survival and reproduction. 
• A niche is unique for a species while many species share the habitat.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: No two species in a habitat can have the same niche. This is because if two species occupy the same niche they will compete with one another until one is displaced.
• For example, a large number of different species of insects may be pests of the same plant but they can co-exist as they feed on different parts of the same plant.
• Another example is the vegetation of the forest. The forest can support a large number of plant species as they occupy different niches: the tall trees, the short trees, shrubs, bushes and grasses are all part of the forest but because of varying heights they differ in their requirements for sunlight and nutrients and so can survive together.
• The most important resources in the niches of animals are food and shelter while in case of plants, they are moisture and nutrients (phosphorous and nitrogen).

• Recent Context: Biodiversity credits or biocredits are increasingly being pushed as a means for financing work on the various targets set under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) adopted in 2022 at the 15th Conference of Parties (CoP15) of Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Through 2023, efforts were made to promote them at different fora. They were discussed at CoP28 of the UNFCCC in Dubai in December 2023. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• While biocredits are similar to carbon credits used to control greenhouse gas emissions. But they are not designed to offset or compensate for actions with negative impacts on biodiversity. Instead, proceeds from the sale of bio credits are used to protect and restore biodiversity where it exists. Hence statement 1 is not correct

• A nuclear reactor is a complex system designed for the controlled release of nuclear energy. Its basic components include 
  • Fuel Assemblies: The core of a nuclear reactor contains fuel assemblies, which are clusters of fuel rods. The fuel rods typically contain uranium-235 or plutonium-239 isotopes.
  • Control Rods: Control rods are inserted or withdrawn from the reactor core to control the rate of the nuclear reaction. They are typically made of materials that can absorb neutrons, such as boron or cadmium. Adjusting the position of control rods regulates the reactor power. 
  • Coolant: Coolant circulates through the reactor core to transfer heat away from the fuel assemblies. Common coolants include water, heavy water (deuterium oxide), or liquid sodium. The coolant absorbs the heat generated during fission reactions.
  • Steam Generator: In pressurized water reactors (PWRs), the coolant transfers heat to a secondary loop, which generates steam. The steam is then used to turn turbines connected to generators, producing electricity.
  • The turbine converts the kinetic energy of steam into mechanical energy, which is then used to drive a generator. The generator converts this mechanical energy into electrical energy.
• These components work together to maintain a controlled and sustainable nuclear reaction, extract heat from the system, and generate electricity safely and efficiently. The specific design and configuration of nuclear reactors can vary based on the reactor type (e.g., pressurized water reactor, boiling water reactor) and the intended application.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• The Sun temple at Vlodhera dates back to the \arly eleventh century and was built by Raja Bhimdev I of the Solanki dynasty.
• There is a massive rectangular stepped tank, called the Surya Kund, in front of it. Proximity of sacred architecture to a water body, such as a tank, a river or a pond, has been noticed right from the earliest times. By the early eleventh century, they had become a part of many temples. This hundred-square-metre rectangular pond is perhaps the grandest temple tank in India.
• The walls of the central small shrine are devoid of carving and are left plain, as the temple faces the east and, every year, at the time of the equinoxes, the Sun shined directly into this central shrine.

As the War in Europe had undertaken a new turn, the dominant Congress leadership was again in a dilemma. Both Gandhi and Nehru strongly opposed the idea of taking advantage of Britain‘s position. The Congress was ready to compromise, asking the British Government to let it form an interim government during the War period, but the government was not interested. The government came up with its own offer to get the cooperation of India in the War effort. Linlithgow announced the August Offer (August, 1940), which proposed:

• Dominion Status as the objective for India; · Expansion of the Viceroy‘s Executive Council, which would have a majority of Indians (who would be drawn from major political parties);
• Setting up of a Constituent Assembly after the War, where mainly the Indians would decide the Constitution, according to their social, economic and political conceptions, subject to fulfilment of the obligation of the government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties with the States, all India services; and
• No future Constitution to be adopted without the consent of the minorities.

During the War, an interim government, comprising different parties of India would be constituted; it was a proposal of the Cripps Mission.
The Congress rejected the August Offer. Nehru said, ―Dominion Status concept is dead as a doornail.‖ The Muslim League welcomed the veto assurance given to the League, and reiterated its position that partition was the only solution to the deadlock.
For the first time, the inherent right of the Indians to frame their Constitution was recognised and the Congress demand for a Constituent Assembly was conceded. Dominion Status was explicitly offered. In July, 1941, the Viceroy‘s Executive Council was enlarged to give the Indians a majority of 8 out of 12 for the first time, but the British remained in charge of defence, finance and home. Also, a National Defence Council was set up with a purely advisory function.

Option (b) is correct: Unlike perfect competition, monopolistic competition does not assume the lowest possible cost of production. The companies under a monopolistic competition structure sell very similar products with slight differences they use as the basis of their marketing and advertising.

Competitive Behaviour vs. Competitive Structure

• A perfectly competitive market has been defi ned as one where an individual fi rm is unable to infl uence the price at which the product is sold in the market.
• Since price remains the same for any level of output of the individual fi rm, such a fi rm is able to sell any quantity that it wishes to sell at the given market price. It, therefore, does not need to compete with other fi rms to obtain a market for its produce.
• This is clearly opposite of the meaning of what is commonly understood by competition or competitive behaviour. We see that Coke and Pepsi compete with each other in a variety of ways to achieve a higher level of sales or a greater share of the market.
• Conversely, we do not fi nd individual farmers competing among themselves to sell a larger amount of crop. This is because both Coke and Pepsi possess the power to infl uence the market price of soft drinks, while the individual farmer does not.
• Thus, competitive behaviour and competitive market structure are, in general, inversely related; the more competitive the market structure, less competitive is the behaviour of the firms.
• On the other hand, the less competitive the market structure, the more competitive is the behaviour of fi rms.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved a new Central Sector Scheme “PM Vishwakarma” for a period of five years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28). The scheme aims to strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. The scheme also aims at improving the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople and to ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains.
• Under PM Vishwakarma scheme, the artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card, Credit Support upto Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) with a concessional interest rate of 5%.  The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentive, Incentive for Digital Transactions and Marketing Support.
• The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople of rural and urban areas across India. Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma.