CUET PG Psychology Mock Test - 1 - CUET PG MCQ

The correct answer is '(B), (D), (C), (A).'

Key Points

• Simple Random Sampling:
  • Simple random sampling is a method of selecting a sample from a population where each member has an equal probability of being chosen.
  • It is often considered the most straightforward and fair way to sample a population, ensuring that the sample is representative.
  • The process involves several key steps to ensure the randomness and fairness of the selection.
• Steps in Simple Random Sampling:
  • Determine the Size of the Present Population: This is the first step where you identify the total number of units in the population.
  • Identify sampling units in the population: Once the population size is determined, each unit in the population is clearly identified and listed.
  • Decide on the Sample size (n): Determine the number of units to be included in the sample. This sample size is usually determined based on the study's objectives and statistical considerations.
  • Select 'n' cases randomly: The final step is to randomly select the sample units from the population. This can be done using methods such as the fishbowl method or a random number table.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
  • Option 1: The sequence (A), (B), (C), (D) is incorrect because it does not follow the logical order of determining the population size and identifying the sampling units before deciding on the sample size and selecting the sample.
  • Option 3: The sequence (B), (A), (D), (C) is incorrect because selecting the sample (A) should be the last step, not the second.
  • Option 4: The sequence (C), (B), (D), (A) is incorrect because deciding the sample size (C) should come after determining the population size (B) and identifying sampling units (D).

The correct answer is 'Groupthink'

Key Points

• Groupthink:
  • Groupthink is a psychological phenomenon that occurs within a group of people in which the desire for harmony or conformity in the group results in an irrational or dysfunctional decision-making outcome.
  • Members of the group strive for consensus within the group and set aside their own personal beliefs or adopt the opinion of the rest of the group.
  • This tendency is most often seen in highly cohesive groups where there is a strong sense of camaraderie and solidarity, leading members to believe that their group can do no wrong and should reject any information contrary to the group's views.
  • Groupthink can lead to poor decisions and outcomes as critical thinking and individual responsibility are sacrificed for group consensus.

Additional Information

• Evaluation apprehension:
  • Evaluation apprehension refers to the concern individuals have about being evaluated by others. This can hinder performance in group settings due to fear of negative judgment.
  • It is not related to the group's assumption of infallibility or the rejection of contrary information.
• Brainstorming:
  • Brainstorming is a group creativity technique designed to generate a large number of ideas for the solution to a problem.
  • It encourages free thinking and the sharing of ideas, contrasting with the conformity and suppression of dissent seen in groupthink.
• Group Polarization:
  • Group polarization refers to the tendency of a group to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclination of its members.
  • While it involves group dynamics, it is characterized by the enhancement of the group's prevailing attitudes, not necessarily the assumption that the group can do no wrong.

The correct answer is 'Simultaneous conditioning'

Key Points

• Simultaneous conditioning:
  • In simultaneous conditioning, the conditioned stimulus (CS) and the unconditioned stimulus (US) are presented at the same time.
  • This method often leads to a weaker conditioned response compared to other types of conditioning because the association between CS and US is less clear to the subject.
  • Example: If a bell (CS) and food (US) are presented to a dog at the same time, the dog may not form a strong association between the bell and the food.

Additional Information

• Acquisition conditioning:
  • Acquisition refers to the initial stage of learning when a response is first established.
  • It involves repeated pairing of the CS and US until the CS alone elicits the conditioned response (CR).
• Delay conditioning:
  • In delay conditioning, the CS is presented first and remains on until the US is presented.
  • This type of conditioning often results in a stronger association and a more robust conditioned response.
• Backward conditioning:
  • In backward conditioning, the US is presented before the CS.
  • This method is generally less effective, as it can lead to inhibitory conditioning where the CS actually predicts the absence of the US.

The correct answer is 'Non-declarative; Declarative'

Key Points

• Non-declarative memory:
  • This type of memory includes skills and actions that people can perform without conscious awareness, such as riding a bicycle or typing on a keyboard.
  • It is also known as procedural memory because it involves procedures or how-to knowledge.
  • Examples include motor skills, habits, and conditioned responses.
• Declarative memory:
  • This type of memory involves information that people can consciously recall and articulate, such as facts and events.
  • It is divided into two subcategories: episodic memory (personal experiences) and semantic memory (general knowledge).
  • Declarative memory is essential for tasks that require conscious thought and the ability to report specific information.

Additional Information

• Declarative, Non-declarative:
  • This option is incorrect because it reverses the correct order of the terms. Non-declarative memory is about what people can do, whereas declarative memory is about what people know and can report.
• Semantic; Procedural:
  • This option is incorrect because semantic memory is a type of declarative memory that involves knowledge of facts, whereas procedural memory is a type of non-declarative memory involving skills and actions.
• Episodic; Semantic:
  • This option is incorrect because both episodic and semantic memory are types of declarative memory. Episodic memory pertains to personal experiences, while semantic memory pertains to general knowledge.

The correct answer is 'Directing it.'

Key Points

• Attention influences memory:
  • Attention is a cognitive process that enables us to focus on specific stimuli while ignoring others.
  • By directing attention to specific information, we increase the likelihood of encoding that information into memory.
  • This selective focus helps in organizing and processing sensory input, making it easier for the brain to store and retrieve the information later.
  • Effective attention management can significantly improve both short-term and long-term memory.

Additional Information

• Limiting it:
  • Limiting attention is not the primary way it influences memory. While focusing on fewer things can help concentrate better, it is the direction of attention that plays a more crucial role in memory.
• Extinguishing it:
  • Extinguishing attention would mean completely ignoring the stimuli, which would lead to poor memory retention as the information would not be processed or encoded.
• Enhancing it:
  • While enhancing attention can improve memory, it is the act of directing attention to relevant information that has a more direct impact on what gets remembered.

The correct answer is 'Reinforcement'

Key Points

• Reinforcement:
  • B. F. Skinner, a renowned psychologist, proposed that reinforcement is the fundamental mechanism for controlling human behavior.
  • Reinforcement involves the use of consequences to modify the occurrence and form of behavior.
  • Positive reinforcement entails presenting a rewarding stimulus after a behavior, thereby increasing the likelihood of that behavior being repeated.
  • Negative reinforcement involves removing an aversive stimulus following a behavior, which also increases the likelihood of that behavior being repeated.

Additional Information

• Punishment:
  • Punishment is the introduction of an unpleasant stimulus to decrease a behavior, but it is not the primary mechanism for controlling behavior according to Skinner.
  • Although effective in some cases, punishment can have negative side effects, such as fear, anxiety, and aggression, and may not lead to long-term behavior change.
• Generalisation:
  • Generalisation refers to the tendency of a new stimulus to elicit responses similar to those elicited by another stimulus due to their similarities.
  • While important in learning, it is not the central mechanism for behavior control according to Skinner's theory.
• Extinction:
  • Extinction involves the gradual weakening and eventual disappearance of a conditioned response when the reinforcement is no longer presented.
  • It is a process related to behavior change, but it is not the primary mechanism for controlling behavior according to Skinner.

The correct answer is 'Presence of informal communication'

Key Points

• Presence of informal communication:
  • Informal communication often involves casual conversations between employees that are not part of the official communication channels.
  • This type of communication can lead to the spread of rumors as it is less structured and not monitored by management.
  • Informal communication networks, also known as the grapevine, can sometimes distort information as it passes from person to person, leading to rumors.

Additional Information

• Absence of Non-verbal communication:
  • Non-verbal communication, including body language and facial expressions, plays a crucial role in conveying messages effectively.
  • However, the absence of non-verbal cues does not directly lead to the spread of rumors; it may simply lead to misunderstandings or misinterpretations.
• Absence of communication channel:
  • A lack of a formal communication channel can create a void that informal communication may fill, but it is not the primary reason for the existence of rumors.
  • Organizations often have multiple communication channels in place to ensure the flow of information, and the absence of one channel does not necessarily lead to rumors.
• Presence of Information overload in communication:
  • Information overload can lead to confusion and misunderstandings, but it is not a direct cause of rumors.
  • While too much information can overwhelm employees, rumors are more closely associated with informal communication networks where information is less controlled.

The correct answer is '(A). (D), (C), (B)'

Key Points

• Cognitive Behavior Therapy (CBT) by Beck:
  • Developed by Aaron Beck, Cognitive Behavior Therapy (CBT) is a psychotherapeutic treatment that helps patients understand the thoughts and feelings that influence behaviors.
  • Beck proposed that negative thoughts and illogical ideas lead to emotional distress and behavioral problems.
• Trajectory of Illness in CBT:
  • Illogical ideas (A): Patients often have a tendency to overgeneralize setbacks, interpreting them as a pervasive pattern of failure.
  • Negative affect (D): These illogical ideas lead to a negative emotional state, such as sadness or anxiety.
  • Negative behavior (C): The negative affect results in maladaptive behaviors and negative thought patterns.
  • Depression (B): Over time, these negative thoughts and behaviors culminate in clinical depression.

Additional Information

• Explanation of Other Options:
  • Option 1: While this option correctly starts with illogical ideas, it incorrectly places depression at the end, which should be the final stage.
  • Option 3: This sequence starts with depression, which is the outcome rather than the initial stage of the trajectory.
  • Option 4: This option starts with negative behavior, which is a middle stage rather than the initial illogical ideas.

The correct answer is 'A, B, D Only.'

Key Points

• A fully functioning person:
  • A concept from humanistic psychology, particularly associated with Carl Rogers, describing an individual who is living in congruence with their true self.
  • Such individuals are characterized by their openness to experience, which means they are aware of all experiences, both positive and negative (A).
  • They possess the resilience to face difficulties and challenges in life, indicating an ability to deal with problems effectively (B).
  • They can adapt to changing environmental conditions, demonstrating flexibility and responsiveness to new situations (D).

Additional Information

• Inhibited and not free to make choices (C):
  • This characteristic is not aligned with the concept of a fully functioning person. A fully functioning person is expected to be free and autonomous, making choices that are true to their self-concept.
  • Inhibition and lack of freedom in decision-making are contrary to the principles of self-actualization and personal growth emphasized in humanistic psychology.
• Options Overview:
  • The incorrect options include statements that do not fully capture the essence of a fully functioning person as described by Carl Rogers.
  • For example, an option excluding the ability to adapt (D) or including inhibition (C) would not provide a comprehensive understanding of the concept.

The correct answer is 'larger, larger'

Key Points

• Visual Angle and Retinal Image Size:
  • As an object approaches, the angle it subtends at the eye, known as the visual angle, increases. This means the object appears larger to the observer.
  • Simultaneously, the image of the object formed on the retina also becomes larger as the object gets closer.
  • These changes in visual angle and retinal image size are critical for depth perception and are used by the brain to judge the distance of objects.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options Explained:
  • Option 1: larger, smaller: If the visual angle becomes larger, it is not possible for the retinal image to become smaller. Both need to increase simultaneously as the object gets closer.
  • Option 2: smaller, larger: This contradicts the basic principles of optics and perception. A smaller visual angle would imply the object is moving away, not getting closer.
  • Option 3: smaller, smaller: This option is incorrect because both the visual angle and the retinal image size decrease when the object is moving away, not when it is approaching.
• Understanding Visual Perception:
  • Visual perception relies on the brain's ability to interpret changes in visual angle and retinal image size to understand the spatial relationship of objects in the environment.
  • These mechanisms are fundamental for activities such as reaching for objects, navigating through space, and recognizing changes in the environment.

The correct answer is 'Separate Verbal and Performance Scores'

Key Points

• Wechsler Test:
  • The Wechsler tests, developed by David Wechsler, are a series of standardized tests used to measure intelligence and cognitive ability in children and adults.
  • Unlike the Stanford-Binet test, which provides a single Intelligence Quotient (IQ) score, the Wechsler scales provide multiple scores to assess different domains of intelligence.
  • One of the key features of the Wechsler test is that it provides separate verbal and performance (non-verbal) scores, allowing for a more comprehensive analysis of an individual’s cognitive abilities.

Additional Information

• Ratio IQ:
  • Ratio IQ is a concept used in the Stanford-Binet test, which calculates IQ as a ratio of mental age to chronological age, multiplied by 100. This is not a feature of the Wechsler tests.
• A single IQ Score:
  • While some intelligence tests provide a single IQ score, the Wechsler tests offer a more nuanced assessment with separate scores for different cognitive domains, rather than a single overall score.
• Cognitive and Affective Scores:
  • The Wechsler tests do not specifically provide separate cognitive and affective scores. They focus on different cognitive domains, including verbal and performance abilities.

The correct answer is 'Binocular Disparity'

Key Points

• Binocular Disparity:
  • Binocular disparity is a depth cue that arises from the slight difference in images between the two eyes due to their horizontal separation (about 6 cm apart).
  • This difference allows the brain to compute depth information, making it a crucial element for stereopsis, or three-dimensional vision.
  • Because it relies on input from both eyes, it is not available when using only one eye.

Additional Information

• Motion Parallax:
  • Motion parallax is a depth cue that relies on the relative motion of objects as an observer moves.Objects closer to the observer move faster across the visual field than those further away, providing depth information.
  • This cue can be used with one eye, making it a monocular cue.
• Linear Perspective:
  • Linear perspective refers to the phenomenon where parallel lines appear to converge as they recede into the distance.
  • This cue helps to gauge depth and distance and can be perceived with just one eye, making it a monocular cue.
• Texture Gradient:
  • Texture gradient involves the gradual reduction in detail and texture of surfaces as they recede into the distance.
  • It provides important information about depth and distance and can be detected with one eye, thus being a monocular cue.

The correct answer is 'Double blind experiment'

Key Points

• Double blind experiment:
  • A double blind experiment is a type of experimental research where neither the participants nor the experimenters know who is receiving a particular treatment.
  • This method is crucial for eliminating bias, both from the participants and the researchers, ensuring the results are more reliable and valid.
  • It is commonly used in clinical trials and psychological studies to prevent the placebo effect and experimenter bias from influencing the outcomes.

Additional Information

• Diffusion of treatment:
  • This occurs when participants in different experimental conditions influence one another, potentially leading to contamination of the results.
  • It is not related to the double blind method, which is focused on preventing bias.
• Experimenter expectancy:
  • This refers to the experimenter’s expectations influencing the outcome of the study, often unintentionally.
  • While related to bias, this concept is not the same as a double blind experiment, which is a method to prevent such bias.
• Equivalent time series design:
  • This is a quasi-experimental design where multiple pretest and posttest measurements are taken before and after the intervention.
  • It focuses on measuring changes over time rather than preventing bias through the double blind method.

The correct answer is 'Preconventional.'

Key Points

• Preconventional level of moral development:
  • At this stage, a child's sense of morality is externally controlled.
  • Children accept and believe the rules of authority figures, such as parents and teachers.
  • Their actions are motivated primarily by a desire to avoid punishment or gain rewards.
  • This level typically applies to children up to the age of 9.

Additional Information

• Conventional level of moral development:
  • This stage is characterized by an individual's compliance with social norms and the desire to maintain order and relationships.
  • Individuals follow rules and laws because they believe it is necessary for social order.
  • This level is typically observed in adolescents and adults.
• Postconventional level of moral development:
  • At this stage, individuals recognize the variability of societal rules and laws.
  • They follow principles that are in line with their ethical beliefs, often questioning or challenging rules that conflict with these principles.
  • This level is less common and often associated with mature adults.
• Unconventional level of moral development:
  • This is not a recognized stage in the widely accepted theories of moral development, such as those proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg.
  • Moral development theories typically focus on the preconventional, conventional, and postconventional stages.

Raghu's fear of snakes and walking near the river is an example of classical conditioning. Here's why:

• Classical conditioning occurs when a person learns to associate a neutral stimulus with a significant event.
• In this case, the snake bite is the significant event, and the river is the neutral stimulus.
• Raghu now associates the river with the fear of being bitten, demonstrating a learned response.

Therefore, Correct Answer - Option A

The correct answer is 'Temporal summation'

Key Points

• Temporal summation:
  • Temporal summation refers to the process by which multiple sub-threshold excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) from a single presynaptic neuron can accumulate over time to generate a significant postsynaptic potential.
  • This occurs when the successive signals are received at the same synapse in rapid succession, thereby allowing the effects to add up, potentially reaching the threshold to trigger an action potential.
  • It contrasts with spatial summation, where multiple signals are received simultaneously from different synapses.

Additional Information

• Spatial summation:
  • Spatial summation occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons together release enough neurotransmitter to exceed the threshold of the postsynaptic neuron and generate an action potential.
  • It involves simultaneous signals from different locations on the neuron converging to produce a stronger signal.
• Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP):
  • An IPSP is a kind of synaptic potential that makes a postsynaptic neuron less likely to generate an action potential.
  • It results from the flow of negative ions into the postsynaptic cell or positive ions out of the cell, making the inside of the cell more negative.
• Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP):
  • An EPSP is a postsynaptic potential that makes the postsynaptic neuron more likely to fire an action potential.
  • It is caused by the influx of positive ions into the postsynaptic cell, making the inside of the cell more positive.

The correct answer is 'retinal disparity'

Key Points

• Retinal Disparity:
  • Retinal disparity is a binocular cue for perceiving depth. It refers to the slight difference in the images projected on the retinas of each eye due to their horizontal separation.
  • This difference allows the brain to compute distances and perceive the three-dimensional structure of objects.
  • The greater the disparity between the two images, the closer the object is perceived to be.

Additional Information

• Clearness:
  • Clearness is a monocular cue that helps in depth perception by indicating that clearer objects are perceived to be closer than hazy objects.
  • It does not require the use of both eyes to provide depth information.
• Linear Perspective:
  • Linear perspective is another monocular cue where parallel lines appear to converge as they recede into the distance, helping in depth perception.
  • This cue can be observed with just one eye.
• Texture:
  • Texture gradient is a monocular cue where the gradual change in the texture of an object provides clues about its distance.
  • Objects with finer, less detailed textures are perceived as being further away.

The correct answer is '(A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).'.

Key Points

• Theory of Motivation:
  • Drive Theory: Biological needs produce unpleasant states of arousal which people seek to reduce.
  • Arousal Theory: General level of activation varies throughout the day which can motivate many forms of behavior.
  • Expectancy Theory: Behavior is 'pulled' by expectation of desired outcomes.
  • Goal Setting Theory: Setting specific and challenging but attainable aims and objectives.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
  • Option 1: Incorrectly matches Drive Theory with Expectancy Theory's assumption and so on.
  • Option 2: Incorrectly matches Drive Theory with Goal Setting Theory's assumption and so on.
  • Option 4: Incorrectly matches Drive Theory with Goal Setting Theory's assumption and so on.
• Matching Correctly:
  • A. Drive Theory - II. Biological needs produce unpleasant states of arousal which people seek to reduce.
  • B. Arousal Theory - IV. General level of activation varies throughout the day which can motivate many forms of behavior.
  • C. Expectancy Theory - I. Behavior is 'pulled' by expectation of desired outcomes.
  • D. Goal Setting Theory - III. Setting specific and challenging but attainable aims and objectives.

The correct answer is 'Modern era'.

Key Points

• Foundations of knowledge in the Modern era:
  • The Modern era is characterized by a reliance on logic, processes of reason, and the belief in a knowable singular reality.
  • This period emphasized rationality, scientific inquiry, and the idea that truth could be discovered through reason and empirical evidence.
  • The Enlightenment, which occurred during the Modern era, was a key movement that advocated for these principles.

Additional Information

• Super-modernity:
  • Super-modernity refers to a period beyond modernity, characterized by rapid technological advancements and the compression of time and space.
  • This era challenges traditional notions of time, space, and identity, often leading to a sense of disorientation and fragmentation.
• Postmodern era:
  • The Postmodern era is marked by skepticism towards grand narratives and ideologies, and an emphasis on plurality, diversity, and the relativism of truth.
  • It questions the certainty and objectivity promoted during the Modern era, suggesting that knowledge is socially constructed and context-dependent.
• Pre-modern era:
  • The Pre-modern era refers to the time before the Modern era, where knowledge was often based on tradition, religious beliefs, and superstition.
  • During this period, authority and truth were typically derived from religious institutions and longstanding cultural practices.

The correct answer is 'Most people in industrialized societies get more sleep than they feel they need'

Key Points

• Most people in industrialized societies get more sleep than they feel they need:
  • This statement is not true as research indicates that many people in industrialized societies actually suffer from sleep deprivation.
  • Factors such as long working hours, stress, and the use of electronic devices before bedtime contribute to less sleep.
  • Many individuals report feeling tired and not getting enough sleep, contrary to the statement.

Additional Information

• People sleep less soundly at first in unfamiliar places:
  • This is known as the "first-night effect," where individuals experience lighter sleep and more awakenings when sleeping in a new environment.
  • This phenomenon is believed to be a protective mechanism, as the brain remains partially alert to potential threats in an unfamiliar setting.
• Physical exercise in the afternoon results in longer sleep that night:
  • Engaging in physical activity, especially in the afternoon, has been shown to improve sleep quality and duration.
  • Exercise helps to regulate the sleep-wake cycle and can lead to deeper, more restorative sleep.
• There appears not to be an identifiable quota of sleep that adults require:
  • Sleep needs can vary widely among individuals. While the general recommendation is 7-9 hours per night, some people may function well with slightly less or need more.
  • Factors such as age, health, lifestyle, and individual differences play a role in determining the amount of sleep needed.

The correct answer is 'Achievement-oriented leader'

Key Points

• Achievement-oriented leader:
  • An achievement-oriented leader sets challenging goals for their associates and demonstrates confidence that these goals can be achieved.
  • They focus on the high standards of performance and encourage continuous improvement and excellence.
  • This leadership style is motivational as it pushes team members to reach their full potential and often results in higher performance and achievement.

Additional Information

• Supportive leader:
  • A supportive leader shows concern for the well-being and needs of their associates.
  • They create a friendly and supportive work environment, which helps to reduce stress and improve job satisfaction.
• Participative leader:
  • A participative leader involves associates in decision-making processes.
  • They value the input and suggestions from their team, fostering a sense of ownership and collaboration.
• Directive leader:
  • A directive leader provides clear guidelines, instructions, and expectations to their associates.
  • They ensure that tasks are well-defined and that team members know exactly what is expected of them.

The correct answer is 'Blank slate'; 'An Essay Concerning Human Understanding' (1690)

Key Points

• John Locke's 'Tabula Rasa':
  • John Locke, a prominent Enlightenment thinker, introduced the concept of 'tabula rasa' in his work 'An Essay Concerning Human Understanding' published in 1690.
  • 'Tabula rasa' is a Latin term that translates to 'blank slate'.
  • According to this concept, individuals are born without built-in mental content, and all knowledge comes from experience or perception.
  • Locke argued that the mind at birth is a blank slate, and it is shaped by experiences and sensory inputs.

Additional Information

• Other Options Explained:
  • Innate ideas; 'Two Treatises of Government' (1689):
    • This is incorrect because 'Two Treatises of Government' focuses on political philosophy and does not discuss 'tabula rasa'. Instead, it addresses natural rights and the social contract.
  • Natural rights; 'Some Thoughts Concerning Education' (1693):
    • This is incorrect because 'Some Thoughts Concerning Education' discusses educational theory and does not introduce 'tabula rasa'.
  • Social contract; 'A Letter Concerning Toleration' (1689):
    • This is incorrect because 'A Letter Concerning Toleration' focuses on religious tolerance and does not introduce 'tabula rasa'.

The correct answer is 'Short Term Memory'

Key Points

• Short Term Memory:
  • Short Term Memory (STM) is a temporary storage system that holds a limited amount of information for a short period, typically around 15-30 seconds.
  • If you remember an address for a few minutes but then forget it, it's likely that the information was stored in your short term memory.
  • STM is crucial for day-to-day activities and allows you to hold small amounts of information like phone numbers, addresses, or instructions temporarily.

Additional Information

• Procedural Memory:
  • Procedural Memory is a type of long-term memory responsible for knowing how to perform tasks, such as riding a bicycle or typing on a keyboard.
  • This memory type is not related to recalling specific information like an address.
• Long Term Memory:
  • Long Term Memory (LTM) stores information indefinitely and has a much larger capacity compared to short term memory.
  • If the address had been stored in LTM, you would likely remember it well beyond a few minutes.
• Schema:
  • A schema is a cognitive framework or concept that helps organize and interpret information.
  • Schemas are used for understanding complex ideas and experiences, but they do not specifically pertain to temporary information storage like an address.

Eidetic imagery refers to the ability to briefly retain a vivid and detailed mental image of something seen for a very short period of time, often described as a "split-second" memory. This type of memory is more commonly observed in children and tends to fade as people age. It is sometimes referred to as being similar to a "mental photograph," though it is not exactly the same as photographic memory, which is a different and much rarer phenomenon.

Here’s a brief explanation of the other options:

• B: A double take refers to the act of quickly looking again at something because it was surprising or unexpected, but it is not related to memory.
• C: Short-term memory refers to the system that holds information in an active, readily available state for a short period (seconds to minutes), but it does not describe the split-second retention of visual details.
• D: Photographic imagery is often used colloquially to describe the idea of remembering something in extreme detail, but it is not a scientifically recognized term for brief visual memory.

Thus, the best answer is A: Eidetic imagery.

The correct answer is A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

Key Points

• Erikson's Developmental Task:
  • Erik Erikson, a developmental psychologist, proposed a theory of psychosocial development that outlines eight stages that a healthy developing individual should pass through from infancy to late adulthood.
  • Each stage presents a crisis that must be resolved for healthy psychological development to occur.
• Matching Developmental Stages:
  • Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (A):
    • This stage occurs in the toddler years (ages 1-3). It focuses on developing a sense of personal control over physical skills and a sense of independence.
    • Correct match: Toddler (II).
  • Initiative vs. Guilt (B):
    • This stage occurs during early childhood (ages 3-5). It involves asserting control and power over the environment through directing play and other social interactions.
    • Correct match: Early Childhood (III).
  • Generativity vs. Stagnation (C):
    • This stage occurs during middle adulthood (ages 40-65). It involves creating or nurturing things that will outlast an individual, often by parenting children or contributing to positive changes that benefit other people.
    • Correct match: Middle Adulthood (IV).
  • Ego Integrity vs. Despair (D):
    • This stage occurs during late adulthood (ages 65 and older). It involves reflecting on one’s life and either seeing it as a well-lived life or a series of missed opportunities.
    • Correct match: Late Adulthood (I).

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
  • Option 1: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    • This option incorrectly matches the developmental stages and tasks according to Erikson's theory.
  • Option 3: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    • This option incorrectly matches the developmental stages and tasks according to Erikson's theory.
  • Option 4: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    • This option incorrectly matches the developmental stages and tasks according to Erikson's theory.

The correct answer is 'Permissive'

Key Points

• Permissive Parenting Style:
  • Permissive parents tend to be very lenient and may only step in when there is a serious problem. They are quite forgiving and often adopt an attitude of "kids will be kids."
  • They have minimal rules or standards of behavior and often avoid confrontation. They tend to take on more of a friend role than a parental role.
  • Children raised by permissive parents tend to struggle with self-discipline and may exhibit more behavioral problems because they do not understand limits.

Additional Information

• Authoritarian Parenting Style:
  • Authoritarian parents believe in a strict discipline style with little negotiation and a high expectation of obedience.
  • They provide structured environments with clear rules and expectations, often enforcing them with punishment rather than discipline.
  • Children raised by authoritarian parents may have less social competence as parental demands are often enforced without explanation.
• Authoritative Parenting Style:
  • Authoritative parents set clear expectations and have high standards, but they are also responsive and nurturing.
  • They enforce rules but also explain the reasons behind them and are open to discussion, thus encouraging independence and self-regulation.
  • Children raised by authoritative parents often become independent, self-reliant, and socially accepted.
• Disciplinarian Parenting Style:
  • Also known as authoritarian, this style is characterized by high demands but low responsiveness.
  • Parents who use this style expect their orders to be obeyed without question and may use punishment as a means to enforce rules.
  • It differs slightly from the authoritarian approach as disciplinarians may use stricter control and are less likely to be nurturing.

The correct answer is 'Prolactin'

Key Points

• Prolactin:
  • Prolactin is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland.
  • It plays a significant role in lactation (milk production) after childbirth.
  • Prolactin is not involved in neurotransmission and hence is not considered a neurotransmitter.
• Acetylcholine:
  • Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter involved in many functions including muscle activation and memory.
  • It is crucial for the functioning of both the central and peripheral nervous systems.
• Serotonin:
  • Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that contributes to feelings of well-being and happiness.
  • It regulates mood, appetite, and sleep.
• Dopamine:
  • Dopamine is a neurotransmitter associated with pleasure, reward, and motivation.
  • It plays a role in motor control and several other important functions of the brain.

Additional Information

• Neurotransmitters:
  • Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmit signals across synapses from one neuron to another.
  • They play a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system and in regulating various physiological processes.
• Role of Neurotransmitters:
  • Neurotransmitters are essential for communication between neurons, influencing mood, arousal, and many other functions.
  • They can be excitatory, inhibitory, or modulatory in nature, affecting the target cells in different ways.

The correct answer is 'Anterograde Amnesia'

Key Points

• Anterograde Amnesia:
  • Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories after the onset of the condition.
  • Individuals with anterograde amnesia can remember events from the past but struggle to incorporate new information into their long-term memory.
  • This condition is often associated with damage to the hippocampus or related brain structures involved in memory formation.

Additional Information

• Retrograde Amnesia:
  • Retrograde amnesia is the inability to recall memories from before the onset of amnesia.
  • It typically affects memories formed shortly before the event that caused the amnesia, such as a traumatic injury.
  • This condition is not the correct answer as it involves difficulty recalling past events, not current events.
• Proactive Interference:
  • Proactive interference occurs when older memories interfere with the acquisition of new information.
  • This is a common phenomenon in learning and memory but does not describe an inability to form new memories.
• Retroactive Interference:
  • Retroactive interference happens when newly acquired information interferes with the recall of older information.
  • Again, this is related to the interaction between old and new memories rather than a failure to form new memories entirely.

The correct answer is 'High intimacy, low passion, high commitment'

Key Points

• Sternberg Theory of Love:
  • Robert Sternberg proposed the Triangular Theory of Love, which conceptualizes love as a triangle consisting of three components: intimacy, passion, and commitment.
  • Different combinations of these three components result in different types of love.
• Companionate Love:
  • Companionate love is characterized by high intimacy and high commitment but low passion.
  • This type of love is often seen in long-term relationships where partners share a deep bond and commitment but do not experience intense passion.

Additional Information

• Low intimacy, low passion, low commitment:
  • This option describes 'Non-Love', where none of the three components are present. It is a casual interaction with no emotional bond.
• Low intimacy, high passion, low commitment:
  • This option describes 'Infatuation', where passion is high, but there is no intimacy or commitment. It is often seen in the early stages of a romantic attraction.
• High intimacy, high passion, high commitment:
  • This option describes 'Consummate Love', which is considered the ideal form of love where all three components are present in balance.

The correct answer is 'Pia-mater'

Key Points

• Pia-mater:
  • The pia mater is the innermost layer of the meninges, the protective membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord.
  • It is a delicate, thin, and highly vascularized membrane that closely adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
  • The pia mater follows the contours of the brain, dipping into its sulci and fissures.
  • Its primary function is to protect the central nervous system by containing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and serving as a barrier against external injuries.

Additional Information

• Dura mater:
  • The dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges and is the toughest and most durable membrane.
  • It consists of two layers: the periosteal layer, which is attached to the inner surface of the skull, and the meningeal layer, which lies beneath the periosteal layer.
  • The dura mater provides a protective covering for the brain and spinal cord and helps to keep the cerebrospinal fluid contained within the central nervous system.
• Arachnoid layer:
  • The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges, situated between the dura mater and the pia mater.
  • It is a web-like, avascular membrane that provides a cushioning effect for the central nervous system.
  • The subarachnoid space, which lies beneath the arachnoid mater, is filled with cerebrospinal fluid, which acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.
• Choroid plexuses:
  • The choroid plexuses are networks of cells located within the ventricles of the brain that produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
  • They are not part of the meninges but play a crucial role in maintaining the environment of the central nervous system by producing and regulating CSF.
  • CSF produced by the choroid plexuses circulates through the ventricles and the subarachnoid space, providing cushioning and nutrient support to the brain and spinal cord.